question

Aseptic Technique

answer

all of the steps taken to prevent contamination of a surgical site (used to prevent sepsis)

question

Sepsis

answer

infection via contamination, or in the blood stream, the presence of pathogens or other toxic agents

question

Asepsis

answer

the absence of infection, or pathogens, and resulting diseases

question

Sterile

answer

absence of all microbes

question

sterilization

answer

the process by which items are rendered aseptic by the removal of all microbes

question

Disinfectant

answer

this includes bleach, Lysol, and similar products disinfectants must only be used on inanimate objects never used on a patient

question

Pathogen

answer

Any micro-organisms capable of causing a disease

question

Inflammation

answer

swelling of tissues normally accompanied by pain

question

Disease

answer

any invasion by a pathogen that interferes with an animal's normal function

question

Bactericidal

answer

kills bacteria

question

Protozoan

answer

single celled organism, microscopic These pathogens are usually found in the intestinal tract of their host and are not usually fatal They will cause diarrhea that often contains spots of blood and lots of mucous

question

Life cycle of a Protozoan

answer

CYST stage beginning stage that is very difficult to kill TROPHOZOITE stage where they are mobile and still hard to kill

question

Fungi

answer

a non-chlorophyll bearing plant-like organism divided into two categories YEAST and MOLD they use live animals as their host and can be fatal if inhaled

question

Bacteria

answer

unicellular organism that can be resistant to anti-infective agents can survive in a variety of enviroments two kinds AEROBIC and ANAEROBIC

question

Rickettsiae

answer

a group of microbes that must live inside the cells of their host transmitted via a vector and can be serious or even deadly to animals and humans

question

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia Rickettsii)

answer

Transmitted via Ticks causes fever,depression, anorexia, lymphadenopathy , coughing, dyspnea,abdominal pain, edema on face or extremities treatment of choice is Doxycycline

question

Chlamydia

answer

similar to rickettsiae, but not necessarily spread via a vector There are several forms of it It is a deadly microbe that can cause diseases such as Cat Scratch Fever and Feline pneumonia

question

Viruses

answer

Microscopic infectious agent reproduce inside a host cell some viruses can cause life-long or chronic infections the viruses continue to replicate in the body despite the host's defense mechanisms

question

Goals of controlling pathogens and microbes

answer

eliminate source of disease increase host ability to resist disease prevent transmission of disease

question

Incineration

answer

sharps containers are destroyed by burning the container and it's entire contents at very high temperatures

question

Autoclave

answer

most common method of sterilization water is boiled under pressure this method is capable of eliminating pathogens, encapsulated or spread microbes most commonly used for instruments and gown packs and some plastic items 250 °F for 30 minutes use both indicator strip and indicator tape

question

Autoclave procedure

answer

wrap packs securely with an indicator strip inside tape open ends with autoclave tape stack loosley in autoclave

question

Delicate instruments like titanium orthopedic bone drilling bits should

answer

not be autoclaved as they damage easily become dull or rusted by the heat and stream

question

Ethylene Oxide (ETO)

answer

cold sterilization technique very toxic and carcinogenic irritating to lung tissue works by deactivating the DNA in the cells of the pathogen good for 90 days after using this method items should be aired out in well ventilated area for 24 hours used on ET tube, delicate instruments, anesthetic supplies, drills, drillbits and laparoscopes

question

Radiation

answer

used in industrial locations method sterilizes using gamma radiation most prepackaged items such as syringes, needles, catheters, and suture are sterilized this way and then shipped out to hospitals and clinics

question

ultrasonic cleansing baths

answer

used to soak instruments after they have been rinsed of large debris

question

Cidex

answer

a form of cold chemical sterilization for delicate arthroscopic scopes and other items not used as often as ETO

question

Nolvasan or roccal

answer

used to sterilize some scopes and other items used only in minor procedures but is not guaranteed asepsis

question

scalpel handle #3

answer

used mostly for small animal sx (dogs and cats)

question

scalpel handle #4

answer

used mostly in large animal sx (horses and cows)

question

scalpel handle #7 or beaver

answer

used for ophthalmic sx

question

scalpel handle #8

answer

used for large animal sx rubber handle

question

scalpel blade #10

answer

larger blade common in small animal sx (cutting skin) standard blade used with #3 handle

