”What is an example of a brute force attack? sending multiple ICMP messages to a Web server searching through a company’s trash using a program to guess passwords from a SAM file gathering packets from a network connection ”

” Answer: using a program to guess passwords from a SAM file Explanation: Using a program to guess passwords from a Security Account Manager (SAM) file is an example of a brute force attack. A SAM file, which is used on some Windows networks, contains encrypted passwords. A hacker can initiate a brute force attack in an attempt to decrypt passwords stored in a SAM file. You can defend against a brute force network attack by increasing the complexity and keyspace requirements of the password. Sending multiple Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages to a Web server is a type of denial of service (DoS) attack that is referred to as a ping of death. Searching through a company’s trash to find sensitive information is a type of physical attack that is sometimes referred to as dumpster diving. Using a packet analyzer to gather packets from a network connection between two computers is a method that can be used to initiate a man in the middle (MITM) attack. ” More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/sy0-4013-ts-quiz-threats-and-vulnerabilities/

Passwords – Attacks on Passwords – Brute force attack

Every possible combination of letters, numbers, and characters is used to create candidate digests then matched against those in stolen digest file More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-12-authentication/

Brute Force Attack test questions and answers | Get Access To Brute Force Attack Flashcards and exam tests

Q: What variation of a dictionary attack involves a dictionary attack combined with a brute force attack, and will slightly alter dictionary words by adding numbers to the end of the password, spelling words backward, slightly misspelling words, or including special characters? brute force hash replay network replay hybrid

hybrid More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/security-chapter-12/

Q: ?Select the tool below that does not use dictionary attacks or brute force attacks to crack passwords: a. ?Last Bit b. ?AccessData PRTK c. ?OSForensics d. ?Passware

c More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/computer-forensics-2nd-half-quiz-9/

Home Page Science Computer Science Computer Networks Brute Force Attack

We've found 19 Brute Force Attack tests

Applied Sociology Bricks And Mortar Brute Force Attack Discretionary Access Control Gramm Leach Bliley Act Personal Digital Assistants

NT2580 – Flashcard 60 terms

Lesly Lloyd

60 terms

Preview

NT2580 – Flashcard

question

Gram-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

answer

Requires all types of financial institution to protect customer's private financial information.

question

Health insurance portability and accountability

answer

Requires health care organizations to secure patient information, and organizations must adhere to the minimum necessary rule.

question

Sarbanes-Oxley act (SOX)

answer

requires publicly traded companies to submit accurate and reliable financial reporting.

question

Children's internet protection act (CIPA)

answer

requires public schools and public libraries to use the internet safety policy to prevent children's access to inappropriate matter on the internet.

question

Payment card industry data security standard

answer

standard that handles transactions involving payment cards, and requires to build and maintain security,implement strong access controls, and test + monitor networks.

question

Family educational rights and privacy act (FERPA)

answer

Protect the private information of students and their records.

question

confidentiality

answer

means guarding information from everyone except those with rights.Protecting private data is the process of ensuring data confidentiality.

question

Data classification standards

answer

To provide a consistent and detailed definition for how an organization should handle different types of data,software, and hardware.

question

U.S federal data classification

answer

Top secret, secret, and confidential.

question

Security gap

answer

The difference between the security controls you have in place and all the controls you need to address all the vulnerabilities is called a security gap.

question

Gap analysis

answer

identify the applicable elements of the security policy,assembling policy,standard,procedure, and guideline documents.

question

Black-hat attacker

answer

Tries to break IT security for the challenge and to prove technical prowess.

question

White-hat hacker

answer

is an information security or network professional who uses various penetration tools to uncover vulnerabilities so that can be fixed.

question

Gray-hat attacker

answer

Is a hacker with average abilities who may one day become a black-hat or white-hat attacker.

question

Access control

answer

Are methods used to restrict and allow access to certain computers,etc...

question

The four parts of access controls

answer

Authorization,identification,authentication, and accountability.

question

Authorization

answer

who is approved for access and what,exactly can they use.

question

Identification

answer

Who is the user,workstation, and services identified.

question

Authentication

answer

How to verify identities,something you know,have, and something unique.

question

Accountability

answer

Process of associating actions with users for latter reporting and research.

question

Physical access control

answer

Access to buildings,parking lots, and protected areas.

question

Logical access controls

answer

Access to a computer system or a network. Username,password,token,smart card, etc...

question

Discretionary Access controls (DAC) (Unix/Linux)

answer

the owner of the resource decides who gets in, and changes permission as needed. The owner can give that owner can give that job to others.

question

Mandatory Access controls (MAC) (SELinux)

answer

Permissions to enter a system is kept by the owner. It cannot be given to someone else.(makes MAC tronger than DAC)

question

Non-discretionary access control

answer

closely monitored by the security administrator , not the system admin.

question

Ruled-based access control

answer

A list of rules, maintained by the data owner, determines which users have access to objects.

question

Bell-La Padula model (access control model)

answer

Focuses on the confidentiality of the data and the control of access to classified information.

question

Bilba integrity model

answer

fixes a weakness in the Bell-la padula model, which addresses only the confidentiality of the data.

question

Clark & Wilson integrity model

answer

Focuses on what happens when users allowed into a system try to do things they are not allowed to do.

question

Brewer & Nash integrity model

answer

Based on mathematical theory published in 1989 to ensure competition. It is used to apply dynamically changing access permissions.

question

Security program addresses these directives

answer

Standards, procedures,baselines, and guidelines.

question

Limiting access

answer

the idea that users should be granted only the levels of permissions they need in order to perform their duties.

question

configuration control

answer

Is the management of baseline settings for a system device.

question

Change control

answer

is the management of changes to configuration. it ensures that any changes to a production system are tested,documented, and approved.

question

SLC (system life cycle) and SDLC (system development life cycle

answer

describe the entire change and maintenance process for applications and system hardware.

question

tools and techniques for security monitoring

answer

baselines,alarms,closed circuitTV,andsystems that spot irregular behavior.

question

Black-box testing

answer

Uses test methods that aren't based directly on knowledge of a programs design.

question

White-box testing

answer

is based on the knowledge of the applications design and source code.

question

gray-box testing

answer

lies somewhere between black and white box testing.

question

Risk mitigation

answer

uses various controls to mitigate or reduce risk. (anti-virus software)

question

Risk assignment

answer

allows the organization to transfer risk to another entity. (insurance)

question

Risk acceptance

answer

the organization has decided to accept the risk. ( the cost of reducing it is higher than the loss)

question

Asset value (AV)

answer

Value of the asset

question

Exposure factor (EF)

answer

percentage of asset value that will be lost

question

annualized rate of occurance (ARO)

answer

How many times the is is expected to occur

question

annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

answer

This is calculated by ,multiplying SLE by the ARO.

question

Business continuity plan BCP

answer

Helps keep critical business processes running in a disaster.

question

Disaster recovery plan

answer

helps recover the infrastructure necessary for normal business operations.

question

Risk avoidance

answer

deciding not to take the risk

question

Business impact analysis (BIA)

answer

determines the extent of the impact that a particular incident would have on business operations over time.

question

Cryptography

answer

encoding data so that it can only be decoded by specific individuals.

question

Cipher algorithm

answer

Shifts each letter in the english alphabet

question

Symmetric key cipher

answer

the key is send out of band letters

question

Asymmetric key cipher

answer

use private and public keys.

question

border firewall

answer

they separate the protected network from the internet

question

screened subnets or DMZ firewall

answer

the dmz is a semiprivate network used to hosts services that the public can access.

question

worms

answer

they propagate through the network service

question

Trojan horses

answer

know as the backdoor

question

logic bombs

answer

executes a malicious function of some kind when it detects certwin conditions.

question

choke points

answer

firewalls,routers,IDSs,IPSs

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Brute Force Attack Identity Management Network Security

Final SEC110 Chapter 9-15 – Flashcards 140 terms

Lisa Currey

140 terms

Preview

Final SEC110 Chapter 9-15 – Flashcards

question

Which type of biometrics is based on the perception, thought process, and understanding of the user?

answer

Cognitive biometrics

question

The use of one authentication credential to access multiple accounts or applications is referred to as?

answer

Single Sign On

question

What type of attack involves an attacker stealing a file containing password digests and comparing the digests with digests created by the attacker?

answer

Offline Cracking

question

Using a rainbow table to crack a password requires three steps: Creation of the table, comparing the table to known hash values, and decrypting the password.

answer

False

question

What kind of biometrics utilizes a person's unique physical characteristics for authentication, such as fingerprints or unique characteristics of a person's face?

answer

Standard biometrics

question

The use of what item below involves the creation of a large pregenerated data set of candidate digests?

answer

Rainbow Tables

question

What type of attack involves using every possible combination of letters, numbers, and characters to create candidate digests that are then matched against those in a stolen digest file?

answer

Brute force

question

OpenID is an example of a web-based federated identity management (FIM) system.

answer

True

question

What variation of a dictionary attack involves a dictionary attack combined with a brute force attack, and will slightly alter dictionary words by adding numbers to the end of the password, spelling words backward, slightly misspelling words, or including special characters?

answer

Hybrid

question

Passwords that are transmitted can be captured by what type of software?

answer

protocol analyzer

question

What federated identity management (FIM) relies on token credentials?

answer

OAuth

question

A secret combination of letters, numbers, and/or characters that only the user should have knowledge of, is known as a:

answer

Password

question

What technology allows users to share resources stored on one site with a second site without forwarding their authentication credentials to the other site?

answer

OAuth

question

Which term below describes the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released?

answer

Dwell time

question

A list of the available nonkeyboard characters can be seen in Windows by opening what utility?

answer

charmap.exe

question

Passwords provide strong protection.

answer

False

question

Geolocation is the identification of the location of a person or object using technology, and can be used as part of an authentication method.

answer

True

question

What type of one-time password (OTP) changes after a set time period?

answer

Time-based one-time password (TOTP)

question

The use of a single authentication credential that is shared across multiple networks is called:

answer

Identity Management

question

A U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) smart card that is used for identification of active-duty and reserve military personnel along with civilian employees and special contractors is called:

answer

Common Access Card (CAC)

question

RAM slack can contain any information that has been created, viewed, modified, downloaded, or copied since the computer was last booted.

answer

True

question

RAID level 0 is known as disk mirroring, because it involves connecting multiple drives in the server to the same disk controller card.

answer

False

question

A service contract between a vendor and a client that specifies what services will be provided, the responsibilities of each party, and any guarantees of service, is known as:

answer

Service level agreement

question

A subset of business continuity planning and testing is disaster recovery, also known as IT recovery planning.

answer

False

question

Using technology to search for computer evidence of a crime in order to retrieve information, even if it has been altered or erased, that can be used in pursuit of an attacker or criminal is an example of:

answer

Computer forensics

question

How can an administrator keep devices powered when power is interrupted?

answer

uninterruptible power supply

question

What type of plans include procedures to address redundancy and fault tolerance as well as data backups?

answer

Disaster recovery

question

In what type of cluster does every server perform useful work so that if one fails, the remaining servers take on the additional load?

answer

Symmetric server

question

Select below the type of cluster that is used to provide high-availability applications that require a high level of read and write actions, such as databases, messaging systems, and file and print services:

answer

asymmetric server

question

Most metadata about a file is generated and recorded automatically without the user's knowledge.

answer

True

question

When a company needs to identify mission-critical business functions and quantify the impact a loss of such functions may have on the organization in terms of its operational and financial position, what should be performed?

answer

Business impact analysis (BIA)

question

A location that has all the equipment installed but does not have active Internet or telecommunications facilities, and does not have current backups of data, is an example of a:

answer

Warm site

question

The remaining cluster space of a partially filled sector is padded with contents from RAM. What is the name for this type of scenario?

answer

RAM slack

question

What term is used to describe a documentation of control over evidence, which is used to ensure that no unauthorized person was given the opportunity to corrupt the evidence?

