Total SSC102

Flashcard maker : Lily Taylor
T
An advantage of oral messages is that they can be transmitted quickly.
T
An advantage of a written message is that it is a permanent record that may have legal value
T
Secondary purposes support the main idea in a written message.
F
Memos may have an internal or external audience.
F
The traditional outline method works well when generating ideas and determining how they relate to one another
T
Changing writing methods can help overcome writer’s block.
F
Research represents the most common Internet application.
T
A distribution list may be used when multiple receivers are sent the same e-mail message.
T
Blogs are more conversational in tone than a business letter.
T
A user-friendly web design and effective navigation enhance the credibility of a website.
F
The first step in developing a business message is to draft the message.
T
Message purposes should be established within the framework of the four business communication goals.
F
Writers should use the “more is better” principle when selecting the number and variety of word processing emphasis techniques to use in print and e-mail messages.
F
Revising and editing are different names for the same process.
F
Grammar and spelling errors need not be corrected in business messages sent via e-mail.
T
Proofreading is done before and after revising and editing.
T
Business e-mail should be developed using the same three-step plan as other messages.
F
E-mail is so popular because it affords a high degree of privacy.
F
A grammar checker detects and corrects grammar and punctuation errors.
T
A message with long words and sentences may have a high readability level even if the words are familiar and the sentences are easy to understand.
T
All computer programs are not compatible when it comes to attachments, and some e-mail programs don’t support multiple attachments.
F
Use emoticons in business e-mail to give personality to your messages.
T
The most important information in an e-mail should be the opening sentence or paragraph.
F
If you inadvertently send an e-mail before you are ready, it is easy to retrieve or cancel the e-mail.
F
Format and style of a message vary with the audience.
T
The revision stage allows the writer to make changes that add strength and distinctiveness to the message.
F
A thesaurus suggests alternatives or antonyms for words in a message.
T
Readability formulas assess the sentence length, complexity of sentence structure, and the number of syllables or characters in words.
F
The “cc” feature of e-mail is used to ensure receivers’ e-mail addresses are not made public.
F
Websites need regular maintenance; at a minimum, semi-annual updates to a website should be made.
A
The four areas in which you analyze the receiver of a message are
a. knowledge, interests, attitudes, and emotional reaction.
b. knowledge, interests, attitudes, and gender.
c. knowledge, interests, emotional reaction, and age.
d. knowledge, interests, emotional reaction, and culture.
D
Which of the following is the three-step process for developing business messages?
a. Analyze receiver and situation, select organizational plan, and compose message content.
b. Determine purposes, analyze receiver and situation, and compose message content.
c. Plan, compose, proofread.
d. Plan, draft, finalize.
A
Which of the following is NOT part of the planning process?
a. Apply the principles of business communication.
b. Establish purposes.
c. Outline the message content.
d. Select the organizational plan.
D
The best organizational plan and best type of message for persuading someone to donate to a community project that feeds the homeless is a(n)
a. direct, oral message.
b. direct, written message.
c. indirect, oral message.
d. indirect, written message.
C
Which of the following is NOT a step in the proofreading process?
a. Pay special attention to names, numbers, and unusual words.
b. Read the material once for content, once for mechanics.
c. Read the material to a colleague bottom to top.
d. Use your word processing software spell checker to check for spelling errors.
B
The revising process includes all but which one of the following?
a. Checking to see that business communication principles have been applied
b. Determining whether the message is mechanically correct
c. Thinking about the visual image the message creates
d. Verifying the content for accuracy and completeness
D
Which of the following is an appropriate situation in which to use e-mail?
a. Cancellation of a meeting scheduled for this afternoon
b. Discussion of a job performance evaluation
c. Negotiation of a salary increase
d. Reminder of an upcoming deadline for budget submissions
B
An advantage of an oral message is that it
a. accommodates lengthy and complex content.
b. allows for immediate feedback.
c. can have legal value.
d. provides a permanent record.
C
Which of the following is the best subject line for an e-mail message?
a. Budget Request
b. Budget Request and Performance Appraisal Due
c. Budget Request Due February 15
d. FW: RE: FW: FW: Budget Request
A
Which of the following statements about instant messaging is NOT true?
a. A professional tone with no slang is a hallmark of instant messaging.
b. The content of an instant message should be limited to one or two thoughts.
c. The message length is limited.
d. The most-used feature of instant messaging is the “away” message alert.
F
The impression a message makes is based solely on its content.
T
A letter may be used for formal communication between an organization and its employees.
F
06/03/2011 is an acceptable format for the date in a letter from an organization to one of its customers..
F
Letterhead stationery should be used for all pages of a letter.
T
The complimentary close Respectfully is too formal to use with the salutation Dear Rob.
F
Addressee and delivery notations are placed on an envelope, but not on a letter.
T
A subject line is considered part of the letter body.
F
The trend in business writing is to place the receiver’s name in an attention line rather than keying it as the first line of the inside address.
T
An enclosure notation alerts the receiver that something has been included with the letter.
F
The notation bcc stands for business courtesy copy.
T
A postscript may be keyed or handwritten.
F
Mixed punctuation means the salutation is followed by a colon, and the complimentary close has no punctuation.
T
In a personal business letter, the date is keyed directly below the writer’s return address.
F
Although the language in which a letter is written may vary from country to country, the formats used for letter are standard worldwide
F
REGISTERED MAIL is an addressee notation.
T
The spacing used for the body of a memo is the same as that used in a full-block letter.
T
Using a greeting before and a signature after the text of an e-mail message is a function of style, not a format requirement.
F
The difference between executive letterhead stationery and standard letterhead stationery is the quality of the paper.
T
Organizations select 20-pound bond for letterhead stationery not only because it looks good but also because it is durable.
T
The color and quality of the paper used for an envelope should match that used for the letter
B
Which of the following items is not considered to be a standard letter part?
a. Complimentary close
b. Enclosure notation
c. Heading
d. Reference initials
D
Which of the following date displays is correct for a business letter?
a. 03/06/2011
b. 12 Oct. 2011
c. 2011 January 07
d. May 16, 2011
C
Which of the following statements about letterhead stationery is incorrect?
a. It should not extend beyond the top two inches of the page.
b. It may be professionally printed or created with computer software and a printer.
c. Only contact information should be included in a letterhead.
d. Some letterhead information can be printed at the bottom of the sheet.
C
Ruthann Rodgers is writing a personal business letter to her bank. Which of the following represents the correct format for the heading of her letter?
a. August 6, 2011
1234 Avenue C
Denver, CO 75926-3882
b. Ruthann Rodgers
1234 Avenue C
Denver, CO 75926-3882
August 6, 2011
c. 1234 Avenue C
Denver, CO 75926-3882
August 6, 2011
d. August 6, 2011
Ruthann Rodgers
1234 Avenue C
Denver, CO 75926-3882
A
When a message extends to two or more pages,
a. key the receiver’s name, the page number, and the date starting one inch from the top edge of the paper.
b. place the heading items two inches from the top of the sheet.
c. the text begins on line 7.
d. repeat the inside address and the date as shown on the first page of the document.
e. use letterhead, and place the date two inches form the top edge of the paper.
B
If less than a full paragraph of letter text can be carried to a continuation page, the writer should:
a. choose a larger font and use wider margins.
b. revise the message to fit on one page.
c. select a smaller font.
d. use narrower margins.
A
A writer may use street abbreviations (e.g., St. for Street) within an inside address when:
a. abbreviating the word will create a balanced display.
b. correspondence from the receiver uses such abbreviations.
c. the writer is confident the receiver will understand the abbreviation.
d. the writer is in a hurry.
C
Which of the following salutations works best in a letter addressed to the attention of Barb Colby, the Marketing Manager at Jeckyl Manufacturing Company?
a. Dear Barb:
b. Dear Ms. Colby:
c. Ladies and Gentlemen:
d. To Whom it May Concern:
A
Margo Clark keyed a letter written by Bill Ramkin and signed by D’Wayne Bullock. Which of the following sets of reference initials best represents this situation?
a. BR:mc
b. DB/mc
c. DB/BR:mc
d. mc
D
The letter format in which a subject line is standard rather than supplementary is the:
a. full block format.
b. modified block format.
c. modified block format with indented paragraphs.
d. simplified format.
T
With technology, collaborative writing may occur as an interactive or an independent act.
F
Ethics are binding rules of conduct enforceable by a governing agency.
T
Advances in technology allow individuals to self-select what, when, and where electronic messages are sent and received.
T
Facebook, LinkedIn, and Ning are examples of social network sites
T
Organizations and businesses, as well as individuals, use blogs and wikis.
F
RSS feeds mean a published list of websites.
T
Hoteling provides alternative office space for mobile workers and provides computer connections and phone service.
T
Google is a search engine that offers tools and special services for individuals and businesses.
T
BlackBerry, Treo, and iPhone are mobile phones that can connect to the Internet.
F
Tweeting is a term for sending messages on MySpace.
F
Monitoring of e-mail by private employers is not allowed because e-mail is private and such monitoring is an invasion of privacy.
T
The primary purpose of a wiki is collaborative editing and writing.
