A specific analysis of the total greenhouse gases caused directly or indirectly by a product is called: Carbon footprinting. Life cycle analysis. Life cycle waste assessment matrix. Cap and trade.

Carbon footprinting. Carbon footprinting is an analysis of the total greenhouse gases caused directly or indirectly by a product. Life cycle analysis and LCWAM are more extensive than carbon footprinting. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/op-16-sustainable-operations-management-preparing-for-the-future/

Cap And Trade test questions and answers | Get Access To Cap And Trade Flashcards and exam tests

Q: Paying to plant trees because you use carbon in your daily life would be an example of a) carbon reduction. b) cap and trade. c) carbon offsets. d) carbon sequestration. e) going carbon neutral.

c) carbon offsets. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapters-9-air-climate-and-polution-and-10-water-resources-and-polution/

Q: A cap and trade system:

reduces climate change by requiring individuals and firms to buy licenses in order to emit greenhouse gases More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ecn-202-final-exam/

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Cap And Trade Cost Benefit Analysis Free Rider Problem Principles Of Economics: Macroeconomics Principles Of Economics: Microeconomics Public Economics

Maco Eco Chapter 2 – Flashcards 22 terms

William Jordan

22 terms

Preview

Maco Eco Chapter 2 – Flashcards

question

The term externalities refers to

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The negative costs and positive benefits of a market activity borne by a third party.

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The measure of final goods and services produced in the United States is the

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GDP of the United States.

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Goods that have spillover costs affect our collective well-being and therefore can be overproduced because

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Most businesses are more concerned about profits than how the environment is affected.

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Human capital is defined as the

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Knowledge and skills workers possess.

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The result of government intervention in the market is that

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Society could be made better or worse off.

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Which of the following statements is true about the U.S. economy?

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The United States produces nearly one-fifth of the world's production.

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According to the World View chart in the text, from highest to lowest real GDP per capita, which is correct?

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United States, Canada, Japan, France, South Korea.

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Per capita GDP is

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The dollar value of GDP divided by total population.

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On average, since 1900 U.S. output has grown roughly ____ times faster than population growth.

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As of 2010, to be in the bottom quintile for income distribution in the United States, a family needed in income no more than

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$21,000.00

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In the United States today, nearly _________ of the population has attained a college degree.

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30 percent

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Those who are interested in assessing the relative standard of living of different countries over a given time period are most likely to look at

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Per capita GDP.

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In terms of an economy's production possibilities curve, a decrease in the level of human capital, ceteris paribus, will cause

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An inward shift of the curve.

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When unregulated monopolies exist,

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Prices tend to be higher than with a competitive market.

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The theory of how to grow GDP is

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An efficiency concept while the theory of how to divide GDP is an equity concept.

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The current U.S. economy is based primarily on the production of

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Services.

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Which component(s) of U.S. real GDP increased in size relative to total U.S. real GDP from 1950 to 2000?

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Only services.

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Differences in size of real GDP across countries are best explained by

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Human capital.

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The United States has roughly how much of the world's population?

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5 percent.

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When workers move from one industry to another in response to demand changes, this is an example of

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Factor mobility.

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In providing a legal framework, the government

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"Protects patents to encourage entrepreneurship., Protects the ownership of private property to encourage ,Protects copyrights to encourage textbook protection.the private sector.

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Factor mobility aids in economic development when

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(all)A region suffers a natural disaster such as an earthquake or tornado.,A technological advance causes some firms to go out of business, There is an increase in both outsourcing and insourcing.

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Cap And Trade Criminology Job Well Done

Forensic Crim 1 – Flashcards 50 terms

Kaitlynn Baldwin

50 terms

Preview

Forensic Crim 1 – Flashcards

question

Psychological Criminology

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Problem behavior that prevents a person from living within the existing social framework

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Criminal Behavior

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Intentional behavior that violated a criminal code, intentional in that it did not occur accidentally or without justification or excuse. Complex and poorly understood phenomenon that needs to be looked at from all perspectives

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Sociological Criminology

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Examines the relationship of demographic and group variables to crime

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Conformity Theory

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Views humans as creatures of conformity who want to do the right thing -associated with STRAIN THEORY

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Strain Theory

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Humans are fundamentally conforming beings who are strongly influenced by the values and attitudes of the society in which they live -MERTON

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Nonconformist Theory

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Assumes that humans are basically undisciplined creatures who, without the constraints of the rules and regulations of a society, would flout society's conventions and commit crimes

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Social Control Theory

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Crime and delinquency occur when an individuals ties to the conventional order of normative standards are weak or nonexistent -HIRSCHI

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Social Learning Theory

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Humans are born neutral and learn all behaviors, beliefs, and tendencies from their social enviroment

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Differential Association Theory

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Criminal behavior is learned as all social behavior through social interactions with other people

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Psychodynamic Approach

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theoretical perspective that argues that human behavior can be best explained through the use of psychological forces and pressures

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Criminal profiling

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Process of identifying personality traits, behavioral tendencies, geographical locations, and demographic variables based on characteristics of the crime. Not used to identify a perp but to give the characteristics of a person who commits the crime

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Pavlovian Conditioning

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The process of learning to respond to a formerly neutral stimulus that had been paired with another stimulus that already elicits a response -CLASSICAL CONDTIONING

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Reinforcement

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Used to maintain a behavior, can be positive or negative

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Punishment

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Used to stop a behavior

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Juvenile Risk Factors

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-Social Class: established inverse relationship that the lower the social class, the greater the chance of delinquent behavior -Poverty: youth living in poverty are more likely to be victims/offenders -Peer Association: delinquent friends have the strongest pull on juveniles -Family Background: strong relationship between single parent homes and delinquency

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Conduct Disorder

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A diagnostic term that represents a group of behaviors characterized by habitual misdemeanors

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Authoritarian Approach

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Sets a very rigid structure on the family setting and allows little decision by the child

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Authoritative Approach

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Sets firm rules yet encourages the autonomy of the child

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Raine

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-Twin study: genes play a significant role in antisocial behavior, as well as the environment -Interaction between birth complications and early maternal rejection in predisposing individuals to adult violence

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Twins

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Monozygotic (identical) have a high rate of concordance, and those that are separated have an even higher rate, than Dizygotic (fraternal) twins

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Self-Regulation

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The ability to control ones behavior in accordance with internal cognitive standards

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Concordance Rates

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The degree to which related pairs of subjects both show a certain trail of behavior is that it has been researched in twins

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Autonomic Arousal Theory

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Neuroticism--- a dimension of personality that theoretically reflects arousal levels of the autonomic nervous system

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Eysenckian Theory

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Believed that criminal behavior is the result of an interaction between certain environmental conditions and features of the nervous system

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Eysnecks 4 Factors

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1. General intelligence 2.Extraversion 3.Neuroticism 4. Psychoticism--Lack of empathy

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Sympathetic Nervous System

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Activates the body for emergencies by increasing heart rate,respiration, blood flow, and perspiration

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Parasympathetic Nervous System

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Counter balances the sympathetic, and brings the body back to its normal arousal state -CORTIZOL

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Limbic System

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Includes the neurological structures known as the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus -WHERE EYSENECK BELIEVES PERSONALITY LIES

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Juvenile Court Act

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Law defines a delinquent act as a child under the age of 16 who violated a state law or any village or city ordinance. All states have some sort of juvenile court, wither separately or apart of the family courts

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Juvenile Delinquency

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Behavior against the criminal code committed by an individual who has not reached adulthood

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Chicago Area Project

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attempted to prevent juvenile offenses and represented the first systematic challenge of the juvenile justice system. it drew attention to the role of the community as an agent of informal social control to prevent delinquency

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Status Offenses

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Behavior is not against the criminal code but is behavior prohibited only for juveniles

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Gender

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-Juvenile boys offend more than girls, mostly with violent offenses -Recently girls have been entering justice system at a faster rate due to them being charged with more status offenses

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Developmental Factos

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-Life Course Persisten Offenders: individuals that continue their antisocial ways across all kinds of conditions and situations. -Adolescent Limited Offender: those who begin offending during early adolescense and stop somewhere around their 18th birthday. MOST COMMON

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Primary Prevention Programs

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Designed to prevent behaviors BEFORE they emerge

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Secondary Prevention Program

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For children who show early signs of behaviors but not have been adjudicated

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Tertiary Prevention

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Intervention strategy designed to reduce or eliminate antisocial behavior that is fully developed in a person

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Multisystemic Therapy

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For serious juvenile offenders that focuses on the family while being responsive to the other systems that impact the child -MOST SUCCESSFUL BUT MOST EXPENSIVE

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Lombroso

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-Believed in the born criminal who is physically distinct and predisposed to anti social behavior -6 categories *habitual/professional criminals *Judicial criminal *Criminals of passion *Criminaloids *Born criminals *Hysteric criminals

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Sheldon

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-Somatyping: theory of connecting body type to criminal behavior *Endomorph- fat and soft *Ectomorph- thin and fragile *Mesomorph- muscular and hard (biggest tie to criminal activity) -Attractiveness: there is a connection between level of attractiveness and criminal behavior; nondelinquents being rated more attractive

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Classical Theory

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-BECCARIA (father of criminology) -Punishment should be swift, certain, and severe enough to deter people from the criminal act

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Positivist Theory

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Argues that prior experiences or influences determine the present

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Goldstein 2001

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Day care teachers need to be concerned with aggression in toddlers more than any other behavioral problems because it can be an indicator of criminal activity in the future

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Who is most heavily linked to crime?

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Psychotics

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What is the major reason we can't prevent crime?

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It is too complex with too many variables

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Psychological criminology is the science of trying to determine how criminal behavior is...

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Acquired, evoked, and maintained

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Which of the following is least consistent with the developmental approach in the study of crime

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Obtaining a child IQ score as he or she enters adolescence

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According to Virginia Douglas, the core problem in ADHD children involves:

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executive functioning skills and over prescribed

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Which of the following would be considered a callous-unemotional trait

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Lack of guilt

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Which of the following features of an intervention program is most likely to lead to effective change in the long run?

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Begins early developmental trajectory of the child

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Cap And Trade Cost Per Unit International Organization For Standardization Managerial Decision Making Principles Of Marketing Public Interest Groups

BA 360 Ch 5s – Flashcards 45 terms

Chad Lipe

45 terms

Preview

BA 360 Ch 5s – Flashcards

question

Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs is known as corporate social responsibility

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Internet-based technologies today allow consumers, communities, public interest groups, and regulators to be well informed about an organization's performance.

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3) What does CSR stand for? A) consumer sustainability requirements B) critical sustainability ratio C) corporate social responsibility D) corporate sustainability record E) corporate society ratio

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Corporate social responsibility involves managerial decision making that considers what three impacts? A) environmental, legal, and financial B) environmental, legal, and societal C) educational, environmental, and societal D) societal, legal, and financial E) environmental, societal, and financial

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Managerial decision making that considers environmental, societal, and financial impacts is known as sustainability.

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Sustainability is often associated with corporate social responsibility.

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Those resources held in the common are often misallocated.

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Firms that do not consider the impact of their decisions on all of their stakeholders see reduced sales and profits

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A measure of the total greenhouse gas emissions caused directly or indirectly by an organization, a product, an event, or a person is the nitrogen footprint.

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Economic sustainability means appropriately allocating scarce resources to make a profit.

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Social and environmental sustainability do not exist without economic sustainability.

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What refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs? A) corporate social responsibility B) economic sustainability C) carbon footprint D) sustainability E) closed-loop supply chains

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What refers to looking at a product's life from design to disposal, including all the resources required? A) the commons B) a systems view C) the triple bottom line D) DD analysis E) carbon footprint

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Resources held by the public are also said to be held in what? A) escrow B) the system C) contempt D) perpetuity E) the common

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One way to think of sustainability is to consider the systems necessary to support the triple bottom line of the three Ps, which are: A) price, promotion, and product. B) people, places, and products. C) people, planet, and profit. D) price, promotion, and profit. E) people, pollution, and profit.

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Companies can improve the triple bottom line with sustainability by minimizing what four things? A) raw material, energy, water, and waste B) raw material, transport, manufacture, and disposal C) people, planet, profit, and pollution D) pollution, carbon footprint, profit, and people E) lawsuits, advertisements, coupons, and layoffs

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What is a measure of total greenhouse gas emissions caused directly or indirectly by an organization, a product, an event, or a person? A) radioactive decay B) nitrogen footprint C) ozone factor D) pollution index E) carbon footprint

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The carbon footprint is defined as a measure of total greenhouse gas emissions caused directly or indirectly by what four things? A) a factory, an office building, a warehouse, or a truck B) an organization, a product, an event, or a person C) an organization, a product, an animal, or a person D) an organization, a government, a product, or a person E) a product, an event, a person, or an animal

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What refers to how companies remain in business? A) corporate social responsibility B) economic sustainability C) carbon footprint D) sustainability E) closed-loop supply chains

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The operations manager's greatest opportunity to make substantial contributions to the company's environmental objectives occurs during product life cycle assessment

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Life cycle assessment determines which stage of the product life cycle that the product currently is in.

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Reuse is one of the 3 Rs for sustainability.

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One environmentally friendly approach to product design is to use lighter components.

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A design for disassembly cost-benefit analysis compares the amount of revenue that might be reclaimed against the cost of disposing of the product at its end-of-life.

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UPS plans its truck routes with the fewest possible right turns.

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What refers to analysis of environmental impacts of products from the design stage through end-of-life? A) ISO 14000 B) life cycle assessment C) carbon footprint D) economic sustainability E) closed-loop supply chain analysis

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What are the 3 Rs for sustainability? A) reduce, reuse, and reclaim B) reduce, reproduce, and recycle C) reproduce, reuse, and recycle D) reduce, reuse, and recycle E) reduce, reclaim, and recycle

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What is the most critical phase in product life cycle assessment? A) product design B) purchasing C) production D) shipping E) disposal

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What is sometimes referred to as the fourth "R" of sustainability? A) reclaim B) recover C) renew D) improved reputation E) reproduce

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What percentage of the 2012 Mercedes S-class is recyclable? A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 95% E) 100%

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What type of supply chains consider forward and reverse product flows over the entire life cycle? A) two-pronged B) life cycle C) closed-loop D) socially responsible E) end-to-end

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Suppose that a firm has made the following computations for its design for disassembly: processing cost per unit = $12.00, disposal cost per unit = $6.00, resale revenue per unit = $20.00, and recycling revenue per unit = $7.00. What is the revenue retrieval for this product? A) $27.00 B) $8.00 C) $9.00 D) $1.00 E) $20.00

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question

A firm is considering five different product designs. Data concerning the design for disassembly for each of the designs are provided in the table below. Which design appears to be the best environmental design based on revenue retrieval opportunity? Product Design Resale Revenue per Unit Recycling Revenue per Unit Processing Cost per Unit Disposal Cost per Unit 1 $30.00 $12.00 $15.00 $40.00 2 $10.00 $10.00 $3.00 $1.00 3 $5.00 $55.00 $48.00 $10.00 4 $4.00 $2.00 $1.00 $0.50 5 $42.00 $3.00 $8.00 $32.00 A) Design 1 B) Design 2 C) Design 3 D) Design 4 E) Design 5

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Products are more "environmentally friendly" when they are made: A) using cheaper materials. B) using less energy. C) according to OSHA standards. D) where environmental regulations are lax. E) more difficult to disassemble.