question

scalpel blade #11

answer

studier blade used to cut ligaments and tough tissues small animal blade is used with #3 handle (pointy and triangular)

question

scalpel blade #12

answer

used for lancing used with #3 handle looks like a cat claw

question

scalpel blade #15

answer

extra fine curved tip blade that is used for small, percise or delicate incisions most commonly used for cat declaws used with #3 handle (tiny blade)

question

scalpel blade #20 or #23

answer

commonly used in large animal medicine must be used with #4 or #8 handle

question

scalpel beaver blade

answer

#64 shaped exactly like #10 blade but much smaller and only used with beaver handle #67 shaped exactly like #15 blade but much smaller and only used with beaver handle

question

scissors

answer

classified as curved or straight points can be sharp or blunt or combo

question

Mayo Scissors

answer

used to perform blunt dissection and cut through bulky connective tissues

question

Metzenbaum scissors

answer

used to blunt dissect or cut soft tissues never use to cut suture or bandage material

question

suture scissors

answer

used to remove suture

question

Lister bandage scissors

answer

used to remove bandages and other dressings

question

wire scissors

answer

used to cut stainless steel wire commonly used in orthopedic sx

question

Adson tissue forceps

answer

thumb forceps used to pick up and hold delicate tissues commonly used to hold skin while suturing

question

Rat tooth tissue forceps

answer

used to grasp skin and other delicate tissues and place sutures can cause extensive damage to delicate tissues

question

Dressing forceps

answer

used to grasp inanimate objects such as dressings these would cause significant damage to living tissues

question

Allis tissue forceps

answer

used to hold with maximal power but will cause tissue trauma in the process has a box lock and jaws not recommended for use on viscera

question

Alligator forceps

answer

used to retrieve foreign objects from small spaces or incisions

question

Babcock Intestinal forceps

answer

used to grasp delicate tissues viscera

question

Forester Sponge Holding Forceps

answer

used to apply final scrub before sx or handle sterile dressing

question

Backhaus towel forceps

answer

used to secure drapes and quater drapes to your patient

question

Jones Towel forceps

answer

used to secure drapes to patients skin by means of small puncture

question

Hartman mosquito forceps

answer

used to clamp or occlude small capillaries or vessels

question

Halstead forceps

answer

used to clamp small vessels that must be occluded, crushed or held firmly in place

question

Crile forceps

answer

used to occlude vessels

question

Kelly forceps

answer

used to occlude small to medium vessels

question

Rochester Carmalt Forceps

answer

used to clamp large tissue bundles (stop hemorrhage)

question

Rochester Pean forceps

answer

used to clamp blood vessels to control large tissue bundles

question

Rongeurs

answer

used to cut and shape bones

question

Retractors

answer

are used to hold tissues apart during surgeries can damage and bruise if not properly used can be self-retaining or hand held

question

Gelpi Retractor

answer

used to maintain wound exposure during orthopedic surgery and neurosurgery

question

Finochetto rib spreaders

answer

used to hold ribs apart during thoracic sx

question

Balfour retractor

answer

used to hold abdominal wall open

question

Weitlaner Retractors

answer

used to maintain muscle retraction during orthopedic sx

question

US Army Navy retractor

answer

used to hold open a wound or incision

question

Senn rake retractor

answer

used to hold open a wound or incision

question

Needle holders

answer

used to hold and drive needles when closing a patient

question

mayo hegar needle holder

answer

used to drive suture needles through tissue

question

Olsen Hegar needle holder

answer

used to drive suture needles and cut suture

question

Snook spay hook

answer

used to retrieve the uterine horn from within a small animal

question

Preoperative

answer

time or things that occur before surgery

question

Perioperative

answer

time and things that occur during surgery

question

Postoperative

answer

time or things that occur after surgery

question

Clippers

answer

used to remove hair from surgical site

question

clipper supplies

answer

cleaner coolant brushes lube

question

clipper blades

answer

#10 used to remove matted or coarse fur #40 used to cut the fur completely away

question

surgical scrub

answer

usually betadine or chlorhexadine used to clean the skin of the patient around the surgical site

