8) Chapters 14, 15, &12 – Flashcards
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14-1. How many phenotypes of Cannabis sativa are there? A. one. B. two. C. three. D. four. E. more than four.
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B. two.
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14-2. Which of the following contribute(s) to the effect of Cannabis? A. delta-9-THC. B. delta-8-THC. C. cannabinol. D. cannabidiol. E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
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14-3. Which of the following contribute(s) to the analgesia, hypothermia, and catalepsy seen in mice following administration of marijuana smoke? A. delta-9-THC. B. delta-8-THC. C. cannabinol. D. cannabidiol. E. all of the above.
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A. delta-9-THC.
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14-4. Which of the following cannabis preparations is made by boiling cannabis in alcohol or a solvent? A. marijuana. B. hashish. C. charas. D. hash oil. E. bhang.
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D. hash oil.
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14-5. Which of the following has the highest concentration of active ingredients? A. hash oil. B. marijuana. C. ganja. D. hashish. E. bhang.
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A. hash oil.
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14-6. Data from the Domestic Cannabis cultivation indicate that the average THC content of marijuana in 2008 was A. under 1.5 percent. B. about 3.5 percent. C. over 5.0 percent. D. over 7.0 percent. E. over 10 percent.
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E. over 10 percent.
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14-7. The THC content in crossbred and hydroponically grown marijuana such as sinsemilla can be as high as A. 1.5 percent. B. 3.5 percent. C. 5.0 percent. D. 10.0 percent. E. 30 percent.
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E. 30 percent.
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14-8. Sativex is a drug containing natural cannabinoids and used medically to treat A. nausea associated with chemotherapy. B. neuropathic pain associated with multiple sclerosis. C. pressure in the eye associated with glaucoma. D. withdrawal symptoms associated with abstinence from marijuana. E. all of the above.
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B. neuropathic pain associated with multiple sclerosis.
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14-9. Who was the 19th century French physician who suggested that cannabis might be useful in the treatment of mental illness? A. Theophile Gautier. B. J.J. Moreau de Tours. C. Rabalais. D. W.B. O'Shaughnessy. E. Ducas-Carota.
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B. J.J. Moreau de Tours.
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14-10. After smoking marijuana, traces of THC may remain in the body for as long as A. three to four minutes. B. three to four hours. C. 30 days. D. three to four days. E. two to three weeks.
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C. 30 days.
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14-11. THC alters neural functioning by A. altering the properties of the membrane in the manner of general anesthetics and alcohol. B. blocking sodium ion channels. C. working at a receptor site. D. interfering with the synthesis of a neurotransmitter. E. enhancing the activity of endogenous opiates.
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C. working at a receptor site.
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14-12. Discovery of the first THC receptor to be identified can be credited to A. Albert Hoffman. B. Timothy Leary and Richard Alpert. C. Leo Sternbeck. D. Linda Matsuda and Miles Herkinham. E. Harriet deWit and Gordon Alles.
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C. Linda Matsuda and Miles Herkinham
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14-13. Cannabinoid receptors are located in A. the spleen. B. the hypothalamus. C. brainstem. D. spinal cord. E. all the above.
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E. all the above.
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14-14. Anandamide is A. a name given to an endogenous cannabinoid. B. a name given to an endogenous opioid receptor. C. a name given to an endogenous sigma receptor. D. a name given to an endogenous benzodiazepine receptor. E. none of the above. Anandamide is a synthetic cannabinoid.
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A. a name given to an endogenous cannabinoid.
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14-15. THC is sometimes used medically A. to treat glaucoma. B. to treat nausea and vomiting. C. to treat spasticity. D. to treat arthritis. E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
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14-16. Which of the following is not a direct effect of THC on the body? A. dilation of the pupils. B. bloodshot eyes. C. drooping eyelids. D. dry mouth. E. increase in heart rate.