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Some governments are implementing laws that mandate the outright reduction of GHG emissions by forcing companies to pay taxes based on the amount of GHG emissions that are emitted.

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ISO 9000 is a series of environmental management standards that contain five core elements.

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The UNFCCC works on the "cap-and-trade" principle.

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Within environmental regulation, the "cap-and-trade" principle essentially allows companies to buy and sell the right to pollute.

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What does ISO stand for? A) Industry Standards Organization B) International Safety Organization C) Industrial Safety Organization D) International Standards for Oxygen E) International Organization for Standardization

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What does UNFCCC stand for? A) United National Federation Council on Climate Change B) UN Federation for Climate Change Cooperation C) Uniform National Framework Climate Change Code D) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change E) UN Foundation for the Consequences of Climate Change

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What percentage of the manufacturing process from Subaru's Lafayette, Indiana, plant goes to the landfill? A) 0% B) 2% C) 5% D) 12.5% E) 15%

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The European Union Emissions Trading System works on what principle? A) Thatcher's Theory of the Commons B) pollute-and-pay C) socialism D) cap-and-trade E) tax the richer companies more to pay for pollution control

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What allows companies in Europe to buy and sell allowances for the right to pollute? A) UNFCCC B) ISO 9000 C) EUETS D) ISO 14000 E) EPA

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Within environmental regulation, the "cap-and-trade" principle produces a market that allows companies to purchase and sell what? A) hats that promote environmental awareness B) shares of stock in renewable energy sources C) emission allowances D) space in landfills E) carbon reduction sweepers

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question

Which of the following is true about ISO 14000 certification? A) It can reduce exposure to liability. B) It deals with environmental management. C) It offers a good systematic approach to pollution prevention. D) One of its core elements is life cycle assessment. E) All of the above are true.

answer

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Cap And Trade World Geography

GEOG CH 8 – Flashcard 16 terms

Marvel Brown

16 terms

Preview

GEOG CH 8 – Flashcard

question

This low, relatively flat plain is the economic heartland of modern Europe.

answer

European lowland

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These old, relatively low mountains in France and Germany are home to the mineral resources that fueled Europe's industrial expansion.

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Central Uplands

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This political body, which now includes 28 member states, seeks to unite the interests and policies of European countries by providing the continent with a "federal" governing system:

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European Union

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What countries of Europe comprise the region of Scandinavia?

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Norway, Sweden, Denmark

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What was the Cold War?

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an ideological struggle between the United States and the former Soviet Union that lasted from 1946-1991, and included Soviet occupation of several European countries

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The dry summers of Greece and Italy, a characteristic of their _____ climate, draw in tourists by the thousands but can make farming very difficult at times.

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Mediterranean

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The Schengen Agreement

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permits free movement across the borders separating countries that signed the agreement.

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What three historical eras are represented in European city landscapes?

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medieval, Renaissance-Baroque, industrial

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The Cyrillic alphabet is associated with which of the following language groups:

answer

Slavic

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As their first language, 90 percent of Europe's population speak languages from what three groups?

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Germanic, Romance, Slavic

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What is the word for an array of nonaligned or friendly states that cushion or protect a larger country from invasion, as happened with the former Soviet Union and its Eastern European neighbors?

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buffer zone

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What is the word for a state policy of reclaiming lost lands or lands inhabited by people of the same ethnicity in another state?

answer

irredentism

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What do the letters in NATO stand for?

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North Atlantic Treaty Organization

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What was the metaphorical name given to the policy of separation that divided Europe into two separate geopolitical and economic blocs after World War II?

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Iron Curtain

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What is the currency of the European Monetary Union?

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the euro

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The term ________ is used to describe the geopolitical processes of small scale independence movements based upon ethnic fault lines. The term is often used to describe a country, region, or organization that has been divided into small, bitterly-opposed groups.

answer

balkanization

STUDY

Cap And Trade Geography of Europe Glaciers Mountains Northern European Plain Relations With Other Countries Roads And Highways World Geography

Northwestern Europe: Unit Exam – Flashcards 69 terms

Daniel Hardy

69 terms

Preview

Northwestern Europe: Unit Exam – Flashcards

question

connects industrial cities in France and Germany to the port of Rotterdam on the North Sea A. Thames River B. Rhine River C. Rhone River D. Seine River E. Danube River

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B. Rhine River

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originates in Germany's Black Forest and empties into the Black Sea A. Thames River B. Rhine River C. Rhone River D. Seine River E. Danube River

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E. Danube River

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flows through Switzerland and France to the Mediterranean SeaA. Thames River B. Rhine River C. Rhone River D. Seine River E. Danube River

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C. Rhone River

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flows through England and connects London with the North Sea A. Thames River B. Rhine River C. Rhone River D. Seine River E. Danube River

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A. Thames River

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carries most of France's inland waterway traffic and empties in the English Channel A. Thames River B. Rhine River C. Rhone River D. Seine River E. Danube River

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D. Seine River

question

Which best describes the Northern European Plain? A. an area of soft rolling hills and flat valleys B. an area of plateaus and dry basins C. an area of low plateaus and high mountains D. an area of relatively flat and low-lying land

answer

D. an area of relatively flat and low-lying land

question

The Central Uplands are characterized by A. low mountains, rolling hills, and high plateaus. B. rugged cliffs, high mountains, and broad valleys. C. high mountains, deep gorges, and low plateaus. D. gentle mountains, deep basins, and narrow valleys.

answer

A. low mountains, rolling hills, and high plateaus.

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Which country has especially fertile soil that is covered by deposits of loess, a rich sediment left by glaciers? A. Switzerland B. Ireland C. Monaco D. Belgium

answer

D. Belgium

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The North Atlantic Current carries over the coasts and inland to the Northern European Plain. A. cold, moist air B. cold, dry air C. warm, moist air D. warm, dry air

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C. warm, moist air

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Which of the following is an example of a coniferous tree most likely to be found in a cool, alpine mountain area? A beech B. spruce C. oak D.ash

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B. spruce

question

The movement in the 1700s that questioned tradition and sparked a desire for greater participation in the government was the _ industrial capitalism Euro Cold War Enlightenment Era

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Enlightenment Era

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The currency of the European Union is the _ industrial capitalism Euro Cold War Enlightenment Era

answer

Euro

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An economic system in which business leaders use profits to expand their companies is

answer

industrial capitalism

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The post-World War II power struggle between the communist world and the non-communist world is known as the _ industrial capitalism Euro Cold War Enlightenment Era

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Cold War

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Where did the Industrial Revolution begin? Germany Belgium Great Britain France

answer

Great Britain

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Which three countries have the highest population densities of countries in Northwestern Europe?

answer

the Netherlands, Belgium, and the United Kingdom

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Which statement about religion in Northwestern Europe is true? A. While Christianity traditionally was the primary religion of the region, today there are roughly as many non-Christians as Christians. B. While the majority of people in Northwestern Europe are Christians, most conceal their faith due to decades-longs conflicts between Roman Catholics and Protestants. C. While the majority of people in Northwestern Europe are Christians, most do not practice their faith or attend church regularly. D. While religion traditionally has played little role in society and culture in Northwestern Europe, a resurgence of religious faith and growing membership in many Christian churches is occurring.

answer

C. While the majority of people in Northwestern Europe are Christians, most do not practice their faith or attend church regularly.

question

Which pair correctly matches an agricultural crop with the region where it is grown? A. southern France: grapes B. southern Switzerland: citrus fruits C. northern Germany: olives D. the Netherlands: dates

answer

A. southern France: grapes

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What industry employs the majority of workers in Northwestern Europe? A. agriculture B. manufacturing C. retail D. service

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D. service

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Some countries, such as France, dump their waste in the Mediterranean Sea. True False

answer

True

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The rate of overfishing in the North Sea and Baltic Sea nearly doubled between 2010 and 2012. True False

answer

False

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Human activities that have an impact on the environment in Northwestern Europe include desalination and monoculture farming. True False

answer

False

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Acid deposition refers to wet airborne acids that fall to the ground with precipitation. True False

answer

False

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All countries in Northwestern Europe except Monaco have ratified the Kyoto Protocol. True False

answer

False

question

A primary purpose of restoration work on rivers in Northwestern Europe is to A. dredge rivers to allow oceangoing vessels to travel further inland. B. widen rivers to increase waterway traffic, especially commercial traffic. C. control floodplain drainage and lessen damage from pollution. D. enhance their natural settings to encourage tourism and recreation.

answer

C. control floodplain drainage and lessen damage from pollution.

question

Among countries in Northwestern Europe, fragmentation due to roads and railways is highest in A. Germany and France. B. Austria and Liechtenstein C. Ireland and the United Kingdom D. Belgium, the Netherlands, and Luxembourg

answer

D. Belgium, the Netherlands, and Luxembourg

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The two greatest sources of air pollution in Northwestern Europe are vehicles and ______ industries. A. agricultural B. construction C. manufacturing D. service

answer

C. manufacturing

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Which of the following is true about how countries in Northwestern Europe are addressing environmental issues caused by acid rain? A. All countries have restricted the use of fossil fuels that cause acid rain. B. Governments have focused on both reducing the causes of acid rain and the damage it causes. C. Industries in many countries continue to build factories with tall smokestacks to carry pollution away from their communities. D. Membership in the EU is based on compliance with environmental protection laws.

answer

B. Governments have focused on both reducing the causes of acid rain and the damage it causes.

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A primary mission of Greenpeace, Oceana, and Seas at Risk is to A. promote ecotourism. B. regulate fishing industries. C. protect marine and coastal ecosystems. D. enhance biological diversity of marine life.

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C. protect marine and coastal ecosystems.

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a strong northerly wind from the Alps that can bring cold air to southern France loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

mistral

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wet or dry airborne acids that fall to the ground loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

acid deposition

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the rapid, major change in the economy beginning in the 1700s with the introduction of power-driven machinery loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

Industrial Revolution

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movement within a country, such as from rural areas to urban areas loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

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internal migration

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a dry wind that blows from the leeward sides of mountains, sometimes melting snow and causing avalanches; term used mainly in Europe loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

foehn

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a foreign laborer living and working temporarily in another country loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

guest worker

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fine, yellowish, brownish topsoil made up of particles of silt and clay, carried and deposited by the wind loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

loess

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a large mass of ice, snow, or rock that slides down a mountainside loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

avalanche

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the granting of self-rule to local and regional authorities loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

devolution

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the breakup of the landscape, often resulting in the isolation of animal populations loess fragmentation guest worker foehn avalanche acid deposition internal migration Industrial Revolution mistral devolution

answer

fragmentation

question

What financial incentive is at the heart of the Kyoto Protocol's system of cap-and-trade? A. Companies reduce their taxes for emissions lower than the cap. B. Companies receive credits for emissions lower than the cap and can sell them. C. Companies receive financial bonuses for emissions lower than the cap. D. Companies purchase waivers that allow them to exceed emission levels.

answer

B. Companies receive credits for emissions lower than the cap and can sell them.

question

The Central Uplands is an area of A. low-lying and flat land eroded by glaciers. B. rugged coastlines, low hills, and rolling plains. C. high plateaus, low rounded mountains, and hills. D. high, jagged mountains and flat plateaus.

answer

C. high plateaus, low rounded mountains, and hills.

question

Which river has limited use for water navigation due to shallowness, fluctuations in volume, and silt? A. Danube River B. Loire River C. Rhone River D. Seine River

answer

B. Loire River

question

Bacteria that once broke down waste disposed of in the Mediterranean Sea is less able to do so due to A. growing population and tourism, along with weak currents. B. changes in ocean currents due to global warming. C. warmer sea water due to global warming. D. inefficient water-filtration technology.

answer

A. growing population and tourism, along with weak currents.

question

Which countries in Northwestern Europe mainly rely on renewable sources such as hydroelectricity for their energy needs? A. Germany and France B. the United Kingdom and Ireland C. the Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg D. Switzerland and Austria

answer

D. Switzerland and Austria

question

How has the European Union promoted trade among member countries, as well as countries such as the United States and China? A. by increasing tariffs for non-trading partners B. by offering subsidies to poor countries C. by eliminating tariffs and trade barriers D. by instituting export quotas

answer

C. by eliminating tariffs and trade barriers

question

Despite restoration efforts, what continue to be the most significant environmental threats to rivers in Northwestern Europe? A. the use of fertilizers and industrial discharges B. acid rain and global warming C. increasing populations and factory emissions D. increasing commercial traffic and tourism

answer

A. the use of fertilizers and industrial discharges

question

What do the Ruhr district in Germany, the Middle Rhine district in Germany,and the Lorraine-Saar district in France have in common? A. They are leading industrial centers. B. They are leading finance and banking centers. C. They are the heart of Northwestern Europe's agribusiness industry. D. Combined, they employ around 70% of Northwestern Europe's workers.

answer

A. They are leading industrial centers.

question

Agribusiness developed as a result of A. increased demand for specialty food products. B. declining numbers of farmers. C. a growing shortage of arable land. D. a desire for more environmentally friendly agricultural practices.

answer

B. declining numbers of farmers.

question

Which action have cities in Northwestern Europe taken to combat environmental problems caused by acid rain? A. prohibited the use of limestone, which is corroded by acid, as a building material B. required factories to build tall smokestacks to carry factory emissions away from populated areas C. applied acid-resistant coatings to vulnerable buildings and statues D. banned the use of fossil fuels in homes and factories

answer

C. applied acid-resistant coatings to vulnerable buildings and statues

question

a method for managing pollution in which a limit is placed on emissions and businesses or where countries can buy and sell emissions allowances industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

cap-and-trade

question

an industry engaged in large scale, corporate farming operations industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

agribusiness

question

a low-lying area from which seawater has been drained to create new land industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

polder

question

the process of expanding companies by reinvesting profits in the communism companies industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

industrial capitalism

question

the power struggle between the Soviet Union and the United States after World War II industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