question

surgical rinse

answer

some surgical scrubs require special rinse

question

Endotracheal tube and laryngoscope

answer

used to intubate patient prior to surgery

question

Scrub nurse

answer

sterile assistant helping the surgeon scrubbed in

question

non sterile participant or circulator

answer

this person should not touch anything sterile or anything within the sterile field often responsible for monitoring and retrieving items

question

Dorsal Recumbency

answer

patient positioned on their back with abdomen facing upward most common surgical position

question

Sternal or Ventral Recumbency

answer

patient positioned on their belly or chest used for de-claws, spinal surgery,mass removals

question

Lateral Recumbency

answer

patient is positioned on their right or left side common position for dentals

question

Fenestration

answer

hole in a drape

question

Fenestrated drape method

answer

advantage- inexpensive and disposable disadvantage- do not conform well to patients body

question

Four quarter drape method

answer

advantage- conforms well to patient and is more absorbent disadvantage- must be laundered and resterilized after each use to prevent contamination

question

Extremities and orthopedic draping method

answer

sterile field towels are placed around base of leg or tail where it attaches to the body

question

OHE ovariohysterectomy (spay)

answer

complete removal of uterine horns and ovaries dorsal recumbency prep from xiphoid process to pubis around the ribs

question

Neuter orchiectomy

answer

removal of the testicles blood vessels and seminal tubes are ligated dorsal recumbency prep from tip of penis to under testes

question

Tracheostomy

answer

incision in ventral midline and placement of tube through the wall of the throat into the trachea to support respiration during emergency procedures

question

onchyectomy (de-claw)

answer

nail or claw is removed essentially at the first knuckle position sternal

question

Atelectasis

answer

collapsed lung

question

Thoracocentesis

answer

procedure by which collapsed lungs can receive extra oxygen support

question

Absorbable suture types

answer

Surgical gut polyglactin- 910 vicryl PDS

question

Non absorbable suture types

answer

Nylon Polyester Fiber Silk wire

question

Absorbable suture

answer

manufactured from animal and synthetic sources and are absorbed by the body during the healing process these are replaced by healthy tissue and may cause slight tissue reaction

question

Non absorbable suture

answer

manufactured from synthetic and natural sources and are not absorbed by the body during the healing process usually removed 10-14 days after insertion and can cause moderate tissue reactions

question

Surgical gut

answer

this suture is made from sheep and pig intestines and there are also synthetic forms available last 3-5 days

question

polyglactin 910 vicryl

answer

fairly common suture that is easy to handle last 30-60 days

question

PDS

answer

also common flexible and strong last 182 days

question

do not autoclave suture

answer

decreases the strength

question

Nylon

answer

does not last very long very difficult to tie and handle becuase it is slippery

question

Polyester fiber

answer

may be coated in Teflon or silicon very strong and not easy to tie most common type for suture reaction and inflammation of suture site

question

Silk suture

answer

twisted or braided very strong inexpensive can promote bacterial growth within the incision

question

Wire suture

answer

stainless steel strongest when anchored in place extremely difficult to handle stays forever

question

suture sizes are classified as

answer

oughts

question

larger the number (suture)

answer

the larger the suture material

question

The higher the suture size nukber the smaller the

answer

diameter and lower the tensile strength

question

eyed needles

answer

reusable straight or curved suture must be threaded through the eye

question

swagged needles

answer

suture and needle and pre-attached most commonly used in vet med

question

Suture needles are sized

answer

with gauges higher gauge = smaller needle

question

cutting needles

answer

used for difficult to penetrate tissues ligaments, tendons,skin

question

tapered needles

answer

used to penetrate muscle, fascia, and SQ tissue

question

staples

answer

used to pull wound edges together when suture material will not work

question

surgical glue

answer

can be used alone or in conjunction with absorbable suture material

question

suture patterns

answer

continuous- runs from point of orgin to end of wound without suture material being cut interupted- suture material is tied and cut after one or two passes through the tissue also known as bites more commonly used

question

taking vitals

answer

TPR Temperature- q 5 mins during sx, q15mins during recovery Pulse-q 5 mins Respiration- q 5 mins Blood pressure- q 5 mins Pulse ox