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A. dilation of the pupils
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14-17. Which of the following best characterizes the effect of high doses of marijuana on sleep? A. it increases REM sleep and dreaming. B. it induces sleep and increases sleep time. C. it causes restlessness and insomnia. D. THC withdrawal causes frequent awakenings and nightmares. E. there is a depression in the amplitude of delta waves.
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C. it causes restlessness and insomnia
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14-18. Which aspect of the environment influences most the subjective effect of marijuana? A. psychedelic lighting. B. the mood of others present. C. rock music. D. watching television. E. carrying on a conversation.
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B. the mood of others present.
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14-19. "Temporal disintegration" caused by THC refers to A. a loss in the ability to retain and coordinate information for a purpose. B. the feeling that time is going by too quickly. C. perceptions which tend to break up. D. vision that seems jumpy as though things were being seen in a stroboscopic light. E. none of the above. Temporal disintegration is seen only after taking a more potent hallucinogen like LSD.
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A. a loss in the ability to retain and coordinate information for a purpose.
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14-20. Attempts at using the Standardized Field Sobriety Test as a roadside screening tool to assess for marijuana intoxication have revealed that A. varying levels of marijuana intoxication are undetectable using this test. B. a large proportion of drug-free participants were classified as intoxicated. C. 100% of participants who had smoked marijuana were classified as intoxicated. D. only participants who had smoked low-dose THC were classified as intoxicated. E. the test was useful in distinguishing marijuana users from drug-free participants.
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E. the test was useful in distinguishing marijuana users from drug-free participants.
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14-21. Rats trained to discriminate THC from saline will generalize the THC response to which of the following? A. LSD. B. PCP. C. amphetamine. D. mescaline. E. none of the above.
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E. none of the above.
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14-22. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of THC withdrawal in humans? A. cravings. B. appetite change. C. thoughts of cannabis. D. cramps. E. None of the above. There are is no withdrawal from THC.
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D. cramps
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14-23. Marijuana smoking in North America has been different from consumption patterns in countries where the drug has been used for a longer time. The difference(s) is (are) A. North Americans consume less per day on the average. B. there are a smaller percentage of daily users in North America. C. in North America, most users eventually decrease their use and stop. D. none of the above. E. all of A., B., and C.
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E. all of A., B., and C.
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14-24. A "freak-out" A. occurs only when taking high doses of cannabis. B. is a term used to describe "rave" parties. C. is a panic that arises from hallucinations and perceptual distortions. D. is a form of memory loss associated with cannabis use. E. both A. and C.
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C. is a panic that arises from hallucinations and perceptual distortions.
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14-25. The "gateway" theory suggests that A. marijuana causes an unsteady gait in heavy users. B. marijuana causes people to pursue a life of crime and violence. C. marijuana leads to the use of other more powerful drugs. D. marijuana causes a lack in achievement motivation. E. none of the above. The stepping stone theory applies to benzodiazepines.
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C. marijuana leads to the use of other more powerful drugs.
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14-26. Studies examining the relationship between cannabis use and the onset of schizophrenia have shown that A. heavy cannabis use causes schizophrenia. B. heavy cannabis use speeds or precipitates the onset of schizophrenic symptoms in all drug users. C. heavy cannabis use speeds or precipitates the onset of schizophrenic symptoms only in people who would have developed the disease anyway. D. the proportion of a population experiencing schizophrenic symptoms is directly related to trends in cannabis use in that population. E. there is no relationship between cannabis use and experiencing schizophrenic
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C. heavy cannabis use speeds or precipitates the onset of schizophrenic symptoms only in people who would have developed the disease anyway.
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14-27. Marijuana smoke contains A. 50% to 70% less carcinogenic material than tobacco smoke. B. 20% less carcinogenic material than tobacco smoke. C. the same amount of carcinogenic material than tobacco smoke. D. 20% more carcinogenic material than tobacco smoke. E. 50 to 70% more carcinogenic material than tobacco smoke.
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E. 50 to 70% more carcinogenic material than tobacco smoke.