Cold War

question

a large wall built to protect low-lying land from the sea industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

dike

question

an amendment to the international treaty on climate change designed to reduce the amount of greenhouse gases emitted by specific countries industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

Kyoto Protocol

question

the idea that society should be based on public ownership and communal control of property industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

communism

question

the practice of extracting more marine resources than can be replenished naturally industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

unsustainable fishing

question

a large trading bloc made up of countries in Europe industrial capitalism unsustainable fishing European Union dike communism polder cap-and-trade Kyoto Protocol Cold War agribusiness

answer

European Union

question

What is the term for wet or dry airborne acids that fall to the ground? A. acid rain B. acid sediment C. acid deposition D. air pollution

answer

C. acid deposition

question

What characteristics of the Northern European Plain originally attracted farmers to settle in the area? A. mild climate and abundance of forests B. fertile soil and abundance of rivers C. ample rainfall and access to trade routes D. ample natural resources and flat land

answer

B. fertile soil and abundance of rivers

question

Most of Northwestern Europe has A. cool summers and mild winters. B. cool summers and frigid winters. C. warm summers and mild winters. D. warm summers and cool winters.

answer

A. cool summers and mild winters.

question

Dumping waste directly in the sea is common in countries that border the A. Baltic Sea. B. Irish Sea. C. North Sea. D. Mediterranean Sea.

answer

D. Mediterranean Sea.

question

Which country in Northwestern Europe has few natural resources for energy and imports most of its energy needs? A. Germany B. the Netherlands C. the United Kingdom D. Switzerland

answer

A. Germany

question

The Alps run through which country? A. United Kingdom B. Austria C. the Netherlands D. Luxembourg

answer

B. Austria

question

Why did Germany invite guest workers following World War II? A. to increase its population B. to aid economic growth C. to utilize cheaper labor D. to improve relations with other countries

answer

B. to aid economic growth

question

An environmental group that focuses its efforts on preserving and restoring marine and coastal ecosystems particularly in the North Atlantic, Irish Sea, and North Sea is A. Greenpeace. B. Earthwatch. C. Oceana. D. Seas at Risk

answer

D. Seas at Risk

question

How did the collapse of the Soviet Union affect the economy of East Germany? A. It led to an influx of foreign investors and the creation of a strong, industrialized economy. B. It led to the closure of state-owned factories, resulting in high unemployment and migration. C. It led to the transfer of state-owned factories to worker collectives, which have yet to become profitable. D. It led to the transfer of state-owned factories to the East German government, resulting in little direct change to the economy.

answer

B. It led to the closure of state-owned factories, resulting in high unemployment and migration.

question

Which of the following is an example of devolution? A. the collapse of the Soviet Union B. the division of Germany following World War II C. the transfer of power granting self-rule to Northern Ireland D. the cessation of hostilities following the end of the Cold War

answer

C. the transfer of power granting self-rule to Northern Ireland

STUDY

Cap And Trade Marine West Coast Marine West Coast Climate North European Plain Northern European Plain World Geography

Northwestern Europe chapter 11, lesson 1, 2 and 3 – Flashcards 36 terms

Charlotte Small

36 terms

Preview

Northwestern Europe chapter 11, lesson 1, 2 and 3 – Flashcards

question

The ----- and the ---- plain is an area of relatively flat land that's good for farming

answer

Northern and Great

question

The --- systems and fertile soil make an area good for farming

answer

River

question

The Southern edge of the plains is covered in -----, a fine, rich kind of soil left by glaciers

answer

Loess

question

A tall, jagged mountain range, the ----, runs across the Southern part of the region.

answer

Alps

question

People depend on rivers for ------, ------, and ------

answer

Transportation, trade, and recreation activities

question

Most cities in Northwestern Europe are within 300 miles of a --- or ---- coast

answer

sea or ocean

question

Approximately 25% of the Netherlands is ----------

answer

Below sea level

question

In the Netherlands, ----- keep back the water

answer

Dikes

question

A powerful, warm, ------ ------ called the North Atlantic ----- , brings warm water up from the Carribeans

answer

Ocean current, current

question

Most of Northwestern Europe has a ------ ---- ---- climate, with mild winters and cool summers

answer

Marine West Coast (Humid)

question

The trees in the region are both ----- and -----

answer

deciduous and coniferous, con. meaning pine trees and dec. meaning it loses its leaves

question

Northwestern Europe's abundant ---- and ------ resources made it possible for industrial development to take place beginning in the 1700's

answer

coal and iron core

question

How did the Roman empire change Northwestern Europe physically, culturally, and politically?

answer

Built roads, cities, and towns; also brought stable and general prosperity; brought Christianity

question

What were some long-term effects of the Crusades? (Crusades are a series of religious wars fought against Muslims to regain holy land)

answer

It opened trade routes to the Eastern Mediterranean; exchange of cultural ideas, economies, politics

question

What is a major long-term effect of the Protestant Reformation?

answer

Germany with Martin Luther to decrease power of RCC and introduced Protestantism

question

How are the Enlightenment and the spread of democracy connected?

answer

To value reason and tradition; began to question governments and wanted a voice in government

question

Why did industrialization and urbanization effect family size?

answer

They needed kids to work on the farm

question

What is the European Union?

answer

Countries seeking unity

question

Describe the waves of immigration from other countries to Great Britain, Germany, and France

answer

In 1945 people moved to the United Kingdom from South Asia through the Indies; Germany called immigrants "guest workers" and encourage them to move for economic growth

question

What firsts have the women of Northwestern Europe received?

answer

Equality and political empowerment. They also have higher education and female are heads of state

question

Name three artistic movements that began in Northwestern Europe and what they mean

answer

1) Romanticism- to evoke an emotion 2)Realism- everyday life 3)Impressionism- impressions of natural world

question

What are the main service industries in Northwestern Europe today, and which countries are involved?

answer

70% of people were involved in the service industry- UK/ Switzerland- banking/insurance

question

What drives the large amount of trade activity of the European Union?

answer

Eliminating tariffs and other trade barriers

question

The economy of Northwestern Europe is highly developed and ------

answer

Industrialized

question

Northern Europe uses large amounts of ----- -----, which generates many ----- ------

answer

natural resources, waste products

question

Countries that border the -------- Sea use that body of water for waste disposal

answer

Mediterranean

question

The problem of ------- is a major concern for the European Union, although proper management ha somewhat reversed the problem in the Northeast Atlantic and in the Baltic sea

answer

overfishing

question

Manufacturing and the heavy use of motor vehicles has produced --- ----- throughout the region

answer

air pollution

question

Precipitation known as ---- ---- results from moisture combining with air polluted with acidic chemicals

answer

acid rain

question

This precipitation ruins forests and rivers, kills ---- and other organisms when it flows into lakes, and damages buildings, especially those made of limestone

answer

fish

question

Countries in the EU (European Union) can face ------ ----- if they don't respect environmental laws

answer

"legal action", or fines

question

Many factories now burn ------ --- instead of coal, or are powered by fuels such as solar and wind power

answer

natural gas

question

Al the countries in Northwestern Europe have ratified, or approved, the ------- -------, part of a treaty in climate change

answer

Kyoto Protocal

question

The ---- ---- ----- system creates economic incentives to reduce emission levels

answer

Cap and trade

question

The EU's ----- ----- requires that several rivers in Europe must undergo major restoration by 2015

answer

water framework

question

Greenpeace, Oceana, and Seas At Risk are three ----- that are working to protect ecosystems

answer

"NGO's"- Non-governmental organization

STUDY

Cap And Trade Carbon Dioxide Emissions Foreign Policy International Organizations Miles Per Gallon National Security Council National Security Policy Politics of the United States Time And Place

Final – History – Flashcards 110 terms

Jacob Herring

110 terms

Preview

Final – History – Flashcards

question

Which of the following conflicts has had the GREATEST military cost?

answer

ww 2

question

Since the end of the Cold War,

answer

NATO has expanded to include a number of nations that formerly belonged to the Soviet bloc.

question

The Roosevelt Corollary was used to justify American intervention in

answer

Cuba

question

Which of the following statements about American involvement in World War I is MOST accurate?

answer

The United States never ratified the Treaty of Versailles that Wilson had helped to negotiate to end World War I

question

In 2011 President Obama stated that America's foreign and military policy was "pivoting" to place a much greater emphasis on this country/region:

answer

Asia-Pacific.

question

Although the roots of tensions in the Middle East are numerous, complex, and not easily resolved, ________ might go a long way toward diffusing tension in the region.

answer

a solution to the continuing dispute over the establishment of a permanent Palestinian state

question

Congress has all of the following powers EXCEPT

answer

authority to conduct war.

question

Which theoretical perspective has the Obama administration used to define its national security and foreign policies?

answer

The Obama administration does not seem tied to any one theoretical perspective.

question

Which of the following conflicts has had the second-greatest military cost?

answer

post 9/11: Iraq, Afghanistan, Othe

question

Which of the following persons does NOT traditionally hold a seat on the National Security Council?

answer

Speaker of the house

question

Foreign policy is generally guided by the assumption that nation-states act in a world that is somewhat

answer

anarchic

question

Current members of the "nuclear club" include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

Iran.

question

Diplomacy is primarily the responsibility of

answer

the State Department.

question

The country that has the highest military spending (by a large margin) is

answer

the United States.

question

Which of the following statements about the U.S. and the threat of terrorism is LEAST accurate?

answer

The United States failed to gain broad international support for either its invasion of Afghanistan or its invasion of Iraq.

question

military power.

answer

yools of foreign policy include

question

Foreign aid constitutes ________ of the national budget of the U.S.

answer

less than 1 percent

question

The Roosevelt Corollary was used primarily to justify American military interventions in

answer

the Caribbean.

question

The United States currently has approximately ________ active military personnel.

answer

1.5 million

question

The central tenet of the Monroe Doctrine was that the United States would

answer

regard new European imperial activities in the Americas as a threat to American security.

question

The U.S. intelligence community consists of approximately how many different intelligence agencies?

answer

question

________ is one of the most venerable and persistent models used by foreign policy professionals

answer

Realism

question

The official military policy adopted by the George W. Bush administration that permits the use of force to prevent hostile acts by our enemies even if we are uncertain about the time and place of the enemy attack is called

answer

preemption

question

President Bush, in introducing his new national security policy, indicated that the peace and security of free nations rests on which of the following?

answer

all of these: working together to build strong and effective international institutions; restraining aggression and evil by force; and a commitment to the global expansion of democracy

question

Throughout much of the Cold War, the United States expressed a commitment to preventing Communists from seizing control of free countries, a policy that was known as

answer

containment.

question

President Richard Nixon and his advisor Henry Kissinger are primarily associated with which school of foreign policy?

answer

realism

question

During which conflict did the United States abandon the draft in favor of an all-volunteer military force?

answer

Vietnam War

question

In the wake of intelligence failures regarding the existence of weapons of mass destruction in Iraq, Congress created the position of ________ as part of the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004

answer

Director of National Intelligence

question

As of the end of 2012, the United States and NATO have only been involved militarily in this Arab Spring country:

answer

Libya.

question

In 2011 President Obama stated that America's foreign and military policy was "pivoting" to place a much greater emphasis on this country/region:

answer

Asia-Pacific.

question

A case can NOT proceed directly to the Supreme Court from which of the following types of courts?

answer

local trials court

question

Which of the following statements about the dynamics of the Supreme Court is LEAST accurate?

answer

Since they do not need to face popular elections, justices rarely consult public opinion when reaching their decisions.

question

A case that begins in the national court system will be resolved

answer

in the system

question

Which of the following statements about the U.S. district court system is LEAST accurate?

answer

District courts require trials by jury.

question

How many of the nine justices must vote to grant certiorari in order for a case to be heard by the Supreme Court?

answer

question

In 2009, President Obama set a standard of ____ miles per gallon for all new cars sold in the United States after 2016

answer

35.5

question

Inflation is caused when

answer

supply cannot keep pace with demand.

question

As of 2007, which nation produces the highest absolute levels of carbon dioxide emissions?

answer

china

question

Congress and the president have taken action to promote environmental protection, including

answer

debating proposed legislation that would introduce a cap and trade system to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

question

Which nation will probably produce the highest absolute levels of carbon dioxide emissions fifteen years from now?

answer

china

question

An opinion written on behalf of the largest bloc of justices, if that bloc numbers fewer than five members, is known as

answer

a plurality opinion.

question

Which president appointed Sandra Day O'Connor, the first female Supreme Court justice, to the court?

answer

Ronald Reagan

question

Which of the following is among the small number of nations whose citizens are nearly as litigious as those of the United States?

answer

England

question

In which of the following instances would the Supreme Court have original jurisdiction?

answer

if the government of Indiana were to sue the government of Kentucky over the pollution of the Ohio Rive

question

Which period in American history is most associated with a movement to run the civil service like a business and treat citizens as consumers?

answer

the late twentieth century

question

Which period in American history saw the federal civil service adopt its current emphasis on professionalism?

answer

the mid-twentieth century

question

What is the largest government corporation?

answer

Post Office

question

Military contractors such as Blackwater USA, which the federal government hires to perform necessary tasks through contracts, are examples of

answer

proxy administration.

question

Because they report directly to the president, the cabinet departments are classified as

answer

line organizations.

question

Who was the first president to appoint a woman to his cabinet?

answer

Franklin Roosevel

question

Which of the following statements about the federal bureaucracy is LEAST accurate?

answer

Recognizing the importance a bureaucracy would acquire, the authors of the Constitution carefully delineated the powers and responsibilities the federal bureaucracy would possess

question

Which president is MOST associated with a defense of patronage and the ability of the common citizen to perform any government function?

answer

Andrew Jackson

question

Whereas the merit system begun by the Pendleton Act initially only affected 10 percent of federal executive branch employees, it now covers _____ percent.

answer

question

The two oldest cabinet departments are the departments of State and

answer

the Treasury

question

Which of the following statements about external support for federal bureaucracies is LEAST accurate?

answer

As elements of the executive branch, federal agencies have no need to maintain a good relationship with Congress.

question

Who was the first president to appoint an African American man to his cabinet?

