question

Rhonda likes to move around and enjoys hands-on projects. What is Rhonda's preferred style of learning?

answer

Kinesthetic

question

You've just enrolled and you want your username and password so you can access the Ashworth College Student Portal. Where will you look for your login information?

answer

email sent to you from ash worth college

question

If you want to make sure that you are registered for your course and that all of your fees have been paid, you can do this by checking ______.

answer

Accounts

question

What important document would you reference to quickly see everything you'll be learning about in your program and the order of your lessons?

answer

Syllabus

question

The overall learning goals for an educational program like the one you're taking are called _______.

answer

objectives

question

Which of the following exam strategies would you apply to a multiple-choice exam?

answer

D. Read all options before selecting an answer

question

You want to learn more about the goals and values of Ashworth College. In what important document will you find the school's mission statement and value statement?

answer

D. Student Handbook

question

How can you review your grades on the Ashworth site?

answer

D. Access the course page, then click on Gradebook

question

Nello has been asked to summarize what he learned in a reading assignment. In response, Nello should ______.

answer

C. cover the main points of the material he has read

question

If you're able to understand directions more easily when you hear them instead of reading them, you are most likely a(n) _______ learner.

answer

B. auditory

question

Juan has an essay due in English on Wednesday and a page of math homework due on Friday. How should Juan approach this work?

answer

D. Complete the English essay before moving to the math homework.

question

The Check Your Learning assignments in your lesson materials are a good example of what type of assessment?

answer

D. Self-assessment

question

The most effective way to do well on your online exams is to study _______.

answer

B. strategically

question

Mia wrote out her notes, then recited them into a recording device. Afterward, she played the notes back to herself. Which type of learner is Mia? A. Kinesthetic B. Auditory C. Visual D. Hands-on

answer

B

question

Individuals can earn the credential Certified Veterinary Practice Manager (CVPM) by meeting the educational and examination requirements of the A. AVMA. B. USDA. C. VHMA. D. CVTEA.

answer

C

question

Which one of the following statements regarding the OSHA Right to Know Law is most accurate? A. It requires that all hospital staff members be informed of all chemicals they may be exposed to while at work. B. It advises that you wear safety glasses and gloves when working with hazardous chemicals. C. It recommends keeping a list of the type and location of all harmful chemicals that are used in the workplace. D. It's an unenforceable law.

answer

A

question

The _______ contain(s) the principles that govern a profession. A. state's Veterinary Practice Act B. code of ethics C. model practice act D. State Department of Labor Regulations

answer

B

question

The basic requirement for working in a veterinary practice is a A. desire to work with the public. B. love of animals. C. drive to educate others. D. need to feel involved.

answer

B

question

The first formal programs for educating veterinary assistants were created in A. England. B. New York C. the United States Army. D. France.

answer

A

question

Which one of the following activities may be delegated to a veterinary technician? A. Diagnosis of parasite infection B. Prescribing medication C. Performing a cat castration D. Administering anesthesia

answer

D

question

Ethics may be defined as A. general acceptance toward others. B. the system of moral principles that determines appropriate behavior and actions within a specific group. C. the system of protocols among a specific group of professionals. D. differences among beliefs.

answer

B

question

Which one of the following activities may be performed only by a veterinarian? A. Administering medication B. Collecting diagnostic samples C. Administering general anesthesia D. Forming a diagnosis

answer

D

question

Which one of the following statements concerning controlled substances log book records is most accurate? A. By law, records must be made available to the OSHA inspector. B. Only state laws apply to controlled substances. C. All veterinary practice personnel may access the records. D. All records must be maintained for at least five years.

answer

D

question

The _______ accredits college programs for educating veterinarians and veterinary technicians. A. VHMA B. AVMA C. NAVTA D. NAVLE

answer

B

question

The likely outcome of a patient's disease or condition is the A. diagnosis. B. zoonosis. C. prognosis. D. stenosis.

answer

C

question

Responsibilities of early veterinarians focused primarily on A. personal pets. B. farm animals. C. exotic pets. D. rare animals.