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14-28. Common factor model suggests that A. Gateway theory about cannabis is true. B. Cannabis has a direct relationship with hard-drug use. C. Gateway theory about cannabis is somewhat true. D. Individuals degree of drug exposure correlates with hard-drug use, not cannabis use alone. E. Individuals degree of drug exposure does not correlate with hard-drug use, but cannabis use alone.
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D. Individuals degree of drug exposure correlates with hard-drug use, not cannabis use alone.
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14-29. Research about cannabis and permanent intellectual impairment seems to suggest that A. cannabis in low doses causes brain damage. B. cannabis does not cause brain damage at all. C. cannabis in high doses causes brain damage. D. long-term cannabis use might cause mild impairments in cognitions, and especially if the use is stopped early these effects disappear. E. long-term cannabis does not cause impairments in cognitions.
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D. long-term cannabis use might cause mild impairments in cognitions, and especially if the use is stopped early these effects disappear.
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14-30. The relationship between cannabis and cancer prevalence is A. very clear, cannabis is known to cause cancer. B. somewhat confusing, as some studies suggest correlation, and others not. C. not studied in detail. D. very clear, cannabis does not cause cancer. E. very clear, cannabis damages DNA and creates mutations frequently.
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B. somewhat confusing, as some studies suggest correlation, and others not.
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15-1. The term "psychedelic" means A. mind manifesting. B. psychosis mimicking. C. causes hallucinations. D. causes distorted sensations. E. provider of cosmic insight.
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A. mind manifesting.
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15-2. A disease known as "St. Anthony's Fire" was a result of consuming A. hashish. B. phencyclidine. C. ergot-infected grain. D. Amanita muscaria. E. ibogamine.
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C. ergot-infected grain
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15-3. Who discovered and first experienced LSD? A. Timothy Leary. B. Dr. Richard Alpert. C. R. Gordon Wasson. D. Albert Hoffman. E. Dr. V.L. Stromberg.
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D. Albert Hoffman.
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15-4. Which of the following was (were) directly or indirectly responsible for the popularization of LSD in the 1960s? A. Timothy Leary. B. Humphry Osmond. C. Sigmund Freud. D. the discovery that the psilocybe mushroom would grow uncultivated in most parts of the United States. E. both A. and C.
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A. Timothy Leary.
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15-5. What was the first hallucinogen used by Timothy Leary? A. LSD. B. psilocybin. C. amanita muscaria. D. mescaline. E. datura.
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B. psilocybin
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15-6. The subjective effect of LSD is most similar to which of the following drugs? A. alcohol. B. cocaine. C. heroin. D. marijuana. E. barbiturates.
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D. marijuana.
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15-7. A "hit" of LSD sold on the street typically contains how much of the drug? A. 0 to 300 micrograms. B. 300 to 600 micrograms. C. 600 to 900 micrograms. D. 300 to 600 milligrams. E. 0 to 300 milligrams.
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A. 0 to 300 micrograms.
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15-8. The half-life of LSD in humans is approximately A. 20 minutes. B. 45 minutes. C. 60 minutes. D. 75 minutes. E. 110 minutes.
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D. 110 minutes.
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15-9. In the CNS, LSD appears to be a selective agonist for which of the following receptors? A. dopamine D3 receptors. B. norepinephrine α1 receptors. C. acetylcholine nicotinic receptors. D. serotonin 5-HT2A receptors. E. glutamate NMDA receptors.
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D. serotonin 5-HT2A receptors.
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15-10. Which of the following brain regions appear to be involved in the subjective effects of LSD and similar monoamine-like drugs? A. ventral tegmental area and amygdala. B. nucleus accumbens and hippocampus. C. locus coeruleus and cortex. D. cerebellum and basal ganglia. E. all of the above.
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C. locus coeruleus and cortex.
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15-11. Which of the following is NOT a geometric pattern normally reported during mescaline- induced hallucinations? A. grating or lattice. B. tunnel, funnel, or cone. C. cobweb. D. spiral. E. rectangle.
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E. rectangle.
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15-12. Morning glory seeds contain which of the following? A. LSD. B. lysergic acid amide. C. psilocin. D. ibotenic acid. E. muscarine.