question

prophylaxis

answer

clinical term for the procedure where we clean the teeth by removing all the calculus (tartar) and plaque

question

incisor teeth

answer

small front teeth used for nibbling and grooming

question

canine teeth

answer

sharp pointed teeth used for tearing and grasping

question

Premolars

answer

first back teeth used for grinding

question

Molars

answer

far back teeth used for grinding

question

Deciduous Teeth

answer

baby teeth (dogs and cats) erupt through the gums at 2-3 weeks are lost between 4-6 months of age

question

# of teeth dogs have

answer

42

question

# of teeth cats have

answer

30

question

full set of adult teeth

answer

6 months of age

question

Canine dental formula

answer

2(I3/3,C1/1,P4/4,M2/3)=42

question

Feline dental formula

answer

2(I3/3,C1/1,P3/2,M1/1)=30

question

First molar in the mouth

answer

carnassial tooth

question

Equine dental formula (stallion)

answer

2(I3/3,C0-1/0-1,P3/3 or 3/4,M3/3)=36-42

question

Equine dental formula (mare)

answer

2(I3/3,C0/0 or 0/1,P 3/3,M3/3)=36-38

question

In horses if the premolars are 3/4 then the extra premolar is considered a

answer

wolf tooth

question

in horses if the canine tooth is present its called a

answer

bridal tooth

question

Leprine (rabbit)

answer

no canine teeth and mismatched incisors 28 teeth

question

Bovine (cow)

answer

no upper incisors and no canine teeth 32 teeth

question

CE- cervical erosion

answer

erosion at the gum level common in cats (neck lesion)

question

D- discolored tooth

answer

tetracycline antibiotic will cause this

question

FX- fracture

answer

slab fracture common in carnassial tooth

question

calculus

answer

mineral deposits left on tooth tartar

question

gingivitis

answer

redness and inflammation of the gum tissue

question

periodontitis

answer

inflammation of the tissue surrounding the tooth or teeth

question

Plaque

answer

soft yellow build up on the tooth

question

Tooth abscesses

answer

occur in animals and humans the tooth usually removed and the patient is placed on strong antibiotics to reduce infection

question

Retained deciduous teeth

answer

when the baby teeth do not fall out pulled under anesthesia

question

Malocclusion

answer

when teeth dont properly align

question

Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions

answer

When tooth enamel below the gums is absorbed by the body will lead to total teeth loss extremely painful neck lesions

question

enamel

answer

hardest substance in the body what the surface of the tooth is made of

question

crown

answer

part of tooth that is visible above the gumline

question

lingual

answer

surface side of the tooth that is against the tongue

question

buccal

answer

surface of the tooth that is against the cheek

question

labial

answer

surface of the tooth against the lips

question

occlusal

answer

surface or side of tooth that is used for chewing and biting

question

reasons for dental health

answer

to perserve teeth to improve halitosis to prevent bacteria from getting into the blood stream

question

Endocarditis

answer

bad dental care can lead to bacterial migration into internal organs which can cause severe infections and disease

question

stage 1 of periodontal disease

answer

reversible gingitivits gingiva mildy inflammed and some of the teeth are discolored, no calculus, traces of plaque breath is marginal, animal has no trouble eating

question

stage 2 of periodontal disease

answer

early periodontitis gingiva moderately inflammed gumline swollen mouth painful to touch plaque present no calculus halitosis notable

question

stage 3 of periodontal disease

answer

moderate periodontitis gums are cherry red some bleeding gingiva is in the process of receding most teeth have plaque and some calculus halitosis present mouth is sore and affecting eating must treat immediately

question

stage 4 of periodontal disease

answer

full blown periodontal disease mouth infected with severe bacteria and gums have receded and severely inflammed and bloody, roots exposed calculus present root of carnassial tooth exposed teeth will need to be extracted

question

periodontal probe

answer

dental probe used to measure depth of sulcus

question

explorer

answer

used to investigate holes in the enamel

question

extractor

answer

used to completely remove teeth from sockets

question

elevator

answer

used to help lift the tooth away from socket during extraction

question

scaler and hand scaler

answer

used to remove plague in the cleaning process

question

what will happen if scaler is used on the tooth for longer then 10 seconds

answer

can heat the pulp cavity and kill the tooth

question

dental curette

answer

used to go under the gumline and remove plaque or calculus

question

polishing

answer

used to remove etchings caused by ultrasonic scaler or hand scaler during dental

question

what does the prophy cup hold

answer

polish

question

Fluoride treatment

answer

used to solidify and strengthen the enamel of the tooth

question

At home dental care

answer

daily brushing dental specific rawhides water additives dental toys dental diets sprays