answer

B

question

The federal agency responsible for enforcing regulations related to controlled drugs is the A. DEA. B. USDA. C. OSHA. D. CSA.

answer

A

question

_______ would likely be patients at an exotic-animal practice. A. Dogs B. Cats C. Horses D. Birds

answer

D

question

A veterinary technician who completes additional specialized training and passes a certifying examination is correctly referred to as a A. diplomate. B. VTS. C. DVMS. D. trainee.

answer

B

question

DEA refers to the A. Drug Enforcement Agency. B. Data Employment Agency. C. Drug Employment Agency. D. Direct Employment Agency.

answer

A

question

Which one of the following statements indicates proper telephone etiquette? A. Owners of hospitalized animals should be discouraged from calling to inquire about the condition of their animals. B. The telephone should be allowed to ring at least five times before answering so as to give the impression of a busy, thriving practice. C. The telephone should be answered before the end of the third ring. D. The phrases and tone of voice used to greet a caller are unimportant, as long as they convey competence.

answer

C

question

_______ scheduling involves scheduling all clients that would be seen in one hour at the top of the hour and then seeing them in the order in which they arrive. A. Walk-in B. Flow C. On-demand D. Wave

answer

D

question

Appointments for the evaluation of sick patients are usually allotted _______ minutes in the appointment schedule. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 30

answer

D

question

When putting a client on hold, which one of the following phrases is most acceptable? A. "Hold, please." B. "May I put you on hold for a moment?" C. "We're very busy. I'll have to put you on hold for a minute." D. "You'll have to wait. I've got another call."

answer

B

question

The difference between the cost of a product and the amount charged a client is called the A. markup. B. economic order quantity. C. copay. D. overstock percentage.

answer

A

question

A _______ is the amount of a bill that the owner is responsible for after the pet insurance deductible has been met. A. premium B. copay C. deductible D. lifetime limit

answer

B

question

The _______ released a landmark study in 1999 indicating that the increased use of veterinary pet health insurance could increase the demand for service, and, therefore, decrease the euthanasia rate in the United States. A. FDA B. USDA C. AVMA D. NCVEI

answer

D

question

When greeting clients in the reception area, you should direct clients to place all pet carriers A. on the reception counter. B. on the floor in front of the reception counter. C. in an exam room. D. on a chair in the waiting room.

answer

B

question

_______ scheduling involves scheduling each client according to the length of time that the particular type of appointment requires. A. Walk-in B. Flow C. On-demand D. Wave

answer

B

question

Products dispensed to clients usually have a markup of A. $3-5. B. $5-10. C. $8-14. D. $15-20.

answer

C

question

Accounts that can't be collected by the front office team need to be placed with a _______ agency. A. CareCredit B. collection C. catastrophic insurance D. copay

answer

B

question

Inventory items should ideally be used within _______ of purchase. A. one month B. three to six months C. six to nine months D. one year

answer

B

question

When making appointments for clients, it's best to offer A. two choices of appointment times. B. at least three choices of appointment times. C. an appointment at any time the client considers convenient. D. one specific appointment time with no alternatives.

answer

A

question

The _______ is often responsible for verifying that all items are placed on shelves and other inventory locations. A. receptionist B. veterinary assistant C. practice manager D. veterinarian

answer

B

question

Accounts receivable totals should never exceed _______ percent of the total gross revenue amount. A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10

answer

B

question

Clients must usually fulfill a _______ before the insurance company will offer compensation for a clinic visit. A. premium B. copay C. deductible D. lifetime limit

answer

C

question

Routine appointments for examinations and vaccinations are usually allotted _______ minutes in the appointment schedule. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 30

answer

C

question

Total inventory costs shouldn't exceed about _______ percent of the overall practice income. A. 3 B. 5 C. 15 D. 30

answer

C

question

According to the Fair Debt Rules, clients may not be called before _______ A.M. or after 9 P.M. A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

answer

C

question

_______ is the number of times per year that a particular inventory item is ordered. A. Reorder point B. Stock level C. Inventory turns per year D. Economic order quantity

answer

C

question

Inactive medical records must be retained for _______ years. A. 2 B. 3 C. 7 D. 10

answer

C

question

When a client arrives to pick up his or her pet being discharged from the hospital, the _______ should handle the billing prior to the owner receiving the animal. A. receptionist B. veterinarian C. practice manager D. accountant

answer

A

question

Any history of allergies or hip dysplasia in the patient or other genetic diseases in the patient's parents or siblings are recorded in the _______ section of the SOAP. A. S B. O C. A D. P

answer

A

question

A euthanasia form always authorizes A. the necropsy of a deceased pet. B. the disposal of a deceased pet. C. the death of a pet in a humane manner. D. heroic measures to save the pet.