answer

Chain of custody

question

What kind of data can be lost when a computer is turned off?

answer

Volatile

question

What kind of slack is created from information stored on a hard drive, which can contain remnants of previously deleted files or data?

answer

Drive file slack

question

What RAID type below utilizes parity data across all drives instead of using a separate drive to hold parity error checking information?

answer

RAID 5

question

Which term below describes a component or entity in a system which, if it no longer functions, will disable an entire system?

answer

Single point of failure

question

Multiple sectors on a disk, when combined, are referred to as a:

answer

cluster

question

Duplicate image backups are considered a primary key to uncovering evidence because they create exact replicas of the crime scene.

answer

False

question

Which type of network below uses a direct connection between users, and involves each device simultaneously acting as a client and a server?

answer

P2P

question

Most organizations follow a three-phase cycle in the development and maintenance of a security policy.

answer

True

question

A written document that states how an organization plans to protect the company's information technology assets is a:

answer

security policy

question

Policies that include statements regarding how an employee's information technology resources will be addressed are part of a:

answer

security-related human resource policy

question

What is the most common type of P2P network?

answer

Bittorrent

question

A due process policy is a policy that defines the actions users may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment.

answer

False

question

Generally considered to be the most important information security policies, what item below defines the actions a user may perform while accessing systems and networking equipment?

answer

Accessible use policies

question

Websites that group individuals and organizations into clusters or groups based on some sort of affiliation are considered to be what type of websites?

answer

social networking

question

What is the name for a framework and corresponding functions required to enable incident response and incident handling within an organization?

answer

incident management

question

Which of the following is NOT included in a vulnerability assessment?

answer

system performance review

question

Which term below describes the art of helping an adult learn?

answer

andragogical

question

What are values that are attributed to a system of beliefs that help the individual distinguish right from wrong called?

answer

morals

question

The first phase of the security policy cycle involves a vulnerability assessment.

answer

true

question

Audits serve to verify that the security protections enacted by an organization are being followed and that corrective actions can be swiftly implemented before an attacker exploits a vulnerability.

answer

True

question

What kind of policy outlines how organizations use personal information it collects?

answer

privacy

question

What may be defined as the components required to identify, analyze, and contain an incident?

answer

incident response

question

A document that outlines specific requirements or rules that must be met

answer

Policy

question

A collection of suggestions that should be implemented are referred to as a:

answer

guideline

question

What type of learner tends to sit in the middle of the class and learns best through lectures and discussions?

answer

auditory

question

What can be defined as the study of what a group of people understand to be good and right behavior and how people make those judgments?

answer

ethics

question

What is another term used for a security weakness?

answer

vulnerability

question

Which is the term for a computer typically located in an area with limited security and loaded with software and data files that appear to be authentic, yet they are actually imitations of real data files.

answer

honeypot

question

A service contract between a vendor and a client that specifies what services will be provided, the responsibilities of each party, and any guarantees of service, is known as a:

answer

service level agreement

question

Which item below is an imaginary line by which an element is measured or compared, and can be seen as the standard?

answer

baseline

question

If TCP port 20 is open, then an attacker can assume that FTP is being used.

answer

true

question

What security goal do the following common controls address: hashing, digital signatures, certificates, nonrepudiation tools?

answer

integrity

question

During a vulnerability assessment, what type of software can be used to search a system for port vulnerabilities?

answer

port scanner

question

What term below describes a prearranged purchase or sale agreement between a government agency and a business?

answer

Blanket Purchase Agreement

question

The comparison of the present state of a system to its baseline is known as what?

answer

baseline reporting

question

What is the term for a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities?

answer

honeynet

question

An administrator needs to view packets and decode and analyze their contents. What type of application should the administrator use?

answer

protocol analyzer

question

What is the end result of a penetration test?

answer

penetration test report

question

A healthy security posture results from a sound and workable strategy toward managing risks.

answer

True

question

A port in what state below implies that an application or service assigned to that port is listening for any instructions?

answer

open port

question

What term below describes the start-up relationship between partners?

answer

on-boarding

question

Which scan examines the current security, in a passive method?

answer

vulnerability scan

question

A port scanner can be used to search a system for port vulnerabilities. The RADMIN port scanner is an example of this type of software.

answer

True

question

Vulnerability scans are usually performed from outside the security perimeter.

answer

False

question

The goal of what type of threat evaluation is to better understand who the attackers are, why they attack, and what types of attacks might occur?

answer

threat modeling

question

What is the name for the code that can be executed by unauthorized users within a software product?

answer

attack surface

question

A Bluetooth attack in which the attacker accesses unauthorized information from a wireless device using a Bluetooth connection, is known as?

answer

bluesnarfing

question

What device acts like a wireless base station in a network, acting as a bridge between wireless and wired networks?

answer

Access point

question

Because of the weaknesses of WEP, it is possible for an attacker to identify two packets derived from the same IV.

answer

true

question

When using AES-CCMP, the AES-256 bit key requires how many rounds?

answer

question

Which encryption protocol below is used in the WPA2 standard?

answer

AES-CCMP

question

Piconets in which connections exist between different piconets are known as a:

answer

Scatternet

question

What is the maximum number of characters that can exist within an SSID name?

answer

question

An evil twin AP is an AP that is set up by an attacker to mimic an authorized AP, with the intent to redirect client devices.

answer

False

question

What is the maximum range of most Bluetooth devices?

answer

33 ft

question

APs use antennas that radiate a signal in all directions.

answer

True

question

Select the EAP protocol supported by WPA2 Enterprise that securely tunnels any credential form for authentication using TLS:

answer

EAP-FAST

question

Which option below is responsible for the issuing of EAP request packets?

answer

authenticator

question

Because PEAP can be vulnerable to specific types of attacks, Cisco now recommends that users migrate to a more secure EAP than PEAP.

answer

False

question

The IEEE 802.15.1-2005 standard is based on what version of the Bluetooth specifications?

answer

Bluetooth v1.2

question

An access point that is unauthorized and allows an attacker to bypass network security configurations is considered to be what type of access point?

answer

rogue

question

Slave devices that are connected to a piconet and are sending transmissions are known as what?

answer

active slave

question

What proprietary EAP method developed by Cisco requires mutual authentication for WLAN encryption using Cisco client software?

answer

LEAP

question

How can an administrator force wireless clients to use a standard web browser to provide information, and require a user to agree to a use policy or present valid login credentials?

answer

Captive portal access point

question

Which of the following choices is not one of the four types of packets used by EAP?

answer

Error

question

Bluetooth is an example of what type of technology below?

answer

Personal Area Network

question

Mobile Device Management systems that allow users to store usernames and passwords within a device are said to be using:

answer

Credential management

question

What can be enabled to prevent a mobile device from being used until a user enters the correct passcode, such as a pin or password?

answer

Enable a lock screen

question

A laptop may have multiple hardware ports. Which of the following is not a typical port included on a laptop?

answer

RS232

question

Select below the option that is not one of the SD format card families:

answer

Extreme capacity

question

What term below describes a hand-held mobile device that was intended to replace paper systems, and typically included an appointment calendar, an address book, a "to-do" list, a calculator, and the ability to record limited notes?

answer

personal digital assistant

question

Mobile devices with global positioning system (GPS) abilities typically make use of:

answer

location services

question

What SD card family can be used to transmit pictures over a wireless network to a laptop hard drive or wireless printer?

answer

secure digital input output

question

Select below the option that represents a wearable technology:

answer

Google Glass

question

What PC Card type is typically used for memory?

answer

Type I

question

Select below the item that is not considered to be a basic characteristic of mobile devices:

answer

removable media storage

question

How can an administrator manage applications on mobile devices using a technique called "app wrapping?"

answer

Mobile Application Management

question

The CardBus is a 64-bit bus in the PC card form factor.

answer

False

question

The PC Card and CardBus devices are being replaced by what technology?

answer

ExpressCard

question

Select below the type of computing device that uses a limited version of the Linux operating system and uses a web browser with an integrated media player:

answer

Web-based

question

Simply using a mobile device in a public area can be considered a risk.

answer

True

question

Mobile devices such as laptops are stolen on average once every 20 seconds.

answer

False

question

Which of the following selections is not one of the features provided by a typical MDM?

answer

Track stolen devices

question

A QR code can store website URLs, plain text, phone numbers, e-mail addresses, or virtually any alphanumeric data up to 4296 characters.

answer

True

question

A QR code can't contain which of the following items directly?

answer

A video

question

The Google Android mobile operating system is a proprietary system, for use on only approved devices.

answer

False

question

In a UAC prompt, what color is used to indicate the lowest level of risk?

answer

gray

question

What is the name for a predefined framework that can be used for controlling access, and is embedded into software and hardware?

answer

Access control model

question

The strength of RADIUS is that messages are always directly sent between the wireless device and the RADIUS server.

answer

False

question

Group policy is a Unix feature that allows for the centralized management and configuration of computers and remote users using Unix Active Directory.

answer

False

question

When using Role Based Access Control (RBAC), permissions are assigned to:

answer

Roles

question

A user or a process functioning on behalf of the user that attempts to access an object is known as the:

answer

subject

question

What authentication service commonly used on UNIX devices involves communicating user authentication information to a centralized server?

answer

TACACS

question

User accounts that remain active after an employee has left an organization are referred to as being what type of accounts?

answer

Orphaned

question

The X.500 standard defines a protocol for a client application to access an X.500 directory known as which of the following options?

answer

DAP

question

Although designed to support remote dial-in access to a corporate network, what service below is commonly used with 802.1x port security for both wired and wireless LANs?

answer

RADIUS

question

To assist with controlling orphaned and dormant accounts, what can be used to indicate when an account is no longer active?

answer

Account expiration

question

A list that specifies which subjects are allowed to access an object and what operations they can perform on it is referred to as a(n):

answer

ACL

question

Which access control model is considered to be the least restrictive?

answer

Discretionary Access Control

question

The action that is taken by a subject over an object is called a(n):

answer

operation

question

Entries within a Directory Information Base are arranged in a tree structure called the:

answer

DIT

question

Select below the authentication system developed by the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) to verify the identity of network users:

answer

Kerberos

question

What kind of attack allows for the construction of LDAP statements based on user input statements, which can then be used to access the LDAP database or modify the database's information?

answer

LDAP Injection

question

A shield icon warns users if they attempt to access any feature that requires UAC permission.

answer

True

question

A vulnerable process that is divided between two or more individuals to prevent fraudulent application of the process is known as:

answer

separation of duties

question

Select below the access control model that uses access based on a user's job function within an organization:

answer

Role Based Access Control

STUDY

Bricks And Mortar Brute Force Attack Hypertext Transfer Protocol Network Security Personal Digital Assistants Store And Forward

ISEC 5305 test 1 – Flashcards 86 terms

Mary Moore

86 terms

Preview

ISEC 5305 test 1 – Flashcards

question

True or False: Cars that have Wi-Fi access and onboard computers require software patches and upgrades from the manufacturer.

answer

True

question

Which law governs the use of the IoT by healthcare providers, such as physicians and hospitals

answer

HIPPA

question

Jody would like to find a solution that allows realtime document sharing and editing between teams. Which technology would best suit her needs?

answer

Collaboration

question

What do organizations expect to occur with the growth of the IoT?

answer

Higher Risks

question

In Mobile IP, what term describes a device that would like to communicate with a mobile node(MN)?

answer

Correspondent node (CN)

question

Bob recently accepted a position as the information security and compliance manager for a medical practice. Which regulation is likely to most directly apply to Bob's employer?

answer

HIPPA

question

True or False: An IT security policy framework is like an outline that identifies where security controls should be used

answer

True

question

True or False: Authorization is the process of granting rights to use an organizations IT assets, systems, applications, and data to a specific user.

answer

True

question

Which organization pursues standards for the IoT devices and is widely recognized as the authority for creating standards of the Internet?