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B. lysergic acid amide.
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15-13. Which of the following is an ingredient in magic mushrooms? A. LSD. B. mescaline. C. harmine. D. psilocybin. E. lysergic acid amide.
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D. psilocybin.
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15-14. Which of the following may occur naturally in animal tissues such as the backs of some toads? A. DMT. B. ergot alkaloids. C. bufotenine. D. ibogamine. E. psilocybin.
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C. bufotenine.
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15-15. The active ingredient in peyote is A. mescaline. B. lysergic acid amide. C. harmine. D. scopolamine. E. DMT.
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A. mescaline.
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15-16. What is the potency of mescaline compared to that of LSD? A. 200 times less potent. B. 2000 times less potent. C. it has the same potency. D. 200 times more potent. E. 2000 times more potent.
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B. 2000 times less potent.
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15-17. Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine are called dissociative anesthetics because A. they cause a trance-like state that seems to separate people from sensory experience. B. they cause hallucinations. C. they work as analgesics and anesthetics. D. PCP and ketamine have opposite effects. E. none of the above.
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A. they cause a trance-like state that seems to separate people from sensory experience.
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15-18. Which of the following is similar to PCP? A. mescaline. B. ketamine. C. THC. D. psilocybin. E. scopolamine.
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B. ketamine.
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15-19. The conclusion of the research by Ronald Siegel on hallucinations was that A. hallucinations are unique to each individual. B. different types of hallucinogens cause different types of hallucinations. C. culture determines the form and the content of hallucinations. D. hallucinations all have a strong emotional and religious content. E. the nature of hallucinations is determined by the structure of the visual system and the brain, not by the drug.
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E. the nature of hallucinations is determined by the structure of the visual system and the brain, not by the drug.
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15-20. The use of LSD A. improves the acuity of both vision and hearing. B. causes participants to be more attentive to the tasks being performed. C. increases motivation. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
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E. none of the above.
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15-21. Which of the following describes the pattern of responding during LSD self- administration in nonhumans? A. regular, evenly spaced responding. B. high rates of responding followed by irregularly spaced gaps of abstinence. C. high rates of responding followed by periods of abstinence on a regular cycle. D. high rates of responding followed by periods of abstinence during which withdrawal seizures are observed. E. none of the above. LSD is not self-administered.
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E. none of the above. LSD is not self-administered.
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15-22. Tolerance to LSD usually disappears A. within a day. B. within a week. C. within a month. D. within six months. E. within a year.
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B. within a week.
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15-23. Withdrawal symptoms of LSD and other monoamine-like hallucinogens and phantasticants A. include vocalizations, grinding of the teeth, and constipation. B. include depression, sleepiness, and tremors. C. are not found in humans. D. include respiratory depression, convulsions and coma. E. can result in death if not treated
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C. are not found in humans.
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15-24. The sensation of objects appearing to move in a jerky, discontinuous fashion as though illuminated by a stroboscopic light is called A. a flashback. B. a hypnotic experience. C. a psychedelic experience. D. trailing phenomenon. E. a psychotomimetic experience.
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D. trailing phenomenon.
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15-25. For most people who use LSD, drug taking A. begins in young adulthood and becomes more frequent as the individual gets older. B. is frequent, often occurring daily, for months at a time. C. has shown a steady decrease in prevalence from 1990 to 2009. D. is motivated by fear and avoidance of the symptoms of LSD withdrawal. E. does not decrease with time.
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C. has shown a steady decrease in prevalence from 1990 to 2009.
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15-26. The commonly-used name for 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine is A. methamphetamine. B. crack cocaine. C. Ritalin. D. heroin. E. ecstasy
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E. ecstasy.
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15-27. For the most part, designer drugs like ecstasy are A. more potent and more toxic than mescaline. B. more likely to cause unpleasant side effects. C. are not screened for adverse effects before they are distributed. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
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D. all of the above.