answer

C

question

The term that refers to the primary reason the client has made the appointment to bring the pet to the practice is A. subjective information. B. patient history information. C. presenting problem. D. POMR.

answer

C

question

Which one of the following pieces of information about the vaccine is required on a rabies vaccination certificate? A. Route of administration B. Manufacturer of vaccine C. Volume of vaccine administered D. Date of last vaccine

answer

B

question

Appointments for recheck visits should be made A. by calling the client the day after the procedure. B. by calling the client one week after the procedure. C. before the client leaves the clinic. D. before the initial procedure is performed.

answer

C

question

For scheduled admissions, the patient record is retrieved A. one hour prior to the admission. B. one day prior to the admission. C. one week prior to the admission. D. when the client arrives at admission.

answer

B

question

A(n) _______ form is signed by the client after all information regarding the procedure has been provided and the client has had the opportunity to ask questions. A. blanket consent B. treatment information C. client information D. informed consent

answer

D

question

Information on where a pet was acquired is usually included on the _______ form. A. patient information B. treatment consent C. behavioral history D. client information

answer

A

question

Observations made by the client are recorded in the _______ section of the SOAP. A. S B. O C. A D. P

answer

A

question

Treatments, surgery, and medications are recorded in the _______ section of the SOAP. A. S B. O C. A D. P

answer

D

question

Client and patient records can be shared with _______ without the owner's permission. A. boarding kennels B. social media sites C. other employees of the practice D. doctors at other hospitals

answer

C

question

The definitive diagnosis is recorded in the _______ section of the SOAP. A. S B. O C. A D. P

answer

C

question

Once solutions to conflict are identified, it's important to create a(n) _______ to implement solutions. A. meeting schedule B. action list C. problem list D. new work schedule

answer

B

question

Body language accounts for almost _______ percent of communication. A. 60 B. 40 C. 20 D. 10

answer

A

question

Before you begin to reply to someone, wait _______ until after he or she is finished and use that time to formulate your response. A. three seconds B. one second C. three minutes D. one minute

answer

A

question

Words or phrases that have a high potential to elicit a negative response from others are referred to as A. environmental barriers. B. conflict resolving. C. language barriers. D. resolution implementation.

answer

C

question

_______ is also known as secondary traumatic stress disorder. A. Stress B. Job burnout C. Compassion fatigue D. Trauma

answer

C

question

_______ can be used for medical-record keeping to reduce the need to record repetitious entries on multiple records. A. Hospital manuals B. Computerized systems C. Digital backups D. Standard operating procedures

answer

D

question

Managing compassion fatigue starts with _______ the condition. A. denial of B. therapy for C. treatment of D. awareness of

answer

D

question

_______ and resolution are healing emotions when the client accepts the loss and may begin to consider obtaining another pet. A. Bargaining B. Anger C. Sorrow D. Guilt

answer

C

question

To demonstrate that you're interested in what another person is saying, you should A. maintain eye contact. B. stare at the person. C. cross your arms. D. fold your hands.

answer

A

question

In body language, folded arms generally indicate A. anger. B. defensiveness. C. discomfort. D. a sense of superiority.

answer

A

question

The first stage of grief is usually A. anger. B. bargaining. C. guilt. D. denial.

answer

D

question

In body language, _______ is generally regarded as aggressive. A. nodding B. tilting the head C. crossing the hands D. staring

answer

D

question

Owners of _______ will likely feel pet loss intensely. A. family pets B. hunting dogs C. assistance dogs D. herding dogs

answer

C

question

When dealing with an angry client, you should ask him or her to A. wait in a quiet room to cool off. B. join you in a separate area so you can listen to his or her concerns privately. C. wait until one of the veterinarians is available. D. leave the office with the promise that someone call him or her later.