answer

Internet Society

question

True or False: Store-and-Forward communications should be used when you need to talk to someone immediately.

answer

False

question

True or False: IoT technology has a significant impact on developing economies, given that it can transform countries into e-commerce-ready nations

answer

True

question

True or False: Metadata of IoT devices can be sold to companies seeking demographic marketing data about users and their spending habits

answer

True

question

True or False: Bring your own device (BYOD) opens the door to considerable security risks

answer

True

question

Which IoT challenge involves the difficulty of developing and implementing protocols that allow devices to communicate in a standard fashion?

answer

Interoperability

question

Which tool can capture the packets transmitted between systems over a network?

answer

Protocol analyzer

question

True or False: Denial of service (DoS) attacks are larger in scope than Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks

answer

False

question

Which type of attack involves the creation of some deception in order to trick unsuspecting users?

answer

Fabrication

question

True or False: Rootkits are malicious software programs designed to be hidden from normal methods of detection

answer

True

question

True or False: When servers need operating system upgrades or patches, administrators take them offline intentionally so they can perform the necessary work without risking malicious attacks

answer

True

question

True or False: Cryptography is the process of transforming data from cleartext to ciphertext.

answer

False (Encryption not Cryptography)

question

True or False: The Director of IT security is generally in charge of ensuring that the Workstation Domain conforms to Policy

answer

True

question

True or False: The most critical aspect of a WAN services contract is how the service provider supplies troubleshooting, network management, and security management services

answer

True

question

?True or False: Networks, routers, and equipment require continuous monitoring and management to keep WAN service available

answer

True

question

Which element of the security policy framework requires approval from upper management and applies to the entire organization?

answer

Policy

question

Which element of the IT security policy framework provides detailed written definitions for hardware and software and how they are to be used?

answer

Standard

question

Rachel is investigating an information security incident that took place at the high school where she works. She suspects that students may have broken into the student records system and altered their grades. If correct, which one of the tenets of information security did this attack violate?

answer

Integrity

question

True or False: The system/application domain holds all the mission critical systems, applications, and data.

answer

True

question

True or False: Each 4g device has a unique Internet Protocol (IP) address and appears just like any other wired device on a network.

answer

True

question

True or False: One of the first industries to adopt and widely use mobile applications was the healthcare industry

answer

True

question

Which type of denial of service attack exploits the existence of software flaws to disrupt a service?

answer

Logic attack

question

? Bob is using a port scanner to identify open ports on a server in his environment. He is scanning a web server that uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Which port should Bob expect to be open to support this service?

answer

443

question

Users throughout Alison's organization have been receiving unwanted commercial messages over the organization's instant messaging program. What type of attack is taking place?

answer

Spim

question

True or False: A rootkit uses a directed broadcast to create a flood of network traffic for the victim computer.

answer

False

question

True or False: Cryptography is the process of transforming data from cleartext into ciphertext

answer

False: Encryption

question

Which risk is most effectively mitigated by an upstream Internet Service Provider (ISP)?

answer

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

question

True or False: Organizations should start defining their IT security policy framework by defining as asset classification policy

answer

True

question

True or False: Encrypting the data within databases and storage devices gives an added layer of security

answer

True

question

True or False: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the communications protocol between web browsers and websites with data in cleartext.

answer

True

question

? Which network device is capable of blocking network connections that are identified as potentially malicious?

answer

Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

question

True or False: Authorization is the process of granting rights to use an organization's IT assets, systems, applications, and data to a specific user.

answer

True

question

True or False: In the Remote Access Domain, if private data or confidential data is compromised remotely, you should set automatic blocking for attempted logon retries.

answer

False: Apply first level and second level tokens and biometrics

question

Which element of the security policy framework offers suggestions rather than mandatory actions?

answer

Guideline

question

?True or False: A VPN router is a security appliance that is used to filter IP packets

answer

False

question

Which of the following is NOT an area of critical infrastructure where the Internet of Things (IOT) is likely to spur economic development in less developed countries? a) Water Supply management b) Agriculture c) Wastewater Treatment d) E-commerce

answer

d) e-commerce

question

True or False: Bricks-and-mortar stores are completely obsolete now.

answer

False: They have global reach

question

True or False: Devices that combine the capabilities of mobile phones and personal digital assistants (PDAs) are commonly called smartphones

answer

True

question

True or False: E-commerce systems and applications demand strict confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) security controls.

answer

True

question

Jody would like to find a solution that allows real-time document sharing and editing between teams. Which technology would best suit her needs?

answer

Collaboration

question

In Mobile IP, what term describes a device that would like to communicate with a mobile node (MN)?

answer

Correspondent node

question

True or False: A bricks-and-mortar strategy includes marketing and selling goods and services on the Internet

answer

false: e-commerce

question

? True or False: IoT devices cannot share and communicate you IoT device data to other systems and applications without your authorization or knowledge

answer

True

question

Which act governs the use of Internet of Things (IoT) by healthcare providers, such as physicians and hospitals?

answer

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

question

Which term describes an action that can damage or compromise an asset?

answer

Threat

question

True or False: The anti-malware utility is one of the most popular backdoor tools in use today

answer

False: Netcat

question

Which password attack is typically used specifically against password files that contain cryptographic hashes?

answer

Birthday attacks

question

What type of malicious software masquerades as legitimate software to entice the user to run it?

answer

Trojan Horse

question

Maria's company recently experienced a major system outage due to the failure of a critical component. During that time period, the company did not register any sales through it's online site. Which type of loss did the company experience as a result of lost sales?

answer

opportunity cost

question

Bob is using a port scanner to identify open ports on a server in his environment. He is scanning a web server that uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Which port should Bob expect to be open to support the service?

answer

question

True or False: A phishing attack "poisons" a domain name on a domain name server.

answer

False: Pharming

question

Florian recently purchased a set of domain names that are similar to those of legitimate websites and used the newly purchased sites to host malware. Which type of attack is Florian using?

answer

Typosquatting

question

True or False: Vishing is a type of wireless network attack

answer

False: Social Engineering attacks

question

True or False: A birthday attack is a type of cryptographic attack that is used to make brute-force attack of one-way hashes easier.

answer

True

question

True or False: A phishing email is a fake or bogus email intended to trick the recipient into clicking on an embedded URL link or opening an email attachment.

answer

True

question

True or False: Using a secure logon and authentication process is one of the six steps to prevent malware.

answer

True

question

True or False: Failing to prevent an attack all but invites an attack

answer

True

question

Which formula is typically used to describe the components of information security?

answer

Risk = Threat X Vulnerabilities

question

Holly would like to run an annual major disaster recovery test that is as thorough and realistic as possible. She also wants to ensure that there is no disruption of activity at the primary site. What option is best in this scenario?

answer

Simulation Test

question

?Tom is the IT manager for an organization that experienced a server failure that affected a single business function. What type of plan should guide the organization's recovery effort?

answer

question

True or False: The term risk management describes the process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and addressing risks.

answer

True

question

True or False: The tools for conducting a risk analysis can include the documents that define, categorize, and rank risks.

answer

True

question

True or False: A security policy is a comparison of the security controls you have in place and the controls you need in order to address all identified threats.

answer

False: Gap analysis

question

What is the first step in a disaster recovery effort?

answer

Ensure that everyone is safe

question

True or False: The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum amount of data loss that is acceptable.

answer

True

question

True or False: The Government Information Security Reform Act of 2000 focuses on management and evaluation of the security of unclassified and national security systems.

answer

True

question

What compliance regulation applies specifically to the educational records maintained by schools about students?

answer

Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)

question

The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA) restricts the collection of information online from children. What is the cutoff age for COPPA regulation?

answer

question

Earl is preparing a risk register for his organization's risk management program. Which data is LEAST likely to be included in a risk register?

answer

Risk Survey results

question

True or False: User-based permission levels limit a person to executing certain functions and often enforces mutual exclusivity

answer

False: Task-based

question

True or False: A Chinese wall security policy defines a barrier and develops a set of rules that makes sure no subject gets to objects on the other side of the wall

answer

True

question

Gary would like to choose an access control model in which the owner of a resource decides who may modify permissions on that resource. Which model fits that scenario?

answer

Rule-based access control

question

Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? a) personal identification number (PIN) and password b) token and smart card c) password and security questions d) smart card and personal identification number (PIN)

answer

question

Which of the following is an example of a hardware security control? a) Security Policy b) NTFS permission c) MAC filtering d) ID badge

answer

question

True or False: Content-dependent access control requires the access control mechanism to look at the data to decide who should get to see it

answer

True

question

True or False: Voice patter biometrics are accurate for authentication because voices can't easily be replicated by computer software

answer

False: easy to replicate

question

True or False: You should use easy-to-remember personal information to create secure passwords

answer

False

question

True or False: A trusted operating system (TOS) provides features that satisfy specific government requirements for security.

answer

True

STUDY

Algorithms Brute Force Attack Computer Security and Reliability Network Security

3.3 – Flashcard 25 terms

Steven Colyer

25 terms

Preview

3.3 – Flashcard

question

What type of key or keys are used in symmetric cryptography? A single key pair A unique key for each participant Two unique sets of key pairs A shared private key

answer

A shared private key

question

______________ cryptography uses a unique key pair for each participant. This key pair consists of a public key and a private key.

answer

Asymmetric

question

How many keys are used with symmetric key cryptography? One Two Four Five

answer

one

question

Which of the following is not true concerning symmetric key cryptography? Each pair of communicating entities requires a unique shared key. Before communications begin, both parties must exchange the shared secret key. The key is not shared with other communication partners. Key management is easy when implemented on a large scale. Both parties share the same key (which is kept secret).

answer

Key management is easy when implemented on a large scale.

question

Which of the following can be classified as a "stream cipher"? Twofish Blowfish AES RC4

answer

RC4

question

Blowfish, Twofish, and AES are all _______ ciphers.

answer

block

question

You want to encrypt data on a removable storage device. Which encryption method would you choose to use the strongest method possible? AES 3DES SHA1 RSA

answer

AES

question

SHA1 is a _______algorithm, not an encryption algorithm

answer

hashing

question

Which of the following algorithms are used in symmetric encryption? (Select three.) ElGamal Blowfish DiffieHellman 3DES AES

answer

Blowfish 3DES AES

question

Which of the following are true of Triple DES (3DES)? (Select two.) Is used in IPSec Can easily be broken Uses a 168bit key Uses the Rijndael block cipher Uses 64bit blocks with 128bit keys

answer

Is used in IPSec Uses a 168bit key

question

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) uses the_______ ___________ cipher

answer

Rijndael block

question

Which of the following are true concerning the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) symmetric block cipher? (Select two.) AES uses a variablelength block and key length (128, 192, or 256bit keys). AES uses the Rijndael block cipher. AES uses up to 16 rounds of substitution and transposition. AES uses 8'128 bit keys in steps of 8 bits.

answer

AES uses a variablelength block and key length (128, 192, or 256bit keys). AES uses the Rijndael block cipher.

question

Which of the following symmetric block ciphers does not use a variable block length? International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) Elliptic Curve (EC) Ron's Cipher v5 (RC5)

answer

International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)

question

Which of the following encryption mechanisms offers the least security because of weak keys? TwoFish AES DES IDEA

answer

DES (AES (128, 192, 256 bit keys), TwoFish (up to 256 bit keys), and IDEA (128 bit keys) all support stronger keys than that of DES. )

question

Which version of the Rivest Cipher is a block cipher that supports variable bit length keys and variable bit block sizes? RSA RC4 RC5 RC2

answer

RC5

question

He used 32 bit blocks, a 64 bit key, and he only used the selected key once. He moved the key onto a USB hard drive which was stored in a safety deposit box. Bob's notebook was stolen. Within a few days Bob discovered the contents of his encrypted file on the Internet. What is the primary reason why Bob's file was opened so quickly? Too small of a block size A birthday attack was used Weak key The decryption key was used to decrypt the files

answer

Weak key

question

You are concerned about the strength of your cryptographic keys, so you implement a system that does the following: The initial key is fed into the input of the bcrypt utility on a Linux workstation. The bcrypt utility produces an enhanced key that is 128 bits long. The resulting enhanced key is much more difficult to crack than the original key. Which kind of encryption mechanism was used in this scenario? Ephemeral keys Perfect forward secrecy Key stretching DHE Explanation

answer

Key stretching

question

Which of the following is considered an outofband distribution method for privatekey encryption? Copying the key to a USB drive Using a key distribution algorithm Sending a secured email Using a private fiber network

answer

Copying the key to a USB drive

question

_________ distribution involves manually distributing the key, such as copying the key to a USB drive and sending it to the other party.