T
Inappropriate use of e-mail or the Internet at work not only affects productivity but also may create a legal issue or result in loss of the employee’s job.
F
Once e-mail messages or other computer files are deleted, they cannot be retrieved.
T
Copyright is a legal protection for the author or owner of written work, art, music, photographs, multimedia, and computer software that controls reproduction, distribution, and sale of copyrighted work.
F
If you don’t see the copyright symbol or the word Copyright followed by the year, you can be certain the material is free of copyright.
F
Unsolicited telephone calls to a person on a no-call list are unethical but not illegal.
T
Plagiarism is using someone else’s ideas or original works and not giving credit to the source.
T
Employees should treat e-mail, voice-mail, and other electronic messages that they send as if they will be public knowledge.
T
A federal electronic signature law endorsed contractual arrangements through electronic signatures logically associated with a record and encrypted for privacy.
T
Search engines may offer selection choices from broad topic categories before entering a term for a specific search.
F
Fair use means that only the owner of original works of authorship can use them.
T
An enforceable contract may result from a letter or signed notes on a napkin if it has these elements: offer and acceptance, competency of parties, legality of subject matter, and consideration (money, motive, or promise exchanged).
F
The Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination in employment for race, color, religion, and physical challenge.
T
A bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is an essential job function that can legally be required for hiring of applicants.
A
Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a valid contract?
a. written on a contract form c. offer and acceptance
b. competency of parties d. legal subject matter
C
What law protects the right of employees to access information about themselves.
a. Fair Credit Billing Act c. Privacy Act
b. Federal Truth-in-Lending Act d. Fair Debt Collection Act
B
What law prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender, or national origin when hiring, firing, compensating, or applying other employment conditions?
a. Americans with Disabilities Act c. Privacy Act
b. Civil Rights Act d. Federal Ethical Management Act
D
What law gives employees the right of access to information about themselves?
a. The Civil Rights Act c. Labor-Management Relations Act
b. FERPA d. Privacy Act
A
5. A bona fide occupational qualification means
a. an essential function of the job c. disability accommodations are not required
b. a method of evaluating employees d. a, b, and c
D
False statements, either written or oral, that injure the reputation or character of another person but cause no monetary camages are called
a. false warranties c. libel
b. fraud d. defamation
D
Which condition is NOT a condition to prove fraud?
a. spoken words c. deceit that causes monetary damage
b. concealment of a material fact d. accidental misrepresentation
B
Federal law requires manufacturers and sellers to stand behind a purchase of a major product. A promise made willingly by the seller is called an
a. Universal law c. Uniform warranty
b. Express warranty d. Implied warranty
D
Which of the following are means of acquainting employees with organizational policies on the use of e-mail, Internet, and other company resources?
a. employee handbook c. Organizational website
b. statement of the policy signed by employees d. a, b, and c
C
Fraud is not committed unless this condition is present
a. a Code of Conduct is violated. c. Misrepresentation with intent to deceive.
b. No family relationship exists between the two parties. d. A person’s reputation is injured with no monetary damage.
T
Outsourcing moves part or all of the business processes to a service provider..
T
Cultural background affects how individuals communicate and how they interpret messages from others.
F
An understanding of cultures recognizes that cultural backgrounds and experiences influence behavior and communication so it is important to learn certain characteristics of different cultures and apply that to all persons in a particular culture.
F
People in high-context cultures place high value on productivity and direct communication.
F
Although there are many language differences throughout the world, nonverbal signals are basically the same.
F
The friendly, outgoing competitive, informal American primarily uses the indirect plan of business communication and may not be well received in Asian countries.
T
Some English words may have different meanings in different countries although the native language in these countries may be English.
T
Ethnocentrism is the inherent belief that one’s own cultural values and traditions are correct and superior to other cultures.
F
English is the primary language used in conducting multinational business; therefore, current global marketing strategies shape their products and their Web sites to appeal only to the countries where English is the native language.
F
Only women can be victims of sexual harassment.
T
Both genders bring strength to the workplace; but, in general, women in the United States tend to use language to create connections and relationships more than men do.
F
Quid pro quo is a term used to describe different cultural beliefs.
T
Some words and phrases are difficult to translate from one language to another.
F
Learning about.other cultures lets you categorize individual persons by their culture and know their beliefs and preferences.
T
In general, Asian cultural background has favored an indirect style of communication.
T
A global supply chain is a system of moving products or services from supplier to consumers by outsourcing part of the ssupply system to resources from other countries.
F
Computer translation software can be used to translate languages; therefore, translators are no longer required to communicate between two languages.
F
Low-context countries generally take a long-term view of time.
T
Guidelines for successful business communication in a multinational and global society is to review communication principles, analyze the message receiver, be open to and accepting of other cultures, learn about other cultures and apply what you learn, and consider language needs.
T
Gender and age are two of five core cultural dimensions.
A
Five generally recognized core cultural dimensions are
a. ethnicity, race, gender, age, and physical challenge. c. English, German, Scandinavian, French, and Japanese.
b. corporate, multicultural, language, ethnicity, and global. d. friends, colleagues, employers, employees, and family.
D
In Germany business communication generally requires that business transactions
a. begin with small talk. c. rely on informal relationships and. understandings
b. are indirectly discussed. d. focuses on getting the job done..
A
The primary business language, even in countries for which English is the second language, is
a. English c. French
b. indirect d. Spanish
D
Examples of communication challenges in a global environment are
a. Not understanding cultural differences c. Words that have different meanings and connotations and different language patterns for parts of speech
b. Differences in time d. a, b, and c
B
Cultural barriers that prohibit effective multicultural communication include
a. cultural relativism, ethnocentrism, and lack of global experience. c. quid pro quo, high-context culture, and the acceptance of the needs of others.
b. Discrimination and harrassment, language, cultural relativism, and ethnocentrism. d. stereotypes, hostile environment, and a common business language.
A
Global communication challenges include
a. variations in time, holidays, days in a workweek, and language. c. lack of understanding of other cultures and placing a high value on mutual understanding.
b. direct and indirect communication styles, belief that there is more than one right way, and shared meanings. d. productivity and favorable relationships.
B
Countries with a general preference for indirect communication are likely also to
a. value individualism. c. place a higher value on words than shared background.
b. value family and group authority. d. favor structured messages with technical details.
D
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of language variations?
a. Translation of slogans may have different meanings. c. The use and arrangement of parts of speech vary in different languages.
b. Words such as “gift” may have a different meaning. d. Nonverbal signals are the same or similar in different countries; for example, a smile is a smile.
C
The belief that your own cultural traditions and values are correct and superior is
a. cultural relativism. c. ethnocentrism.
b. a stereotype. d. quid pro quo.
C
Strategies for effective global communication include
a. communicating by telephone instead of e-mail or postal mail. c. learning about other cultures and applying what you learn.
b. using a translator when speaking to a person whose English is a second language. d. avoiding use of any words in a language other than your own to avoid being incorrect.
F
Effective external communication has a greater impact on an organization’s success than effective internal communication.
F
The sender and receiver have equal responsibility for achieving the goals of business communication
T
The most important goal of business communication is that the receiver understands the message as the sender intends.
T
Citing receiver benefits in a message not only fosters a favorable relationship between the sender and the receiver but also demonstrates use of the you-viewpoint.
F
LMN Clothing sent a letter to its credit card customers to give them advance notice of an upcoming sale. Harry Pasco received the letter, read it, and gave it to his neighbor; however, Harry did not shop at LMN during the sale. Harry’s action means that LMN has achieved the goal of favorable response.
T
To establish a favorable relationship, the message sender and receiver should relate to each other positively, personally, and professionally.
T
Employees help to establish and maintain organizational goodwill by communicating positively about the company’s products, services, and personnel.
F
An individual’s status within an organization has no affect on the communication process.
T
Serial communication may follow a horizontal path as well as a vertical path.
T
Efforts to suppress an organization’s open, honest, complete grapevine communication can lead to low employee morale.
F
Jackie Parcel works for Hamilton State Bank in Joplin, Missouri. When Jackie communicates with Rick Spliker, a representative of the Federal Reserve Bank in St. Louis, she is engaging in internal communication.
F
The components of the communication process model are sender, receiver, you-viewpoint, and communication barriers.
T
Office politics may be positive or negative.
T
As part of the communication process, the sender must encourage feedback and the receiver must provide feedback.
F
The two main types of communication are written and verbal.
T
A sender can initiate a message with written words, spoken words, or gestures.
F
Analyzing a receiver’s knowledge will assist a writer in deciding whether to use the direct or indirect plan when organizing a message.
F
Using the you-viewpoint means eliminating writer-centered words from a message.
T
When speakers use connotative words, they risk having the receiver infer a meaning different from what was intended.
F
A sender’s credibility is based solely on the content of his or her message.
D
Unlike journalistic or creative writing, business writing is:
a. brief.
b. structured.
c. topical.
d. transactional.