answer

B

question

Owners who are well bonded to their pets are more likely to A. request euthanasia so their pet doesn't suffer. B. become angry with the practice staff. C. get a new pet as soon as one dies. D. recognize signs of illness in their pets.

answer

D

question

Methods to help strengthen the human-animal bond usually include A. choosing an active pet. B. recommending puppy or kitten socialization class and obedience training. C. getting a new pet as soon as one dies. D. choosing a sedentary pet.

answer

B

question

_______ is a common root of conflict. A. Anger B. Perception C. Misunderstanding D. Laziness

answer

C

question

Polyuria means A. decreased urine production. B. blood in the urine. C. pain in the urethra. D. much urine.

answer

D

question

Which joint of the hindlimb would be equivalent to the human ankle? A. Withers B. Flank C. Palmar surface D. Hock

answer

D

question

An intact male horse over four years old is referred to as a A. mare. B. sire. C. stallion. D. colt.

answer

C

question

An abnormal accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity is called A. hemothorax. B. hemopleuritis. C. hemoptysis. D. hemopneumonia.

answer

A

question

A young female cow before her first calf is referred to as a A. mare. B. dam. C. yearling. D. heifer.

answer

D

question

Which term describes a female cat? A. Tom B. Queen C. Ewe D. Bitch

answer

B

question

The lateral side of the abdomen between the last rib and the hindlimb is referred to as the A. withers. B. flank. C. palmar surface. D. hock.

answer

B

question

The term that describes a direction towards the tail end of an animal is A. muzzle. B. cranial. C. rostral. D. caudal.

answer

D

question

Dysuria means A. deficient urine production. B. painful or difficult urination. C. blood in the urine. D. pertaining to urination.

answer

B

question

Anuric means A. pertaining to absence of urine. B. much production of urine. C. deficiency of urine. D. a condition of the urine.

answer

A

question

The term that describes a direction towards the tip of the nose on the head is A. muzzle. B. cranial. C. rostral. D. caudal.

answer

C

question

Polydipsia means A. decreased drinking. B. difficult drinking. C. no drinking. D. much drinking.

answer

D

question

The correct term to describe fever is A. polytemp. B. polyfever. C. pyoxia. D. pyrexia.

answer

D

question

Cystocentesis means A. movement of the thorax. B. sensation of the bladder. C. abnormal condition of the abdomen. D. surgical puncture of the bladder.

answer

D

question

The correct spelling of the word meaning "bluish tinge to the skin and mucous membranes" is A. cianosis. B. cyianosis. C. cyanosis. D. cyanoses.

answer

C

question

Enzymes contain the suffix A. -ase. B. -ate. C. -ac. D. an.

answer

A

question

Myositis means A. inflammation of the muscles. B. inflammation of the spinal cord. C. a condition of the muscles. D. a condition of the spinal cord.

answer

A

question

Polyuria A. is an abbreviated way of saying "renal failure." B. is the opposite of anuria. C. means "having more than one kidney." D. means "having multiple pouches developing from the urinary bladder."

answer

B

question

Which suffix refers to surgical removal of a body part? A. -trophy B. -lytic C. -centesis D. -ectomy

answer

D

question

The bones of the hindlimb include the A. humerus. B. femur. C. carpus. D. radius.

answer

B

question

The _______ is a membrane-bound area within the cell that contains and protects the cell's DNA. A. Golgi apparatus B. mitochondria C. nucleus D. vacuole

answer

C

question

The lungs receive blood from the A. right ventricle. B. alveoli. C. left ventricle. D. aorta.