answer

Outofband

question

_______ distribution can use a key distribution algorithm, such as DiffieHellman, to send the key to the recipient. It can also use asymmetric encryption technology to encrypt the key for distribution.

answer

In-band

question

Match the symmetric key distribution mechanism on the left with the appropriate description on the right. Each distribution mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. The sender's key is sent to a recipient using a DiffieHellman key exchange. The sender's key is copied to a USB drive and handed to the recipient. The sender's key is sent to the recipient using publickey cryptography. The sender's key is burned to a CD and handed to the recipient.

answer

Inband distribution Outofband distribution Inband distribution Outofband distribution

question

some of the more commonly used hashing algorithms include SHA-1, MD5 and RIPEMD usually the-_____bit version

answer

160

question

Symmetric encryption is well suited for_______encryption of less sensitive data because it is less CPU-intensive than other encryption methods.

answer

bulk

question

common symmetric cyptography methods include-

answer

block rc 2, rc5 idea des 3des aes blowfish twofish stream rc4

question

_______________________embeds a symmetric key into a message before the message is hashed. When the message is received, the recipient's symmetric key is added back into the message before hashing the message.

answer

Keyed-hash Message Authentication Code (HMAC)

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Computers And The Internet National Science Foundation

csc 105 chapter 1 – Flashcards 104 terms

William Hopper

104 terms

Preview

csc 105 chapter 1 – Flashcards

question

information age

answer

a period in history when information is easy to access and affects many aspects of everyday life

question

digital revolution

answer

ongoing process of social, political, and economic change brought about by digital technology, such as computers and the Internet

question

data processing

answer

input-processing-output

question

personal computing

answer

small, standalone computers powered by local software

question

local software

answer

any software that is installed on a computer's hard drive

question

computer network

answer

group of computers linked together to share data and resources

question

internet

answer

global computer network originally developed as a military project, and was then handed over to the National Science Foundation for research and academic use

question

world wide web

answer

a collection of linked documents, graphics, and sounds that can be accessed over the Internet

question

cloud computing

answer

provides access to information, applications, communications, and storage over the Internet

question

convergence

answer

several technologies with distinct functionalities evolve to form a single product

question

social media

answer

cloud-based applications designed for social interaction and consumer-generated content

question

anonymizer tools

answer

Software and/or hardware that cloaks the origin of an e-mail or a Web page request

question

intellectual property

answer

the ownership of certain types of information, ideas, or representations

question

pirating

answer

illegal copying and distribution of copyrighted material

question

open source

answer

projects that promote copying, free distribution, peer review, and user modification

question

globalization

answer

worldwide economic interdependence of countries that occurs as cross-border commerce increases and as money flows more freely among countries

question

digital divide

answer

the gap between people who have access to technology and those who do not

question

computer

answer

multipurpose device that accepts input, processes data, stores data, and produces output, all according to a series of stored instructions

question

input

answer

whatever is typed, submitted, or transmitted to a computer system. Input can be supplied by a person, by the environment, or by another computer

question

output

answer

the result produced by a computer

question

data

answer

the symbols that represent facts, objects, and ideas

question

processing

answer

the many ways in which computers manipulate data ex: preforming calculations, modifying documents

question

central processing unit

answer

where most processing takes place

question

microprocessor

answer

electronic component that can be programmed to perform tasks based on data is receives, the central processing unit of most modern computers

question

memory

answer

an area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed, stored, or output

question

storage

answer

the area where data can be left on a permanent basis when it is not immediately needed for processing

question

file

answer

a named collection of data that exists on a storage medium, such as a hard disk, CD, DVD, or flash drive

question

computer program

answer

The series of instructions that tells a computer how to carry out processing tasks

question

software

answer

sets up a computer to do a specific task

question

stored program

answer

a series of instructions for a computing task can be loaded into a computer's memory

question

application software

answer

set of computer programs that helps a person carry out a task

question

system software

answer

help the computer system monitor itself in order to function efficiently

question

computer operating system

answer

the master controller for all the activities that take place within a computer

question

personal computer

answer

microprocessor-based computing device designed to meet the computing needs of an individual

question

are handheld devices personal computers?

answer

ONLY if they allow users to install software applications (apps)

question

workstations

answer

powerful desktop computers used for high-performance tasks, such as medical imaging and computer-aided design, that require a lot of processing speed

question

servers

answer

serve computers on a network (such as the Internet or a home network) by supplying them with data

question

client

answer

Any software or digital device, such as a computer, that requests data from a server

question

download

answer

process of copying a file from a server to your own client computer

question

upload

answer

the process of copying files from your client computer to a server

question

mainframe computer

answer

large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously processing data for hundreds or thousands of users

question

supercomputer

answer

if at the time of construction, it is one of the fastest computers in the world

question

computer intensive problem

answer

requires massive amounts of data to be processed using complex mathematical calculations

question

microcontrollers

answer

special-purpose microprocessor that is built into the machine it controls

question

data representation

answer

the form in which data is stored, processed, and transmitted

question

are microcontrollers computers?

answer

they are processors, not computers

question

digital data

answer

text, numbers, graphics, sound, and video that have been converted into discrete digits such as 0s and 1s

question

analog data

answer

represented using an infinite scale of values.

question

bit

answer

a 0 or 1 used in the digital representation of data

question

numeric data

answer

consists of numbers that can be used in arithmetic operations

question

character data

answer

composed of letters, symbols, and numerals that are not used in arithmetic operations

question

ASCII

answer

requires only seven bits for each character

question

extended ASCII

answer

uses eight bits to represent each character

question

byte

answer

group of eight bits

question

integrated circuit

answer

a super-thin slice of semiconducting material packed with microscopic circuit elements, such as wires, transistors, capacitors, logic gates, and resistors

question

semiconducting materials

answer

substances with properties between those of a conductor (like copper) and an insulator (like wood)

question

system board

answer

houses all essential chips and provides connecting circuitry between them

question

source code

answer

The human-readable version of a program created in a high-level language by a programmer

question

compiler

answer

converts all the statements in a program in a single batch, and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file (Figure 1-34)

question

object code

answer

resulting instructions after compiler converts statements into single batch

question

interpreter

answer

converts and executes one statement at a time while the program is running

question

instruction set

answer

collection of preprogrammed activities in microprocessor

question

machine language

answer

list of codes for a microprocessor's instruction set

question

machine code

answer

set of machine language instructions for a program

question

op code

answer

command word for an operation such as add, compare, or jump

question

operand

answer

specifies the data, or the address of the data, for the operation

question

registers

answer

hold data that is being processed

question

ALU

answer

performs arithmetic operations, such as addition and subtractionand logical operations, such as comparing two numbers to see if they are the same

question

control unit

answer

fetches each instruction

question

authentication protocol

answer

any method that confirms a person's identity using something the person knows, something the person possesses, or something the person is

question

biometrics

answer

fingerprint, facial features (photo), or a retinal pattern

question

user id

answer

series of characters—letters and possibly numbers or special symbols—that becomes a person's unique identifier, similar to a Social Security number... it is PUBLIC

question

dictionary attack

answer

helps hackers guess your password by stepping through a dictionary containing thousands of the most commonly used passwords

question

brute force attack

answer

exhausts all possible combinations of letters to decrypt a password

question

sniffing

answer

intercepts information sent out over computer networks

question

phishing

answer

hacker poses as a legitimate representative of an official organization such as your ISP, your bank, or an online payment service in order to persuade you to disclose highly confidential information

question

keylogger

answer

software that secretly records a user's keystrokes and sends the information to a hacker

question

password manager

answer

stores user IDs with their corresponding passwords and automatically fills in login forms

question

____ is the process of converting text, numbers, sound, photos, and video into data that can be processed by digital devices.

answer

digitization

question

____ media are cloud-based applications designed for social interaction and consumer-generated content.

answer

social

question

____ software refers to any software that is installed on a computer's hard disk.

answer

local

question

____ tools cloak a person's identity online.

answer

anonymizer

question

1,024 bytes is a ____.

answer

kilobyte

question

1,048,576 bytes is a ____.

answer

megabyte

question

A ____ is a series of characters that becomes a person's unique identifier.

answer

user ID

question

A group of computers linked together to share data and resources is a(n) ____.

answer

network

question

A named collection of data that exists on a storage medium is known as (a) ____.

answer

file

question

A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently is ____.

answer

system software

question

A set of computer programs that helps a person carry out a task is ____.

answer

application software

question

A super-thin slice of semiconducting material packed with microscopic circuit elements is a(n) ____.

answer

integrated circuit

question

A(n) ____ converts and executes one statement at a time.

answer

interpreter

question

According to the text, a key aspect of ____ is that it adds content and substance to ____.

answer

the internet, the web

question

Data becomes ____ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.

answer

information

question

During the period from ____, computing was characterized by the Web, e-mail, multiplayer games, music downloads, and enormous software applications.

answer

1995-2010

question

In 1982, the percentage of households that had a computer was closest to ____ percent.

answer

question

Initially sales were slow for the personal computer because of ____.

answer

lack of software

question

Password management functions include all of the following EXCEPT ____.

answer

recording keystrokes

question

Storage is typically expressed as ____.

answer

bytes

question

Technology ____ is a process by which several different technologies with distinct functionality evolve to form a single product.

answer

convergence

question

The ____ phase of the digital revolution materialized in the 1990s when the Internet was opened to public use.

answer

third

question

The binary number 10 represents ____ in the decimal number system.

answer

question

The first digital computers were built during World War II for ____.

answer

code breaking

question

The type of code that uses eight bits for each character is ____.

answer

extended ASCII

question

When restrictions on commercial use of the ____ were lifted in 1995, companies such as AOL and CompuServe became popular services.

answer

internet

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Plug And Play Search The Internet

IBM Test – Flashcard 94 terms

Tony Foust

94 terms

Preview

IBM Test – Flashcard

question

A task has been developed which upgrades the corporate VPN client to the latest version. The administrator is required to Take Action on this task while giving end users the option of whether or not they would like to install this version. How is this accomplished? A. Offer tab of the Take Action dialog B. Messages tab of the Take Action dialog C. Pre-Action tab of the Take Action dialog D. Notification tab of the Take Action dialog

answer

B. Messages tab of the Take Action dialog

question

An operator would like to take an action on all endpoints connected to a specific relay. Which targeting mechanism should an operator select in order to efficiently target systems by relay? A. target by analysis B. enter device names C. dynamically target by property D. select endpoints from the computer list

answer

C. dynamically target by property

question

Patch Management for AIX has various methods for obtaining updated files. Which native AIX method can IBM Endpoint Manager integrate with? A. AIX Download plug-in B. AIX Download Cacher C. Yellowdog Update Manager (YUM) D. Network Installation Management (NIM)

answer

D. Network Installation Management (NIM)

question

How is a manual group defined? A. A Fixlet group that is created by an operator. B. A computer group whose members are static. C. A Fixlet group that can only contain Windows patches. D. A computer group that can only be used to deploy Windows patches.