answer

Lyndon Johnson

question

Which president was assassinated by a frustrated job seeker?

answer

James Garfield

question

The SEC, FCC, and EPA are all examples of

answer

independent regulatory agencies

question

The Supreme Court has ruled that the power of Congress to legislate implies the power to

answer

conduct investigations of agencies.

question

Excluding postal workers and contractors, roughly how many civil servants does the federal bureaucracy currently employ?

answer

2 mill

question

Which period in American history is MOST associated with the idea that positions in the federal bureaucracy should be reserved for prominent gentlemen?

answer

the late eighteenth century

question

The legal powers Congress cedes to the presidency in the ordinary course of events are known as

answer

delegated powers

question

How many times in American history has Congress formally declared war?

answer

question

The powers the Constitution explicitly grants to the president are known as

answer

express powers

question

The Twelfth Amendment affected the presidency by

answer

having electors cast separate votes for president and vice president instead of two votes for president.

question

In the Democratic Party, leaders and elected officials attending the party convention who may pledge support to a candidate prior to the convention are called

answer

superdelegates

question

In the 1830s, which president enhanced his authority by portraying himself as a tribune of the people, and enlisting the people's support behind his policies?

answer

Andrew Jackson

question

In both 2008 and 2012, President Obama had the LEAST support in the

answer

South

question

In order to serve as President of the United States today, a person must meet the following criteria EXCEPT

answer

receive the majority of the popular vote.

question

Not all primaries and caucuses are created equal. Certain small states play a disproportionate role in shaping public opinion about the candidates, often because their primary or caucus occurs early. An example of a small state with disproportionate influence is

answer

Iowa

question

How many electoral votes must a candidate win in order to secure the presidency?

answer

270

question

President Obama won reelection in 2012 in large part because he had strong support among

answer

young people, women, and minorities.

question

Public financing of presidential campaigns

answer

is essentially obsolete.

question

Which of the following statements about presidential elections is MOST accurate?

answer

A candidate might win the popular vote but still lose the election.

question

What was the main difference in fund-raising in the 2012 presidential election compared to past presidential elections?

answer

the importance of super PACs

question

The 2008 presidential campaign is noteworthy for

answer

all of these: the nomination of the first major party African American presidential candidate; the most sustained campaign for president by a woman; and the first major party general election candidate to forego public funding since such funding first became available

question

This was an important battleground state in the 2012 presidential election

answer

Ohio

question

One of the more controversial (and currently sharply curtailed) powers of the president is the power of impoundment, whereby

answer

the president can withhold funds from Congress

question

With regard to presidential elections, Nebraska and Maine are unusual because they

answer

divide their states' electoral votes according to the popular vote within the states

question

Scholars have found that a majority of the time that presidents don't keep a campaign promise the reason is due to

answer

congressional opposition to the president's proposals.

question

In order to secure ratification of a treaty, the president must gain the approval of

answer

two-thirds of the Senate.

question

Which of the following statements about the relationship between lobbyists and members of Congress is MOST accurate?

answer

Lobbyists can provide a valuable democratic function by keeping members of Congress informed about important issues.

question

All of the following are basic types of congressional committees EXCEPT

answer

steering committees.

question

A request to force a House committee to release a piece of legislation to the floor for a vote is known as

answer

a discharge petition

question

Which of the following statements about congressional redistricting is most accurate?

answer

Since membership in the House is capped at 435, redistricting may result in one state losing seats and another gaining them.

question

John Boehner first served as Speaker of the House in

answer

2011

question

Congressional leaders are increasingly chosen for their

answer

All these answers are correct.

question

The 113th Congress, elected in 2012

answer

contained the first openly gay senator.

question

Which of the following statements about the federal budget is LEAST accurate?

answer

While about 25 percent of the federal budget is allocated to nondiscretionary expenditures, most of it can be used to fund any program that Congress desires.

question

The Framers overcame internal squabbling by agreeing to the Great Compromise, which

answer

created a bicameral system, based on proportionate representation in one house and state-by-state voting in the other.

question

At the beginning of the 113th Congress in 2013, the most powerful person in the House was

answer

John Boehner.

question

The American people directly elect their senators as a result of

answer

the Seventeenth Amendment.

question

Which of the following statements about congresspersons' relationships with their constituencies is LEAST accurate?

answer

Most Americans hold unfavorable views of their congressperson.

question

When presented with a bill, the president can respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT

answer

exercising a line-item veto, whereby the president agrees to certain provisions of the bill, but crosses out others.

question

Who is generally the most influential person in the Senate?

answer

majority leader

question

Which of the following statements about exit polls is LEAST accurate?

answer

Exit polls exhibited impressive accuracy in predicting the winners of the 2000 and 2004 presidential elections.

question

Who was the first president to hold regular press conferences?

answer

Woodrow Wilson

question

Which of the following statements about trends in news coverage is LEAST accurate?

answer

The American public largely ignores negative reporting from the media, and viewership and readership drop during political scandals

question

Which of the following statements about bloggers is LEAST accurate?

answer

Although bloggers can amplify an already-reported story, they have not yet shown the capacity to break major news stories.

question

The first American newspaper, published in Massachusetts in 1690, shut down after one issue because

answer

the colonial government passed a law requiring printers to obtain a license prior to publishing a newspaper.

question

Which of the following statements about young Americans is LEAST accurate?

answer

They are less skeptical of media sources and more likely to accept media claims than older Americans.

question

A 2008 study of online users revealed that those who are hungry for information are most likely to

answer

browse sites that match their views.

question

From 2001 to 2011, the percentage of Americans believing that news organizations

answer

hurt democracy increased.

question

Which of the following terms BEST describes yellow journalism?

answer

sensational

question

Which of the following statements about game coverage of politics is LEAST accurate?

answer

Game coverage requires an in-depth understanding of complex issues on the part of journalists who employ it.

question

Americans are MOST likely to get their national and international news from

answer

television.

question

Young people report gathering most of their political information from

answer

the Internet.

question

his has been the fastest growing news source for Americans since 2001:

answer

the Internet.

question

A 2007 study found that news coverage by the major networks of presidential candidates was

answer

sometimes biased in a partisan way toward liberal candidates.

question

Which president was known as the Great Communicator for his ability to present his views effectively and keep his team focused on a "message of the day"?

answer

Ronald Reagan

STUDY

Cap And Trade John Maynard Keynes Macroeconomics Microeconomics Is The Study Of Principles Of Economics: Macroeconomics Principles Of Economics: Microeconomics Production Possibilities Curve Supply And Demand

Macroeconomics Study Guide – Final – Flashcards 455 terms

Patricia Harrah

455 terms

Preview

Macroeconomics Study Guide – Final – Flashcards

question

T/F Ceteris paribus is an economic law or principle

answer

FALSE

question

The first two digits of the ABA number on all checks are the: A) Account number B) Check number C) Federal reserve district number D) None of these

answer

Federal reserve district number

question

T/F We study economics because it'll give us a better understanding of the world we live in

answer

TRUE

question

T/F If the national debt keeps rising at the current rate we'll have to borrow money just to pay the interest

answer

TRUE

question

Which is NOT true of FICO scores A) It's used to determine the interest rate charged B) It may determine whether the bank will lend to a customer C) It is used to establish your credit rating D) FICO score of 400 is good

answer

FICO score of 400 is good

question

T/F In practicing economics people have to make trade-offs

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Governments can make decisions that can improve or worsen the economy

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Economic principle is a generalization

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A graphical expression is ceteris paribus

answer

FALSE

question

Utility value of a good or service is its A) Scarcity B) Opportunity cost C) Satisfaction

answer

Satisfaction

question

T/F Scarcity demands choice

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Marginal cost is defined as the change in cost of the next unit

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Macroeconomics is the study of economics in the aggregate

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Risk taking is a factor of production

answer

FALSE

question

T/F As a factor of production Land is a natural resource like water

answer

TRUE

question

If land, labor, and capital are fixed then ____ can move the production possibilities curve forward A) Entrepreneurial Ability B) Technology

answer

Technology

question

A production level below the production possibilities curve means there is A) Shortage B) Surplus C) Unemployment

answer

Unemployment

question

T/F When supply and demand are at equilibrium (the curves intersect) marginal benefit equals marginal cost

answer

TRUE

question

The law of increasing opportunity costs applies to the shape of the A) Demand curve B) Bell curve C) Production possibilities curve

answer

Production possibilities Curve

question

T/F Goods and services purchased outside the production possibilities curve can occur through international trade

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The formula for GDP is C + S + G = GDP

answer

FALSE

question

PPP refers to the method used to accurately compare different A) Currencies B) Economies C) Political systems

answer

Economies

question

In economics 'let it be' refers to a ___ economic system A) Market B) Command C) Pure capitalism

answer

Pure capitalism

question

T/F An economic system is needed to respond to the economizing problems

answer

TRUE

question

T/F China's economy is part command and part market system

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The great famine in China was due to a misallocation of resources

answer

TRUE

question

If the government owns most or all the resources it is a A) Command B) Capitalism C) Communist D) Market system

answer

Command

question

T/F China's misallocation of resources between farming and industry is a clear violation of production possibilities

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Private property is the most important aspect of capitalism

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Property rights extend to intellectual property by the issuing of patents and copyrights

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Other aspects of a market system includes Competition and Self Interest

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A medium of exchange is called money

answer

TRUE

question

"Buyers with dollar votes" is referred to as consumer A) Confidence B) Preference C) Sovereignty

answer

Preference

question

T/F The marketplace forces its own change with no government intervention

answer

TRUE

question

T/F All markets have in common supply, resources, price and quantity

answer

FALSE

question

T/F As the price of a product falls sales increase is part of the law of demand

answer

TRUE

question

The demand relationship between price and quantity is said to be A) Circular B) Inverse C) Direct

answer

Inverse

question

T/F As the price of a product falls demand will increase

answer

TRUE

question

T/F For demand there is a direct relationship between price and quantity

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The inverse relationship between price and quantity can be explained by Common Sense

answer

TRUE

question

The first box of chocolate chip cookies I consume will give more satisfaction than the second is the Law of Diminishing A) Satisfaction B) Quantity C) Marginal utility

answer

Marginal Utility

question

The normal demand curve is downward sloping and to the A) Right B) Left C) Vertical

answer

Right

question

Normal supply curve slopes up and to the A) Left B) Right C) Horizontal

answer

Right

question

T/F If supply and demand are at equilibrium then MB = MC

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A shift in demand is a movement along the demand curve

answer

FALSE

question

Market demand will increase with an increase in consumer: A) Satisfaction B) Income C) Taxes

answer

Income

question

The law of demand states that as price goes up demand will: A) Increase B) Decrease C) Not be affected

answer

Decrease

question

The law of supply states that as the price goes up producers will produce: A) Less B) More C) No change

answer

question

As the price declines quantities purchased will go up is the law of: A) Supply B) Demand C) Consumption D) Production

answer

Demand

question

As the price goes up quantities produced will also go up is the law of A) Demand B) Supply C) Marginal utility

answer

Supply

question

T/F Technology can cause a change in supply

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A change in the numbers of producers can cause a change in supply

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Supply side failures occur when the true cost of a product is not reflected in its price

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Supply side failures occur when products can't be produced and sold in the marketplace

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Supply side failures occur when products cannot be produced and/or sold in the marketplace

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Demand side failures occur when the true cost of the product isn't reflected in its price

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Supply side inefficiencies occurs when producers produce a surplus

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Supply side failure occurs when producers produce a shortage

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Demand side failure occurs when producers produce below the point of equilibrium

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The concept of Cap and Trade is an attempt by government to put a price on pollution

answer

TRUE

question

A Quasi-Public good would be: A) Medicare B) Social security C) Medicaid D) Traffic lights

answer

Traffic lights

question

T/F Consumer surplus is the difference between the equilibrium price and the highest price the consumer will pay

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Consumer surplus is the difference between the equilibrium price and the lowest price the consumer will pay

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Producer surplus is the difference between the equilibrium price and the highest price the consumers will pay

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Producer surplus is the difference between equilibrium price and the lowest price consumers will pay

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Unintended consequences in economics is usually associated with government action in the markets

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Governments establishing market prices can result in formation of black markets

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Price levels established by government often result in shortages or black markets

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Producers are inefficient when they produce above equilibrium

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Producers are inefficient when they produce below equilibrium

answer

TRUE

question

Producers are inefficient when they produce below equilibrium A) Shortage B) Surplus

answer

Shortage

question

If producers produce above equilibrium a ___ will result A) Shortage B) Surplus

answer

Surplus

question

T/F Public goods are goods produced by the consumer

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Public goods may not be paid for by those receiving them

answer

TRUE

question

Food stamps are an example of a ___ good A) Consumer B) Public

answer

Public

question

Requiring drivers to have a driver's license is an ___ externality A) Positive B) Dual C) Negative D) None of the above

answer

Positive

question

T/F Negative externalities would include CO2 emitting plants to buy credits to continue to emit CO2

answer

TRUE

question

T/F There is a strong possibility that by putting a price on CO2 emissions the consuming public may pay a higher price for electricity

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The recent economic recovery act in 2009 was well intended but spread too thin to be effective on the economy as a whole

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The economic recovery act of 2009 addressed long term projects and not the immediate need to create jobs for workers in housing and automobiles

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The impact of the Bush Administration's tax cuts in 2008 where less than effective partially because of the rise in the price of gas

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Government economic decisions are hampered by the absence of an invisible hand

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Poor economic government decisions can be caused by the actions of special interest groups

answer

TRUE

question

T/F "Earmarks" attached to legislation do not require a competitive bidding process

answer

TRUE

question

T/F "Earmarks" are sometimes referred to as "pork barrel politics"

answer

TRUE

question

T/F "Unfunded liabilities" refers to future government expenses that are currently provided for

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Government deficits occur when current tax revenues are less than current expenditures

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Cash for Clunkers program was judged to be a success in that it jump started the automobile industry

answer

TRUE

question

T/F When the economy is operating at full employment tax revenues should more than cover governments operating expenses

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A tariff is a tax on what countries import

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A tariff is a tax on what countries export

answer

FALSE

question

Circle the incorrect answer: Key elements of macroeconomics is not A) Real GDP C) Employment D) Inflation E) Recession

answer

Inflation

question

T/F Inflation is the percentage change in prices year over year

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Fed has jurisdiction over the investment banks prior to the Great Recession

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The SEC had jurisdiction over the commercial banks prior to the great recession

