ZOO4232-EXAM 1 – Flashcards
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Since Pathogenic Parasites rely on their hosts for survival, the population dynamics of the parasite are influenced by the population dynamics of the hosts. The host population will likely contain which of the following? |
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a. individuals who are susceptible b. individuals who are infected c. individuals who have been infected but have never recovered *d. all of the above |
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While an {_______} lives mainly on the surface of its host, an {________} lives mainly in the body of its host. |
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ectoparasite, endoparasite |
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What constitutes an epidemic? |
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a. 25 outbreaks b. 50 outbreaks c. 1 outbreak d. 10 outbreaks *e. all of the above |
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Elevated levels of which immune cells indicate a worm infection? |
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a. basophils b. eosinophils |
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A disease involving a parasite that has accidentally infected a human; the normal host for the parasite is an animal. |
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*a. zoonosis |
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Hemoflagellates are transmitted by which organisms? |
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*B) Insects |
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The family Trypanosomatidae, contain two genera that parasitize humans, which are Genus Leishmania and Genus Trypanosoma. |
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True |
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Which is not a form of transformation that is undergone by Leishmania? |
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*B. Use of amino acids as a nitrogen source |
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Leishmania parasites enter cells by {__________}. |
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phagocytosis |
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Of the three developmental stages in ticks, which stage is the most significant in human infection? |
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*b. nymph |
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Which one of these is NOT a natural host resistance to Plasmodium infections? |
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*e. Fructose-6-phosphate deficiency |
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The cysts of Balantidium coli have cilia. |
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True |
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Giardia lambilia replicates via a process called longitudinal binary fission. |
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True |
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Vector(s) of Chagas disease include which of the following. (HINT: Recognize the difference between a vector and the actual parasite which causes the disease) |
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b. Triatoma infestans c. Rhodnius prolixus *d. B and C |
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In Kinetoplastids RNA editing is the process of postranscriptional sequence alteration via {_______} or {_____} of uridylate residues at specific sites of Mitochondrial RNA. |
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Insertion / Deletion |
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Acute Chagas disease is mostly found in: |
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*a. children under 10 |
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What is the main downfall to using a blood smear to diagnose a T.cruzi infection? |
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*b. Can only find parasites in blood during acute phases of disease |
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Trypanosoma cruzi is found only in |
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*b. the Americas |
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Which of the following is true of Trypanosoma cruzi? |
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*d. The vector is the Reduviid bug |
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The West Nile Virus only infects the human species. |
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False |
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[_____] is the vector responsible for "sleeping sickness." |
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*b. Tsetse fly |
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Mucosal Leishmaniasis are primary lesions of the mucous memebranes such as the nose and oral cavity |
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False |
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All of the following are differences between slender and stumpy trypomastigotes, except |
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*d. cytoskeleton composition |
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T. cruzi is the causative agent of {______} disease |
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Chagas / Trypanosomiasis |
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T. cruzi parasites are ONLY found in the Americas--if a person is infected with them, they can't have acquired it from any other place in the world. |
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True |
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In the fourth morphological form among hemoflagellates, many types of polymorphism are exhibited. These are |
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a. long, slender trypomastigote b. stumpy trypomastigote *d. a & b |
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In Plasmodium, the asexual phase [_____], occurs in the human, whereas the sexual phase [______], occurs in the mosquito |
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*b. schizogony;gamogony |
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Which of the following parasitic stages is characterized by asexual division? |
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*d. Schizont |
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Which alteration of the vagina will help treat T. vaginalis? |
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*a. Lowering the pH to 4.5 |
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The metronidazole drug used to treat T. vaginalis forms an intermediate that is toxic, damaging DNA and other macromolecules. |
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True |
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How would one describe the parasites of T. vaginalis when observed in a wet mount? |