question

AAHA

answer

American Animal Hospital Association hospitals pay a fee to join High standards

question

AVMA

answer

American Veterinary Medical Association oversees veterinary field nationwide accredits vet tech schools

question

OSHA

answer

Occupational Safety and Health Administration oversees safety in the workplace

question

MSDS

answer

Material Safety Data Sheet governs every chemical substance in the workplace

question

Never mix bleach with

answer

ammonia will result in toxic cloud that could cause death

question

CACVT

answer

Colorado Association of Certified Veterinary Technicians various chapters throughout state helps regulate role of Vet Tech

question

NAVTA

answer

North American Veterinary Technicians Association similar to CACVT but nationwide

question

USDA

answer

United States Department of Agriculture governs large animal and small animal facilities responsible for ensuring no drugs are expired makes sure proper log books are filled out regulates development of vaccines and other biologic medications

question

DEA

answer

Drug Enforcement Agency established in 1970 governs purchase and distribution of controlled substances licenses veterinarians and enforces keeping logs on controlled drugs

question

FDA

answer

Food and Drug Administration regulate the developement and approval of drugs and feed additives

question

Malpractice

answer

Conduct which falls below standard of care required of a licensed veterinarian that causes injury to the animal

question

Negligence

answer

a departure from standard of practice in veterinary medicine not taking proper care of a patient under your watch and failing to carry out medical orders and protocols

question

Incompetence

answer

lack of knowledge skill or ability that could influence the proper care of any animal in your care

question

Anesthesia

answer

loss of consciousness

question

Analgesia

answer

relief of pain

question

Sedation

answer

arousable sleep with analgesia

question

tranquilization

answer

arousable sleep

question

pharmacology

answer

study of drugs

question

pharmaceuticals

answer

chemically based drugs

question

neutraceuticals

answer

biologically based drugs or nutrients

question

drug

answer

any chemical agent that affects a living process; a substance used to diagnose, treat, or prevent illness

question

analgesic

answer

generally a narcotic or non narcotic used to decrease pain and inflammation

question

sedative

answer

a drug used to calm the patient

question

tranquillizer

answer

a narcotic drug that relaxes a patient and induces mood changes

question

anesthetic

answer

drug that brings about a no pain state and renders unconsciousness

question

Diagnostic choice of drug

answer

use of assessment of the patient hx,pe, lab tests

question

Empirical Method

answer

use of practical experience and common sense to select treatment of choice

question

Symptomatic choice

answer

when a dz can not be dx then we will look at treating the symptoms

question

Drug Regime

answer

route of administration dosage frequency duration

question

drugs are metabolized by the

answer

liver

question

drugs are eliminated by the

answer

kidneys

question

APHIS

answer

Animal Plant and Health Inspection Service handles international trafficking and inspection of exotic plants and animals

question

State board of pharmacy

answer

licenses vet clinics to dispense medications

question

State board of Veterinary Medicine

answer

licenses the DVM and CVT

question

EPA

answer

Environmental Protection Agency regulates the development and approval of animal topical pesticides

question

ID

answer

intradermal

question

SQ or SC

answer

subcutaneous

question

IM

answer

intramuscular

question

IV

answer

intravaneous

question

Total Body Water (TBW)

answer

75% of the body is composed of water

question

Neonates have a TBW value of

answer

80% important to keep them hydrated

question

2/3 of body's fluids lie

answer

intracellular

question

1/3 of body's fluid lies

answer

extracellular

question

The body on average loses

answer

40-60 ml/kg/day

question

maintenance fluid rate

answer

50ml/kg/day

question

5% dehydrated

answer

no clinical signs detectable

question

5-6% dehydrated

answer

slightly dehydrated slight loss of skin turgor

question

7-9% dehydrated

answer

severely dehydrated obvious tented skin prolonged CRT tacky MM early signs of shock