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15-28. Which of the following is NOT a subjective effect of ecstasy? A. paranoia. B. sharpened sensory experience. C. increase in wakefulness. D. increased endurance. E. all of the above are subjective effects of ecstasy.
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A. paranoia.
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15-29. Which of the following is NOT a physiological effect of ecstasy? A. bruxism. B. increased muscular tension. C. increased body temperature. D. pupil dilation. E. all of the above are physiological effects of ecstasy.
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E. all of the above are physiological effects of ecstasy.
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15-30. Increased activity of which of the following neurotransmitter systems is important for the subjective effects of mescaline and mescaline-like drugs? A. serotonin. B. dopamine. C. norepinephrine. D. acetylcholine. E. glutamate.
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A. serotonin.
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15-31. Chronic use of ecstasy results in A. a depletion in brain serotonin. B. an increased amount of brain serotonin. C. a permanent depletion in brain dopamine. D. a temporary depletion in brain dopamine. E. a permanent increase in brain serotonin and dopamine activity.
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A. a depletion in brain serotonin.
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15-32. Which of the following symptoms of chronic ecstasy use may persist despite years of abstinence from the drug? A. memory impairment. B. disturbances in body temperature regulation. C. decreased attentiveness. D. anxiety and hostility. E. all of the above symptoms may persist for many years following ecstasy abstinence.
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D. anxiety and hostility.
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15-33. What is the therapeutic index of ecstasy? A. 5. B. 10. C. 15. D. 20. E. 25.
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C. 15.
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15-34. Salvinorin A is suggested to bind to A. D2 receptor B. κ-opioid receptor C. 5-HT2A receptor D. Ach receptor E. NE receptor
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B. κ-opioid receptor
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15-35. The subjective effects of Salvia are A. different from LSD and last longer than 2 hours. B. similar to amphetamine and last longer than 2 hours. C. similar to LSD and last less than 30 minutes. D. similar to amphetamine and last less than 30 minutes. E. None of the above.
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C. similar to LSD and last less than 30 minutes.
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15-36. A normal dose of ketamine contains 75 to 125 mg and is referred to as a A. bump. B. gel tab. C. window pane. D. microdot. E. dip.
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A. bump
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15-37. The reinforcing effects of the dissociative anesthetics, such as PCP and ketamine, are likely due to the ability of these drugs to A. increase dopamine transmission. B. block dopamine D1 receptors. C. increase glutamate transmission. D. block glutamate NMDA receptors. E. increase serotonin transmission.
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D. block glutamate NMDA receptors.
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15-38. Nonhumans trained to discriminate PCP and ketamine generalize this response to which of the following drugs? A. alcohol. B. barbiturates. C. opioids. D. stimulants. E. none of the above. Dissociate anesthetics appear to have unique stimulus properties.
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E. none of the above. Dissociate anesthetics appear to have unique stimulus properties.
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15-39. In nonhumans, withdrawal from PCP is marked by A. grinding of the teeth. B. difficulty staying awake. C. anxiety. D. all of the above. E. none of the above. PCP withdrawal does not occur.
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D. all of the above.
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15-40. Patterns of PCP use are most similar to which of the following drugs? A. alcohol. B. cannabis. C. caffeine. D. methamphetamine. E. LSD.
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E. LSD.
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15-41. In 2004, what percentage of high school students in the United States reported having used PCP within the past 30 days? A. less than 1 percent. B. 5 percent. C. 7 percent. D. 10 percent. E. 15 percent.
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A. less than 1 percent.
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15-42. Which of the following statements is true? A. PCP causes people to commit uncontrolled, violent acts. B. PCP reduces violence and aggression in humans. C. PCP causes laboratory animals to act aggressively. D. PCP exerts a taming effect on normally-aggressive laboratory animals. E. PCP has no effect on aggression in humans or in laboratory animals.
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D. PCP exerts a taming effect on normally-aggressive laboratory animals.
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15-43. The lethal effects of PCP and ketamine A. are increased in long-term users. B. are decreased in long-term users. C. are potentiated by the presence of alcohol in the body. D. are decreased by the presence of alcohol in the body. E. are non-existent. PCP and ketamine are never lethal.