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*d. Very active |
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What structure in Trichomonas resemble the mitochondria? |
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*c. Hydrogenosome |
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How does T. vaginalis change the pH of the vagina? |
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*b. It makes it more alkaline |
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Infection of T. vaginalis in women is seen less if: |
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*b. They use oral contraceptives |
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Men are assymptomatic carriers of Trichomonas vaginalis. |
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True |
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The trophozoites of Trichomonas species are very active and motile. |
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True |
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Dientamoeba fragilis is not invasive. |
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True |
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Giardia produces an IgA [____] |
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*b. Protease |
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Giardia lamblia infection is commonly seen in: |
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a. Children 6-10 years of age b. Daycare centers c. Homosexual males d. Wilderness campers *e. All of the above |
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What gives the feces of individuals infected with Giardia lamblia its distinctive smell? |
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*c. The layer of fat present |
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If you let feces of an individual with Giardia lamblia settle, a layer of fat will become apparent. |
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True |
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Maturing cysts in Giardia lamblia gain: |
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*b. two more nuclei |
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Cysts are the site of nuclear division in Giardia lamblia. |
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True |
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The entire life span of the four species of Plasmodium that infect humans is spent in two hosts: the female mosquito insect vector and a human host. |
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True |
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This complex of organelles are found in the sporozoite and merozoite stages of the life cycles of these organisms |
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*b. apical complex |
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Babesiosis, toxoplasmosis, cryptosporidiosis, isosporiasis and cyclosporidiosis belong to the phylum Apicomplexa. |
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True |
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The "eyes" in Giardia lamblia are its [_____]. |
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*a. Nuclei |
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A fool-proof way to detect infection by an amoeba is through the discovery of cysts in feces. |
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False |
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[______] results in intermittend watery diarrhea with stools containing mucus and blood. |
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*c. Balantidial dysentery |
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Which of the following are human reservoirs of Balantidium coli? |
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a. Pigs c. Monkeys *e. A and C |
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The cysts of Balantidium coli have cilia. |
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True |
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Balantidium coli undergoes sexual reproduction by [______] |
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Conjugation |
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Balantidium coli undergoes sexual reproduction by [_____] |
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Conjugation |
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[_____] is associated with contamination of contact lens fluid. |
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*a. Acanthamoeba keratitis |
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Naegleria fowleri produce sucker-like appendages or [_____] that 'nibble' away at the tissue culture cells. |
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*a. amebostomes |
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High prevalence of antibodies to Naegleria is found in [_____] |
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*a. young adults in southeastern USA |
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Both trophozoites and cysts are found in Acanthamoeba species. |
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True |
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Both trophozoites and cysts are found in Naegleria fowleri. |
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False |
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Free-living amoebas are intestinal blood parasites. |
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False |
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The American form of trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma vivax. |
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False |
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Fluctuations in the number of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is widely attributed to its ability to vary the chemical composition of its [_____] |
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*a. variant surface glycoproteins (VSGs) |
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The infective morophological form of the protozoan Trypanosoma in humans is the______. |
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*b. metacyclic trypomastigote |
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In humans, the initial sign of cutaneous leishmaniasis infection is______. |
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*c. vascularized papule |
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When the identification of intracellular amastigotes from blood and tissue smears are inconclusive, xenodiagnosis can be used but is often time consuming. |
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True |
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In a leishmaniasis infection, replacement of infected cells produces hyperplasia and consequent enlargement of visceral organs associated with the system, such as the [______] and [______] |