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Investors all over the world become a counterparty to the risk of the housing bubble burst in the the US

answer

FALSE

question

Moral hazards means that one party A) Has not disclosed the risk to the other B) Has provided misleading information C) Both of these D) None of these

answer

Both of these

question

T/F Glass-Steagall Law prevented commercial bank engaging in commercial banking activities

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The Glass-Steagall Law prevented investment banks for engaging in commercial banking activities

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The largest subprime lender was Countrywide

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Alternative A (Alt-A) loans allowed homeowners to take cash out of the equity of the homes

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A sub-prime mortgage has a 40 year duration with 20% down

answer

FALSE

question

T/F James Johnson (CEO of Fannie Mae) changed the metrics at Fannie Mae to earnings per share

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Countrywide's loan program "Fast-N-Easy" meant no documentation

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Alt-A loans allowed homeowners to take equity in the form of Cash out of their homes

answer

TRUE

question

T/F GSE's (Government Sponsored Entities) best describe the FHA

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Repeal of the Glass-Steagall act opened the door to lending abuses by Wall Street Investment firms and banks

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Periods of increasing GDP are growth periods

answer

TRUE

question

Periods of decreasing GDP are called A) Contractions B) Expansions

answer

Contractions

question

T/F The business cycle and economic cycle are on in the same

answer

TRUE

question

An increase in production can be caused by an increase in A) Suppliers B) Taxes C) Consumers

answer

Suppliers

question

T/F Equilibrium is the point where demand and supply met

answer

TRUE

question

Aggregate demand is the sum of consumption plus A) Savings B) Taxes C) Investment

answer

Investment

question

T/F The definition of PPP is Producers Parity Policy

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The three key elements of macroeconomics are GDP, unemployment, and recession

answer

FALSE

question

Which of the following is NOT a part of GDP A) Consumption B) Investment C) Savings D) Government Spending E) Net exports

answer

Savings

question

T/F The Law of Demand holds a direct relationship between price and quantity

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The Law of Supply holds an indirect relationship between price and quantity

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Economic Investment is an investment that consumers make to expand production capacity

answer

FALSE

question

T/F GDP = Consumption + Investment + Government + Net Exports

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Marginal cost is a movement along a supply curve

answer

TRUE

question

The correct factor of the production is A) Supply B) Demand C) Labor D) Production

answer

Labor

question

T/F As the price rises producers will produce more is known as the Law of Demand

answer

FALSE

question

Banks and other financial entities are known as A) Stock brokers B) Financial intermediaries C) Investment banks

answer

Financial intermediaries

question

Investments that cause business to expand productive capacity are known as ___ investments A) Commercial B) Consumer C) Capital

answer

Capital

question

The low point in the business cycle is known as the A) Peak B) Boom C) Recession

answer

Recession

question

T/F Price stickiness is a supply side problem

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Price stickiness and supply side shocks both cause short term disruptions in the economic growth

answer

TRUE

question

One regular aspect of the business cycle boom is the increasing rate of A) Saving B) Spending C) Income D) Inflation

answer

Inflation

question

T/F In the AD = AS model the AD curve slopes down

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Listed in order of phases of a complete business cycle are contraction, trough, peak, and expansion

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Large seasonal fluctuations show up in the GDP data

answer

FALSE

question

T/F In Economics during a boom period governments are required to spend, and save during a recession

answer

FALSE

question

Surplus of products is an excess of A) Supply B) Demand

answer

Supply

question

T/F The three keys of Macroeconomics are GDP, unemployment, and inflation

answer

FALSE

question

Disposable income is defined as consumption plus A) Income B) Salary C) Savings D) Profit

answer

Savings

question

T/F Intermediate goods are a part of the consumption calculation

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Non-product goods are included in GDP calculations

answer

FALSE

question

Final goods are goods purchased for A) Disposal B) Consumption C) Recycle

answer

Consumption

question

T/F The expanded formula for GDP is C + Ig + G + En

answer

FALSE

question

In economics a non-durable good has a useful life of less than A) One year B) Four years C) Three years

answer

Three years

question

In economics durable goods are defined as having a useful life of more than A) Ten years B) Five years C) Three years D) Seven years

answer

Three years

question

Service account for ___ of consumption in the U.S. A) 10% B) 30% C) 60% D) 70%

answer

60%

question

T/F The change in inventories is part of the Ig (Gross investment) calculation

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Net investment includes a deduction for depreciation

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Government transfer payments are included in the GDP formula

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Food stamps are included in Government Purchases

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Government purchases would include Federal, State, and Local government

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Net Exports were added to the formula to standardize the measurement of GDP from country to country

answer

TRUE

question

Extensive comparisons of economies around the world are published by the A) IMF B) WTO C) FIFA D) Federal Reserve

answer

WTO

question

Which is one of the factors of production A) Supply B) Demand C) Labor D) Price or quantity

answer

Labor

question

The highest GDP in the world at treaded exchange rates is the US, and the next highest is A) Japan B) China C) Germany

answer

China

question

Consumption accounts for ___ of the US GDP formula A) 50% B) 60% C) 40% D) 70%

answer

70%

question

T/F Disposable income is equal to Consumption plus Savings

answer

TRUE

question

The Income Approach is one method of calculating A) Investment B) Consumption C) Exports D) GDP

answer

GDP

question

T/F The GDP figures published by the government are NOT adjusted for inflation

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The expanded GDP formula is C + Ig + G + Xn

answer

TRUE

question

One of the main reasons for the growth in the US has been the A) Increase of imports B) Increase of exports C) Technology

answer

Technology

question

T/F In the business cycle a period of expansion is marked by increased GDP and unemployment

answer

FALSE

question

Declining GDP, employment, and income leads to a ___ in the business cycle A) Increase B) Decrease C) Inflation

answer

Decrease

question

T/F Monetary policy can cause changes in the business cycle

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The stock market tends to be a leading indicator of changes in the business cycle

answer

TRUE

question

Workers out of work due to a job change are called ___ unemployment A) Structural B) Seasonal C) Frictional

answer

Frictional

question

T/F Cost push inflation is caused by increased prices of raw materials and decreases in aggregate supply

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The marginal propensity to save is calculated by dividing consumption by savings

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Economic stability or instability impacts consumption and savings decisions by consumers

answer

TRUE

question

T/F An increase in consumption will have a multiplier effect

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Unemployment statistics NRU refers to the Natural Rate of Employment

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Okun's Law states that for every 1% the natural rate is exceeded by the actual unemployment rate a negative GDP gap of about 2% occurs

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Unemployment means idleness and that means loss of self respect

answer

TRUE

question

The stock market is considered a ___ indicator for changes in the business cycle A) Leading B) Lagging

answer

Leading

question

T/F The Federal Reserve is managed by the US treasury

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Federal Reserve member bank vote on all major policy issues

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The Federal Reserve is subject to congressional oversight

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Federal Reserve prints all the US currency

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The President and vice president of the federal reserve are appointed by the federal reserve board

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The three types of unemployment are Cyclical, Structural, and Frictional

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The equation for determining the unemployment rate is the labor force divided by the unemployed times 100

answer

FALSE

question

Workers in lower skilled jobs generally have ___ unemployment rate A) Lower B) Higher C) Average

answer

Higher

question

T/F In economics "marginal" means increased

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The MPC equals the change in consumption divided by the change in disposable income

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The higher the marginal propensity to consume the greater the economy

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Economic stability has an impact on the Marginal Propensity to Consume

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Federal Open Market Committee really sets the Federal Reserve monetary policy

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The structure of the Federal Reserve is considered unique for a central bank

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The member banks of the federal reserve own stock and vote for the chairman

answer

FALSE

question

The federal reserve turns its income over to A) The US congress B) Treasury C) Homeland Security D)Pentagon

answer

Treasury

question

T/F To control the business cycle the US government has two methods: Fiscal policy and Monetary policy

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The money multiplier effect occurs because banks in total can lend out more than they take in

answer

TRUE

question

The fiscal multiplier relies on the marginal propensity to A) Save B) Consume

answer

Consume

question

T/F During the Great Depression Roosevelt founded the Civilian Conservation Corp to hire unemployed workers to work on public projects

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Supply side economics assumed workers would accept lower wages to stay employed

answer

TRUE

question

T/F John Maynard Keynes was a supply side economist

answer

FALSE

question

T/F "Says Law" pertains to the slope of the demand curve

answer

FALSE

question

Say's law = Supply creates its own A) Supply B) Employment C) Demand

answer

Demand

question

T/F Keynesian economics holds that government spending can be used to stimulate the economy

answer

TRUE

question

Keynes argued that the ___ drove full employment A) Supply curve B) Bell curve C) Demand curve

answer

Demand curve

question

T/F For an economy to be in equilibrium aggregate demand must equal supply

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Keynesian economists hold that government spending can moderate boom/bust economic cycles

answer

TRUE

question

Keynesian economics changed the GDP formula by adding A) Consumption B) Investment C) Exports D) Government spending

answer

Government spending

question

T/F A recent example of the application of Keynesian economics is economic recovery act (ARRA) passed by the Obama Administration

answer

TRUE

question

Priming the pump is a ___ economic concept A) Supply B) Demand

answer

Demand

question

T/F Budget deficits are the direct result of Keynesian economic principles

answer

FALSE

question

T/F John Maynard Keynes wrote what is commonly known as the Bible of Macroeconomics

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Supply side economists believed that supply created its own demand

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Keynesian economists argued that supply creates its own demand

answer

FALSE

question

T/F In the Keynesian private/closed economic model the GDP is equal to Consumption plus Gross Investment

answer

TRUE

question

In the Keynesian private/closed economic model the Savings must equal ___ at equilibrium A) Consumption B) Taxes C) Investment

answer

Investment

question

For Keynes's private/closed eocnomic model government can only spend on goods and services what they collect in A) Food stamps B) Taxes C) Treasury bonds D) Social security

answer

Taxes

question

T/F Xn = X - I = 0 is an assumption on the Keynesian closed economic model

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Leakages and Unplanned Changes in inventory always occurred in Keynes's closed economic model

answer

FALSE

question

The aggregate demand curve is downward sloping and to the A) Right B) Left C) Vertical D) Horizontal

answer

Right

question

The aggregate supply curve is upward sloping and to the A) Right B) Left C) Vertical D) Horizontal

answer

RIGHT

question

T/F Consumer spending is affected by consumer expectations and consumer income

answer

TRUE

question

T/F An increase in taxes can cause a change in consumer spending

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Consumer spending is affected by household borrowing

answer

TRUE

question

The prime rate is a benchmark rate that banks use to determine the A) Loan B) Fed funds C) Discount rate D) Interest rate

answer

Interest rate

question

T/F Buying securities by the Fed puts money in the economy

answer

TRUE

question

If the Fed raises the reserve ratio money supply will probably A) Increase B) Decrease C) Stay the same

answer

Decrease

question

T/F The discount rate is the rate the Fed charges the US Treasury

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Business investment spending is influenced by expectations about future business, technology, and degree of excess capacity

answer

TRUE

question

An ageing population will cause the labor supply to A) Increase B) Decrease C) Stay the same

answer

Decrease

question

T/F In fiscal policy the government has two tools and its disposal increased or decreased spending and taxes

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In trying to manage the business cycle the government has two tools at its disposal increased or decreased spending and taxes

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The public debt is the debt owed by the US to foreigners

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The national debt includes debt owed by state and local government

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Economist Paul Krugman concluded that we have at least 89 cents of every dollar we owe other countries is covered by what they owe us

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Intra-government debt is mostly food stamps

answer

FALSE

question

T/F HJ Aron concluded that if we collected all the taxes that were owed we could cover the deficit

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Prime rate is set by the Fed

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The Fed uses the CPI (Consumer Price Index) to measure inflation

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The national debt includes treasury securities in the social security trust fund

answer

TRUE

question

T/F the national debt and the deficit are the same

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The CBO concluded that continued deficits could lead to lower taxes

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Intra-government debt is mostly social security and Medicare

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Governmental unfunded obligations are due and payable now

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The Social Security System in the US maintains individual accounts for all employees

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The Social Security System is a "pay as you go system"

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Social Security Trust Fund bonds are traded on the Bond Market

answer

FALSE

question

The social security shortfall problem probably can be helped by A) Raising retirement age B) Selling more treasury bonds C) Raising the interest rate

answer

Raising retirement age

question

T/F The primary rate is the inter-bank lending rate

answer

FALSE

question

The Fed Funds rate is generally ___ less than the prime rate A) 10% B) 5% C) 3%

answer

question

T/F The current Prime Rate less than 1%

answer

FALSE

question

T/F With unemployment and recession the Fed will decrease the money supply

answer

FALSE

question

With inflation the Fed will probably ___ the money supply A) Increase B) Decrease

answer

Decrease

question

T/F Federal Reserve Monetary Policy tools include bond buying

answer

TRUE

question

In periods of inflation the Fed wants the money supply to A) Raise B) Fall

answer

Fall

question

During a recession the Fed will probably A) Buy bonds B) Sell bonds C) Do nothing

answer

Buy bonds

question

T/F To fight inflation the Fed will probably raise the discount rate

answer

TRUE

question

Circle the one that is not a commercial bank A) Deutsche Bank B) Wells Fargo C) Bank of America D) Citibank

answer

Deutsche Bank

question

T/F Prudential is a mutual fund company

answer

Don't worry about it

question

T/F TIAA-CREF is a security company

answer

Don't worry about it

question

T/F Commercial Banks create money through their deposit/lending function

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The two goals of any commercial bank are Liquidity and Profitability

answer

TRUE

question

The US dollar is backed by A) Gold B) Silver C) Diamond D) The full faith and credit of the US

answer

The full faith and credit of the US

question

T/F The gold standard for the world's currencies did not work because of international trade

answer

TRUE

question

T/F President Nixon took the US off the Silver standard

answer

TRUE

question

T/F M1 is the broader measure of the money supply

answer

FALSE

question

T/F M1 consists of currency in circulation and checking accounts in bankS

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Money functions as a unit of account, medium of exchange, and a store of value

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The acceptability of money is because of the long standing business practice and confidence in that it can be exchanged for real goods and services

answer

TRUE

question

Currency is legal tender because of A) The stock market B) The bond market C) The government said so D) None of these

answer

The government said so

question

T/F The value of money is derived from its scarcity relative to its utility

answer

FALSE

question

When the purchasing power of our money goes up we are experiencing A) Inflation B) Economic expansion C) Growth D) Deflation

answer

Deflation

question

The Federal Reserve is unique in that it A) Prints money B) Collects taxes C) Is the treasury D) None of these

answer

None of these

question

T/F TARP was the bank bailout program by Congress

answer

TRUE

question

Which is not a Federal Reserve function A) Printing money B) Lender of last resort C) Setting Fed Funds rate D) All of these

answer

Printing money

question

T/F The financial crisis resulted in a few large banks becoming larger

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission in the minority report also laid blame on the GSE's