answer

B. A computer group whose members are static.

question

A non-master operator has rights to create custom content and to access all the sites in the deployment. She creates a baseline to deploy a variety of software packages to newly imaged workstations. This baseline becomes relevant when a custom client setting is new_workstation = true. She tests the baseline on two freshly imaged machines that have the custom client setting and everything works fine. She tells her team the baseline is ready to go. but members of her team report they cannot use the baseline. The master operator can see the baseline but cannot deploy it. What is wrong? A. Baselines are not used for software deployment. B. Custom client setting are IBM Endpoint Manager user-specific. C. She forgot to publish the baseline in a custom site where it can be shared. D. Only the person with custom content rights can deploy the content they create.

answer

B. Custom client setting are IBM Endpoint Manager user-specific.

question

When viewing the list of Fixlets and tasks, some are black and others are gray. What does this mean? A. The black entries are required to be deployed to at least one computer, and the gray entries are optional. B. The gray entries are required to be deployed to at least one computer, and the black entries are optional. C. The gray entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the black entries are not relevant to any computers. D. The black entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the gray entries are not relevant to any computers.

answer

D. The black entries are relevant to at least one computer, and the gray entries are not relevant to any computers.

question

Which two statements best describes a retrieved property in IBM Endpoint Manager? A. A valid property must contain string results. B. A property consists of a definition and a result. C. A property must reside in a non-master operator site. D. A valid property must contain four or more different data formats at the same time. E. A property is a system or configuration attribute reported by the client to the server.

answer

A. A valid property must contain string results. E. A property is a system or configuration attribute reported by the client to the server.

question

How is a default action turned into a policy within the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog? A. remove all constraints B. configure and enable all constraints C. check the On failure, retry check box D. the action name must be prefixed with Policy:

answer

C. check the On failure, retry check box

question

While checking the state from a recently deployed action, a user notices that it is showing as 100% complete but still in an Open state why? A. The action will remain open until closed. B. The ends on value of the action has not been reached. C. The action will remain open until closed by a master operator. D. The last reporting client of the action has not sent the Close action command yet.

answer

B. The ends on value of the action has not been reached.

question

While testing some custom content a user wants to restart the client on their Windows system to force the client to sync up. Which service should they restart? A. BES Client B. BES Agent C. BES Plug-in D. BES Endpoint

answer

A. BES Client

question

Which content domain contains prototype and experimental content to be used at the user's own risk? A. BigFixLabs B. Systems Lifecycle C. Endpoint Protection D. Security Configuration

answer

A. BigFixLabs

question

An operator has a number of systems that report to the same relay that are no longer reporting to the IBM Endpoint Manager server. Which service should be checked on the relay to ensure that the relay is running? A. BES Client B. BES Relay C. BES Gather D. BES Root Server

answer

A. BES Client

question

A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints that she currently manages. Several of these machines are reporting Postponed in their Last Reported Status of the action. What does this mean? A. The endpoint was restarted during action execution. B. The action was sent while the client was gathering content. C. The action was deferred by the end user of the target machine. D. The clients received a command with higher priority which delayed the user's action.

answer

C. The action was deferred by the end user of the target machine.

question

Which console location allows a search for all Fixlets and tasks containing the name Upgrade? A. List Panel B. Domain Panel C. Console Toolbar D. Work Area Toolbar

answer

A. List Panel

question

An operator in the Testing group has temporarily locked a managed computer so that it will not be affected by ongoing testing. She is now ready to unlock the computer and finds the computer in the Computers node of the All Content domain. How would she unlock the computer? A. Right-click the computer and select Unlock Computer from the Context menu. B. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and change the value of the _BESCIient_LockingStatus setting to 0. C. Select the computer in the computer list to display the details in the work area and then click the Unlock button in the work area. D. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and clear the check box beside the Locked option in the Edit Computer Settings dialog.

answer

D. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and clear the check box beside the Locked option in the Edit Computer Settings dialog.

question

A retrieved property is configured to return data on every report. How often will each relevant endpoint return results for the property? A. every hour B. every heartbeat C. whenever the client is restarted D. whenever the value changes on the endpoint

answer

D. whenever the value changes on the endpoint

question

Which statement is true regarding a Fixlet? A. A Fixlet is a template that does not have success criteria. B. A Fixlet is a template that contains the binaries for patching an endpoint. C. A Fixlet is a template containing only an action script that can make a change to an endpoint or its client settings. D. A Fixlet is a template containing applicability relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as installing a patch.

answer

D. A Fixlet is a template containing applicability relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as installing a patch.

question

How can a non-master operator view all the results in the IBM Endpoint Manager console for an analysis that was globally activated? A. All Content domain > Analyses node, select the analysis in the list pane, and select the results tab in the work area. B. Analyses domain > All Content node, select the content in the list pane, and select the computers tab in the work area. C. All Content domain > Computers node, select each computer individually, and view the Summary tab for each computer. D. BigFix Management domain > Computers node, select each computer individually, and view the Summary tab for each computer.

answer

A. All Content domain > Analyses node, select the analysis in the list pane, and select the results tab in the work area.

question

How is an automatic group defined? A. A computer group whose members are set by membership relevance. B. A computer group that can only be defined by IBM and is in an external site. C. A computer group that contains actions for all IBM Endpoint Manager computers. D. A computer group that is automatically generated when using the Windows Patch wizard.

answer

A. A computer group whose members are set by membership relevance.

question

What is an action state for a Fixlet and not a task? A. Fixed B. Waiting C. Not Relevant D. Pending Download

answer

A. Fixed

question

When adding a Fixlet or task to a baseline, which option is used automatically as the action? A. Action 1 B. Quick Action C. Default Action D. No action is used automatically.

answer

C. Default Action

question

An analysis has no visible Results tab in the workspace. What action would make the results tab visible? A. Activate the analysis. B. Deactivate the analysis. C. Subscribe the analysis to the All Content site. D. Change the analysis applicability relevance to True.

answer

A. Activate the analysis.

question

What does an earlier deployed action with a current state of Open indicate? A. The action has been opened by the client running on the target endpoints. B. The action is still running on relevant machines. It remains open until the completion state is 100%. C. The action is currently being edited by another operator and will remain open until the action has been saved. D. The action is active and will run on any endpoint that is relevant. It remains open until its expiration date elapses, or an operator stops it.

answer

D. The action is active and will run on any endpoint that is relevant. It remains open until its expiration date elapses, or an operator stops it.

question

How can the Change Management group determine how many Windows 7 systems will be updated at each site for a particular patch? A. From the Patch Vulnerability Dashboard, select the desired patch, then filter with the By OS then By Relay. B. Select the patch, use the Applicable Computers tab with the Retrieved Properties, and group By OS then By Relay. C. From the Computers list view, use the Search filter to find all Windows 7 systems, then use the Applicable Fixlets and Tasks, and use the Retrieved Properties to filter By Relay. D. From the IBM Endpoint Manager Infrastructure domain, use the Sites and Locations dashboard, drill down to the specific site to list all relevant Fixlets and tasks, and select the particular patch.`

answer

B. Select the patch, use the Applicable Computers tab with the Retrieved Properties, and group By OS then By Relay.

question

A Windows baseline containing 100 updates to 1000 computers was just deployed. After one day many of the targeted computers are reporting their status as Pending Restart. What does this message indicate? A. The system was locked when the action was deployed. B. The user rebooted the system while the baseline was executing. C. System administrators need to log in to each system and reboot it. D. At least one of the updates deployed in the baseline requires a reboot.

answer

D. At least one of the updates deployed in the baseline requires a reboot.

question

Which three attributes are required in order to define an analysis property? A. Update Size B. Property Type C. Property Name D. Property Author E. Report Frequency F. Property Definition

answer

C. Property Name E. Report Frequency F. Property Definition

question

For Linux installations of the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) server, management of the infrastructure is performed through which component(s)? A. IEM console for iOS or Android B. IEM console on a Linux platform C. IEM console on a Windows platform D. IEM console on Windows and Linux platforms

answer

C. IEM console on a Windows platform

question

A single endpoint is returning for an analysis property. 425 other endpoints returned a numeric result for the same analysis property. The computer returning for this property is returning meaningful results for other analyses. What may be the cause of the error result on one computer? A. The endpoint is offline and shows as gray in the console. B. The relevance did not have an error handling mechanism for the computer. C. The endpoint has not received the analysis content and has not yet returned a result. D. The endpoint returned a result of 0 which could not be interpreted by the IBM Endpoint Manager server.

answer

B. The relevance did not have an error handling mechanism for the computer.

question

A user has 10 new Windows server computers that she wants to add to the existing Windows servers manual computer group. How can she add the new servers to this group? A. Tools > Add Computers to Manual Computer Group B. select all of the new Windows Server computers, right-click, and select View as Group C. view the Windows Servers computer group and click the button Add Computers to Group D. select all of the new Windows Server computers, right-click, and select Add To Manual Group

answer

D. select all of the new Windows Server computers, right-click, and select Add To Manual Group

question

Which content domain contains content related to Antivirus. DLP. Device Management, and Self Network Quarantine? A. Systems Lifecycle B. Endpoint Protection C. Security Configuration D. Mobile Device Management

answer

B. Endpoint Protection

question

This error message is displayed in the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console: Class NoSuchActionlD. and prompts to exit without saving or to ignore. Which action should be taken? A. Exit without saving: then reboot the computer. B. Ignore; continue working as this is a minor warning. C. Exit without saving; then uninstall and reinstall the IEM console. D. Ignore; use the Clear Cache button in the File > Preferences dialog then restart the IEM console.

answer

D. Ignore; use the Clear Cache button in the File > Preferences dialog then restart the IEM console.

question

Targets have reported a failed status for an action. How can the Action ID be obtained so it can be used while searching the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) client logs? A. Right-click the action in the IEM console and select Show Action ID. B. On the target endpoint. look for the most recent Action file within the BES client directory. C. In the IEM console, click on the Summary tab of the deployed action and view the Details section. D. In the Details tab for the Fixlet/Task locate the Fixlet/Task ID. The Action ID is the same as the FixletfTasklD.

answer

C. In the IEM console, click on the Summary tab of the deployed action and view the Details section.

question

A software installation task has been developed which requires the target endpoint to be restarted upon action completion. The administrator is required to notify the end users of the pending reboot and provide the opportunity to delay the reboot for four hours. Which Take Action tab accomplishes this? A. Offer B. Execution C. Messages D. Post Action

answer

D. Post Action

question

A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints that she currently manages. All of these machines are reporting Locked in their Last Reported Status of the action. What does this mean? A. No one is currently logged into the computer B. The action constraints have been locked by another operator. C. The endpoint manager client is locked and cannot run the action. D. The user no longer has the right to manage this group of machines

answer

C. The endpoint manager client is locked and cannot run the action.

question

An operator has an existing baseline that she needs to modify, and she has rights to create custom content. In the baseline she wants to modify, a number of updates have been superseded. How does she remove them? A. Rights to create custom content do not provide the rights to modify custom content. B. Select the baseline to update, right-click on it. select Edit and click the Remove Superseded Fixlet button. C. Select the baseline to update, right-click on it. select Edit, and remove the updates in question by clicking on the red X. D. Contact the master operator because they are the only console operators with the correct privileges to perform this task.

answer

C. Select the baseline to update, right-click on it. select Edit, and remove the updates in question by clicking on the red X.

question

The Audit group has requested a summary report of all critical patches for Windows systems in the environment. Which feature is available in the IBM Endpoint Manager console to provide this information from the Patches for Windows site? A. Patch Overview Dashboard in the Patch Management domain and filter on the Patches for Windows. B. List OS Patches Dashboard in the Patch Compliance domain and filter on the Patches for Windows. C. List Critical Patches Dashboard in the Patch Management domain and filter on the Patches for Windows. D. Critical Vulnerabilities Dashboard in the Patch Compliance domain and filter on the Patches for Windows.

answer

A. Patch Overview Dashboard in the Patch Management domain and filter on the Patches for Windows.

question

When does a Fixlet become applicable to a computer? A. When all relevance statements for the Fixlet are true. (Not true for 9.2) B. When all relevance statements for the Fixlet are false. C. When at least one relevance statement for the Fixlet is true. D. When the computer is subscribed to the site that contains the Fixlet.