C
It was nearly 2 a.m. when Jaynell Washington arrived at her hotel; she was tired and hungry. When she asked the desk clerk how to get to the hotel coffee shop, she was told it was closed. Disappointed, she went to her room. About 15 minutes later, the desk clerk arrived at Jaynell’s room with a plate of cheese and fresh fruit. The clerk refused the tip Jaynell offered, and no food charge was added to her bill. By doing more than was expected, the desk clerk helped achieve the business communication goal of:
a. receiver understanding.
b. receiver response.
c. favorable relationship.
d. organizational goodwill.
D
A communicator’s status within an organization has the greatest influence in:
a. grapevine communication.
b. horizontal communication.
c. network communication.
d. vertical communication.
C
Which of the following terms best describes the grapevine as a communication pattern?
a. Diagonal
b. Informal
c. Serial
d. Verbal
E
Tasha Gibbs, a clerk at Memories and More, must notify Alec Preble that the crystal vase he special ordered as a gift for his grandmother on her 70th birthday arrived with a crack in the base. Tasha has ordered a replacement vase, but it won’t be delivered before Alec leaves for Grandma Preble’s party. What method should Tasha use to convey her message?
a. E-mail
b. Face-to-face meeting
c. Letter
d. Memo
e. Telephone call
C
A receiver’s concerns and needs are considered in which element of audience analysis?
a. Attitudes
b. Emotional Reaction
c. Interests
d. Knowledge
A
Culture should be considered as part of which audience analysis element?
a. Attitudes
b. Emotional Reaction
c. Interests
d. Knowledge
C
Which of the following sentences best reflects the you-viewpoint?
a. Bank with RiverCity Bank, the friendliest bank in town!
b. Make RiverCity Bank your bank.
c. To get the service you need and the respect you deserve, bank with River City Bank.
d. You’ll like RiverCity Bank’s location and services.
D
Which of the following is NOT a formal message?
a. A company’s web page.
b. An e-mail announcing a new health-care benefit for employees.
c. The CEO speaking to employees at a company meeting.
d. Two employees discussing job sharing while at the company holiday party.
B
The phrase “talking a mile a minute” is an example of a/an:
a. denotation.
b. idiom.
c. inference.
d. metaphor.
T
The two most valuable resources for the business communicator are a dictionary and a thesaurus
F
A specialized dictionary is one that shows special symbols for word pronounciation.
F
The primary criterion for an understandable word choice for a message is to choose a word that the sender understands.
T
Technical words are terms with a special meaning in a particular field.
F
Vague or abstract words are indefinite words, but they have a specific meaning that is the same for each receiver of the message.
F
An obsolete word is one that is overused in normal conversation or messages and has lost its effectiveness.
T
Sentence unity comes from limiting content to one main idea.
F
Long sentences are more effective than short sentences because you can cover more thoughts in one sentence.
F
Passive voice is preferred in business messages because they avoid use of first-person pronouns.
T
One way to emphasize an idea is to tell the receiver what is important.
T
A long sentence in a business letter is 30 words or longer.
T
In some situations negative words can be used for emphasis.
F
There is no place in business messages for weak words.
F
A strong word will be either an adjective or adverb because both are descriptive words.
F
Obsolete words sound formal and, therefore, are appropriate in formal but not informal business communication.
F
Short sentences are understandable, so your writing should only use sentences with no more than 20 words.
F
When using sentence structure to give ideas emphasis, place the most important ideas in the dependent clauses.
T
Repeating key words in sentences is a way of giving emphasis to the ideas represented by those words.
F
Diversity has become widely recognized in business; therefore, the use of unbiased language is no longer an essential consideration in the composition of business messages.
T
Generally, the direct plan of paragraph organization is recommended for good news or neutral news.
A
Which words are examples of obsolete words?
a. enclosed herewith c. bottom line
b. get over it d. unhappy
C
A sentence in a paragraph that helps your receiver move from one aspect of the subject to another is called a
a. contrasting sentence c. tie-in sentence
b. unified sentence d. structural sentence
B
Of the following sentences, which would be unbiased?
a. The white teacher spoke to the inner-city youths. c. The Jewish lady moved into an upscale townhouse in Manhatten.
b. Mrs. Smith talked with the students about the difficulties experienced by single-parent families. d. Mr. Brown, 85, spent Thanksgiving with his family.
C
Composing with style means
a. using formal language. c. using clear, concise words that convey your personality.
b. using unusual words. d. using language that creates a sense of mystery for the reader.
C
Which of the words below is most likely to be understood for a middle-level receiver?
a. hermetic c. enjoyment
b. hilarity d. heuristic
C
The words that communicate best are usually those that are
a. words that you know best c. words slightly below your receiver’s vocabulary level
b. words that will increase the receiver’s vocabulary because he or she will need to check a dictionary for the meaning. d. words slightly above your receiver’s vocabulary level
D
Which of the following sentences lacks agreement of subject and verb?
a. The fifth grade class has recess at 10 a.m. c. Martina or her children were always at home on Saturdays.
b. Mary and Janice go to the grocery each day. d. Each year supervisors reminds their staff of Internet-use policies.
C
A sentence structure that allows one idea to be emphasized and one idea to be de-emphasized is the
a. simple sentence c. complex sentence
b. short sentence d. compound sentence
D
Which of the following words is not a transitional word or phrase?
a. second c. for example
b. finally d. readily
B
Which one of the following incorrect sentences lacks parallelism?
a. Managing the store, practicing violin, and attending classes keeps Mary busy. c. Jane Harris, who lives in Martinville, sings in their community choir each year.
b. Leave your practice problems on the desk, your homework should be completed, and be ready for tomorrow’s test.. d. Marsha, John, and Milton take a bicycle ride each evening.
F
In oral communication, what you say is more important than how you say it.
F
While voice pitch can be used effectively for emphasis, voice volume refers simply to being heard by others.
T
Storytelling is used to communicate information and enhance the oral communication process.
T
Both speed and volume can be used to emphasize parts of your message.
T
The tone with which a message is spoken can affect the way a receiver interprets that message.
F
Enunciation and pronunciation are used interchangeably when discussing how to use your voice effectively..
T
Purpose statements should be phrased in terms of the desired result or outcome.
F
Although a lack of confidence on your part will cause you discomfort, it will not particularly bother your audience.
T
Thorough preparation helps to build a speaker’s confidence.
T
Making eye contact with your receiver(s) is one way to project confidence.
T
You can exhibit friendliness by showing a genuine interest in the feedback your audience provides.
T
Your personal appearance is an important part of the total communication environment.
T
The overall organizational framework for a presentation is (1) opening, (2) body, and (3) closing.
T
For most business oral presentations, it is best to use the extemporaneous delivery technique.
T
It is possible to indicate comparisons and contrasts with voice pitch.
F
It is not necessary for a speaker to identify each main point in the body of the presentation; the audience will know by the tone and volume of the speaker’s voice.
T
The closing of a presentation may be a summary of the main points in the presentation or specific what you would like the audience to do.
F
Rehearsing a presentation will make it sound and look “canned.”
T
Storytelling is used to inform, to stimulate imagination, and to build community.
F
To impress an audience, use jargon, acronyms, and highly technical terms.
T
Effective communicators can evaluate nonverbal feedback from their audience while they are presenting their material.
T
The topic and objective of your presentation will determine the organizational pattern used.
F
Platform microphones are the most restrictive; handheld microphones are the least restrictive.
T
Moderators of web conferences, in addition to having some of the same responsibilities as an emcee, are responsible for some of the technical aspects of the event.
F
A team presentation should be viewed as a series of mini-presentations equal to the number of people on the team.
T
Participants in a radio interview have to rely entirely on voice and words to convey the message to the audience.
T
The causal organizational pattern is used in presentations where the speaker is attempting to persuade the audience.
F
Speaking with too little confidence to a large group is called nervousness.
F
A presentation typically has five to seven main points.
F
Presentation aids are designed to increase comprehension and to entertain the audience.
A
Pitch refers to the
a. highness or lowness of your voice.
b. strength of your voice.
c. timbre of your voice.
d. volume of your voice.
B
A manuscript speech
a. allows the speaker to maintain good eye contact with the audience.
b. is used only when precise wording is required.
c. is usually made up of short conversational sentences.
d. will be received well by the audience because there was ample time to prepare the speech and refine the gestures used in the presentation.
D
When preparing a presentation, it is not necessary to include
a. materials related to your main idea.
b. materials that include background materials.
c. materials that support your main idea.
d. materials to use in the question-and-answer period.
B
Rebekah Anspach has just been assigned the task of making an oral presentation to the budget committee of the company she joined three months ago. The first thing Rebekah should do is
a. analyze the audience.
b. determine the purpose of the presentation.
c. draft an outline.
d. gather supporting data.
C
Which of the following is NOT a reason for mispronouncing a word?
a. People you hear using the word pronounce it incorrectly.
b. The dictionary was not consulted for the correct pronunciation of unfamiliar words.
c. The speaker talks too fast and doesn’t take care to verify that he or she is saying the word correctly.
d. The words are unfamiliar.