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission concluded that even the Federal Reserve made mistakes

answer

TRUE

question

T/F TARP was the governmental program to rescue the banks during the financial crisis of 2008

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The three people tasked with fixing the financial crisis on Wall Street were Geithner, Bernanke, and Bush

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The money multiplier refers to the deposit and lending function of commercial banks

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Levels of output, employment, income, and prices are all affected by aggregate demand

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Aggregate demand is directly affected by input prices, productivity, and legal/institutional environment

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Aggregate demand is a combination of Consumption, Investment, Net export spending and Government spending

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Investment "Ig" is directly affected by the interest rate and the anticipated rate of return

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Exchange rates affect only exports

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Productivity is affected by education, technology, and the quantity of capital

answer

TRUE

question

T/F ZIRP stands for Zero Investment Return Policy

answer

FALSE

question

T/F QE stands for Quantitative Easing

answer

TRUE

question

TWIST is the Fed selling short term bonds and buying ___ bonds A) Long term B) Short term

answer

Long term

question

T/F All common stocks pay dividends

answer

FALSE

question

T/F In bankruptcy common stock holders will get their investment returned

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Common Stocks always make interest payments semi-annually

answer

FALSE

question

T/F A common stock is a certificate of ownership

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Capital Gains tax is a tax on Investments sold after more than one year

answer

TRUE

question

Ordinary tax rates apply to the sale of a stock at profit if it is held for ___ one year A) Less than B) More than

answer

Less than

question

T/F Ordinary tax rates apply to the sale of a stock at a profit if held for more than one year

answer

FALSE

question

T/F A bond is a debt instrument that generally has a face value of $1,000 and pays interest semiannually

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In the event of bankruptcy bondholders will be the last to suffer a loss

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Municipal Bonds generally have an exemption from federal income tax

answer

TRUE

question

Investment grade bonds are any bond rated BBB and A) Below B) Above

answer

Above

question

T/F A demand deposit at a bank is a checking account

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Preferred stock conveys ownership and has voting rights

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The value of a Mutual Fund is determined as it trades during the day on the NYSE

answer

FALSE

question

T/F ETF's (Exchange Trade Funds) are designed to mirror the index they track

answer

TRUE

question

One advantage of the ETF's are that they act like a mutual fund but are ___ the cost of a mutual fund A) Less than B) More than C) Same

answer

Less than

question

T/F The NASDAQ stock exchange is known as the "Big Board"

answer

FALSE

question

If the price of gasoline goes down this is an increase in A) Income B) Savings C) Purchasing power

answer

Purchasing power

question

T/F If the price of gasoline goes up this is a decrease in income

answer

FALSE

question

T/F If the price of gasoline goes down this is an increase in Disposable Income

answer

FALSE

question

In the Aggregate Demand and Supply chart at equilibrium, long term aggregate demand equals long term aggregate supply and equals short term aggregate A) Demand B) Supply

answer

Supply

question

T/F Short run aggregate supply curve is upward sloping and to the right

answer

TRUE

question

The economy can respond to short increases in demand at full employment by increasing A) Number of workers B) Number of working hours

answer

Number of working hours

question

At full employment the long run aggregate supply curve is A) Vertical B) Horizontal C) Downard sloping D) Curved

answer

Vertical

question

In the long run if aggregate prices increase the result will be A) Inflationary B) Deflationary

answer

Inflationary

question

T/F In long term equilibrium at full employment only frictional or natural unemployment can exist

answer

TRUE

question

Demand pull inflation shifts the ___ curve upward A) Supply B) Demand

answer

Demand

question

T/F Cost push inflation is usually caused by a shock to the economy

answer

TRUE

question

The OPEC oil embargo in 1973 is an example of ___ inflation A) Cost push B) Cost demand C) Pull

answer

Cost push

question

T/F Long run supply problems are not easily or quickly fixed

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In a stagflation economy the economy is not growing or shrinking and deflation is occurring at the same time

answer

False

question

From 1929 to 1933 both Aggregate Demand and Aggregate supply A) Rose B) Fell

answer

Fell

question

The Phillips Curve maintained that the relationship between inflation and unemployment was A) Direct B) Inverse C) Similar

answer

Inverse

question

The Laffer Curve maintained that there is a point beyond which an increase in the tax rate will produce more tax revenue

answer

FALSE

question

T/F One basis for international trade is that technologies differ between counties

answer

TRUE

question

T/F A products appeal may be a basis for international trade

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Comparative Advantage favors the lowest cost production

answer

TRUE

question

The nation with lowest opportunity cost (marginal cost) for a product will probably be the net A) Importer B) Exporter

answer

Exporter

question

T/F Globalization is the integration of economies through trade and tariffs

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Ease and efficiency of transportation has contributed to the rise of Globalization

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Critics argue that globalization has contributed to the demise of nation states

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Critics of globalization argue that it contributes to the destruction of the environment

answer

TRUE

question

T/F As a result of globalization critics maintain that the gulf between rich and poor countries get worse

answer

TRUE

question

T/F High income countries tend to trade less because they are more self-sufficient

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Cultural differences between countries are a barrier to international trade

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Trade barriers include tariffs, quotas, and export subsidies

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The biggest reason for a country not to put up tariffs as trade barriers is retaliation

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Protectionism is the opposite of foreign trade

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In developing countries only capital is missing from the four factors of production

answer

TRUE

question

The World Bank is charged with eliminating A) Trade barriers B) Capital flow C) Poverty

answer

Poverty

question

T/F Sub-Sahara has the highest poverty level in the world

answer

TRUE

question

The factors of production that are missing in most developing countries are A) Land and Labor B) Land and Entrepreneurial ability C) Labor and Capital D) Capital and Entrepreneurial ability

answer

Capital and Entrepreneurial ability

question

T/F The multilateral organizations would include the IMF, World bank, and the Federal Reserve

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The World Bank deals with capital flows throughout the world

answer

FALSE

question

T/F the IMF is primarily concerned with financial issues in member countries

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The World Bank was originally founded to rebuild war torn Europe after the Second World War

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The International Development Bank makes loans to developing countries

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The US has the biggest voting power at the World Bank

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Politically the World Bank must meet the demands of the donor and borrowing governments

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The US is the only single member that can block a supermajority vote at the IMF

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The World Bank works on Macroeconomic issues where the IMF works on Microeconomic issues

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Where the IMF gives out money it also gives out advice on taxes and spending in the receiving country

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Where the Fed is the central bank for the US the IMF is the central bank of the world

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The World Bank is setup to handle world trade disputes

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The World Trade Organization was created under the GATT Treaty

answer

TRUE

question

WTO (World Trade Organization) provides for special and differential treatment for ___ countries A) Industrialized B) Developing

answer

Developing

question

T/F WTO provides trading countries with a forum for negotiations and settling disputes

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Trade deficits occur when exports exceed imports

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The sum of all the Balance of Payments accounts must always equal 0

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The primary purpose of the foreign exchange market (Forex) is to assist international trade and currency conversion

answer

TRUE

question

T/F One of the reasons for the growth of foreign exchange trading has been technology

answer

TRUE

question

The number one traded currency in the world is the A) Pound B) Sterling C) Dollar D) Yen E) Yuan

answer

Dollar

question

T/F Three major foreign exchange policies countries follow are fixed, floating, and soft peg

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Macroeconomic factors that affects exchange rates include governmental fiscal and monetary policies

answer

TRUE

question

A production level below the production possibilities curve means there is A) Shortage B) Surplus C) Unemployment D) None of these

answer

Unemployment

question

Which is NOT true of FICO scores A) It is used to determine the interest rate charged B) It may determine whether the bank will lend to a customer C) It is used to establish your credit rating D)A FICO score of 400 is good

answer

A FICO score of 400 is good

question

If land, labor, and capital are fixed, then ___ can move the production possibilities curve outward A) Entrepreneurial ability B) Technology C) Imports D) Exports

answer

Technology

question

PPP refers to the method used to accurately compare different: A) Currencies B) Economies C) Political systems D) None of these

answer

Economies

question

Utility value of a good or service is its: A) Scarcity B) Opportunity cost C) Satisfaction D) All of these

answer

Satisfaction

question

T/F goods and services purchased outside the production possibilities curve can occur through international trade

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Scarcity demands a choice

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The formula for GDP is: C + S + G = GDP

answer

FALSE

question

T/F We study economics because it will give us a better understanding of the world we live in

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In practicing economies people have to make trade-offs

answer

TRUE

question

A production level below the production possibilities curve mans there is A) Shortage B) Surplus C) Unemployment D) None of these

answer

Unemployment

question

If land, labor, and capital are fixed then ___ can move the production possibilities curve outwards A) Entrepreneurial ability B) Technology C) All of these D) None of these

answer

Technology

question

If the government owns most or all of the resources it is a ___ system A) Command B) Capitalism C) Communism D) Market

answer

Command

question

In economics "Let it be" refers to a ___ system A) Market B) Command C) Pure capitalism D) Socialistic

answer

Pure capitalism

question

PPP refers to the method used to accurately compare different A) Currencies B) Economies C) Political systems D) None of these

answer

Economies

question

T/F A nation will import those goods in which it has a comparative advantage

answer

FALSE

question

T/F All markets have in common supply, resources, price, and quantity

answer

FALSE

question

T/F China's misallocation of resources between farming and industry is a clear violation of production possibilities

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Comparative advantage and absolute advantage are the same

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Other aspects of a market system include competition and self interest

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Private property is the most important aspect of Capitalism

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Technology cannot cause a change in supply

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Today China's economy today is part command and part market system

answer

TRUE

question

As the price goes up quantity will also go up is the law of A) Demand B) Supply C) Marginal utility D) None of these

answer

Supply

question

Market demand will increase with an increase in consumer A) Satisfaction B) Income C) Taxes D) Production

answer

Income

question

The normal demand curve is downward sloping and to the A) Right B) Left C) Vertical D) Horizontal

answer

Right

question

The short run supply curve normally slopes up and to the A) Left B) Right C) Horizontal D) Vertical

answer

Right

question

T/F A change in the number of producers can cause a change in supply

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The marketplace forces its own changes with no government intervention

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In a recession as income fall the quantity of inferior goods purchased goes down

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The discovery of a new oil field will probably cause the price of gasoline to fall

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In the past 50 years the cost of computer chips has fallen dramatically and the demand for computers has risen

answer

TRUE

question

If producers produce above equilibrium a ___ will result A) Shortage B) Surplus C) All of these D) None of these

answer

Surplus

question

Elasticity of demand refers to A) Shift in demand curve B) Movement along the demand curve C) All of these D) None of these

answer

Movement along the demand curve

question

Food stamps are an example of A) Consumer good B) Public good C) Poor good D) No good

answer

Public good

question

The Laffer Curve illustrates that the government can in some cases A) Increase the deadweight loss B) Increase the government's tax revenue C) All of these D) None of these

answer

Increase the government's tax revenue

question

A sales tax has the effect of A) Lowering the price to the consumer B) Raising the revenue to the producer C) All of these D) None of these

answer

None of these

question

T/F Elasticity of demand may be high if there are few substitutes

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Demand side failures occur when the true cost of the product is an invisible hand

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Producer surplus is the difference between the equilibrium price and the highest price the consumer will pay

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The fall of total surplus for consumers and producers is the deadweight loss due to the imposition of a sales tax

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Supply side failure occurs when producers produce a surplus

answer

TRUE

question

Disposable income is defined as consumption plus A) Income B) Salary C) Savings D) Profit

answer

Savings

question

Final goods are goods purchased for A) Disposal B) Consumption C) Recycle D) Return

answer

Consumption

question

The largest single component of US GDP is A) Investment B) Net Imports C) Consumption D) None of these

answer

Consumption

question

T/F Social Security payments are a part of the GDP formula

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The implementation of tariffs is imports tend to decrease the domestic supply

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Non-production goods are included in GDP calculations

answer

FALSE

question

T/F intermediate goods are part of the Consumption calculation

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Economic Investment is an investment in the stock market

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Net exports were added to the formula to standardize the measurement of GDP from country to country

answer

TRUE

question

T/F The world trade organization is responsible for reducing worldwide poverty

answer

FALSE

question

The Rule of 70 would mean that at 3% interest the amount saved would double in ___ years A) 11 B) 16 C) 19 D) 23

answer

question

One advantage of ETF's are that they act like a mutual fund but are ___ the cost of a mutual fund A) Less than B) More than C) The same as D) None of these

answer

Less than

question

Holders of municipal bonds pay ___ tax rates A) Capital gains B) Ordinary income C) Excise tax D) None of these

answer

None of these

question

Public savings is A) The amount households have after paying al taxes and expenditure B) Excess of tax income over expenditure C) Budget deficit D) All of these

answer

Excess of tax income over expenditure

question

An investor over 65 years old would normally have ___ portfolio A) Aggressive B) Balanced C) Conservative D) None of these

answer

Conservative

question

T/F Present value calculations are really the reverse of compounding

answer

TRUE

question

T/F ETF's (Exchange Traded Funds) are designed to mirror the index they track

answer

TRUE

question

Declining GDP, Income, and Employment represents A) Peak B) Recovery C) Recession D) All of these

answer

Recession

question

Long term unemployment often means A) Workers drop out of the workforce B) May have to accept part time work C) Become more difficult to find work D) All of these

answer

All of these

question

Some argue that social benefit programs lead to decreased employment includes all but A) Food stamps B) Increased consumption and investment C) Social security D) Unemployment benefits

answer

Increased consumption and investment

question

Workers between jobs are ___ unemployed A) Structurally B) Seasonally C) Cyclically D) Frictionally

answer

Frictionally

question

Business cycles can be caused by A) Monetary policy B) Irregular innovation C) Political events D) All of these

answer

all of these

question

T/F Structural unemployment can be debilitating

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Labor force participation rate is the total labor force

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Collective bargaining allowed unions to negotiate with companies and governments

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Producers Purchasing Index measures consumer prices

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Inflation hurts debtors

answer

FALSE

question

T/F Deflation can make a recession worse

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Unemployment is a lagging indicator that moves inversely with equity prices