answer

A

question

Blood is a type of _______ tissue. A. epithelial B. squamous C. cartilage D. connective

answer

D

question

_______ is a type of tissue that covers surfaces in the body, such as organs and body cavities. A. Connective B. Muscle C. Epithelial D. Nervous

answer

C

question

Ligaments are an example of _______ tissue. A. connective B. muscle C. epithelial D. nervous

answer

A

question

The _______ forms the ventral portion of the thorax. A. sternum B. atlas C. axis D. ribcage

answer

A

question

Nearly all mammals have _______ cervical vertebrae. A. five B. seven C. three D. eleven

answer

B

question

The _______ vertebrae form the animal's tail. A. sacral B. lumbar C. cervical D. coccygeal

answer

D

question

The _______ is an accessory organ to the digestive system. A. esophagus B. ureters C. malleus D. pancreas

answer

D

question

_______ is a general sense. A. Hearing B. Taste C. Vision D. Proprioception

answer

D

question

The gestation period for dogs and cats is approximately A. six weeks. B. one month. C. two months. D. five months.

answer

C

question

The _______ releases hormones that regulate hormone release from the other major endocrine glands. A. pancreas B. posterior pituitary C. hypothalamus D. adrenal gland

answer

C

question

The liver secretes _______ to aid in digestion. A. chyme B. bile C. digestive enzymes D. saliva

answer

B

question

A drug given intravenously as a single volume all at one time is described as a A. CRI. B. bolus. C. dosage. D. regimen.

answer

B

question

Drugs that don't require a prescription are referred to as A. controlled. B. over-the-counter. C. dispensable. D. generic.

answer

B

question

Amoxicillin is an example of a _______ name of a drug. A. proprietary B. generic C. trade D. chemical

answer

B

question

Of these four needle-gauge numbers, which one represents the smallest-diameter needle? A. 18 B. 20 C. 22 D. 24

answer

D

question

_______ is an inhalant anesthetic agent commonly used in veterinary medicine. A. Propofol B. Ketamine C. Sevoflurane D. Thiamylal

answer

C

question

A(n) _______ is a drug that's capable of inhibiting bacterial replication. A. bacteriostatic B. bactericidal C. virucidal D. anthelmintic

answer

A

question

A medication that's injected into the skin is abbreviated as A. IM. B. IV. C. ID. D. IP.

answer

C

question

An antitussive is a type of drug that A. dilates the respiratory tract. B. thins mucous secretions. C. blocks the cough reflex. D. reduces congestion.

answer

C

question

A medication that's injected into a blood vessel is abbreviated as A. IM. B. IV. C. ID. D. IP.

answer

B

question

If a medication label states that the drug must be stored at 25 degrees C, it should be placed in A. a cabinet at room temperature. B. the refrigerator. C. the freezer. D. an incubator.

answer

A

question

Which one of the following drugs is a commonly used analgesic in veterinary medicine? A. Yohimbine B. Fentanyl C. Phenobarbital D. Doxapram

answer

B

question

The abbreviation po on a prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered A. by mouth. B. topically. C. in the eyes. D. by injection.

answer

A

question

If the veterinarian writes a prescription for a patient indicating that the patient must be given two tablets of a medication b.i.d. for seven days, how many tablets must be dispensed? A. 2 B. 7 C. 14 D. 28

answer

D

question

Prednisone is a type of _______ medication. A. anti-inflammatory B. NSAID C. fever-reducing D. anesthetic

answer

A

question

The abbreviation prn on a prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered A. orally. B. daily. C. in the right eye. D. as needed.

answer

D

question

Rewarding an animal with praise is effective when the praise is given within _______ of the correct behavior. A. one-half second B. 30 seconds C. 1 minute D. 10 minutes

answer

A

question

To restrain a dog for the collection of blood from the jugular vein, a _______ recumbency would be used. A. sternal B. ventral-dorsal C. transverse D. lateral

answer

A

question

_______ is the least appropriate for restraining an aggressive dog. A. Applying a gauze muzzle B. Crowding a dog into a corner of the room C. Standing restraint D. Sedating and holding a dog in lateral recumbency

answer

B

question

Ethology refers to A. the ethical behaviors of trainers. B. behavioral acts done with no obvious reason. C. the treatment of behavior problems. D. the study of animal behavior.

answer

D

question

The association of a particular activity with a punishment or reward is referred to as A. operant conditioning. B. classical conditioning. C. instinct. D. imprinting.