A
Which of the following is a disadvantage of an impromptu presentation?
a. Increase use of verbal fillers
b. Large degree of eye contact
c. Natural feel of delivery
d. Opportunity to respond to audience feedback
B
What organizational plan would be best for an oral presentation in which a person is being introduced to an audience?
a. Causal
b. Direct or indirect
c. Problem and solution
d. Topical
C
If you have prepared a packet of information to share with those attending your presentation, you should
a. distribute the packet as part of your opening so members can take notes as you speak.
b. distribute the packet as the audience enters so members can read the materials while waiting for you to begin.
c. tell the audience early in the presentation that the materials will be available following the presentation.
d. withhold information about the packet until you are ready to distribute it.
D
Bolsa Industries is implementing a new insurance program, and Thuy Nguyen has been assigned the task of explaining the plan to employees. During the question-and-answer session, one of the attendees incorporates a negative remark about the plan into his question. In responding, Thuy should
a. acknowledge the remark but indicate that he prefers questions without comments.
b. answer the question but use facial expressions to show the questioner that he doesn’t appreciate the negative tone.
c. go directly to the next question without responding to the negative individual.
d. rephrase the question then answer it.
C
When introducing the people seated at a head table, an emcee should
a. alternate right to left from the center out.
b. begin with the main speaker, then others based on status.
c. move from his/her far right to center, then far left to center.
d. use alphabetic sequence.
T
A persuasive message is a communication in which you try to change the opinion of the message’s receiver.
T
The fault is disputable in a special claims message.
T
A sales message is the most common persuasive message in external communication.
F
“More is better” when using numbers, facts, and testimonials as proof of benefits; it will increase the receiver’s interest in your message.
T
Persuasive messages will be viewed as neither positive nor negative by the receiver.
T
A harsh reminder may alienate the customer who intended to pay on time.
F
The desire section of an indirect plan for persuasion asks the receiver to take immediate action.
T
A simple request should use the direct approach, but a complex request should use an indirect approach.
T
The indirect plan is used to put the receiver in the proper frame of mind to accept information that might be objectionable.
T
Recommendations can be submitted at all organizational levels.
F
If you know about your product or service (strengths, weaknesses, and markets) when writing a sales message, it it not necessary to know about the competition.
F
Giving the receiver a deadline by which to take the desired action makes you appear pushy.
T
A call to action ends most persuasive messages.
T
By using the you-viewpoint in a persuasive message, you involve the receiver in the topic and stimulate their interest.
F
Reminder stickers are one technique that may be used in the appeal stage of collection.
T
Many times a sales letter will not use a salutation.
F
The number of steps in each collection stage should be consistent from customer to customer to ensure unbiased treatment.
F
An effective persuasive message tells the receiver the negative consequences that will be realized if he or she does not take the desired action.
F
It is critical to maintain the receiver’s goodwill in a collection message in the warning stage.
F
In a sales letter it is more likely that the receiver will develop interest in a product or service if general statements of the benefits, not specific statements, are used.
T
The three stages of a collection message are progressively more persuasive.
F
Receivers of all requests will need to be persuaded to take action.
T
The opening of a persuasive message should be brief and positive.
F
The sender of a special claims letter does not need to convince the receiver that a refund is appropriate.
T
One danger of using gimmicks to get the receiver’s attention is they may be seen as misleading and cause the receiver to react to the message unfavorably.
C
Which of the following is the proper sequence for a persuasive message using the indirect plan?
a. Action, Interest, Attention, Desire
b. Attention, Desire, Interest, Action
c. Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
d. Interest, Attention, Desire, Action
A
Which of the following methods should NOT be used to capture attention in the opening paragraph of a persuasive message?
a. Use of a hyperlink
b. Use of a rhetorical question
c. Use of an interjection
d. Use of color
D
Which of the following comments best describes a collection message in the appeal stage?
a. It is a reminder for a customer who forgot to pay.
b. It is not concerned with customer goodwill.
c. It is written from the writer’s points of view.
d. It uses the indirect persuasive outline.
C
What is one way that a sales message differs from other business letters?
a. A sales message may contain inaccurate information.
b. A sales message may emphasize your competitors’ strengths.
c. Sentence fragments may be used in a sales message.
d. The you-viewpoint is not important in a sales message.
C
Which of the following is NOT a persuasive message?
a. Collection
b. Employment
c. Invitation
d. Recommendation
D
Which of the following statements about collection messages is INCORRECT?
a. Messages in the reminder stage are not considered persuasive.
b. Messages in the warning stage are not concerned with maintaining a customer’s goodwill.
c. The number of steps in each stage may vary.
d. The writer of a collection message in the appeal stage should not mention a customer’s reputation or credit rating.
B
The correct order of the three stages of collection messages is
a. appeal, warning, reminder.
b. reminder, appeal, warning.
c. reminder, warning, appeal.
d. warning, reminder, appeal.
D
Which of the following is the best closing for a persuasive request?
a. If you are unable to chair this committee, let me know so I can contact someone else about the job.
b. If you are willing to lead this group, please let me know at your earliest convenience.
c. Please call me at 555.394.8704 if you are willing to lead this task force.
d. Please e-mail me your response at [email protected] by April 24.
B
Which of the following is NOT a good opening for a persuasive request?
a. Are you interested in hiring competent, motivated individuals?
b. I would like you to apply for the financial analyst position that is open in our department.
c. Meeting you at the grand opening of the Ronald McDonald House last week was a pleasure.
d. Your work on the Thompson project was excellent.
D
Which of the following situations requires a special claims message?
a. A shipment of 20 glass vases to be used at the company holiday party arrived two weeks prior to the party. Upon unpacking the shipment, you found that six of the vases were broken.
b. A two-year subscription was ordered in April for both Inc. and Money magazine. It is August and your office has not received a copy of either magazine.
c. Your company paid $3,000 to send three employees to a training session on the new version of PeachPit accounting software. The vendor cancelled the training session and rescheduled it at a time and date when your employees cannot attend.
d. Your company recently purchased 15 laptop computers for executives who travel frequently. After two weeks of use, four of the executives indicated that the batteries do not hold a charge for more than an hour.
F
Repeating the same idea in the opening and closing paragraphs of a direct plan message stresses the main idea.
T
A claim is a request for action written by someone who believes he or she has been wronged.
T
Most messages written in business may be described as being positive or neutral news.
T
The purpose of a message must be decided before the direct plan can be implemented.
F
When using the direct plan, a writer presents the explanation from his or her point of view.
T
When using the direct plan, you may place the main idea either in a subject line or in the first paragraph.
T
Personalizing the sales appeal in a message organized by the direct plan will encourage the reader to act positively on the appeal.
T
If used as part of the direct plan, a sales appeal may be presented as a separate paragraph or combined with the friendly close.
F
Unsolicited positive or neutral news messages occur only in internal communication.
F
The opening paragraph of a request for information should provide background about the situation that prompts the writer to make the request.
F
Setting the date by which a receiver should respond to a request or claim is rude and pushy.
T
When requesting information about an individual, the writer should be sure to ask only specific, relevant questions
T
Claim adjustments and request approvals help organizations generate goodwill.
F
Because a request made via e-mail will be responded to via e-mail, the request writer doesn’t have to include personal contact information.
T
Although claims are written using the direct plan, a writer should not ask for a specific remedy until after he or she has provided a detailed explanation of the circumstances of the claim.
F
Threatening not to do business with the receiver’s organization in the future will increase the chances of having your claim approved.
T
A claim adjustment should include an apology only when the writer’s analysis suggests the receiver expects it.
T
A social business message is sent to communicate your interest and concern.
T
It is appropriate to send congratulatory messages to both organizations and individuals.
F
Congratulatory messages are appropriate for business-related accomplishments but not for personal achievements.
F
A condolence message should begin and end with a statement of sympathy.
F
Because it conveys a more professional image, a letter is a better choice for a condolence message than a handwritten message on a card.
T
The expression of gratitude should be given in the first paragraph of an appreciation message.
F
A letter or card of appreciation is appropriate for a longstanding record of thoughtfulness, but an oral thank you is sufficient for a one-time effort.
F
Jack Murphy wants to invite the five people he supervises to a picnic at his home. Because the group is small and the event is informal, Jack could handwrite his invitation, photocopy it, and hand it to the receivers.
F
When thanking an individual for doing something related to his or her job, sending a copy of the letter of appreciation to the individual’s supervisor is intrusive and violates the principles of human resource management.
T
A holiday greeting may be sent before or during any festive season
F
To celebrate the new year, Hathaway Insurance sent each of its clients a calendar. Because the calendar contained the name, logo, and slogan of the insurance agency, this message must be considered a sales message, not a social business message.
F
A letter welcoming the receiver as a new credit card customer should not contain coupons or sales offers.
T
Sending an e-mail followed by a personal note or card will create a more positive impressing than sending only an e-mail.
D
Which of the following message should NOT be written using the direct plan?
a. An announcement about a new product
b. A letter approving a $45 adjustment on a utility bill.
c. An e-mail asking whether a colleague could represent you at a meeting.
d. A memo announcing that the company day care center will be closed for five weeks during remodeling.
C

The direct plan is used for positive and neutral business messages because

a. a direct plan message can be adapted to letters, memos, and e-mail.
b. direct plan messages are brief.
c. placing the main idea early in the message attracts the reader’s attention.
d. this plan is best for building goodwill with the receiver.