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Inflation can cause investment in non-monetary projects

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Hidden unemployment is workers who have given up looking for a job

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Technology cannot be a cause of unemployment

answer

FALSE

question

Most probably the social security shortfall problem probably can be helped by A) Raising the retirement age B) Selling more treasury bonds C) Raising the interest rate D) None of these

answer

Raising the retirement age

question

T/F Fiat money has an intrinsic value

answer

FALSE

question

The most stable element in the quantity theory of money is A) Velocity B) Money C) Output D) None of these

answer

Velocity

question

Accelerated growth in the money supply can result in A) Deflation B) Stagnation C) Inflation D) All of these

answer

Inflation

question

Trade balances are created through A) Tariffs B) Comparative Advantage C) Currency differences D) All of these

answer

All of these

question

Limits of the purchasing power parity would include A) Comparable goods may not be direct substitutes B) Many goods and services are not traded C) All of these D) None of these

answer

All of these

question

Investing internationally an investor must weigh a country's A) Economic stability B) The political situation C) Government policy regarding foreign ownership D) All of these

answer

All of these

question

T/F Accelerated growth in the money supply can lead to hyperinflation

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In an open economy national savings equals domestic investment plus net capital outflow

answer

TRUE

question

T/F the Fisher effect is not borne out by the Federal Reserve's interest movements

answer

FALSE

question

T/F The basis for net capital outflows is that investors will seek a higher return than they can get domestically

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Free trade represents a closed economy

answer

FALSE

question

T/F A trade deficit means that a country exports more than it imports

answer

FALSE

question

T/F A country can carry either a negative or positive trade balance

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Just as countries can trade goods and services they can also trade capital

answer

TRUE

question

T/F Fluctuation in a country's foreign exchange rate can alter an investor's return on capital

answer

TRUE

question

T/F In the short runs savings hurt an economy but in the long run they are a source of investment capital

answer

TRUE

question

In the Keynesian economic model the Savings must be offset by the A) Consumption B) Taxes C) Investment D) None of these are at equilibrium

answer

Investment

question

T/F "Says Law" pertains to the slope of the demand curve

answer

FALSE

question

The effectiveness of the fiscal multiplier relies on the marginal propensity to A) Consume B) Save C) All of these D) None of these

answer

All of these

question

If the federal government wants to expand the aggregate demand they would A) Raise taxes B) Increase spending C) All of these D) None of these

answer

Increased spending

question

If the marginal propensity to consume is .6 then the marginal propensity to save must be A) .2 B) .4 C) .6 D) None of these

answer

question

All other things must be equal an increase in a country's exchange rate will cause A) Exports to rise B) Imports to fall C) None of these D) Both of these

answer

None of these

question

When an economy goes into recession GDP will A) Rise B) Fall C) None of these D) Both of these

answer

Fall

question

T/F In trying to manage the business cycle the government is hampered by a recognition lag which is a recognition of the problem

answer

TRUE

STUDY

Cap And Trade Environmental Science

Chapters 9: Air: Climate and Polution, and 10: Water: Resources and Polution 59 terms

Kenneth McQuaid

59 terms

Preview

Chapters 9: Air: Climate and Polution, and 10: Water: Resources and Polution

question

The two main gases making up the lower atmosphere are a) helium and hydrogen. b) carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide. c) oxygen and methane. d) nitrogen and oxygen. e) oxygen and carbon dioxide.

answer

d) nitrogen and oxygen.

question

The atmospheric zone where most weather events occur is the a) stratosphere. b) thermosphere. c) troposphere. d) mesosphere. e) stratopause.

answer

c) troposphere.

question

The correct sequence of atmospheric zones upward from the earth's surface is a) stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere. b) troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere. c) mesosphere, stratosphere, troposphere, thermosphere. d) thermosphere, stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere. e) troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

answer

b) troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

question

When cool, dry air sinks from the upper atmosphere toward the Earth's surface, it is a) compressed and cooled further. b) allowed to expand and become warmer. c) compressed and becomes warmer. d) forced to release any remaining moisture. e) going to hold more water because there is more water vapor closer to the Earth's surface.

answer

c) compressed and becomes warmer.

question

A social or policy concern related to climate change might be a) the change in migratory patterns of birds. b) an increased land area in some countries due to the melting of glaciers. c) increased drought in agricultural regions. d) warmer average temperatures. e) movement of tectonic plates.

answer

c) increased drought in agricultural regions.

question

Paying to plant trees because you use carbon in your daily life would be an example of a) carbon reduction. b) cap and trade. c) carbon offsets. d) carbon sequestration. e) going carbon neutral.

answer

c) carbon offsets.

question

The air pollutant least successfully removed from the air by technologies in developed nations is a) carbon dioxide. b) sulfur oxides. c) nitrogen oxides. d) particulate matter. e) VOCs.

answer

c) nitrogen oxides.

question

When El Niño occurs every three to seven years, a mass of warm Pacific water that is usually pushed westward by trade winds a) surges back eastward toward South America. b) becomes much warmer than usual, strengthening trade winds. c) cools dramatically. d) sinks and therefore cools substantially. e) surges northward toward Japan.

answer

a) surges back eastward toward South America.

question

As far as we are currently aware, who were the first people to notice the El Niño Southern Oscillation cycle? a) scientists studying atmospheric changes b) meteorologists c) indigenous people in South America d) Peruvian fishermen e) colonial governors in South America from Spain

answer

d) Peruvian fishermen

question

Most of the excessive carbon dioxide that is expected to cause global warming is generated by a) green plants. b) burning of fossil fuels. c) production of cement and clearing of forests. d) All of these are correct. e) burning of fossil fuels and production of cement and clearing of forests only.

answer

e) burning of fossil fuels and production of cement and clearing of forests only.

question

What are the ecological implications of global warming? a) Plants and animals that are residing in fragmented habitats may not be able to move to a suitable habitat. b) In general, plants and animals will probably benefit from warmer temperatures. c) Since farmland may be lost, the habitats for plants and animals will increase in area. d) Since biodiversity is usually higher in warmer, milder climates, it will probably be increased. e) Tropical ecosystems will get even warmer than they are now.

answer

a) Plants and animals that are residing in fragmented habitats may not be able to move to a suitable habitat.

question

Proponents of climate change say that given what we know about the probability of the greenhouse effect, the best thing to do is a) immediately cease all industrial activity. b) wait and see how much temperatures change before we change our habits. c) severely cut back on production of greenhouse gases. d) not worry about greenhouse gas production. e) focus on the development of technological advances to help decrease the effects of climate change.

answer

c) severely cut back on production of greenhouse gases.

question

The amount of CO2 released by human activities per year is approximately ___________. a) 30 million tons b) 300 million tons c) 3 billion tons d) 30 billion tons d) 300 billion tons

answer

d) 30 billion tons

question

Primary pollutants are those that are a) released directly in dangerous forms. b) produced in the greatest quantities. c) the most dangerous. d) the most threatening to people. e) classified by the EPA as the most dangerous and abundant.

answer

a) released directly in dangerous forms.

question

________ is/are examples of secondary pollutants. a) Aerosols b) Volatile organic compounds c) Photochemical oxidants d) Combustion gases e) Dust from soil erosion

answer

c) Photochemical oxidants

question

A major source of VOCs is a) incomplete burning of hydrocarbons. b) combustion of sulfur-containing fuel. c) photochemical oxidation. d) CO in the atmosphere. e) CO2 in the atmosphere.

answer

a) incomplete burning of hydrocarbons.

question

___________ ozone is harmful, damaging plants and human health while ozone at the _________ level screens out mutagenic ultraviolet radiation. a) Stratospheric; troposphere b) Thermospheric; mesosphere c) Tropospheric; stratosphere d) Mesospheric; thermosphere e) Stratospheric; mesosphere

answer

c) Tropospheric; stratosphere

question

The \"ozone hole\" is a depletion currently most serious a) at the most populated latitudes. b) over North America. c) in tropical latitudes. d) near the Hadley cells. e) near the poles.

answer

e) near the poles.

question

There are serious signs that ozone depletion may lead to a) UV-caused skin cancers. b) UV-caused blindness. c) IR-caused sunburn. d) All of these are correct. e) UV-caused skin cancers and UV-caused blindness only.

answer

e) UV-caused skin cancers and UV-caused blindness only.

question

The most common human health response to air pollution is a) inflammatory responses in sensitive tissues. b) lung cancer. c) blindness caused by deteriorating eye tissues. d) skin cancer. e) heart disease.

answer

a) inflammatory responses in sensitive tissues.

question

One of the principal ways lakes suffer from acid deposition is that a) rocks on the bottom begin to dissolve. b) fish eggs die and fish populations fall. c) aquatic vegetation turns yellow. d) plants grow excessively and choke other life. e) All of these can happen in a lake from acid deposition.

answer

b) fish eggs die and fish populations fall.

question

What type of buildings and monuments are most susceptible to acid damage? a) granite and basalt b) wood c) limestone and marble d) concrete and brick e) brick and bronze

answer

c) limestone and marble

question

The use of scrubbers, precipitators, and filters on power plants and other \"smokestack\" industries probably accounts for a(n) a) increase in nitrogen oxides. b) decrease in sulfur oxides and solid particulate matter. c) decrease in volatile organic compounds, carbon monoxide, solid particulate matter, and lead. d) decrease in solid particulate matter and lead. e) decrease in nitrogen oxides, sulfur oxides, volatile organic compounds, solid particulate matter, and lead.

answer

b) decrease in sulfur oxides and solid particulate matter.

question

The __________________ is an international treaty designed to lower greenhouse gas emissions. a) Tokyo Accord b) Kyoto Declaration c) International Agreement on Global Warming d) Kyoto Protocol e) Tokyo Principle

answer

d) Kyoto Protocol

question

The phenomenon where cool, dense air sits under a layer of lighter warmer air is known as a ____________________. a) heat sink b) heat island c) temperature inversion d) Milankovitch cycle e) thermocline

answer

c) temperature inversion

question

The most significant part of President George W. Bush's \"Clear Skies Initiative\" would have _________________. a) reduced allowable sulfur emissions(X) b) reduced allowable nitrogen emissions (X) c) reduced allowable particulate emissions d) eliminated new source reviews for industry in favor of voluntary controls e) none of these are correct. (X)

answer

c) reduced allowable particulate emissions (?)

question

Worldwide, air pollution control efforts are least advanced or least successful in major cities of developing countries. a) True b) False

answer

a) True

question

Eastern European cities and farming regions have been notable in recent years for their steady and successful cleanup accomplishments. a) True b) False

answer

b) False

question

Nineteen of the 20 warmest of the last 150 years have occurred since 1980. a) True b) False

answer

a) True

question

There has been an increase in frequency and intensity of storms and hurricanes. a) True b) False

answer

a) True

question

The total amount of water on the Earth ____________ from year to year and the hydrologic cycle ________________. a) stays about the same; moves it from one place to another place b) increases; captures it from the incoming solar radiation c) increases; gains water from the Earth's interior d) decreases; moves it from one place to another place e) decreases; loses water to the atmosphere

answer

a) stays about the same; moves it from one place to another place

question

Most water in the atmosphere has evaporated from the ocean, and ______ rain falls back into the sea. About ________ % of the earth's total rain falls on land. a) most; 10 b) most; 20 c) less; 55 d) less; 70 e) None of these. Most water in the atmosphere does not evaporate from the

answer

a) most; 10

question

The hydrologic compartment that contains the greatest amount of fresh water is a) groundwater. b) the Great Lakes. c) living organisms and biomass. d) ice and snow. e) clouds in the atmosphere.

answer

d) ice and snow.

question

The place where aquifers are most likely to be contaminated is at a) artesian springs. b) seeps and other outlets. c) recharge zones. d) all discharge and recharge areas. e) the zone of aeration.

answer

c) recharge zones.

question

A country's renewable water supplies are generally made up of a) surface runoff and infiltration into accessible aquifers. b) seasonal flooding and infiltration into accessible aquifers. c) seasonal flooding. d) rivers running through the country. e) water used from an aquifer.

answer

a) surface runoff and infiltration into accessible aquifers.

question

Which of the following factors is the most important factor in determining whether a country is \"water rich\" or \"water poor\"? a) population density b) country size c) humid climate d) rivers running through the country e) renewable water supplies

answer

e) renewable water supplies

question

Withdrawal is the total amount of water a) lost in transmission, due to evaporation or leakage. b) taken from rivers, lakes, or aquifers. c) used in manufacturing or agriculture. d) altered or polluted in human activities. e) lost due to chemical transformation because of human use.

answer

b) taken from rivers, lakes, or aquifers.

question

In general, water use in poor countries is dominated by a) agricultural use. b) domestic needs. c) industrial activities. d) use as drinking water. e) All of these are correct.

answer

a) agricultural use.

question

A method of increasing water supplies that has been successful, if expensive, is a) desalination by reverse osmosis. b) cloud seeding. c) towing icebergs by ship from polar regions. d) altering the climate's convection currents. e) None of these methods are successful.

answer

a) desalination by reverse osmosis.

question

Principal problems that have resulted from the construction of large dams include a) evaporation and siltation. b) leakage and weakening of bedrock. c) mercury poisoning. d) the relocation of people. e) All of these are correct.

answer

e) All of these are correct.

question

What would you not find in water that has been through tertiary treatment? a) Antibiotics. b) Hormones. c) Dissolved Metals. d) Insecticides. e) Antidepressants.

answer

c) Dissolved Metals.

question

The activity that uses the greatest share of U.S. household water is a) bathing. b) drinking and cooking. c) flushing the toilet. d) washing clothes and dishes. e) watering lawns

answer

c) flushing the toilet.

question

Factories, sewage treatment plants, and oil wells are __________ sources of water pollution. a) point b) primary c) nonpoint d) tertiary pollutant e) secondary

answer

a) point

question

_________ sources of water pollution are relatively easy to monitor and regulate while _____________ sources of water pollution are difficult to monitor and clean up. a) Domestic; industrial b) Primary; tertiary pollutant c) Nonpoint; point d) Tertiary pollutant; primary e) Point; nonpoint

answer

e) Point; nonpoint

question

____________ is to point source of water pollution as _____________ is to nonpoint source of water pollution. a) Golf course runoff; atmospheric deposition b) Golf course runoff; power plant effluent c) Power plant effluent; golf course runoff d) Atmospheric deposition; golf course runoff e) Power plant effluent; underground coal mine drains

answer

c) Power plant effluent; golf course runoff

question

The water pollutant that most commonly threatens human health is a) pathogenic organisms. b) dissolved plant matter. c) toxic and hazardous chemicals. d) thermal pollution. e) oxygen-demanding wastes.