answer

A. When all relevance statements for the Fixlet are true. (Not true for 9.2)

question

How can an existing computer group be deleted? A. Tools > Remove Computer Group B. drag the computer group to the Trash C. Right-click on the existing computer group and select Remove D. Computers > By Group, right click on the existing computer group and select Remove

answer

C. Right-click on the existing computer group and select Remove

question

Which statement describes analysis applicability relevance? A. Relevance that generates a list of Fixlet results. B. Relevance that casts the results of each analysis property as a specific data type. C. Relevance that determines which endpoints will be subscribed to the analysis site. D. Relevance that determines which endpoints are eligible to return results for the analysis.

answer

D. Relevance that determines which endpoints are eligible to return results for the analysis.

question

Which Windows system folder are the client logs located in below the BESCIient folder? A. BESLogs B. _BESDataactionsite C. __GlobalactionsiteLogs D. _BESData_GlobalLogs

answer

D. _BESData_GlobalLogs

question

A simple script requires a one-time deployment against an operator's managed endpoints. Without creating a Fixlet or task, how would the operator take action in the IBM Endpoint Manager console? A. click Tools > Single Action B. Click Tools > Take Custom Action C. double-click an action taken previously and edit the Action Script D. right-click on the computers being targeted and select Take Action

answer

B. Click Tools > Take Custom Action

question

Besides Internet Explorer on the Windows platform, what is two other third party browsers supported within Updates for Windows Applications? A. Safari D B. Opera C. Netscape D. Mozilla Firefox E. Google Chrome

answer

B. Opera D. Mozilla Firefox

question

After taking action on a Fixlet to a target group of servers that all report to the same relay, an operator notices that one of the servers is grayed out in the IBM Endpoint Manager console and has not reported in over eight hours. After receiving a ping response from that server, what should be verified next? A. The FillDB service is running on the endpoint. B. The BES client service is running on the endpoint. C. The BES gather service on the endpoint is running. D. The client heartbeat setting has been disabled on the endpoint.

answer

B. The BES client service is running on the endpoint.

question

A non-master operator has permission to create content in a custom site called Patch Remediation. In which two sites can the operator create a new analysis? A. All Content site B. BES Support site C. Master Action site D. Patch Remediation site E. Non-master Operator's site

answer

B. BES Support site D. Patch Remediation site

question

A new Windows computer is added to the environment but it is not being displayed in the IBM Endpoint Manager console. What can be done to see this new computer in the console? A. Wait for the Refresh Computers Interval to be reached (default 15 minutes). B. Remotely connect to the new system and restart the BESAgent - Notification service. C. Click the Refresh Console button to reload the local cache from the BESEnterprise database. D. Run the BES console - Refresh BES clients task against the system requiring the data to be synchronized.

answer

C. Click the Refresh Console button to reload the local cache from the BESEnterprise database.

question

An administrator is required to Take Action from a custom Fixlet which is not showing any relevant machines. After inspecting the Fixlet the administrator has discovered that the group of endpoints that he manages were excluded in the Fixlet relevance statement. What can be done to bypass this? A. Take Action Execution tab. select ...ignore action relevance and force execution. B. Take Action Target tab. click on Enter Device Names, and type in the names of the target endpoints. C. Take Action Target tab. click on Dynamically Target by Property, choose Computer Groups, and select the group under management. D. Take Action Applicability tab, select ...the following relevance clause evaluates true, and alter the existing relevance to include the group of managed machines.

answer

D. Take Action Applicability tab, select ...the following relevance clause evaluates true, and alter the existing relevance to include the group of managed machines.

question

When Send Refresh is sent to a computer (or group of computers) using the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console, how does the endpoint respond? A. The client evaluates new content and sends applicability responses back to the IEM server. B. The client sends a heartbeat back to the IEM server and returns the results of all client settings and properties. C. The client on the endpoint immediately resets its evaluation cycle and begins evaluating content in the evaluation cycle again. D. The client sends a heartbeat to the IEM server. It then sends the results of any cached information to the IEM server. The client then flushes any cached information and begins evaluating all content.

answer

D. The client sends a heartbeat to the IEM server. It then sends the results of any cached information to the IEM server. The client then flushes any cached information and begins evaluating all content.

question

Which console location allows a search for all actions containing the name Upgrade? A. List Panel B. Domain Panel C. Console Toolbar D. Work Area Toolbar

answer

A. List Panel

question

Which option in the Tools menu creates a computer group with dynamic membership? A. Create New Static Computer Group B. Create New Manual Computer Group C. Create New Dynamic Computer Group D. Create New Automatic Computer Group

answer

D. Create New Automatic Computer Group

question

Which frequency period would potentially return the most number of results per endpoint? A. Every report B. Once per day C. Every four hours D. Every other hour

answer

B. Once per day

question

From the Target tab on the Take Action dialog, how would a console user target a group of machines belonging to a specific OU in Active Directory? A. Select Enter OU Names and type the names in the active directory dialog box. B. Select Active Directory Membership and choose the OU from the navigation list. C. Select LDAP Membership, chooses By Active Directory, and chooses the OU from the navigation list D. Select Dynamically Target by Property, choose By Active Directory, and choose the OU from the navigation list.

answer

D. Select Dynamically Target by Property, choose By Active Directory, and choose the OU from the navigation list.

question

A computer has not reported in for over an hour and is grayed out in the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console. Which option in the IEM console forces the client to report back in assuming the operator has no remote access to the endpoint? A. Send Refresh B. Send Client Reset C. Clear Console Cache D. Restart the Client Service

answer

A. Send Refresh

question

Which option is best suited for applying an operating system patch with the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console? A. Run a wizard B. Take action on a task C. Take action on a Fixlet D. Run the IEM Configuration dashboard

answer

C. Take action on a Fixlet

question

Which right-click option allows an IBM Endpoint Manager user to immediately deploy a Fixlet or task? A. Deploy B. Take Default Action C. Add to Existing Baseline D. Add to New Action Group

answer

B. Take Default Action

question

There is an existing computer group which contains all computers with an IP address that starts with 10.160.22. This computer group must be updated so that it will automatically include computers whose IP addresses start with 10.160.23. Which method should be used? A. Edit the name of the computer group. B. Edit the relevance of the existing computer group. C. Manually edit the membership of the existing computer group. D. Run the Computer Group Membership wizard and add the new subnet.

answer

B. Edit the relevance of the existing computer group.

question

A user realizes after rebooting his Mac that the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) daemon has not started. Which daemon should the user start? A. IEM Client B. BES Client C. BES Agent D. BES Plug-in

answer

C. BES Agent

question

Where in the IBM Endpoint Manager console can an operator find a custom analysis property definition? A. All Content domain > Analyses node, select the analysis in the list pane, and view the details tab in the work area. B. BES Support domain > Computers node, select the analysis in the list pane, and select the definitions tab in the work area. C. All Content domain > Computers node, select the computer from the list pane, and select the analysis result on the Summary tab. D. BES Support domain > Analyses node, select the computer from the list pane, and the definition will be next to the returned result.

answer

A. All Content domain > Analyses node, select the analysis in the list pane, and view the details tab in the work area.

question

A new Fixlet was created in the site XYZ-Site, but after saving the Fixlet it is not seen in the site. Why? A. The Hide New Content option is enabled, so the Fixlet is hidden until it is more than 24 hours old. B. The Show New Content button is disabled, so the new Fixlet is not displayed until it is more than 24 hours old. C. The Hide Non-Relevant Content button is enabled, and since this is a new Fixlet there are no relevant systems making the Fixlet non-relevant. D. The Show Non-Relevant Content button is disabled, and since this is a new Fixlet there are no relevant systems making the Fixlet non-relevant.

answer

D. The Show Non-Relevant Content button is disabled, and since this is a new Fixlet there are no relevant systems making the Fixlet non-relevant.

question

Which three conditions must be met for an endpoint to return results for an analysis? A. The analysis must be activated. B. The applicability relevance must evaluate to True. C. A master operator must first activate the analysis. D. The endpoint must be in the domain containing the analysis. E. The endpoint must be subscribed to the site containing the analysis. F. The analysis property definitions must be the same as the applicability relevance.

answer

A. The analysis must be activated. D. The endpoint must be in the domain containing the analysis. E. The endpoint must be subscribed to the site containing the analysis.

question

While troubleshooting an issue with a managed endpoint, an operator wants to temporarily prevent actions from being executed on the endpoint. How would the operator accomplish this? A. Right-click the computer objects and selects Pause Actions from the Context menu. B. Right-click the computer objects and selects Revoke Certificate from the Context menu. C. Temporarily move the computer object to the Unmanaged Assets node in the console. D. Take action on the BES Client Setting Lock Computer task and target the desired endpoint.

answer

B. Right-click the computer objects and selects Revoke Certificate from the Context menu.

question

An administrator is required to take action on a Fixlet within a small maintenance window. What should be selected to permit the clients to download these components before the scheduled action time? A. On the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog, check the Stagger Download Time to Reduce Network Load box. B. On the Applicability tab of the Take Action dialog, check the Stagger Download Time to Reduce Network Load box. C. On the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog, check the Start Client Downloads Before Constraints are Satisfied box. D. On the Applicability tab of the Take Action dialog, check the Start Client Downloads Before Constraints are Satisfied box.

answer

C. On the Execution tab of the Take Action dialog, check the Start Client Downloads Before Constraints are Satisfied box.

question

Which content domain contains content related to virtualization platform management, using the automation engine, and middleware content? A. Server Automation B. Systems Lifecycle C. Security Configuration D. Mobile Device Management

answer

A. Server Automation

question

A master operator created a retrieved property. The property will belong to which site? A. Audit Action Site B. Master Action Site C. Operator Action Site D. Non-Master Action Site

answer

B. Master Action Site

question

A retrieved property is configured to return results for relevant endpoints once every 24 hours. The last property result for a specific endpoint was six hours ago. The configuration has changed so the next time the result is returned; it will be different than the result from six hours ago. When will the endpoint return an updated result? A. As soon as the client loop has completed. B. In approximately 18 hours, if the endpoint is online. C. There will not be a new result until the retrieved property has been deactivated and reactivated. D. Immediately; a change in property value will cause the endpoint to upload a new result to the server.

answer

A. As soon as the client loop has completed.

question

Which tab within the Deployed Action window provides the overall current result status after an action is taken on a Fixlet? A. Status B. Targets C. Summary D. Computers

answer

C. Summary

question

Which tab of the Take Action dialog box allows for notification to end users when an action is running-on targeted endpoints? A. Offer B. Messages C. Pre-Action D. Notification

answer

B. Messages

question

A new patch from Microsoft has been made available, and the security group has requested a list of vulnerable systems. How can a list of systems efficiently be retrieved from the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console? A. Review the Windows Vulnerability analysis to provide a detailed list of applicable computers. B. In the Computers list select each computer and record the systems that are relevant to the patch. C. In the Fixlets and Tasks list select the Fixlet/Task, go to the Applicable Computers tab. And record the systems that are relevant to the patch. D. In the Vulnerable Systems list, select the Fixlet/Task, go to the Applicable Computers tab. And record the systems that are relevant to the patch.

answer

C. In the Fixlets and Tasks list select the Fixlet/Task, go to the Applicable Computers tab. And record the systems that are relevant to the patch.

question

Which content domain contains content related to the updating of operating systems and specific applications? A. Server Automation B. Endpoint Protection C. Patch Management D. BigFix Management

answer

C. Patch Management

question

A non-master operator has rights to create custom content. His manager wants him to create a baseline to deploy this month's Windows patches. In the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console he sees that there are 457 relevant Windows patches. What is the most efficient way to find only the relevant patches for the current month? A. Search for the month and year using the Live Search feature in the I EM console. B. Go through the list of 457 patches, find the relevant patches, right-click on them and select Add to Baseline. C. From the IEM console locate the By Source Release Date node and select the current month's relevant Windows patches. D. Go to Tools > Create New Baseline, use the Fixlet search feature, and specify the month and year in the drop-down boxes.