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*a. spleen and liver |
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Which of the following are the three clinical manifestations of Leishmania in humans? |
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*b. visceral, cutaneous, mucocutaneous |
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The causative agent for visceral leishmaniasis, also known as dumdum fever, or kala-azar, is: |
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*c. Leishmania donovani |
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Leishmaniasis is considered an opportunistic infection and is grouped among those diseases that take advantage of immunocompromised individuals. |
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True |
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Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct except: |
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*d. T. vaginalis causes dysentry |
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In RNA editing in kinetoplastids,what does TUTase stand for? |
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*b. 3'terminal uridylyl transferase |
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Visceral Leishmaniasis mainly infects the elderly people of Europe. |
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False |
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What is the correct taxonomy of the parasite T. cruzi from phylum to genus? |
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*b. Sarcomastigophora, Mastigophora, Kinestoplastida, Trypanosomatidae, Trypanosoma |
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What organelle in the cytoplasm of Protozoa is used mainly for osmoregulation? |
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*b. Contractile Vacuole |
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What is the main function of IgE? |
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*b. triggering histamine release from mast cells |
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All of the following are characteristics of hemoflagellates except: |
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*c. numerous mitochondria |
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The most important question to ask during the differential diagnosis of an infection from T. brucei is: |
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*b. Has the patient been to east or west Africa |
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The vector for T. brucei brucei, T. brucei gambiense, and T. brucei rhodesiense is: |
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*c. tsetse fly |
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What do xenodiagnosis studies show? |
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*a. There is communication between parasites and vectors that recruit parasites to feeding vectors |
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The cell-funeral hypothesis explains how: |
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*d. T. cruzi infection results in host T cells killing other host cells |
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One of the most significant presentations of Chagas disease, caused by T. cruzi, is: |
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*a. heart complications |
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T.cruzi demonstrates intracellular pathogenesis through lysosome-mediated entry of an infected cell. |
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True |
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Hemoflagellates have cyst forms. |
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False |
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How do the trypomastigote, epimastigote, promastigote, and amastigote forms differ regarding the overall morphology of the hemoflagellates? |
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*c. location of kinetoplast relative to nucleus and the single flagellum |
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Along with a kinetoplast, hemoflagellates also have: |
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*c. glycosomes |
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What is the difference between the Stercoraria and Salivaria subgenuses of the genus Trypanosoma of the Hemoflagellates? |
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*a. location of where the parasite develops in the vector |
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The tissue inflammatory response during amoebiasis is initiated and fueled by a combination of human and amoebic factors and ultimately leads to basophil-mediated intestinal destruction. |
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False |
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Which is true about free living amoeba Naegleira fowleri: |
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*a. There is no cyst stage in humans |
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Metronidazole is effective against: |
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a. worms b. anaerobes c. Giardia *d. all of the above |
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You're attempting to identify a sample of unknown bacteria. You've been told it belongs to the genus Entamoeba, but you still need to determine the species. Looking under a microscope, you see jagged chromosomal bars and nuclei predominately located around the outside. Based on this information, what is this bacteria? |
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*c. E. coli |
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In regards to Plasmodium falciparum, once the parasite gets into red blood cells and is dividing, what is the duration of the fever free period? |
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*c. 36-72 hours |
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Which of the following is pathogenic under the Sub-order Tubulina? |
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*b. Entamoeba |
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Metronidazole is a typical drug used to treat visceral protozoa. |
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True |
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Which of the following is a mode of transmission for amoeba? |
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a. water b. food-borne *d. a and b |
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Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) due to Naegleria fowleri, if diagnosed in time, can be treated with the following: |
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*c. intravenous and intrathecal amphotericin B and miconazole, plus rifampin |
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An effective way to reduce specific visceral protozoal infection such as E. hystolytica and G. lamblia is to: |