answer

a) pathogenic organisms.

question

Coliform bacteria populations are routinely monitored in drinking water supplies, swimming pools, and at beaches because these bacteria a) are especially toxic to animals. b) may mutate into severely pathogenic strains. c) indicate the presence of feces in water. d) usually live in pesticide-contaminated water. e) are more difficult to find in water.

answer

c) indicate the presence of feces in water.

question

The main reason that surface water pollution has largely decreased in the United States since 1950 is a) the Clean Water Act. b) a series of epidemics that inspired action. c) the discovery of newer technology that makes it cheaper not to pollute. d) decreases in water withdrawal for industrial uses. e) the emphasis in 1950 of watershed management.

answer

a) the Clean Water Act.

question

Tertiary treatment of sewage produces water that is usable for a) agriculture. b) drinking. c) industrial activities. d) watering livestock. e) dumping into freshwater systems.

answer

b) drinking.

question

The city of Arcata, California, is notable because it designed a _________ to treat its sewage. a) system of modern outhouses b) fully modern, technologically advanced system c) natural marsh d) corporate sponsorship system e) living machine

answer

c) natural marsh

question

Best available economically achievable technology (BAT) standards are standards set for a) nonpoint pollution. b) toxic substances. c) radioactive waste, specifically. d) organic compounds. e) all point sources.

answer

b) toxic substances.

question

Plants that take up heavy metals found in water would be an example of a) containment of pollutants. b) tertiary sewage treatment. c) bioremediation. d) wetland treatment. e) in vitro extraction techniques.

answer

c) bioremediation.

question

The residence time for an average water molecule in the ocean is about ________ years. a) 2 b) 60 c) 850 d) 3000 e) 12000

answer

d) 3000

question

A(n) ______________ is all the land drained by a particular river. a) reservoir b) water table c) watershed d) recharge zone e) aquifer

answer

c) watershed

question

Many cities in the American Southwest rely on sources of drinking water that contaminated with __________________. a) arsenic b) lead c) coliform bacteria (X) d) DDT (X) e) none of these are correct. (X)

answer

b) lead (?)

question

An oligotrophic lake would be very productive. a) True b) False

answer

b) False

question

Domestic water conservation in the United States would save about 20% of the water we now use. Therefore, we need to come up with better technology to avoid strict restrictions in the future. a) True b) False

answer

b) False

question

The heating of natural waterways by power plants and other industrial facilities is a form of water pollution. a) True b) False

answer

a) True

question

The National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) was established as a part of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA). a) True b) False

answer

b) False

STUDY

Cap And Trade Civil Rights Private And Public Protect The Environment Toxic Substances Control Act

Chapter 11 Managing Environmental Issues – Flashcards 42 terms

Adam Howard

42 terms

Preview

Chapter 11 Managing Environmental Issues – Flashcards

question

1. FedEx rolled out its first hybrid truck in 2001. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

2. The first United States federal laws to protect the environment involved protecting navigable waterways. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

3. The EU has yet to adopt global warming initiatives. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

4. All air pollution is caused by man A) True B) False

answer

False

question

5. The United Sates produces almost five pounds of solid waste per person per day. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

6. Germany has had success in limiting waste by charging for trash pick up and picking up recyclables for free. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

7. CERCLA has been regarded as a public policy triumph in the clean up of toxic waste. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

8. The Clean Air Act of 1990 incorporated the concept of tradable permits as a key part of its approach to pollution reduction. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

9. Cap-and-trade is an example of a market based mechanism to control pollution. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

10. In recent years, regulators have begun moving away from market based regulation. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

11. Since 1989, about 1,000 individuals and companies have been found guilty of environmental crimes each year. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

12. Since the passage of the Clean Air Act amendments in 1990, nearly all major air pollutants in the United States has dropped substantially. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

13. In 2007, Interface became the first ecologically sustainable organization. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

14. Greenwashing refers to misleading consumers about the ecological benefits of a product or service. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

15. Gold mining is one of the most environmentally destructive industries in the world. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

16. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was: A) Created to monitor and regulate nuclear activity. B) Created in 1970 to coordinate most of the government's efforts to protect the environment. C) The final major piece of legislation dealing with environmental issues until 2003. D) All of the above.

answer

Created in 1970 to coordinate most of the government's efforts to protect the environment.

question

17. In the United States, the federal government regulates which of the following major areas of environmental protection? A) Air pollution. B) Water pollution. C) Land pollution. D) All of the above.

answer

All of the above

question

18. Which of the following statements is true of air pollution? A) Air pollution occurs when more pollutants are emitted into the atmosphere than can be safely absorbed and diluted by natural processes. B) A quarter of the people in the U.S. were breathing unsafe air for at least part of the year. C) Ozone gas at the ground level helps reduce pollution. D) Benzene is only hazardous in large concentration.

answer

Air pollution occurs when more pollutants are emitted into the atmosphere than can be safely absorbed and diluted by natural processes.

question

19. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to acid rain? A) In the United States, acid rain is prevalent in the Southeast. B) Acid rain occurs when carbon dioxide combines with water vapor in the atmosphere. C) Acid rain can reduce crop yields. D) Acid rain degrades buildings.

answer

In the United States, acid rain is prevalent in the Southeast.

question

20. Which of the following is not true about water pollution? A) It can lead to the spread of the e coli virus. B) It can be caused by pesticides and herbicides. C) It can be caused by biodegradable products. D) The Water Pollution Control Act aims to maintain the integrity of all surface water in the United States

answer

It can be caused by biodegradable products.

question

21. Which country has made the greatest progress in reducing its solid waste stream? A) United Kingdom B) Germany. C) Japan. D) United States.

answer

Germany.

question

22. Which of the following is true about the Toxic Substances Control Act? A) It required cuts in urban smog, acid rain, and Greenhouse gas emissions. B) It allows the EPA to restrict, and, if necessary, ban toxic chemicals. C) It promoted nontoxic chemicals and fuels for business use. D) It authorized funds for treatment plants and toxic waste cleanup.

answer

It allows the EPA to restrict, and, if necessary, ban toxic chemicals.

question

23. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (amended in 1984) does not require: A) Toxic waste generators to have a permit. B) Transports to maintain careful records. C) Treatment of hazardous waste before disposal in landfills. D) All hazardous waste to be incinerated.

answer

All hazardous waste to be incinerated.

question

24. Environmental justice is a movement to: A) Prevent inequitable exposure to risk, such as from hazardous waste. B) Identify polluters and require them to pay for the cleanup of their toxic waste. C) Reduce pollution at the source, rather than treat and dispose of waste at the "end of the pipe." D) Specifically restrict the use of dangerous pesticides which can pollute groundwater.

answer

Prevent inequitable exposure to risk, such as from hazardous waste.

question

25. Which of the following statements is (are) true about the Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)? A) It established a fund supported primarily by a tax on the petroleum and chemical companies. B) It is regarded as one of the most successful environmental laws. C) The funds collected are used to clean up sites where the original polluter cannot be identified. D) Both A and C, but not B.

answer

Both A and C, but not B.

question

26. Approximately what percentage of Americans live within four miles of a Superfund site? A) 25%. B) 33%. C) 50%. D) 67%.

answer

25%

question

27. The environmental standards of pollution control is also called ? A) Cap and trade. B) Emissions fee. C) Disclosure. D) Command and Control regulations.

answer

Command and Control regulations.

question

28. Which of the following is a market based mechanism for dealing with pollution? A) Command and control regulation. B) Source reduction. C) Emissions fee. D) None of the above are market based mechanisms.

answer

Emissions fee.

question

29. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the emissions fees and taxes approach of reducing pollution? A) Taxes may be too high to allow businesses to remain profitable. B) Taxes may be too low to curb pollution. C) Taxes will reduce competition among businesses. D) All of the above.

answer

Taxes may be too low to curb pollution.

question

30. Which of the following is not a cost of environmental regulation? A) Unemployment. B) Reduced capital investment. C) Corporate restructuring. D) Lowered productivity.

answer

Corporate restructuring.

question

31. Environmental regulations stimulate some sectors of the economy by: A) Creating jobs in industries like environmental consulting, asbestos abatement, and instrument manufacturing. B) Saving jobs in industries like fishing and tourism when natural areas are protected or restored. C) Compelling businesses to become more efficient by conserving energy, and less money is spent on treating health problems caused by pollution. D) All of the above.

answer

All of the above.

question

32. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage with the information disclosure system of reducing pollution: A) Business may not be honest B) The sanction may not motivate all companies. C) Enforcement is difficult. D) Can retard innovation.

answer

The sanction may not motivate all companies.

question

33. Which of the following is indicative of a firm in the pollution prevention stage of the corporate environmental responsibility model? A) Realizing that it would be less efficient and more expensive to prevent pollution before it is created. B) Focusing on all environmental impacts of the product life-cycle. C) Minimizing or eliminating waste before it is created. D) Incurring losses due to environmental costs.

answer

Minimizing or eliminating waste before it is created.

question

34. Which of the following is the most advanced stage of corporate environmental responsibility? A) Pollution prevention stage. B) Clean technology stage. C) Product stewardship stage. D) Green management stage.

answer

Clean technology stage.

question

35. Businesses in the clean technology stage: A) Actively manage environmental issues. B) Have well-funded programs for environmental technology. C) Evaluate cyber technology-related risks. D) Develop innovative technologies that support sustainability.

answer

Develop innovative technologies that support sustainability.

question

36. Companies in the United Kingdom and Japan are motivated to "go green" due to: A) The chance to gain competitive advantage. B) A desire to gain approval from the public sector or regulators. C) A moral commitment to ecological responsibility. D) All of the above.

answer

All of the above.

question

37. When businesses form voluntary, collaborative partnerships with environmental organizations and regulators to achieve specific objectives this is called: A) Interorganizational alliances. B) Environmental partnerships. C) Cross-functional teams. D) Command and control.

answer

Environmental partnerships.

question

39. Some researchers believe that business firms moving towards ecological sustainability results in: A) Competitive advantages. B) Decreased worker productivity. C) More government regulation. D) Less money for shareholders.

answer

Competitive advantages.

question

40. Environmental staff experts are most effective . A) When they deal directly with the CEO. B) with "triple green" companies. C) when they work closely with people who carry out a company's daily operations. D) when supervised directly by the Board of Directors.

answer

when they work closely with people who carry out a company's daily operations.

question

41. Creating and advertising ecological responsible goods and services is: A) Technological innovation. B) Product differentiation. C) Green marketing. D) Cost savings.

answer

Green marketing.

question

42. Greenwashing is: A) Technology which allows water to be recycled after a product is cleaned. B) Misleading customers about the environmental benefits of a product. C) The final stage of corporate social responsibility. D) Ecological groups threatening to embarrass companies which they deem to be ecologically irresponsible.

answer

Misleading customers about the environmental benefits of a product.

question

43. A solution of is used to leach gold. A) Arsenic. B) Cyanide. C) Chlorine. D) Ammonia

answer

Cyanide.

STUDY

Business Management Cap And Trade Civil Law Hazardous Waste Sites Protect The Environment Regions Of The United States

ethics chapter – Flashcards 26 terms

Alexander Barker

26 terms

Preview

ethics chapter – Flashcards

question

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was created:

answer

To coordinate most of the government's efforts to protect the environment

question

Which of the following statements is true of air pollution?

answer

Air pollution occurs when more pollutants are emitted into the atmosphere than can be safely absorbed and diluted by natural processes

question

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to acid rain?

answer

Acid rain occurs when carbon dioxide combines with water vapor in the atmosphere

question

Which of the following is not true about water pollution?

answer

It can be caused by biodegradable products

question

Hydraulic fracturing, or "fracking," has the following benefit

answer

Natural gas burns more cleanly than either coal or oil

question

Which country has made the greatest progress in reducing its solid waste stream?

answer

Germany

question

Which of the following is true about the Toxic Substances Control Act?

answer

It established a national policy to regulate, restrict, and, if necessary, ban toxic chemicals

question

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (amended in 1984) does not require:

answer

all hazardous waste to be incinerated

question

Environmental justice is a movement to

answer

Prevent inequitable exposure to risk, such as from hazardous waste.

question

Which of the following statements is not true about environmental standards?

answer

The government rarely interferes in a business's choice of pollution technology.

question

Which of the following is not true about the guidelines for sentencing environmental wrongdoers set by the U.S. Sentencing Commission?

answer

Businesses having no active compliance program would be granted an extension to develop a program

question

Which of the following is not a possible cost of environmental regulation?

answer

Corporate restructuring

question

Which of the following is indicative of a firm in the pollution prevention stage of the corporate environmental responsibility model?

answer

Minimizing or eliminating waste before it is created

question

Subaru Automotive of America's effort to minimize waste is an example of:

answer

pollution prevention

question

Which of the following is the most advanced stage of corporate environmental responsibility?

answer

Clean technology stage

question

Businesses in the clean technology stage

answer

Develop innovative technologies that support sustainability

question

Which of the following is not true about "green" management practices?

answer

No more than 10 to 25 percent of all U.S. companies are adopting environmental practices

question

Being able to continue their activities indefinitely, without altering the carrying capacity of the earth's ecosystem, is a characteristic of:

answer

Ecologically sustainable organizations

question

When businesses form voluntary, collaborative partnerships with environmental organizations and regulators to achieve specific objectives this is called:

answer

Environmental partnerships

question

Effective environmental management requires an integrated approach that involves:

answer

All parts of the organization, as well as strong partnerships with stakeholders.

question

In 2011 how many of the world's top 250 companies issued an integrated sustainability report?

answer

95 percent

question

Some researchers believe that business firms moving towards ecological sustainability results in:

answer

Competitive advantages

question

Companies that reduce pollution and hazardous waste, reuse or recycle materials, and operate with greater energy efficiency achieve a competitive advantage due to:

answer

cost savings

question

When companies develop a reputation for environmental excellence, and they produce and deliver products and services designed to attract environmentally aware customers, this is called:

answer

Green marketing

question

When environmentally proactive companies seek out imaginative, innovative new methods for reducing pollution and increasing efficiency, they are adopting which strategy?

answer

Technological innovation

question

Companies that cultivate a vision of sustainability must adopt sophisticated strategic planning techniques to:

answer

Allow their top manager to assess the full range of the firm's effects on the environment.

STUDY

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