question

10-12% dehydrated

answer

critically dehydrated skin fully tented with no bounce back very prolonged CRT dry MM eyes sunken obvious signs of shock cold extremities hypothermia white MM

question

13% dehydrated

answer

death is imminent all obvious signs of shock

question

The heart is composed of ___________ chambers that pump blood automatically

answer

4

question

The _____________ is the heart muscle that composes the 4 chambers

answer

myocardium

question

systole

answer

heart is contracting

question

dystole

answer

heart is relaxing

question

Respiratory systems main functions

answer

oxygen/ carbon dioxide exchange body temp regulation voice production

question

Whales and Dolphins have to (respirations)

answer

think about breathing

question

Gram positive bacteria

answer

blue/purple are easily killed by antibiotics

question

Gram negative bacteria

answer

pink/red harder to kill with antibiotics

question

Broad Spectrum Antiobiotics

answer

kill or retard a number of the bacteria simultaneously

question

Abs

answer

antibiotic

question

ACL

answer

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

question

AD

answer

right ear

question

AS

answer

left ear

question

AU

answer

each ear

question

DC

answer

discharge/discontinue

question

DIC

answer

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

question

GDV

answer

Gastric Dilatation Volvulus

question

IMHA

answer

Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia

question

OFA

answer

Orthopedic Foundation of Animals

question

Restraint

answer

restriction of an animal's activity via verbal, chemical, or physical means

question

Never scruff a

answer

Guinea Pig Chinchilla

question

safest place to stand near a cow is

answer

shoulder

question

best way to restrain cattle

answer

squeeze chute

question

Never grab sheep or llamas by

answer

their wool

question

to expose a turtles head

answer

poke his back leg

question

Tachycardia

answer

increased heart rate

question

Bradycardia

answer

decreased heart rate

question

Normal temperature

answer

Cat 101.5 *F +/- a degree Dog 101.5 * F +/- a degree mouse 97.5-100.4*F Rat 96.6-99.5*F Guinea Pig 101.3-104*F Hampster 98.5-100.4*F Ferret 100-102*F Rabbit 101.3-104*F Horse 99.5-101.5*F Gerbil 98.6-101.3*F

question

Steps to a complete fecal exam

answer

Gross- tapeworms,roundworms,mucous Direct-giardia, trichomonas Float/centrifuge- all eggs, giardia cysts,cocidia cytology- bacterial balance, clostridium

question

Procedure used to identify a tapeworm segment

answer

soak segment in saline on a slide and crush with an applicator stick to release the eggs for identification

question

Purpose of a direct fecal exam

answer

used to rapidly estimate a parasite load- sometimes you can see a full load of eggs at first glance used to detect motile protozoa in feces- giardia trichomonas tropiozites

question

Why do you want a thin prep for the direct

answer

debris may interfere with seeing parasite eggs or protozoa

question

Why report a negative result as NSATT instead of negative

answer

because only a small amount is used and parasites do not always shed eggs

question

When doing a floatation why use a solution with a specific gravity higher than the specific gravity of parasite material

answer

Feces will sink to the bottom because the specific gravity of the parasite

question

When doing a floatation what is it called when then fecal solution bubbles above the containers rim

answer

meniscus

question

what is the most efficient fecal concentration method

answer

centifugation

question

What concentration method is used to detect fluke eggs

answer

fecal sedimentation, because of the fluke egg's large size

question

When is it important to run a fecal cytology

answer

When there is a diarrhea sample

question

What has a safety pin appearance and is diagnosed on cytology

answer

clostridium- large gram + rods, one end will stain purple perfringens

question

What has a seagull or W- appearance and is diagnosed on cytology

answer

campylobactor

question

What is a trophozoite

answer

one-celled, motile organism that lacks the rigid wall of a cyst vegetative form

question

What parasite does the Baermann Technique test for

answer

strongyl Lung worms

question

Techniques for heartworm/Dirofilaria testing

answer

direct blood smear filter technique thin blood smear concentration technique- buffy coat Knott's test