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C. are potentiated by the presence of alcohol in the body.
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15-44. The cough medicine Robitussin contains which of the following opiate-like drugs? A. codeine. B. dextromethorphan. C. diacetylmorphine. D. pethidine. E. pentazocine.
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B. dextromethorphan.
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15-45. Dextromethorphan binds with which of the following receptors? A. mu opiate receptors. B. delta opiate receptors. C. dopamine D1-like receptors. D. glutamate NMDA receptors. E. serotonin 5-HT2 receptors
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D. glutamate NMDA receptors.
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15-46. Which of the following best describes the effects of dextromethorphan and dextrophan on locomotor activity of laboratory animals? A. dextromethorphan and dextrophan cause similar increases in locomotor activity. B. dextromethorphan and dextrophan cause similar decreases in locomotor activity. C. dextromethorphan causes a decrease in locomotor activity whereas dextrophan causes an increase in locomotor activity. D. dextromethorphan causes an increase in locomotor activity whereas dextrophan causes a decrease in locomotor activity. E. dextromethorphan and dextrophan have no effect on locomotor activity.
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C. dextromethorphan causes a decrease in locomotor activity whereas dextrophan causes an increase in locomotor activity.
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15-47. GHB occurs naturally in the body as a metabolite of A. glutamate. B. GABA. C. glycine. D. aspartate. E. acetylcholine.
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B. GABA.
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15-48. At high levels, GHB binds to which of the following receptors? A. GABA receptors. B. GHB receptors. C. glutamate receptors. D. both A. and B. E. both B. and C.
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D. both A. and B.
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15-49. Testing in nonhumans suggests that GHB is different from other dissociative anesthetics in which of the following ways? A. it causes more of a cataleptic state than an analgesic state. B. it produces seizure-like brain activity. C. at high doses, it produces physical signs of seizure such as body jerks. D. all of the above. E. none of the above. The effects of GHB are similar to those of other dissociative anesthetics.
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D. all of the above.
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15-50. GHB has been used medically as a treatment for which of the following conditions? A. epilepsy. B. Parkinson's disease. C. sexual impotence. D. depression. E. narcolepsy
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E. narcolepsy.
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12-1. Which of the following is NOT true about psychosis A. can be a brief event caused by drugs or toxins. B. can arise due to Alzheimer's disease. C. does not include hallucinations. D. can include delusions. E. includes schizophrenia.
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C. does not include hallucinations
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12-2. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? A. affective flattening. B. feelings of grandeur. C. hallucinations and delusions. D. irrational beliefs. E. loosening association between ideas.
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A. affective flattening.
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12-3. Which of the following is NOT a positive symptom of schizophrenia? A. affective flattening. B. feelings of grandeur. C. hallucinations and delusions. D. irrational beliefs. E. loosening association between ideas.
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A. affective flattening.
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12-4. Which of the following is NOT a negative symptom of schizophrenia? A. affective flattening. B. anhedonia. C. hallucinations and delusions. D. alogia. E. social withdrawal
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C. hallucinations and delusions
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12-5. Which of the following is NOT a factor in the development of schizophrenia? A. Genetics B. Environment C. Lack of exercise D. Birth complications E. Viral infections
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C. Lack of exercise
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12-6. Which of the following is NOT an abnormality found in the brain of a schizophrenic patient? A. Hyperactivity within mesolimbic dopamine system. B. Dysfunctional glutamate transmission. C. Enlarged third and lateral brain ventricles. D. Vulnerability to Parkinson's disease. E. Lessened volume in 50 different brain regions.
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D. Vulnerability to Parkinson's disease.
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12-7. Misregulation of which of the following neurotransmitter systems is largely responsible for the negative and positive symptoms in schizophrenia? A. endorphins and enkephalins B. endorphins C. dopamine D. glutamate E. dopamine and glutamate
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E. dopamine and glutamate
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12-8. Which of the following is thought to underlie the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? A. Excess dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. B. Excess dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway. C. Excess dopamine in the mesocortical pathway. D. Lack of dopamine activity within mesolimbic pathway. E. Lack of dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway.