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*b. Boil drinking water, add 1.25-3 grams of iodine per liter of water in endemic areas |
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Which of the following is not a symptom of Intestinal Disease (Amebic Colitis)? |
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*d. weight gain |
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Ciliates are found in which Phylum? |
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*a. Ciliophora |
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Ciliates have which kinds of vacuoles? |
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a. contractile c. food *d. a and c |
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Naegleria fowleri "nibble" away at cells by means of sucker-like appendages called {________} |
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amebostomes |
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Cysts can be killed by: |
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*b. boiling |
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Ionophore-like proteins called {_______} mediate cytolytic and apoptotic effects among epithelial cells and neutrophils. |
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amoebapores |
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Amoeba-induced inflammations in the intestine leads to {_______}-mediated intestinal destruction. |
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neutrophil |
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Immobile parasites can invade the intestine. |
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False |
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Amebic Liver abscess, induced by Trophozoites, is: |
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*c. destruction of liver cells |
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The mucosa of the intestines gets thinner with Amebic Colitis. |
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False |
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Hallmarks of intestinal disease (amebic colitis) include: |
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a. flask shaped lesions b. diarrhea, dysentery, GI pain *d. a and b |
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Pentatrichomonas hominis |
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a. have 5 free flagellar b. reside in the large intestine c. are thought to be associated with bowel disease *d. all of the above |
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Trichomonas tenax have 4 free flagellar |
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True |
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Backpacker's disease is the popular name of the infection caused by: |
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*b. Giardia |
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Giardia lambia divides by binary fission in the {_________} direction. |
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longitudinal |
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Amoebaphore A in Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites cause liver abscesses whereas amoebaphores B and C are the causative agents of amoebic colitis. |
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True |
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All of the following are nonpathogenic flagellates except: |
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*b. Trichomonas vaginalis |
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Giardia has no mitochondria but can use oxygen when available. |
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True |
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Amoebaphore A in Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites cause liver abscesses whereas amoebaphores B and C are the causative agents of amoebic colitis. |
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True |
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In which morphological form of Entamoeba histolytica is the organism considered pathogenic? |
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*a. Trophozoite |
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What are the end products in the metabolization of lactate in Trichomonads? |
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a. Formate b. Acetate *d. a and b |
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The carrier state of amoebiasis is known as: |
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*d. Luminal amoebiasis |
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Species in the genus of Trichomonas do not have cysts. |
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True |
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Which of the following species causes malabsorption of fats, fat soluble substances and Vitamin B12? |
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*a. Giardia |
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Which of the following statements is false? |
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*d. Tsetse flies lay their eggs in the shallow water, making it easy to find and eliminate their eggs. |
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Which type of cyst from some amoebae parasites, found in humans and domestic animals, contains chromatoidal bars? |
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*d. E. coli |
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Many protozoa form cysts which are round cytoplasmic masses surrounded by a rigid or semi-rigid cyst wall secreted by an organism. Which of the following is not true of cysts? |
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*b. The cyst form of an organism is not the infective form of a parasite. |
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Biopsy specimens were taken from patients infected with just Naegleria and patients infected with just Acanthamoeba. What is the difference observed between the two different biopsy specimens? |
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*d. Both cysts and trophozoites are found in the specimen from patient infected with Acanthamoeba, only trophozoites are found in the specimen from the patient infected with Naegleria, however. |
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Which of the following is false about primary amebic meningoencephalitis? |
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*b. Cysts found in CSF and high neutrophil count. |
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Which of the following speicies are free living amoebae? |
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*a. Naegleria fowleri and Hartmanella |
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Which of the following is false about Entamoeba gingivalis? |