A
Sara Garrett is requesting information about Hugh Rolle, a candidate for a sales position at Better Beverages. Sara will improve her chances of getting a thorough reply if she
a. asks relevant questions and assures the reader responses will be kept confidential.
b. encloses a copy of her company’s hiring policy.
c. formats her questions as a vertical list.
d. praises the receivers judgment.
A
The claim letter differs from other positive and neutral messages using the direct plan because it may
a. contain negative information.
b. include a sales appeal.
c. place blame on the receiver.
d. stress writer benefits.
A
George Karim’s current department store credit card statement includes a charge for merchandise he returned, so he is writing to ask that the charge be removed. To give his claim credibility, George should
a. enclose a copy of the receipt he was given when he returned the merchandise.
b. explain that he is disappointed in the company.
c. ask for $25 for pain and suffering.
d. say he will quit shopping at the store unless his account is corrected within two weeks.
D
When setting the date by which you want your receiver to reply to your request or claim, you should
a. be flexible; use general time reference such as within the next two weeks.
b. express the date in standard month, day, year format.
c. show urgency by saying as soon as possible.
d. tell the receiver why meeting your timeline is important.
C
Andrea Swank is responding to a complaint from a customer who claimed he received poor service at her store. Which of the following statements represents the best close for her message?
a. Again, let me apologize for not giving you the high-quality service you deserve.
b. We look forward to showing you that your experience was a unique incident.
c. Use the enclosed coupon on our next visit to Swanks, where customer satisfaction is our goal.
d. We appreciate your business and hope you will visit us again soon.
B
In the explanation section of a claim adjustment message, the sender should:
a. apologize for any inconvenience the receiver experienced.
b. focus on what has been done to solve or correct the problem.
c. prove the writer (sender) wasn’t at fault.
d. thoroughly describe why the problem occurred.
B
The key elements in a social business message are:
a. brevity and clarity.
b. honesty and completeness.
c. familiarity with the receiver and goodwill.
d. sincerity and timeliness.
C
While reading the October issue of her college alumni newsletter, Elise Black learned that Elliot Mumbor, one of her classmates, had received an award the previous March. Elise should:
a. ignore the event because it occurred so long ago.
b. phone Elliot to convey congratulations.
c. send her classmate a greeting card on which she writes a personal message.
d. write her alumni office and complain that news items are not current.
B
Todd Pritchert is writing a letter to thank those who volunteered at this year’s Downtown Youth Center fundraising event. Which of the following represents the best opening paragraph for his message?
a. Volunteers are the key piece in DYC’s fundraising puzzle, and no one appreciates them more than we do!
b. Time is a precious commodity. By donating your time to this year’s DYC fundraiser, you demonstrated your commitment to the youth of Pueblo. We and they are grateful for your efforts.
c. Thank you!. The youth of Pueblo and the staff at DYC are pleased to announce that this year’s fundraising event was the most successful in our 12-year history.
d. The smile on your face told us you enjoyed volunteering at this year’s DYC fundraising event. So, mark your calendar now and sign up to help again next year!
D
Which of the following closings would be best in a letter to a friend and co-worker whose fiance died in an auto accident?
a. Be patient. Time heals, and you’ll be back to normal soon.
b. Again, please accept my sympathy for your loss.
c. Terry was a good friend; I don’t know how I’ll fill the gap.
d. Let’s get together for dinner later this month and talk about the good times you, Terry, and I shared.
C
Party Palace has relocated and plans to hold an open house to showcase it’s new facility. Which of the following openings best reflects appropriate use of the direct plan for the invitation to this event?
a. Party Palace is open in its new location, and we’re celebrating!
b. Date: October 11
Time: 9 AM to 9 PM
Dress: Casual–party hats provided on site
c. Please join us as we celebrate the opening of Party Palace’s new store!
d. Please complete and return the enclosed card saying you’ll attend our open house.
C
What type of social business message is most likely to use an RSVP?
a. Appreciation
b. Holiday greeting
c. Invitation
d. Welcome
D
Which of the following should be considered when determining the formality of a goodwill message?
a. Cost
b. Timeliness in sending the message
c. Length of message
d. Familiarity with the receiver
F
You can send a targeted résumé and a general application letter.
T
Application letters are sales letters with your knowledge and skills as the product.
T
If you think it has been too long since you have heard about your application, it is appropriate to call or write the employer.
T
Since the purpose of an application letter and résumé is to obtain an interview, you should ask for it directly in your letter.
T
Application letters may be sent electronically.
T
When responding to a job advertisement, read the ad carefully and use words in the letter that fit both you and the language in the ad.
F
You should always send an e-mail thank you letter because it is faster.
T
An interview is important because it can determine your career’s future course.
T
Even if you are definitely not interested in the job, it is still appropriate to follow up an interview.
T
Researching information about a specific company or career helps you create an effective application letter that focuses on the potential employer’s needs and explains your qualifications from the you-viewpoint.
F
If asked an illegal or inappropriate question, you are usually wise to show anger or irritation so the interviewer will know the question was offensive.
F
A behavioral interview question asks how you would handle a hypothetical situation.
F
You should avoid talking in an interview about your achievements because employers appreciate employees who are modest.
F
Upon greeting the interviewer, extend your hand for a handshake and sit down.
F
A letter of application can be submitted to a potential employer instead of a résumé.
F
The salary question is the first one that you should ask the employer when the interview begins so the interview will not be a waste of time if the salary quoted is not acceptable.
F
Pausing before responding to an interview question demonstrates a lack of self-confidence.
T
The Internet is one good source to learn about a company or organization prior to an interview.
T
An application letter does not repeat the same information that is in your résumé.
T
Most resignation letters are written using the direct plan because they are routine and preceded by a resignation in person.
F
If the company at which you are interviewing has a business casual dress code, you should dress in business casual attire for the interview to show the interviewer you will fit in.
T
Questions asked in a panel interview are usually the same for all candidates.
T
An employment application provides the prospective employer with a signed record of your personal and employment history.
F
You cannot be fired for embellishing your skills or education/experience on the employment application if you have already been hired.
F
An advantage of traditional interview questions is that the answers center on actual events and are less likely to be only an answer the applicant believes the interviewer expects.
F
If you are given an opportunity to ask question at the end of the interview, concentrate your questions on topics of personal benefit to you.
T
An interviewer may intentionally challenge you by asking difficult questions to see how you handle different situations.
T
The most common initial screening interview is done by telephone.
T
Thr purpose of the portfolio is to prove or demonstrate your skills and accomplishments.
T
An unacceptable interview question is one that does not relate to the job requirements.
B
Which of the following interview questions is a behavioral question?
a. Do you like to work alone or with other people?
b. Give me an example of a situation in which you were successful (or unsuccessful) in motivating someone.
c. What does teamwork mean to you?
d. What is your greatest weakness?
A
How should you best respond to interview questions?
a. Be enthusiastic, honest, sincere, and state your accomplishments in a specific and positive manner.
b. Embellish your achievements and accomplishments to make sure the employer remembers them.
c. Say that your achievements and accomplishments are detailed on your resume.
d. Use caution when describing what you have accomplished so you will not appear to be bragging on yourself.
A
The most important part of an application letter is the
a. accomplishments that relate to the job requirements.
b. action-promoting close.
c. attention-getting opening.
d. logical explanation.
C
An interview question that asks about one of your weaknesses would be answered best by
a. admitting the weakness.
b. asking if it is necessary to talk about weaknesses.
c. naming a weakness and turning it into a strength.
d. saying that you do not have any weaknesses.
A
Which of the following would NOT be a strong closing for an application letter?
a. I am enclosing my résumé for you to consider. When can I expect to hear from you?
b. I am excited about the prospect of interviewing with Good Face, a highly respected public relations firm in San Francisco. Please call me at 802.555.1234 to schedule an interview at your convenience.
c. I would appreciate an opportunity to talk with you about how I would fit in your organization. I will call you early next week to arrange an appointment.
d. Please call me at 555.793.534 or e-mail me at [email protected] to set up an interview. If hired for this position, I will be a dedicated, productive employee.
D
Which one of the following is NOT an element upon which an employment application is evaluated?
a. The integrity of the application
b. The information entered on the application
c. The legibility of the application
d. The organization of the information entered on the application
C
Interviewers use behavioral questions because they
a. are based on hypothetical situations and require interviewees to “think on their feet.”
b. can be evaluated objectively.
c. focus on how the applicant has acted in the past in a specific situation.
d. provide standard answers so comparisons between interviewees’ answers can be made easily.
A
Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for the opening of an application letter?
a. Describing your most outstanding accomplishments
b. Explaining why you are interested in the position
c. Indicating knowledge about the position or organization/company
d. Mentioning who referred you to this position
C
A screening interview is
a. known as the alternative interview.
b. not used frequently.
c. used to qualify applicants for the selection interview.
d. usually relatively short–15 to 20 minutes.