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B. Excess dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway.
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12-9. Which of the following is thought to underlie the negative symptoms of schizophrenia? A. Excess dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway. B. Excess dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway. C. Excess dopamine in the mesocortical pathway. D. Lack of dopamine activity within mesolimbic pathway. E. Lack of dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway.
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E. Lack of dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway.
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12-10. Which of the following summarizes the findings of the neurophysiological dysfunctions found in the schizophrenic brain? A. Excess dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway that drives hypoactivity within mesolimbic dopamine system, and additional degeneration of brain structures. B. Hyperactivity of the frontal lobes and regeneration of brain structures. C. Lack of dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway that drives hypoactivity within mesolimbic dopamine system, and additional regeneration of brain structures. D. Lack of dopamine activity within mesolimbic pathways. E. Lack of dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway that drives hyperactivity within mesolimbic dopamine system, and additional degeneration of brain structures.
answer
E. Lack of dopamine activity within mesocortical pathway that drives hyperactivity within mesolimbic dopamine system, and additional degeneration of brain structures.
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12-11. The antipsychotic drugs were discovered by Henri Laborit while he was experimenting with drugs that might be used to treat A. surgical shock. B. depression. C. tuberculosis. D. mania. E. syphilis
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A. surgical shock.
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12-12. The term "neuroleptic" refers to A. antidepressant drugs. B. antianxiety drugs. C. psychotherapeutic drugs. D. antipsychotic drugs. E. all of the above.
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D. antipsychotic drugs.
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12-13. The difference(es) between typical and atypical antipsychotic drugs is (are) that A. typical antipsychotics have more parkinsonian side-effects than atypical antipsychotics. B. typical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia. C. atypical antipsychotics are more useful in treating bipolar disorder than typical antipsychotics. D. atypical antipsychotics can cause pleasant subjective effects and are subject to abuse. E. they are identical drugs, and do not have any differences.
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A. typical antipsychotics have more parkinsonian side-effects than atypical antipsychotics.
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12-14. Which of the following is true about typical and atypical antipsychotic drugs? A. atypical antipsychotics have more parkinsonian side-effects than typical antipsychotics. B. typical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have strong D2-binding. C. atypical antipsychotics are more useful in treating bipolar disorder than typical antipsychotics. D. atypical antipsychotics can cause pleasant subjective effects and are subject to abuse. E. atypical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have strong D2-binding.
answer
B. typical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have strong D2-binding.
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12-15. Which of the following is true about atypical antipsychotic drugs? A. atypical antipsychotics are normally useful in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have weak D2-binding. B. atypical antipsychotics have more parkinsonian side-effects than typical antipsychotics. C. atypical antipsychotics are more useful in treating bipolar disorder than typical antipsychotics. D. atypical antipsychotics can cause pleasant subjective effects and are subject to abuse. E. atypical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have strong D2-binding.
answer
A. atypical antipsychotics are normally useful in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have weak D2-binding.
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12-16. Which of the following is true about atypical antipsychotic drugs? A. atypical antipsychotics have more parkinsonian side-effects than typical antipsychotics. B. atypical antipsychotics have weak binding to D3 and D4 receptors thus they have less parkinsonian side effects. C. atypical antipsychotics are more useful in treating bipolar disorder than typical antipsychotics. D. atypical antipsychotics have stronger binding to D3 and D4 receptors thus they have less parkinsonian side effects E. atypical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia, and they have strong D2-binding.
answer
D. atypical antipsychotics have stronger binding to D3 and D4 receptors thus they have less parkinsonian side effects
question
12-17. It is believed that antipsychotics have parkinsonian side effects because they A. block dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal system. B. block acetylcholine receptors in the mesolimbic system. C. block dopamine receptors in the mesolimbic system. D. block acetylcholine receptors in the nigrostriatal system. E. none of the above.