answer

C. From the IEM console locate the By Source Release Date node and select the current month's relevant Windows patches.

question

A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints she currently manages. Several of these machines are reporting Constrained in their Last Reported Status of the action. What does this mean? A. The action was not given enough time to run on the endpoint before it expired. B. The downloads within the action are too large for the client cache. The cache size must be increased. C. Scheduling criteria has been set in the Execution tab of the Take Action Dialog which has not been met D. The endpoint was shut down during execution and is waiting for the machine to send a heart beat to the server.

answer

C. Scheduling criteria has been set in the Execution tab of the Take Action Dialog which has not been met

question

Which two statements are true regarding an IBM Endpoint Manager relay? A. It passes content to the endpoints. B. It collects responses from the endpoints. C. It can only be installed on a Windows system. D. It requires a local database (MS SQL or IBM DB2). E. It serves as a filter to restrict data passing to an endpoint.

answer

A. It passes content to the endpoints. B. It collects responses from the endpoints.

question

What is a good use case for implementing a new retrieved property? A. The new property will only be used for a one time report. B. The new property is a duplicate of an existing retrieved property. C. The new property will work for a few endpoints subscribed to a custom site. D. The new property can be used as a long term targeting method for upcoming actions.

answer

D. The new property can be used as a long term targeting method for upcoming actions.

question

What are two required attributes to create a named analysis? A. Property Size B. Property Definition C. Number of Results D. Reporting Frequency E. Computer IDs of Targeted Clients

answer

B. Property Definition D. Reporting Frequency

question

How can a custom Fixlet are created which locks the constraints and makes other operators unable to alter them? A. On the Properties tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, lock the action constraints beforehand. B. On the Actions tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, click on the Include Action settings locks. C. On the Relevance tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, click on the Pre-define Action constraints. D. On the Actions tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, select Lock Constraints from the Script Type dropdown.

answer

B. On the Actions tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, click on the Include Action settings locks.

question

A non-master operator has rights to create custom content. His manager wants him to create a baseline to deploy updates to Adobe Reader and Oracle Java. How can this be done? A. Baselines may not be used for application updates. B. Right-click on the required update and select Add to New Baseline. C. Use the Software Deployment wizard to specify the baseline and select the updates. D. Use the Fixlet Debugger to compute the shal and size value. Manually create a baseline action script with these values.

answer

B. Right-click on the required update and select Add to New Baseline.

question

How is a computer added to a manual group? A. Use the Manual Group wizard. B. Select the computer from the list view then right-click and select Add to Manual Group. C. Settings in the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console that is specific for each operator. D. As a computer is added to the IEM environment, it will be added to a manually created group.

answer

B. Select the computer from the list view then right-click and select Add to Manual Group.

question

A new analysis has just been activated. None of the endpoints have returned a result yet. What will the property report as a value before an endpoint returns its result? A. B. C. D.

answer

question

The IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console was left running on a workstation, the IEM server was restarted, and the data presented in the IEM console is showing incorrectly. What can be done to correct this issue? A. Reboot the workstation. B. Restart the IEM console. C. Refresh the IEM console. D. Clear the cache and restart the IEM console.

answer

D. Clear the cache and restart the IEM console.

question

An operator who can create custom content has been given access to a variety of sites including Patches for Windows (English) and Windows QA, a custom site for testing patches. Four months ago she created a baseline that included 130 updates and published it into the Windows QA site. She needs to deploy this baseline to 100 computers that recently came online. She notices that many of the Windows patches in the baseline are out of date because she see the message: Source Fixlet differs. What does the operator need to do to correct this issue? A. Recreate the entire baseline from scratch. B. Use the Sync All Components button in the baseline. C. Split the patches into two baselines; a baseline cannot be created that has 130 Fixlets. D. Remove the Fixlets from the baseline that have the message - Source Fixlet differs; they have been discontinued by Microsoft.

answer

B. Use the Sync All Components button in the baseline.

question

Which statement is true about actions in IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM)? A. Only a master operator can delete an action. B. An action can only be deleted when its state is expired. C. Deleted actions will be removed from the IEM console but will remain in the database. D. An action cannot be deleted from within the IEM console due to audit trail requirements.

answer

C. Deleted actions will be removed from the IEM console but will remain in the database.

question

When does a Fixlet become not applicable to a computer? A. When all relevance statements for the Fixlet are true. B. When only one relevance statement for the Fixlet is true. C. When at least one relevance statement for the Fixlet is false. D. When the computer is subscribed to the site that contains the Fixlet.

answer

C. When at least one relevance statement for the Fixlet is false.

question

When troubleshooting a target endpoint, what does it mean when Winsock errors are found in the client log? A. The BES client service has stopped. B. The ICMP protocol has been blocked. C. Port 443 has been blocked by the Windows firewall. D. An error occurred when the BES client attempted to create a network connection.

answer

D. An error occurred when the BES client attempted to create a network connection.

question

Which statement is true regarding a task? A. A task is a template that does not have success criteria. B. A task is a template that contains the binaries for configuring an endpoint. C. A task is a template containing only Relevance that can make a change to an endpoint or its client settings. D. A task is a template containing Applicability Relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as performing configuration changes.

answer

D. A task is a template containing Applicability Relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as performing configuration changes.

question

What is a benefit of a manual group over an automatic group? A. Automatic groups are only visible to the user who created them. B. Automatic groups can only be used for patching operating systems. C. Manual groups can be used as a target for actions: automatic groups cannot. D. Manual groups only contain systems that are added to them, guaranteeing a system is not targeted by accident.

answer

D. Manual groups only contain systems that are added to them, guaranteeing a system is not targeted by accident.

question

What is the purpose of the Refresh Console button in the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console? A. To ensure the IEM console version is current. B. To reload the console data from the local cache. C. To reload the local cache data from the BES Enterprise database. D. To send UDP broadcast messages to IEM agents and send a report back to the relay.

answer

B. To reload the console data from the local cache.

question

An IBM Endpoint Manager {IEM) client has been installed onto an endpoint. It does not appear in the I EM console after many hours. Which message in the client log file confirms that the client is unable to connect to the I EM server? A. Restart Needed B. Entering service loop C. SetupListener success D. RegisterOnce: GetURL failed

answer

D. RegisterOnce: GetURL failed

question

The Audit group has requested a summary report of all critical patches for the environment. Which feature is available in the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console to provide this information? A. Patch Overview Dashboard in the Patch Management domain B. List OS Patches Dashboard in the Patch Compliance domain C. List Critical Patches Dashboard in the Patch Management domain D. Critical Vulnerabilities Dashboard in the Patch Compliance domain

answer

A. Patch Overview Dashboard in the Patch Management domain

question

Which statement is true when IBM releases a Fixlet for a patch? A. IBM includes the binaries with Fixlet content. B. IBM determines the Source Severity for the Fixlet. C. IBM tests the vendors patch for validity before publishing the Fixlet. D. IBM ensures that the Fixlet will run as designed within IBM Endpoint Manager but does not certify the patch contents.

answer

C. IBM tests the vendors patch for validity before publishing the Fixlet.

question

What is the first required step to make an unmanaged computer an IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) relay? A. The IEM client must be installed on the computer. B. A console operator must add the computer to the relay's computer group. C. The task Install IBM Endpoint Manager Relay must be run on the computer. D. The IEM server must be configured to accept incoming connections from new relays.

answer

A. The IEM client must be installed on the computer.

question

What are the three valid action states? A. Error B. Open C. Closed D. Expired E. Running F. Stopped

answer

B. Open D. Expired F. Stopped

question

Which two Adobe products are supported by IBM Endpoint Manager Patching? A. Adobe Reader B. Adobe Photoshop C. Adobe After Effects D. Adobe Flash Player E. Adobe Dream Weaver

answer

A. Adobe Reader D. Adobe Flash Player

question

Where can detail Action Information on a per target basis be viewed in the IBM Endpoint Manager console? A. Select the computer and navigate to the Action History tab. B. Right-click on the action and select View Detailed Information. C. Right-click on a computer and select View Detailed Action Information. D. Click on the Computers tab within the action and double-click on the target endpoint.

answer

D. Click on the Computers tab within the action and double-click on the target endpoint.

question

What does an earlier deployed action with a current state of Expired indicate? A. The action has run on the client for greater than 10 minutes and will be stopped. B. The source Fixlet of the action has been changed and needs to be synchronized. C. The action was run outside of the current maintenance window and will be delayed. D. The action has reached the Ends on value and will no longer be executed on the targets.

answer

D. The action has reached the Ends on value and will no longer be executed on the targets.

question

An operator just received an analysis in .bes format and would like to test the content. How can the analysis be imported into the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console for testing? A. Only Fixlets and tasks can be imported into I EM, not analyses. B. In the I EM console select the Analyses node, right-click and select Import. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported. C. Double-click the .bes file, select the appropriate Site and Domain, and click OK to save. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported. D. In the I EM console, All Content Domain, Fixlets and Tasks node: right-click the .bes files to import. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

answer

C. Double-click the .bes file, select the appropriate Site and Domain, and click OK to save. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

STUDY

Applied Sociology Brute Force Attack Public Key Cryptography Social Engineering Social Networking Sites Structured Query Language Using Social Media

Info System Security Chapter 13 – Flashcards 56 terms

Brenda Gannon

56 terms

Preview

Info System Security Chapter 13 – Flashcards

question

tricking or coercing people into revealing information or violating security practices

answer

social engineering

question

type of information security attack that depends primarily on some type of human interaction in an effort to prey on human weakness

answer

social engineering

question

social engineering attacks can be ___ and or ____

answer

physical or psychological

question

social engineering attack common way to father information

answer

phone based attacks

question

searching trash containers for valuable information or documents

answer

dumpster diving

question

attackers observing victims as they enter codes at a bank cash machine or gas pump

answer

shoulder surfing

question

has made loss of control of that information through social media a great concern

answer

social media

question

psychological attack where an attacker using friendliness, trust, impersonation, and empathy to get a victim to do what they want him or her to do

answer

persuasion/coercion

question

an attacker sets up such a realistic persona that the victim volunteers information to

answer

reverse social engineering

question

-popup blocker -unsafe site warnings -integration with - antivirus software -automatic updates -private browsing capability -keep unnecessary plugins and add ons from the cluttering browser

answer

browser defenses against social engineering

question

-use separate passwords for different types of accounts -not easy to guess -use variations on a single base password -invest in password manager -change passwords often

answer

best practice with passwords

question

____ have become more and more of a target for cybercriminals

answer

social networking sites

question

web sites that contain personal information about people

answer

-spokeo -facebook -intellius -zabasearch -people search

question

-use one password for all accounts -share too much information -engage in tweet rage

answer

don't

question

-use privacy features offered by the site -allow only known contacts -use strong passwords

answer

question

__ of companies have implemented a social networking policy

answer

40%

question

T or F: by law company policies can discuss the usage of social media and networking sites at work

answer

true

question

for many businesses, _____ is a key part of the corporate communications strategy

answer

social media presence

question

can damage the employer by revealing intellectual property

answer

over-sharing company activities

question

security practitioners work to encourage people to use _______ for both professional activities and their personal activities

answer

separate social networks

question

___ and ____you share with friends and family on social media may be inappropriate on the professional side of your life

answer

language, images

question

accumulating as many connections as possible on social media makes it more likely that you will link or friend a scam artist or an identify

answer

connecting too many connections

question

Refers to any sofware that is inherently hostile, intrusive, or annoying in its operation

answer

malware

question

Which law was originally passed to address federal computer related offenses and the cracking of computer systems

answer

computer fraud and abuse act of 1986

question

Which is not a type of malware? gameware, adware, scareware, worm

answer

gameware

question

type of malware which a piece of code or software that spreads from system to system by attaching itself to other files and is activated when the file is accessed

answer

virus

question

part of hard drive or removable media that is used to boot programs

answer

boot sector

question

software development kit specifically designed to facilitate the design and development of trojans is called

answer

trojan construction kit

question

section of hard drive record responsible for assisting in locating the operating system to boot the computer is called

answer

master boot records(MBRs)

question

which is us department of defense standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer securuity controls built into a computer system

answer

TCSEC

question

process where communications are redirected to different ports than they would normally be destined for

answer

port redirection

question

T or F: Social networking means tricking or coercing people into revealing information or violating normal security practices

answer

false

question

T or f: social engineering is a type of information security attack that depends primarily on some type of human interaction in an effort to prey on human weakness

answer

true

question

T or F: for many decades a common way to gather information has been to simply use the phone

answer

true

question

T or F: The popularity of services such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter has made the loss of information or loss of control of that information through social media less of a concern.