D
Which of the following is the best content for an answer to the interview question, “What do you consider your strengths?”
a. Cite your academic record and achievements.
b. List three to five specific abilities that you have and explain how they have served you in the past.
c. Refer to your work-related accomplishments.
d. Relate your skills and knowledge to the job requirements.
F
One of the most important purposes of a visual aid in a business report is to make the report colorful and attractive.
T
An organization chart shows supervisory and direct reporting relationships within an organization.
T
The best location for a visual aid is on the same page as the text referring to it or the next page.
F
A stacked-bar chart shows comparison of variable values that fall above or below a reference point.
T
Illustrations that relate indirectly to the text should not be placed in the body of the report.
T
Pictures, SmartArt. or clip art would be shown as figures or illustrations using a traditional style manual (HOW 12}.
F
An effective visual aid in a written report should be easily understood without referring to the text material.
F
Organization charts should be used only when they show the entire organization.
T
A source note gives credit to the resource used for the illustration..
T
Every visual aid should have a title that, along with the contents, makes the meaning clear.
T
A legend should be shown on a multiple-line or multiple-bar graph to identify the lines or bars.
F
A positive-negative bar chart is the best illustration for showing elements within a quantitative variable.
T
Light and dark shadings are better than different colots for showing multiple item values on a bar chart unless all copies will be produced on a color printer or copier.
T
Two formatting styles used in business reports for illustrations are APA and traditional (HOW 12).
T
If more than one illustration appears in a written report, all visual aids within the report should be referred to in the text by number before they are shown; that is, the text reference to the visual should come before placement of the visual.
F
Up to ten areas can be compared in one multiple-bar graph.
T
A style manual is used by publishers to maintain consistency in writing and formatting their publications.
T
Tables are efficient for presenting detailed data in a small amount of space.
T
Word tables can present a comparison of ideas or characteristics of different items.
F
Flip charts and posters are economical, easy-to-use visual aids for large groups.
C
Which of the following is correct for the use of source notes for visual aids?
a. Acknowledging sources of visual aids is not as critical as acknowledging sources of the text material.
b. A source note should be used whenever content of an illustration is originated by the writer.
c. The source note goes below the illustration; however, APA uses the italicized word Note followed by a period before the resource information.
d. Traditional style for a source note uses the word Source (not italicized) followed by a semicolon.
A
In APA format, each table is numbered separately and referred to as a (an)
a. Table.
b. Chart.
c. Illustration.
d. Figure.
B
Which chart is best in demonstrating differences in values within variables by dividing each bar into its parts?
a. Broken-bar chart
b. Stacked-bar chart
c. Multiple-bar chart
d. Positive-negative bar chart
D
Which of the following statements is NOT true of visual aids in business reports?
a. Selecting either APA or traditional style to format illustrations and following it promotes consistency and a professional appearance in written reports.
b. Using visual aids helps communicate ideas and improve retention.
c. Placing visual aids in the appendix is preferred rather than the body of the report if they are indirectly related to the text or of interest to only a few readers.
d. Placing the number and title above a figure follows APA style.
B
The best visual aid to illustrate step-by-step progression of a complex procedure is a (an)
a. line graph.
b. flowchart.
c. organization chart.
d. stacked-bar graph.
D
Physical objects are sometimes passed around as part of a presentation. Which of the following statements is NOT true about their use?
a. Use of a physical object introduces the sensory dimension of touch.
b. Use of a physical object may be a distraction from listening.
c. Use of a physical object may involve a cutaway model to show parts.
d. Use of a physical object does not reinforce the message.
B
Slides or transparencies work well with groups of different sizes. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about their use for presentations.
a. The beginning, the ending, and the most important points of the presentation should be used as content for presentation slides or transparencies.
b. Type should be in uppercase letters to be easily read.
c. Font sizes should be 36 point for titles and 24 point for bulleted text.
d. As a general rule, keywords rather than complete sentences should be used on slides or transparencies.
A
Which of the following is NOT true of titles of illustrations for business reports?
a. For APA and traditional styles, titles are placed under a figure.
b. Traditional style centers the heading of a table or figure and uses all upper-case letters for the title.
c. Consistency in numbering, placement, and formatting visual aids within a report is important.
d. In APA style, the title of a table or a figure, along with the table or figure number, begins at the left margin.
C
Which two of the following charts does not begin with zero at the bottom, extreme left?
a. simple bar charts
b. Multiple-line charts
c. Positive-negative bar charts
d. Stacked-bar charts
A
Which visual aid is best to illustrate how the parts of a whole are distributed?
a. Pie chart
b. Flowchart
c. Bar chart
d. Line chart
F
Proposals are persuasive messages that have a high success-to-failure ratio.
T
Formal proposals are highly structured documents that may resemble formal reports.
T
Staff at not-for-profit organizations write grant proposals to request money or tangible goods.
F
The organization that submits the proposal selected in response to an RFP will be awarded a contract for the project.
T
An RFP that includes information about time, budget, or other constraints related to the project helps readers determine whether to respond.
F
The cover letter or memo that accompanies a proposal is also known as the Summary or the Overview
T
The title of a proposal should be brief and answer the questions Who? What? Where? When? Why? and How?
T
The background and problem/need sections of a proposal may be combined or, if lengthy, presented separately.
T
The benefits of a proposal should be stated realistically and written using the you-viewpoint.
T
The evaluation plan in a proposal provides a way to judge the degree of success achieved if the proposal is implemented.
T
A good proposal should not only describe the solution but also show that those involved have the qualifications to implement it
T
When proposal writing is done collaboratively, one member of the team should accept responsibility for ensuring the finished document is consistent and coherent.
T
The format used in preparing a proposal can affect both readability and general interest in the topic.
T
Oral and written proposals should contain the same essential elements if they are to be successful.
F
Underestimating the cost of a project will make a business plan more attractive to potential investors.
F
An appendix section is appropriate in a proposal but not in a business plan.
F
To seem more forceful, policy statements should be written in the first person.
F
The details in a news release should be presented in chronological sequence.
T
Audience analysis plays an important part in performance appraisal writing no matter how often a supervisor has evaluated a particular employee.
F
The primary purpose of a performance appraisal is to determine a worker’s eligibility for a salary increase.
A
Amber Case is a sales representative for an office equipment company. Last week, Amber called on Billings Concrete and learned from the office manager, Bob Rydell, that the company was having problems with its aging photocopier. When Amber checked her e-mail Tuesday morning, she found an e-mail from Bob asking about the cost of a new copier with the same features as the company’s current unit. In response, Amber prepared a letter in which she described the features, benefits, and costs of two models. This situation is an example of
a. informal request, formal response.
b. formal request; formal response.
c. formal request; formal response.
d. formal request; informal response.
D
The essential elements in a solicited external proposal are:
a. contained in the response to a letter of inquiry.
b. held confidential.
c. identified by the proposal writer.
d. specified in the RFP.
A
Which section of an RFP outlines the parameters to be used in selecting the successful proposal?
a. Evaluation Criteria
b. Proposal Guidelines
c. Restrictions
d. Vendor Requirements
B
When the format for an RFP to which you are responding doesn’t call for information that you think is important, you should
a. attach an explanatory letter.
b. integrate the information into sections that fit the format.
c. omit the information.
d. place the information in an appendix.
B
Which proposal section sets the context for the reader, reviews the highlights of the proposal, and encourages action?
a. Background
b. Cover letter or memo
c. Summary
d. Title page
D
Which of the following titles is best for an unsolicited proposal to an agency that funds community-based projects?
a. A Proposal Requesting Funding to Expand Arts Programming at Stone Ridge Senior Center in South Dakota.
b. A Study of Three Methods of Training Teenage Babysitters
c. Rock and Roll Meets Rap
d. The Green Thumb Project: Teaching Inner-City Youth about Gardening
D
The legal structure of a business should be described in which section of a business plan?
a. Administration/production factors
b. Appendix
c. Financial information
d. Ownership/management/staffing
B
A policy statement should be written
a. general for all employees.
b. general for managers and specific for nonmanagerial employees.
c. specific for all employees.
d. specific for managers and general for nonmanagerial employees.
B
The inverted pyramid format is used with
a. executive summaries.
b. news releases.
c. performance appraisals.
d. policy statements.
B
Which of the following statements is NOT true of performance appraisals?
a. They may be written directly or indirectly, depending on the situation.
b. They may include humor if audience analysis dictates it will be well received.
c. They should be brief.
d. They should include factual evidence of strong or weak performance.
T
Composing negative messages without using a single negative word is possible and desirable.
F
All negative messages should be composed using the indirect plan.
F
Trying to maintain neutrality in the opening of a negative message is unethical.
T
Negative information may be included in the same paragraph as the explanation.
T
One way to de-emphasize the negative inforrmation is to place it in a dependent clause.
T
The friendly close should not include anything that reminds the receiver of negative information given in the message.
T
The composer of a negative message should analyze the situation before implementing the indirect plan.
T
In the logical explanation of a negative message, it is important to be positive..
T
Use de-emphasis techniques when presenting the negative information.
F
The negative information section of a negative message should be emphasized to ensure that part of the message is clear.
T
A negative message is any message that is unpleasant, disappointing, or unfavorable in the mind of the receiver.