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*a. The mature cyst has the size of 15 um. |
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The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica usually has 8 nuclei. |
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False |
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Which of the following species belong to suborder Tubulina? |
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*c. Entamoeba histolytica, Entamoeba gingivalis, Iodamoeba buctschlii |
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Which of the following species has the biggest size in suborder Tubulina? |
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*b. Entamoeba gingivalis |
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Species in sub-phylum Mastigophora use pseudopodia for locomotion. |
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False |
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Species in sub-phylum Sarcodina use flagella for locomotion. |
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False |
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Genitourinary amebiasis is one of the extraintestinal diseases caused by trophozoite- induced cell destruction. |
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True |
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Which of the following is extraintestinal diseases caused by trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica? |
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a. Amebic liver abscess b. Pulmonary Amebiasis c. Brain abscess. *d. All of the above |
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The two main functions of Entamoeba histolytica’s mediators of pathogenesis are: |
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a. Attachment to host’s epithelia cells in the large intestine, and protection against binding of antibody and attachment b. Attachment to host’s epithelia cells in the large intestine, and protection against phagocytosis by neutrophils. c. Attachment to host’s epithelia cells in the large intestine, and protection against phagocytosis by macrophages. *d. None of the above. |
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Which of the following is true about Entamoeba histolytica? |
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a. It belongs in the class Lobosea b. It has mitosomes. *d. a and b are correct |
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Non-pathogenic amoeba usually have ________ in their trophozoites. |
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*b. Bacteria |
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Which of the following endoparasites is parasite of digestive tract? |
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a. Giardia lambia b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Balantidium coli *d. All of the above |
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Intestinal and Urogential Flagellates are members of the phylum: |
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*e. Sarcomastigophora |
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Giardia requires _______ cysts to establish infection. |
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*b. 10-100 |
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{_________} is the fatty and smelly stool often associated with Giardia. |
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Steatorrhea |
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The incubation period of Giardia is {________}. |
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1-2 weeks |
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Which of the following is a similarity between prokaryotes and eukaryotesI. Both share an identical genetic language. II. Both share a common set of membrane-bound organelles. III. Both have plasma membrane of similar construction. IV. Both share common metabolic pathways. |
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*c. I , III and IV |
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What are some of the symptoms associated with Amebic Colitis? |
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a. Gastro-intestinal pain b. Diarrhea c. Weight loss *d. All of the above |
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About how much of the world’s population is infected with E. histolytica? |
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*b. 10% |
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What is a main characteristic of Entamoeba coli? |
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*a. has 8 nuclei |
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What is a unique feature of Entamoeba histolytica? |
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*d. Has central nucleolus |
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Endodyogeny is a form of endopolyogeny where what is formed? |
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*b. Two daughter cells |
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Many protozoa form cysts. |
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True |
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Which of the following is considered to be the world's most prevalent intestinal parasite? |
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*d. Giardia |
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One way to distinguish between Entomoeba histolytica and Entomoeba coli is by the number of nuclei, the chromatoidal bars, and the size of the cysts. |
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True |
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Which genus is pathogenic out of the suborder Tubulina? |
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*c. Entamoeba |
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What is commonly found inside pathogenic amoebas? |
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*c. Erythrocytes |
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{__________} attracts phagocytes to a pathogen. |
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Opsonization |
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Early and late endosomes are distinguished on the basis of what? (Select all that apply) |
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*a. Buoyant density *c. pH *d. protein composition |
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Which of the following is NOT a host type? |
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*a. Obligate Host |
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Which of the following supports the immature (not fully developed) form of a parasite? |
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*c. Intermediate host |
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This cell allows macrophages to engulf foreign particles in the host. {__________} |
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Cytoskeleton |