answer

A

question

Stalking and pouncing behavior with no evidence of growling indicates A. separation anxiety. B. predatory aggression. C. interdog aggression. D. house soiling.

answer

B

question

Which one of the following methods is most appropriate for lifting a 60-pound dog that's pregnant? A. Put one arm around the neck and one under the abdomen B. Put one arm around the chest and the other around the back legs C. Put the front legs on a table and boost up the back end D. Have one person control the neck and chest and another person control the other control the abdomen and rear

answer

D

question

The most important socialization period in kittens is A. 2 to 7 weeks. B. 4 to 16 weeks. C. 3 to 6 months. D. 6 to 12 months.

answer

A

question

A dog that has its head dropped lower than its shoulders, its eyes staring straight ahead, and its tail straight out, should be considered A. normal and well adjusted. B. nervous. C. frightened. D. aggressive.

answer

D

question

How many litter boxes should there be per household? A. One B. One for each cat C. One in each room D. One for each cat plus an extra one

answer

D

question

When assisting clients in choosing a new pet, be sure to A. use a puppy temperament test. B. match the client and pet activity level and lifestyle. C. recommend an older pet for older clients. D. verify that the pet can be obtained during the imprinting period.

answer

B

question

Withholding affection when a dog jumps up to greet you is an example of A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. positive punishment. D. negative punishment.

answer

D

question

The _______ should only be used as a last resort to restrain a cat. A. cat lasso B. restraint bag C. burrito wrap D. easy nabber

answer

A

question

Behaviors that bonds animals to their caretakers in early life are referred to as A. classical conditioning. B. operant conditioning. C. imprinting. D. instinct.

answer

C

question

Maternal aggression is primarily A. directed at humans that aren't members of the household. B. a normal protective instinct. C. the result of an unpredictable environment. D. the result of lack of socialization

answer

B

question

Territorial aggressive behavior in cats is usually directed toward A. people. B. dogs. C. other cats. D. furniture.

answer

C

question

Positioning aids such as foam wedges or v-troughs may be needed to keep a large dog comfortable in _______ recumbency. A. dorsal B. sternal C. ventral D. supine

answer

A

question

Transmission of disease that results from contact with an infectious agent on an inanimate object is referred to as A. direct transmission. B. indirect transmission. C. nosocomial infection. D. reservoir infection.

answer

B

question

_______ is a fat-soluble vitamin. A. Thiamin B. Vitamin D C. Niacin D. Folic acid

answer

B

question

A dog whose ribs are easily visible and has no palpable fat would be classified with a body condition score of A. 2. B. 4. C. 6. D. 8.

answer

A

question

_______ is/are an energy-producing nutrient. A. Fat B. Water C. Vitamins D. Minerals

answer

A

question

Vaccination against the _______ pathogen is considered non-core. A. canine distemper B. canine parvovirus C. rabies D. Borrelia burgdorferi

answer

D

question

The organization that publishes guidelines for pet food ingredients is A. AVMA. B. NAVTA. C. AAFCO. D. SVBT.

answer

C

question

Mammals can't digest A. fatty acids. B. insoluble carbohydrates. C. soluble carbohydrates. D. nonessential amino acids.

answer

B

question

Infestation with Dirofilaria immitis causes A. heartworm disease. B. ringworm. C. kennel cough. D. sarcoptic mange.

answer

A

question

Increased _______ is a sign of inflammation. A. redness B. sweating C. heart rate D. joint function

answer

A

question

Puppies should gain approximately _______ g/kg of their adult body weight each day. A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 4 C. 5 to 6 D. 6 to 10

answer

B

question

Dogs with brachycephalic heads are prone to A. heat stress. B. diabetes. C. obesity. D. atopy.

answer

A

question

Zoonotic diseases are those that are A. spread between animals and people. B. contagious to other animals. C. noninfectious. D. acquired while in the veterinary hospital.

answer

A

question

The three major components of a preventive medicine program include A. housing, lighting, ventilation. B. husbandry, vaccination, sanitation. C. vaccination, sanitation, ventilation. D. husbandry, housing, sanitation.