answer
A. block dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal system.
question
12-18. The blocking of the D2 receptors of the dopaminergic seems to be responsible for the antipsychotic effects of most neuroleptics. A. mesolimbic system. B. nigrostriatal system. C. caudate putamen. D. basal ganglia. E. cortical system.
answer
A. mesolimbic system.
question
12-19. A new third-generation antipsychotic drug Abilify (aripiprazole) is different from typical and atypical antipsychotic because A. It has weak binding properties to NMDA receptors. B. It has strong binding properties to NMDA receptors. C. It is partial agonist to D2, D3 and D4 receptors. D. It is non-partial agonist to D2, D3 and D4 receptors. E. It is GABA antagonist.
answer
C. It is partial agonist to D2, D3 and D4 receptors
question
12-20. Antipsychotic drugs are sometimes given as depot injections because A. they are not readily absorbed orally. B. they have a terrible taste that most people dislike. C. they can become addicting if the patient is allowed to take them at any time. D. they have undesirable side effects when taken by other routes. E. patients do not like them and do not take them reliably on their own.
answer
E. patients do not like them and do not take them reliably on their own.
question
12-21. The half-life of antipsychotic is about A. 2 hrs B. 4hrs C. 8 hrs D. 11-58 hrs E. 5 days
answer
D. 11-58 hrs
question
12-22. After taking antipsychotics drugs for a period of time, about 30 percent of patients show a condition called A. epilepsy. B. tardive dyskinesia. C. delirium tremens. D. akathesia. E. physical dependence.
answer
B. tardive dyskinesia.
question
12-23. Effects of antipsychotic include A. Dry mouth, reddening of eyes, increased heart beat. B. Tremors, slow motor functions, akathisia. C. Euphoria, happiness, elation. D. Sleepiness, sadness, hungriness. E. Mania, hallucinations, delusions.
answer
B. Tremors, slow motor functions, akathisia.
question
12-24. Antipsychotic drugs A. have a very high therapeutic index and are extremely safe. B. are often used to commit suicide. C. have a very low therapeutic index and are quite toxic. D. are responsible for many overdose deaths. E. all of B., C., and D.
answer
A. have a very high therapeutic index and are extremely safe
question
12-25. Antipsychotics tested in nonhumans cause A. Euphoria, happiness, elation. B. Sleepiness, sadness, hungriness. C. Mania, hallucinations, delusions. D. Dissociation, plastic immobility, decreased aggression. E. Impairments in conditioned behavior.
answer
D. Dissociation, plastic immobility, decreased aggression.
question
12-26. Which of the following best describes the abuse potential of the antipsychotic drugs? A. they are highly reinforcing and subject to abuse. B. they are modestly reinforcing and sometimes sold on the street as "downers". C. they are only reinforcing to those who have a history of sedative-hypnotic abuse. D. they are never abused. E. the abuse potential has not been determined.
answer
D. they are never abused.
question
12-27. Withdrawal from antipsychotic include A. Sleepiness, sadness, hungriness. B. Euphoria, happiness, elation. C. Dissociation, plastic immobility, decreased aggression. D. Impairments in conditioned behavior. E. Antipsychotics do not usually cause withdrawal.
answer
E. Antipsychotics do not usually cause withdrawal.
question
12-28. Apart from the treatment of psychotic behavior, the antipsychotics are used to treat A. nausea. B. Tourette's syndrome. C. delirium tremens. D. hiccups. E. all of the above.
answer
E. all of the above.
question
12-29. Which of the following conditions are not treated with antipsychotic drugs? A. Huntington's chorea. B. infertility. C. surgical shock. D. stuttering. E. psychosis induced by hallucinogenic drugs.
answer
B. infertility.
question
12-30. Compliance with antipsychotic drugs has been shown to be A. Good as patients benefit from the drug. B. Good as patients find the effects reinforcing. C. Poor as patients continue taking the medication. D. Poor as patients stop taking the medication. E. Ineffective as symptoms do not disappear.
answer
D. Poor as patients stop taking the medication.