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Which is true of the genus Trichomonas? |
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a. they have free flagella b. no cyst form c. anatomically site specific *d. these are all true |
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A few components of the innate immune system are macrophages, the lining of internal tracts, secretions, soluble blood proteins, and the skin. |
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True |
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Metronidazole is a drug used to treat facultative aerobes such as Giardia and Entamoeba histolytica. |
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False |
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Which of the following statements is incorrect? |
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*b. Cyst is the main form of transmission |
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Which of the following processes can be further studied to develop anti-protozoan drugs? |
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*d. The signaling pathway involves that leads to the biosynthesis of cyst wall components. |
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What of the following statements is true about protozoa? |
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*a. Have encystation that protect it against unfavorable environmental conditions. |
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Schizogony is a type of protozoa’s sexual reproduction, and sygany is a type of asexual reproduction. |
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False |
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Entamoeba histolytica and Escherichia coli can both have a maximum of 4 nuclei in its cyst form. |
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False |
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In an archeological dig, you find and unknown organism. You dissect the flagellum and find that the microtubules are arranged in a 9+2 structure. Based on this structure you can conclude that this organism... |
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*b. is a eukaryote |
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Which of the following is not a mediator of the pathogenesis of Entamoeba histolytica? |
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*d. hard external shell not sensitive to bodily changes |
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A patient with Amebiasis complains of gastro-intestinal pain and diarrhea. A stool sample taken from this patient will most likely contain... |
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*c. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites |
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Sasha was diagnosed HIV positive 5 years ago. Upon her recent trip to Cabo San Luca, Mexico she returned with diarrhea, nausea and vomiting and dehydration. She also felt muscle cramps and weakness. Her physician prescribed her medication for Cholera, but the symptoms remained. What parasitic infection best described Sasha’s symptomatology? |
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*b. C. parvum |
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As a general rule among flagellates the principle means of locomotion is flagellar, where as among amoeba it is pseudopodial. |
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True |
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Humans are the definitive host for round worms because humans harbor the reproducing adult roundworms. Depending on the species, the adult female nematode produces either fertilized eggs or Larvae. Which route is incorrect? |
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a. Eggs maybe immediately infective by being ingested b. Eggs or larvae may require a period of external development to reach the infective stage c. An insect may transmit eggs or larvae to a new host *d. None of the above |
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What distinguishes a pathogenic amoeba from a nonpathogenic is the ability to transform from the cyst form to the trophozoite form: |
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False |
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Which of the following is NOT true of Balantidium? |
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*d. It is among the smallest members of Protozoa |
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Which of the following parasites causes African sleeping sickness? |
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*b. Trypanosoma brucei |
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During pairing of homologous chromosomes,crossover of chromosomes may result in the formation of recombinant. |
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*C. Chromosomes |
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Naegleria is commonly found in fresh water lakes in ponds in Florida and the southern U.S. |
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True |
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In ciliates, the numerous basal bodies are interconnected by a series of subpellicular [_______] or neurofibrils. |
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*b. microfilaments |
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Which of the following endoparasites is parasite of digestive tract? |
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a. Giardia lamblia b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Balantidium coli *d. All of the above |
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Which type of pseudopodia is the most common form among parasitic amoebae? |
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*b. Lobopodia |
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[________] 1. Crescent shaped membrane |
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Pelta |
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[________] 2. Rodlike structure that runs along the base of the undulating membrane |
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Costa |
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[________] 3. Supporting structure embedded along the longitudinal axis on the cytoplasm |
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Axostyle |
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Which of the following processes does not involve sexual reproduction? |
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*c. Schizogony |
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Endodyogeny is a specialized sexual reproduction involving nuclear exchange and union after cells join. |
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False |