answer

B

question

The cause of a disease is referred to as its A. etiology. B. necropsy. C. pathology. D. histopathology.

answer

A

question

_______ should be limited in a geriatric dog. A. Zinc B. Phosphorus C. Copper D. Vitamin B complex

answer

B

question

When expressing anal sacs, the first step is to A. gently massage the sac. B. clean the patient's perineum. C. put on a disposable glove. D. palpate the anal sac.

answer

C

question

_______ administration means "giving medication by injection." A. Topical B. Parenteral C. Semitendinosus D. Lavage

answer

B

question

Small amounts of medications and fluids administered by SC injection are absorbed in approximately _______ minutes. A. 5 to 10 B. 20 to 30 C. 60 to 90 D. 120 to 180

answer

B

question

Decubital ulcers are primarily caused by A. urine scalding. B. excessive moisture. C. pressure. D. delayed wound closure.

answer

C

question

The recommended needle size when administering SC fluids to average-sized dogs and cats is A. 14. B. 16. C. 18. D. 22.

answer

C

question

The best way to lavage a wound is by using A. gravity flow. B. a bulb syringe. C. a 35 mL to 60 mL syringe and needle. D. a turkey baster.

answer

C

question

An animal would be placed in _______ for nasal administration of medications. A. sternal recumbency B. lateral recumbency C. a standing position D. dorsal recumbency

answer

A

question

Recumbent patients should be turned every _______ minutes. A. 15 to 30 B. 30 to 40 C. 60 to 90 D. 120 to 240

answer

D

question

If the quick is accidentally cut during nail trimming, the proper course of action is the A. application of pressure. B. application of ice. C. administration of pain medication. D. No action is needed.

answer

A

question

Which one of the following choices is an open-ended question? A. "Have you noticed Fluffy drinking more water than usual?" B. "Was this problem only observed in the last few days?" C. "How would you describe Fluffy's activity level?" D. "Does Fluffy have a fever?"

answer

C

question

A patient's vital signs include the patient's _______, respiratory rate, and heart or pulse rate. A. temperature B. blood type C. age D. vaccination status

answer

A

question

Pressure sores are also referred to as A. decubital ulcers. B. eschars. C. phlebitis. D. tenesmus.

answer

A

question

Skin testing is performing using _______ injection. A. SC B. IM C. ID D. IV

answer

C

question

_______ wounds are wounds that have happened very recently. A. Open B. Acute C. Chronic D. Closed

answer

B

question

SOAP?

answer

Subjective, objective, assesment, plan

question

What does the Subjective mean in soap?

answer

Onset Location Duration CHaracter (sharp, dull, etc.) Alleviating/Aggravating factors Radiation Temporal pattern (every morning, all day, etc.) Severity Variants on this mnemonic (more than one could be listed here) include OPQRST and LOCQSMAT Location Onset (when and mechanism of injury - if applicable) Chronology (better or worse since onset, episodic, variable, constant, etc.) Quality (sharp, dull, etc.) Severity (usually a pain rating) Modifying factors (what aggravates/reduces the symptoms - activities, postures, drugs, etc.) Additional symptoms (un/related or significant symptoms to the chief complaint) Treatment (has the patient seen another provider for this symptom?)

question

what does the Objective mean in soap?

answer

Vital signs and measurements, such as weight. Findings from physical examinations, including basic systems of cardiac and respiratory, the affected systems, possible involvement of other systems, pertinent normal findings and abnormalities. Results from laboratory and other diagnostic tests already completed. Medication list obtained from pharmacy or medical records.

question

what does assessment mean in soap?

answer

A medical diagnosis for the purpose of the medical visit on the given date of the note written is a quick summary of the patient with main symptoms/diagnosis including a differential diagnosis, a list of other possible diagnoses usually in order of most likely to least likely.

question

what does plan mean in soap?

answer

The plan is what the health care provider will do to treat the patient's concerns - such as ordering further labs, radiological work up, referrals given, procedures performed, medications given and education provided. The plan will also include goals of therapy and patient-specific drug and disease-state monitoring parameters.

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