question

Which diagnostic technique allows for differentiation of microfilaria species

answer

knott's test

question

Definitive host

answer

harbors the adult parasite

question

intermediate host

answer

harbors the immature parasite essential to life cycle of parasite

question

reservoir host

answer

harbors parasite but is not affected by the parasite

question

Paratenic Host

answer

similar to intermediate host only that it is not needed for the parasite life cycle

question

Direct life cycle

answer

no intermediate host needed for development to the infective stage

question

Indirect life cycle

answer

an intermediate host is needed for development to the infective stage

question

Operculum

answer

cap at end of parasite egg trematodes and whipworms

question

main orders of parasites

answer

Nematode Cestode Trematode Protozoa Blood parasite

question

Which nematodes are zoonotic

answer

Roundworms Hookworms Racoon Roundworms

question

What are two zoonotic conditions that Toxocara spp. roundworms cause

answer

visceral larval migrans ocular larval migrans

question

what is the method of transmission for the Toxocara roundworms

answer

fecal oral contact

question

Which roundworm eggs has the outer ropey edge

answer

Toxocara Canis

question

Which roundworm eggs have the inner ropey edge

answer

Toxocara Leonina

question

What parasite causes cutaneous larval migrans

answer

Hookworms

question

Method of transmission of hookworms

answer

ingestion of infective larvae or actual penetration of larvae through skin of feet

question

What is the species name for whipworm

answer

Trichuris Vulpis

question

The whipworm egg is environmentally resistant and can live in the soil for

answer

5-7 years

question

Which type of ascarid infects horses and can cause colic

answer

strongyles

question

What is the species name for pinworm

answer

oxyuris equi

question

do dogs and cats get pinworms

answer

no

question

name two filarioidea species

answer

Dirofilaria immitis Dipetalonema reconditum

question

What is pathogenic and known as canine heartworm

answer

dirofilaria immitis

question

What is an occult heartworm infection

answer

adults only no microfilaria

question

what are two other species that dirofilaria immitis infects other than dogs

answer

cats ferrets

question

symptoms of heartworm disease

answer

coughing weakness exercise intolerance

question

immediate host for dirofilaria immitis

answer

mosquitos

question

Which larval stage become infective in the intermediate host for heartworm

answer

L3

question

puppies under the age of ______ are put on heartworm preventative without testing

answer

6 months

question

What is extremely important for a dog being treated for heartworm disease

answer

no exercise strict kennel confinement

question

proglottid

answer

tapeworm segment appearance is grain of rice or sesame seed, once dried gravid proglottids found in feces and on pet's hair coat and bedding

question

scolex

answer

head of tapeworm

question

hexacanth embryo

answer

three pairs of hooks which are the infective stage of the tapeworm visible in eggs help with ID of eggs

question

most common routes of transmission of cestodes

answer

eating small rodents/ rabbits ingestion of fleas

question

How do humans get cestodes

answer

same routes as pets but not from their pets ex. ingestion of fleas

question

why are tapeworms difficult to diagnose on a fecal exam

answer

eggs often passed in segments

question

Which tapeworm releases egg baskets

answer

Dipylidium Caninum

question

Which tapeworm eggs have radial striations with visible hexacanth embryo

answer

Taenia

question

Which tapeworm is zoonotic

answer

Echinococcus Granulosis

question

What is the most common term for a trematode

answer

Fluke

question

What is the lung fluke in dogs and cats

answer

Paragonimus kellicotti

question

What is the liver fluke of cattle, sheep, and other ruminants

answer

fasciola hepatica

question

the cyst stage of a protozoan is called

answer

oocyst

question

which protozoan does the small animal veterinary community generally call coccidia

answer

cystoisospora

question

What are the two flagelette protozoans and how does their motility differ

answer

Giardia "kite like" Trichomonas "cat in a bag"

question

Giardia is zoonotic

answer

true

question

cryptosporidium parvum is the largest protozoan in the GI tract

answer

false

question

It is important that pregnant woman stay away from the litter box because this parasite is passed in cat feces

answer

toxoplasmosis gondii

question

Eimeria Coccidia have 4 sporocysts and infect ruminant and chicken species

answer

true

question

Ehrlichia and Babesia both infect RBCs

answer

false

question

What does not decrease the dose of radiation exposure while taking an xray

answer

Use of filtration at the portal of the X-ray tube

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