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Which of the following are true about cysts: I) They are the infective or transmissible form of parasite. II) They protect against unfavorable external environmental conditions. III) They are the site for morphogenesis and nuclear division. |
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*d. I, II, and III |
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Which enzymes are located within dynein arms of an axoneme? |
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*a. ATPases |
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Which of the following protozoans are particularly notorious for causing primary amoebic meningoencephalitis? |
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*b. Naegleria fowleri |
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Why is the fatality rate for those infected with Naegleria fowleri so high? |
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a. Death occurs only a few days after symptoms surface b. Most diagnoses are made post mortem c. Treatment options are few and provide limited effectiveness *d. All of the above |
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During asexual reproduction in Protozoa, the process of fission takes place in which sequence? |
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*c. organelles, nucleus, cytoplasm |
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Members of the sub-phylum Sarcodina have which characteristic? |
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*d. usage of pseudopods for locomotion |
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Members of the phylum Sarcomastigophora have: |
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*c. Flagella and/or Pseudopodia |
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If you encounter an organism that has a macronucleus and a micronucleus, you can tell that you are NOT dealing with a ciliate. |
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False |
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Well-defined nuclei bounded by nuclear envelopes are characteristic of ALL protozoa. |
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True |
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How are microtubules within axoneme of motile flagella/cilia organized? |
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*d. 9+2 |
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Balantidium coli is in Phylum {_______} |
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Ciliophora |
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What is the size of Protozoa? |
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*b. 1-150 micrometers |
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What is the purpose of encystation? |
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a. protection against unfavorable external environmental conditions b. nuclear division c. parasite transmission *d. all of the above |
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Organisms in Protozoa are: |
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*c. single-celled, eukaryotic |
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Protozoa can reproduce both sexually and asexually. |
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True |
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Native cells first encounter which of the following cell receptors: |
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b. IgM c. IgD *d. both b and c |
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There are five different classes of antibodies distinguished by heavy chains called Isotypes. Which class is associated with hypersensitivity? |
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*c. IgE |
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Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which of the following on their surfaces? |
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*C. Class II MHC antigens |
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What is the portion of antigen that is bound by a given antibody or recognized by T cell defined as? |
answer
*b. Antigenic determinant |
question
Which Immunoglobulin comprises as much as 80% of all antibodies in the blood? |
answer
*a. IgG |
question
Globular proteins are produced by which immune cell type? |
answer
*b. B Cells |
question
Where do T-Cells mature? |
answer
*b. Thymus |
question
During primary and secondary immune responses, the antibody or antibodies involved is/are: |
answer
a. IgM b. IgA c. IgG *d. Two of the above |
question
The response of IgG during a first exposure is exactly the same as it is during a second exposure. |
answer
False |
question
The innate immune response is specific to a microbe. |
answer
False |
question
All the following are true of the adaptive immune response except? |
answer
*b. The magnitude of the response decreases with every encounter |
question
Which of the following are associated with MHC class II? |
answer
a. binding of peptides from molecules that are internalized by cell b. CD4+ T cells |
question
The HIV virus targets which type of cell as a receptor? |
answer
*b. CD4 T-cells |
question
A deficiency in this immunoglobulin isotype, the major isotype found in the intestinal tract, can lead to higher susceptibility to Giardia infection. Which isotype is it? |
answer
*a. IgA |
question
Which of the following is a similarity between phagocytosis and endocytosis? |
answer
*c. They are both part of the immune system. |
question
According to the clonal selection theory, B cells become committed to antibody formation.. |
answer
*b. In the absence of the antigen |
question
Antibodies are specific to their native conformations. |
answer
True |
question
Immunological memory provides long-term immunity. |
answer
True |
question
T cells bind to antigens in their native conformations. |
answer
False |
question
Which Immunoglobulin can form a pentamer? |
answer
*c. IgM |
question
Each antibody has how many equivalent binding sites? |
answer
*b. Two |
question
Regarding adaptive immune response, what increases with each encounter? |
answer
*E. Magnitude of response and Affinity only |
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding B cells? |
answer
*d. B cells commitment to antibody specificity occurs after exposure to the antigen |
question
What is the most prevalent immunoglobulin isotype found in serum (blood)? |
answer
*a. IgG |
question
High levels of eosinophils are often indicative of worms. |
answer
True |
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Adaptive Immune Response? |
answer
*c. It is not specific to microbe |
question
Most immune cells originate from stem cells found in bone marrow. |
answer
True |
question
Which of the following cytokines is INCORRECTLY paired with its function? |
answer
*b. IL 10; stimulates B-cell differentiation |
question
In a humoral reaction, specialized molecules in the circulatory system interact with the parasite, forming immune complexes. |
answer
True |
question