T
In an adjustment refusal message, you may refuse the claim but still try to sell the customer more merchandise or service.
F
A negative message initiated by the receiver is considered an unsolicited negative message.
T
In some situations, the constructive follow-up can immediately follow the negative information in the same paragraph.
T
The primary goal in presenting negative information is to be sure that the receiver clearly understands this part of your message.
F
The negative information should be stated in several words or sentences so that the negative facts will not be noticed.
T
The constructive follow-up provides other solutions or gives additional reasoning that will justify the unfavorable information.
F
All receivers respond favorably to the indirect plan when it is used for presenting negative information.
F
A letter is the best way to convey negative information of high importance.
T
One purpose of the friendly close is to move the receiver’s mind away from the negative information.
C
What is one of the most important aspects of the indirect plan?
a. It keeps the receiver from getting the negative news.
b. The close stays off the negative subject.
c. The reasoning to justify the negative information is presented before the negative information.
d. The negative information is presented before the reasoning to justify it.
B
Which of the following statements is NOT an advantage of the indirect plan?
a. It permits reason to prevail.
b. It emphasizes the negative information.
c. It maintains a calm approach.
d. It can change a negative situation to a positive one.
A
Which of the following negative messages is an example of one that should use the direct plan?
a. Response to a death or tragedy
b. Request refusal
c. Adjustment refusal
d. Credit refusal
C
The negative information section of a negative message should
a. be placed in a separate paragraph.
b. avoid saying what can be done.
c. come immediately after the logical explanation.
d. offer an apology.
D
The logical explanation of the indirect plan
a. stresses receiver interests and benefits.
b. uses emphasis techniques.
c. relates to the opening buffer.
d. includes both A and C..
D
If the opening buffer and logical explanation are effective, the receiver will
a. be unsure about the meaning of the negative information.
b. not expect the negative information.
c. not need another statement that conveys the negative information.
d. respond favorably to the words you chose for the logical explanation .
B
Which of the following is NOT a proper way to communicate a credit refusal?
a. Personalized letter
b. Form memo
c. Telephone call
d. Face-to-face conversation
B
The best way to implement the requirement that de-emphasis techniques be used in the negative information is to
a. start with points that are the most unfavorable to your receiver.
b. address the negative information in the middle of a paragraph.
c. give the negative information in explicit terms.
d. avoid the negative points.
D
Which of the following openings would be best for a letter in which you are refusing an adjustment?
a. I am sorry that I cannot honor your claim …
b. Your claim cannot be honored at this time because …
c. This is to let you know that …
d. Your recent purchase of a …
C
The unsolicited negative message is somewhat different than other negative messages because it is
a. in response to a message.
b. unexpected by the sender.
c. sender initiated.
d. dealing with ethics.
F
“Communication climate” refers to the free flow of ideas within an organization.
T
Relationships generally begin with cautious conversation.
T
The closing to a conversation may be verbal, nonverbal, or both.
T
Interpersonal communication encompasses the verbal and nonverbal skills used in one-to-one and small-group interactions.
F
On a self-managed team, some members have more responsibility for the finished product.
F
Once damaged, a relationship cannot be repaired.
T
Writing teams face the same challenges as teams formed for other purposes.
T
Participating on a team can positively impact an individual’s business knowledge and result in enhanced visibility in the organization as well better project management skills.
F
One-to-one oral communication is less valuable in business than is one-to-one written communication.
T
Only those who play a role in reaching a group’s goals should be invited to a meeting.
F
It is inappropriate for the leader of a meeting to set time limits for the topics on an agenda.
F
Agendas are less important for audio and video conferences than for face-to-face meetings.
T
In collaborative writing, the task of analyzing the receiver is done by the group.
T
The attitudes, personal qualities, social graces, and habits that make someone a good employee and compatible coworker are referred to as “soft skills.”
F
The second stage of conversation, the exchange, is delivered using the direct plan.
F
Being aggressive during a conversational exchange demonstrates your enthusiasm for the topic being discussed.
F
Fast-paced questioning shows your interest and stimulates discussion.
F
Constructive feedback and criticism are different names for the same process.
F
Having two or more people work together to draft a document is effective and efficient.
F
During a meeting it is the responsibility of the recorder to keep the group focused and not allow the discussion to stray off topic.
T
Relationships cannot be repaired unless the participants are willing to let go of the problem that caused the breakdown.
F
A process-improvement team draws its strength from the perspectives and diverse viewpoints its members represent.
F
Your goals when facilitating conflict resolution are to identify who was at fault and to have him or her apologize.
F
Webcasting is real-time, two-way communication.
F
A person’s status within the organization should be considered when a team evaluates the contributor’s ideas.
T
Webconferencing is a two-way synchronous communication.
T
Traditional teams are bound by time and location; virtual teams are not.
T
The anonymity of virtual discussions or meetings can reduce an individual’s fear of disapproval; as a result, participation increases.
T
The main purpose of constructive feedback is to help people understand where they stand in relation to the expected job behavior.
T
One benefit of keeping teams to ten or fewer members is that contributions are likely to be more balanced.
A
An open-ended question
a. can be used when background information is required.
b. does not work well if the receiver or situation is emotional.
c. may be leading.
d. may be perceived as threatening.
A
A small group meeting participant spends most of his or her time
a. listening.
b. organizing materials.
c. speaking.
d. taking notes.
B
Creating and holding a mental image of the person with whom you are conversing by telephone will
a. give the impression the other person is important.
b. help you keep the conversation focused on the other person.
c. make your voice sound professional.
d. minimize the potential for in-person interruptions.
B
The three most common communication styles are
a. aggressive, assertive, and direct.
b. passive, aggressive, and assertive.
c. passive, aggressive, and direct.
d. passive, assertive, and indirect.
D
On her way to an important Friday morning meeting, Shannon Gaydos observes one of the people she supervises speaking harshly to a customer. Shannon knows she must offer constructive feedback to the employee, so she decides to
a. concentrate more on her verbal than on her nonverbal message.
b. minimize the impact of her criticism by speaking in general terms.
c. speak to the employee early Monday morning.
d. stress the benefits the receiver will gain by modifying his/her behavior.
D
You are trying to persuade colleagues in a branch office in another state that changes in Crater Mountain Hospital design are necessary before it goes out for bids. You want to present the changes and the benefit to your company and the client of making these proposed changes. Which of the following would be the most effective communication method for you to deliver your message?
a. Audio conference
b. Letter
c. Telephone call
d. Video conference
B
The quality of thinking that emerges from small-group meetings
a. has no relationship to what one person can achieve alone.
b. is usually higher than one person can achieve alone.
c. is usually lower than one person can achieve alone.
d. is usually the same as one person can achieve alone.
A
The conflict resolution technique of compromise should be used when
a. some areas of agreement exist.
b. the relationship has been long-term.
c. the situation is an emergency.
d. the situation may be repeated.
B
Which of the following web-assisted technologies allows you to store a presentation and watch it at a later time?
a. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
b. Web caching
c. Web conferencing
d. Webcasting
B
Jordan Ragsdale has been the chair of a committee within his firm for over a year. Michelle Wymer became a member of the group about a month ago. Since joining the committee, Michelle has made few if any comments, yet Jordan knows she has creative ideas to share because she has discussed them with him outside of the group’s regular weekly meeting. Jordan wants to encourage Michelle to speak at meetings. What should he do?
a. Ask Michelle to take notes.
b. During the meeting, ask Michelle direct questions related to her area of expertise.
c. Criticize Michelle privately.
d. Discuss the situation with another committee member and ask that person to talk to Michelle.
F
Formal reports use side headings; informal reports do not.
F
Memo reports are written for an internal audience; letter reports may be written for either an internal or an external audience.
T
Standardizing the format of a technical report makes it easy for readers to scan the document for the specific item(s) of interest to them.
T
Research problems may be phrased as statements or questions.
T
Brainstorming and cluster diagramming can help researchers set the scope of a project.
T
When setting the time schedule for a research project, work back from the deadline date.
F
Research studies conducted by current employees using data obtained from the organization’s files do not need to have a budget.
T
Research procedures vary from project to project.
F
The standards for documenting information obtained from web sources are less rigid than the standards for documenting print secondary sources.
F
The primary receivers (readers) of a message must be analyzed; the secondary receivers need not be analyzed.
T
Face-to-face surveys can be costly, but they produce the most in-depth responses.
T
Pilot testing or field testing a survey can help to identify questions that need to be reworded to improve clarity.
F
Focus group participants may be less open with their responses if they know they are being taped; therefore, it is better not to tell them they are being recorded.
F
The conclusions and recommendations sections of a report allow the researcher to infuse his or her opinions into a report.
T
The introduction of a report helps the reader understand the scope and sequence of the report.
T
The executive summary of a report emphasizes the findings, conclusions, and recommendations of the study.
T
The guidelines and policies of an organization must be considered when deciding how to format a formal report.
T
All appendixes included with a report must be referred to within the body of the report.
F
Headings must be parallel within and between levels.
F
It is unnecessary to include a source citation for paraphrased material.