Insecticides are the most ecological way to control intermediate hosts. |
answer
False |
question
Except certain viral infections, parasitic diseases are more difficult to control than other infectous diseases. |
answer
True |
question
Parasites reproduce fast with a large number of progeny. |
answer
False |
question
Caterpillars are invading a small garden. Certain plants in the garden set off a pheromone. Wasp migrate and kill the caterpillars. What type of interaction is this? |
answer
*b. Tritrophic interaction |
question
A hosts spleen and red blood cells have become enlarged because of a parasite. What type of effect does this parasite have on the host? |
answer
*d. Hypertrophy |
question
Constant cell damage, which causes death of cells or tissues, is an example of: |
answer
*c. Necrosis |
question
Each time our bodies encounter an antigen, there is refinement of the immune response so that next time, our bodies are better at recognizing the invading entity. This is an example of which of the following? |
answer
*a. increasing affinity within the adaptive immune response |
question
Th1 cells characteristically secrete interleukin 2, gamma interferon, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) |
answer
True |
question
T-cells are activated by which of the following? |
answer
*b. clonal selection |
question
The components of innate immunity in eukaryotic cells include: |
answer
a. secretions b. linings of internal tracts c. Phagocytic cells (macrophages, neutrophils. and natural killer cells. *d. all of the above |
question
Which of the following is NOT true of antibodies? |
answer
*c. Antibodies are produced by both B cells and T cells. |
question
T cells... |
answer
*d. Are unique in that they can only recognize antigens presented to them by another cell (usually a macrophage). |
question
Component proteins are part of cellular innate immunity. |
answer
False |
question
What type of immune cells derived from myeloid progenitor cells is specialized for parasitic infection? |
answer
*d. Eosinophil |
question
One important group of opsonin molecules is complement protein. |
answer
True |
question
The main difference between B cells and T cells mentioned in lecture is that: |
answer
*c. Only B cells secrete their immunoglobulin receptors as plasma antibodies. |
question
Which of the following is not a type of membrane protein? |
answer
*b. cytoskeletal proteins |
question
The main difference between phagocytosis and endocytosis is: |
answer
*d. the participation of actin in phagocytosis |
question
Intermediate filaments is composed of: |
answer
*b. alpha keratins |
question
A cell can respond to a signal by: |
answer
a. activating enzyme activity b. changing its cytoskeleton |
question
The inner and outer leaflets of the plasma membrane bilayer feature identical lipid profiles. |
answer
False |
question
What are blood-borne factors that can coat particles to be ingested? |
answer
*c. Opsonins |
question
Drugs that limit or restrict worm mobility in the gastrointestinal tract MOST LIKELY involve which of the following cell feature that helps increase the effectiveness of the treatment? |
answer
*b. the worm's cytoskeleton |
question
Lipid-soluble molecules, such as alcohols, cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane. |
answer
False |
question
[___________] proteins are covalently linked to membrane via a lipid molecule. |
answer
Lipid anchored |
question
Which of the following describes the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane? |
answer
*b. phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins |
question
Which is NOT a part of the eukaryotic cell nucleus? |
answer
*a. Ribosomes |
question
Which of the following is true about phagocytosis (e.g., the endocytic pathway of parasites)? |
answer
*b. Phagocytosis is dependent on microfilaments. |
question
Which of the following is incorrect? |
answer
a. Being diploid allows the parasites to combine its chromosome and generates diversity. b. The advantage of being diploid is different from the advantage of sexual reproduction in parasites. *c. All parasites known are diploid. d. DNA is packaged into chromosomes |
question
Which of the following is not involved in motility of the cell? |
answer
*c. keratin |
question
Which of the following is false regarding commensal microbes? |
answer
a. Antigenic and can elicit antibody responses b. Synthesize metabolites that are essential nutrients for the host c. Acquired by infection *d. All of the above are true |
question
Which characteristic is not true of the plasma membrane? |
answer
*b. It ensures compartmentalization within the cell. |
question
What parasite can survive the harsh conditions of lysosomes fusing to the phagosome in which it is contained and prevent the host from killing it? |
answer
*c. Leishmania |
question
What are the classes of phagocytic receptors? |
answer
*b. opsonin-dependent and non-opsonin dependent |
question
What are the classes of endosomes? |
answer
*a. early and late |
question
Phagocytosis is the process by which: |
answer
*c. specialized cells (macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells) internalize particulate material greater than 0.5um in diameter. |
question
All of the following are classifications of membrane proteins in a eukaryotic cell EXCEPT: |
answer
*c. phagocytic |
question
The [________] is the site where synthesized proteins and other materials are sorted, modified and from where they are transported to specific cellular destinations. |
answer
Golgi Apparatus |
question
Which of the following membrane proteins include receptors? |
answer
a. Integral Proteins c. Lipid Anchored Proteins |
question
What are the functions of the cytoskeleton? |
answer
a. Provide movement of cilia and flagella b. Transport materials and organelles within the cell |
question
MHC class I and class II are present in all cells, making them antigen presenting cells. |
answer
False |
question
The host-pathogen interaction always results in disease. |
answer
False |
question
[________] Circular RNA with no protein coat |
answer
Viroid |
question
[________] Virus injects genetic information into host cell DNA and becomes a provirus |
answer
Lysogenic Infection |
question
[________] Virus hijacks host cell machinery to replicate itself; kills host cell |
answer
Lytic infection |
question
[________] Is not a living cell |
answer
Virus |
question
Which of the following proteins span the membrane? |
answer
*b. integral proteins |
question
The endoplasmic reticulum performs the following function(s)? |
answer
a. Protein synthesis b. Lipid synthesis |
question
Some cyanobacteria as well as plants are capable of performing photosynthesis. |
answer
True |
question
The following can be found in both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes except? |
answer
*c. Nucleus |
question
What is the significance of membranes to host-parasite relations? |
answer
*a. The parasite has to avoid activating the host via membrane proteins |