A
The formality of a report is
a. based on the culture of the writer’s organization.
b. based on the content.
c. determined by the preference of the writer.
d. determined by the receiver.
B
Which of the following report types is also known as a status report?
a. Periodic
b. Progress
c. Technical
d. Unsolicited
D
You start planning a research study by
a. determining the factors.
b. determining the solutions.
c. scheduling the study.
d. stating the problem.
D
What is a Gantt chart?
a. A budget spreadsheet
b. A cluster diagram
c. A statistical analysis tool
d. A time schedule
A
Buchan Molding manufactures plastic tubing used in various industries. Which of the following represents the best way for Buchan to gather customer satisfaction data about the service received during the lengthy, complicated transactions common in its business?
a. Conduct a telephone survey.
b. Send a comment card with the customer’s order.
c. Send a letter of inquiry.
d. Visit each customer personally.
B
All but which of the following is a primary data source?
a. A personal interview
b. A website located through an Internet search
c. An observation
d. Company records
A
Experiments
a. are used to identify a better way of doing things.
b. have high personnel costs.
c. represent a common business research method.
d. require less control than other business research methods.
D
The solution to a research problem is presented in the report as a part of the
a. Appendix.
b. Conclusions.
c. Findings.
d. Recommendations.
B
If a formal report contains a comprehensive letter of transmittal, the report will not contain a/an
a. bibliography.
b. executive summary
c. introduction.
d. table of contents.
B
Which of the following headings is NOT grammatically parallel to the others?
a. Fringe Benefits
b. Income Generated from Patents
c. Quarterly Dividends
d. Unanticipated Losses
F
A self-analysis inventory should be started a few weeks prior to starting the job search.
F
You should determine your job preferences before beginning a self-analysis.
T
The résumé is the primary tool in securing an interview.
F
The first step in a job campaign is to obtain information about employment opportunities.
T
The summary of qualifications in a résumé should include keywords.
T
Your most important business communication will be about your employment.
T
One of the first places to begin your job search is your campus career center.
F
The term solicited position means a specific job for which you have been solicited to apply.
T
All communication with prospective employers should focus on how your skills and abilities can contribute in the position for which you are applying.
T
One goal of developing networking contacts is to create awareness that you are seeking employment opportunities.
T
Use a specific career objective for a targeted position.
F
Targeted résumés may use the chronological, functional, or combination format; general résumés only use the chronological format.
F
A targeted résumé is less powerful than a general résumé .
T
If your high school record is fairly recent and shows considerable accomplishment, include it in your résumé ; otherwise, omit it.
T
If you are applying for multiple jobs, you may want to have different versions of your objective to focus on the specific position for which you are applying.
F
The Education section should always follow the résumé opening.
F
It is a good idea to link your web page profile with a personal website so prospective employers have all the information they need to make a hiring decision.
F
Keywords are generally verbs that describe you and are placed at the beginning or the end of the résumé .
F
A web page profile is a personal website.
T
You should prepare a separate reference list to accompany your résumé .
T
At job/career fairs you will have the opportunity to contact many prospective employers in one day.
T
When setting job and career targets, consider personal factors and values.
F
Your most recent supervisor should be listed as a reference even if he or she will not give a positive reference.
F
A functional résumé groups education and accomplishment under skills or functions that are pertinent to your career objective.
T
The chronological résumé format presents information within each section by date, beginning with the most recent date.
A
Managers who regularly review résumés and make decisions on who will be invited for an interview generally prefer
a. a chronological résumé.
b. a combination résumé.
c. a functional résumé.
d. a “one size fits all” rĂ©sumĂ©.
D
An applicant tracking computer system in the human resources department
a. accepts only online résumés.
b. does not allow for updating résumé information.
c. is required by law in government offices.
d. scans a résumé and places it in an electronic folder.
B
For each job you have held, the most important information to list in a résumé is your
a. employer.
b. job accomplishments.
c. job responsibilities.
d. job title.
A
For new college graduates with limited experience, the preferred number of pages for a résumé is
a. one.
b. two.
c. three.
d. any number.
C
The first step in your job campaign is to
a. ask friends and acquaintances about available job openings.
b. develop a résumé that will generate an interview.
c. inventory your qualifications, strengths, and interests to know yourself well.
d. send letters of inquiry to prospective employers to locate job opportunities.
C
The combination résumé would be best for which of the following individuals?
a. An individual who has been out of the job market for several years
b. An individual who has held several jobs and needs to make his or her résumé more concise
c. An individual who has just graduated and has limited experience other than internships and/or part-time work while in school
d. An individual who has little employment experience
A
Which of the following is the best summary of qualifications statement?
a. Increased sales in territory 18 percent over a three-year period.
b. Learned new accounting software.
c. Provided assistance for marketing representatives.
d. Used Skype to meet with remote customers, which resulted in a significant savings on travel costs.
D
The primary purpose of networking contacts is to
a. ask for their help in finding a job.
b. ask them to serve as a reference for your resume.
c. leave a resume with them.
d. seek their guidance and advice.
A
The best arrangements for a résumé for a college graduate who has extensive experience is
a. opening; experience; education; activities, honors, or special skills.
b. opening; education; experience; activities, honors, or special skills.
c. opening; experience; activities, honors, or special skills; education.
d. opening; activities, honors, or special skills; education; experience.
C
Which of the following should NOT be included in the contact information for a business colleague serving as a reference?
a. business address
b. e-mail address
c. home address
d. position and organization at which the reference is employed
F
Hearing involves understanding and retaining what has been said.
T
Nonverbal cues provide information that can either add to or detract from a message.
T
Good listening skills can improve productivity.
T
Listening should occur more often than speaking.
F
During remembering, a message receiver assigns meaning to stimuli.
F
Passive listening is a technique for improving understanding of what is being said by taking into account how something is said and the nonverbal and body language that accompanies what is being said.
T
Interpreting involves assigning meaning to both verbal and nonverbal cues.
F
Hearing and listening are different terms for the same physical process.
T
To avoid interrupting a speaker, a listener should distinguish between a mid-thought pause and the end of a comment.
F
Start formulating questions for the speaker while he/she is still speaking so you are organized and ready to speak when the speaker stops talking.
T
A speaker cannot communicate an oral message without using nonverbal cues.
T
Body language conveys immediate feedback to the sender of a message.
F
Listeners use cautious listening when they want to concentrate on specific details rather than general concepts.
F
A speaker should not display facial expressions because they may change the meaning of an oral message.
F
Paraphrasing is repeating back to the speaker what he/she just said; this signals the message was received just as the speaker said it.
F
Our minds filter the contents of a message based on our experiences, age, knowledge, and emotions.
T
A weak handshake communicates a negative message.
T
Stimuli may be external or internal.
T
An individual may be unaware that he or she is transmitting a nonverbal message.
T
A speaker’s physical appearance can affect his/her credibility with the audience.
T
Small-group or one-to-one presentations lend themselves best to nonverbal feedback.
F
Taking careful, detailed notes is important to helping remember what has been said.
T
During filtering, a listener tries to eliminate unwanted verbal and nonverbal stimuli.
T
A nonverbal message may be interpreted differently by individuals from different cultures.
F
A listener engaged in skimming wants to remember concepts and details.
D
Which of the following is NOT a speech barrier to listening?
a. Dialects of a different language.
b. Highly technical vocabularly
c. Low volume voice
d. Unusual pronunciations
A
Which of the following is NOT a mode commonly used to listen to messages?
a. Careful listening
b. Cautious listening
c. Scanning
d. Skimming
D
One shortcoming of the scanning mode of listening is
a. it requires much energy.
b. there is no time to evaluate nonverbal cues.
c. there is no time to give feedback.
d. your mind may wander.
B
The type of note taking that most enhances your listening effectiveness is
a. abbreviation.
b. keyword.
c. replication.
d. verbatim.
A
Which of the following is NOT correct about nonverbal communication?
a. All managers view punctuality as being important.
b. Distance between communicators may vary with individuals from different cultures.
c. The importance of an employee may be communicated by his or her proximity to the manager.
d. The size of an office communicates a nonverbal message.
A
Jaycee and Michele have a weekly meeting to discuss staffing in the four restaurants they own. Jaycee always starts the meeting by telling Michele a joke. Today, though, there was no joke–just a negative comment about the weather. Michele’s awareness of the change in Jaycee’s behavior is called
a. benchmarking.
b. empathizing.
c. mirroring.
d. recalling.
A
Eye contact is
a. a signal to the speaker when to talk or finish.
b. a way of providing feedback to the speaker.
c. influenced by culture
d. All of the above
A
Which of the following nonverbal behaviors is considered positive?
a. Leaning toward the person with whom you are conversing
b. Looking at your watch
c. Raising your eyebrows
d. Yawning
D
Which of the following is the best example of a mental distraction?
a. Hearing the children on the school playground through an open window
b. Listening to the two people next to you talking
c. Taking extensive notes
d. Thinking of a meeting at which you will be speaking in an hour
D
Which of the following is NOT a result of effective listening?
a. Build relationships
b. Conflict resolution
c. Fewer errors and less wasted time
d. Improved verbal skills

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