answer

false

question

T or F: A persuasion/coercion attack is considered psychological.

answer

True

question

T or F: For many businesses, a social media presence is a key part of the corporate communications strategy.

answer

True

question

T or F:Whenever possible, security practitioners work to encourage people to use their social network for both their professional activities and their personal activities.

answer

false

question

T or F: The language and images you share with friends and family on social media may be inappropriate on the professional side of your life.

answer

true

question

T or F: Accumulating as many connections as possible on social media (seeking quantity over quality) makes it less likely that you will link or "friend" a scam artist or an identity thief.

answer

False

question

T or f: Private information on Facebook is truly private.

answer

False

question

Tricking or coercing people into revealing information or violating normal security practices is referred to as:

answer

social engineering

question

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding social engineering? A. Social engineering attacks can be physical and/or psychological. B. It is common for social engineering to involve technical tools. C. Social engineering has different goals and objectives than other types of hacking. D. Social engineering targets can include anyone or anything that may have the information that the attacker may find valuable.

answer

question

Searching trash containers for valuable information or documents is referred to as:

answer

dumpster diving

question

Attackers observing victims as they enter codes at a bank cash machine or a gas pump are participating in:

answer

shoulder surfing

question

An attacker using friendliness, trust, impersonation, and empathy, to get a victim to do what they want him or her to do is participating in:

answer

persuasion/coercion

question

When people go online and see something they don't like and immediately blast out an angry response, they are said to be engaging in:

answer

tweet rage

question

Which of the following is NOT considered a sensible guideline to follow when using social networking sites? A. Don't let peer pressure push you into doing something you're not comfortable with. B. Set up an e-mail account that uses your real name. C. Keep your profile closed and allow only friends to view it. D. Remember that what goes online stays online.

answer

question

Which of the following allows Facebook users to see how a piece of information appears to others? A. Privacy link B. Preview my profile button C. Options button D. Limited friends option

answer

question

Which of the following gives Facebook users flexibility as to who is allowed to see which portions of a profile? A. Limited Profile Settings B. Preview my profile button C. Options settings D. Privacy settings`

answer

question

Which of the following is NOT a step in establishing a limited profile on Facebook? A. Decide what profile information you want to include in a limited profile. B. Check and uncheck the appropriate boxes. C. Search through the Facebook system in order to compile a list of people who will be granted the limited view of a profile. D. Be sure to use the profile default position.

answer

question

Which of the following statements is NOT true about firewall policy? A. A policy is not necessary if the firewall is configured in the way the administrator wants. B. A policy is lays out the rules on what traffic is allowed and what is not. C. The policy will specifically define the IP addresses, address ranges, protocol types, applications that will be evaluated and granted or denied access to the network. D. The policy will provide guidance on how changes to traffic and requirements are to be dealt with.

answer

question

A single computer that is configured to attract attackers to it and act as a decoy is called a(n):

answer

honeypot

question

A group of computers or a network configured to attract attackers is called a(n):

answer

honeynet

question

Which of the following controls fit in the area of policy and procedure? A. Administrative B. Physical C. Technical D. Equipment

answer

question

The principle that individuals will be given only the level of access that is appropriate for their specific job role or function is called:

answer

least privilege

STUDY

Acceptable Use Policy Applied Sociology Brute Force Attack Computer Networks Direct And Indirect Costs Forum Selection Clause Total Cost Of Ownership

SPSCC_CNA113_Chpt_28_Securing_Computers – Flashcards 144 terms

Thomas Alday

144 terms

Preview

SPSCC_CNA113_Chpt_28_Securing_Computers – Flashcards

question

Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

answer

Defines what actions employees may or may not perform on company equipment, including computers, phones, printers, and even the network itself. This policy defines the handling of passwords, e-mail, and many other issues.

question

access control

answer

Security concept using physical security, authentication, users and groups, and security policies.

question

activation

answer

Process of confirming that an installed copy of a Microsoft product, most commonly Windows or a Microsoft Office application, is legitimate. Usually done at the end of software installation.

question

anti-malware program

answer

Software designed to identify and block or remove malware. Typically powered by frequently updated definition files containing the signatures of known malware.

question

antivirus program

answer

Software designed to combat viruses by either seeking out and destroying them or passively guarding against them.

question

attack vector

answer

The route or methods used by a given attack, including malware.

question

authentication

answer

Any method a computer uses to determine who can access it.

question

biometric device

answer

Hardware device used to support authentication; works by scanning and remembering a unique aspect of a user's various body parts, e.g., retina, iris, face, or fingerprint, by using some form of sensing device such as a retinal scanner.

question

botnet

answer

Network of computers infected with malware that can be controlled to do the bidding of the malware developers, or anyone who pays them. A common use is carrying out Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks.

question

brute force

answer

Simple attack that attempts to guess credentials or identify vulnerabilities by trying many possibilities.

question

cable lock

answer

Simple anti-theft device for securing a laptop to a nearby object.

question

certificate authority (CA)

answer

Trusted entities that sign digital certificates to guarantee that the certificate was signed by the site in question and not forged.

question

chain of custody

answer

A documented history of who has been in possession of a system.

question

checksum

answer

Value generated from some data, like a file, and saved for comparing to others later. Can be used to identify identical data, such as files on a user's system that match known viruses. They can also be used to monitor whether a program is changing itself over time, which is a strong warning sign that it may be malware that evolves to avoid detection.

question

closed source software

answer

Software for which the source code is kept secret.

question

compliance

answer

Concept that members of an organization must abide by the rules of that organization. For a technician, this often revolves around what software can or cannot be installed on an organization's computers.

question

data classification

answer

System of organizing data according to its sensitivity. Common classifications include public, highly confidential, and top secret.

question

default user accounts/groups

answer

Users or groups that are enabled by default. Some, such as the guest account, represent a security risk.

question

definition files

answer

List of virus signatures that an antivirus program can recognize.

question

destination port

answer

In port triggering, after the router sends outbound traffic on the trigger port it will open this port to receive the response.

question

dictionary attack

answer

Type of brute-force attack using a dictionary to guess things like usernames and passwords. Don't think Webster's, these dictionaries may be full of usernames and passwords that have leaked or been used as defaults over the years.

question

digital certificate

answer

Form in which a public key is sent from a Web server to a Web browser so that the browser can decrypt the data sent by the server.

question

digital rights management (DRM)

answer

Code schemes for enforcing what users can and can't do with commercial software or digital media files.

question

drive-by-download

answer

Undesired file downloads generated by turpid Web sites and ads.

question

dumpster diving

answer

To go through someone's trash in search of information.

question

effective permissions

answer

User's combined permissions granted by multiple groups.

question

encryption

answer

Making data unreadable by those who do not possess a key or password.

question

End User License Agreement (EULA)

answer

Agreement that accompanies a piece of software, to which the user must agree before using the software. Outlines the terms of use for the software and also lists any actions on the part of the user that violate the agreement.

question

entry control roster

answer

Document for recording who enters and leaves a building.

question

environmental controls

answer

Practice of protecting computing equipment from environmental damage by taking measures such as air conditioning, proper ventilation, air filtration, temperature monitoring, and humidity monitoring.

question

event auditing

answer

Feature of Event Viewer's Security section that creates an entry in the Security Log when certain events happen, such as a user logging on.

question

Event Viewer

answer

Utility made available in Windows as an MMC snap-in that enables users to monitor various system events, including network bandwidth usage and CPU utilization.

question

firewall

answer

Device that restricts traffic between a local network and the Internet.

question

Group Policy

answer

Means of easily controlling the settings of multiple network clients with policies such as setting minimum password length or preventing Registry edits.

question

hardware firewall

answer

Firewall implemented within networking hardware such as a router.

question

HTTPS

answer

Secure form of HTTP used commonly for Internet business transactions or any time when a secure connection is required. Uses port 443.

question

ID badge

answer

Small card or document for confirming the identity of its holder and what access they should be granted. May use built-in authentication tools such as RFID or smart card to function as a "something you have" authentication factor.

question

incident reporting

answer

Process of reporting gathered data about a system or problem to supervisors. Creates a record of work accomplished, and may help identify patterns. Often documented on an incident report form.

question

incident response leader

answer

In some organizations, a person other than a supervisor responsible for receiving and responding to all incident reports.

question

intrusion detection system (IDS)

answer

Application that inspects packets, looking for active intrusions. Functions inside the network, looking for threats a firewall might miss, such as viruses, illegal logon attempts, and other well-known attacks. May also discover threats from inside the network, such as a vulnerability scanner run by a rogue employee.

question

intrusion prevention system (IPS)

answer

Application similar to an intrusion detection system (IDS), except that it sits directly in the flow of network traffic. This enables it to stop ongoing attacks itself, but may also slow down the network and be a single point of failure.

question

IPsec or Internet Protocol security

answer

Microsoft's encryption method of choice for networks consisting of multiple networks linked by a private connection, providing transparent encryption between the server and the client.

question

Kerberos

answer

Authentication encryption developed by MIT to enable multiple brands of servers to authenticate multiple brands of clients.

question

Local Security Policy

answer

Windows tool used to set local security policies on an individual system.

question

malware

answer

Broadly, software designed to use your computer or device against your wishes. Includes adware, spyware, viruses, ransomware, etc. May be part of seemingly legitimate software or installed by exploiting a vulnerability in the device.

question

man-in-the-middle (MITM)

answer

Attacker serves as an intermediary between two systems, enabling the attacker to observe, redirect, or even alter messages passing in either direction.

question

mantrap

answer

Small room with a set of doors; one to the unsecured area and one to a secured area. Only one door can open at a time, and individuals must authenticate to continue. Combats tailgating.

question

object access auditing

answer

Feature of Event Viewer's Security section that creates an entry in the Security Log when certain objects are accessed, such as a file or folder.

question

open source software

answer

Software for which the source code is published instead of kept secret. Typically released under an open source license that specifies terms for those who wish to use the software or modify its source.

question

patch management

answer

Process of keeping software updated in a safe, timely fashion.

question

personally identifiable information (PII)

answer

Any data that can lead back to a specific individual.

question

phishing

answer

The act of trying to get people to give their usernames, passwords, or other security information by pretending to be someone else electronically.

question

policies

answer

Control permission to perform a given action, such as accessing a command prompt, installing software, or logging on at a certain time of day. Contrast with true permissions, which control access to specific resources.

question

polymorph virus

answer

Virus that attempts to change its signature to prevent detection by antivirus programs, usually by continually scrambling a bit of useless code.

question

pop-up

answer

Irritating browser window that appears automatically when you visit a Web site.

question

port forwarding

answer

Preventing the passage of any IP packets through any ports other than the ones prescribed by the system administrator.

question

port triggering

answer

Router function that enables a computer to open an incoming connection to one computer automatically based on a specific outgoing connection.

question

principle of least privilege

answer

Security idea that accounts should have permission to access only the resources they need and no more.

question

radio frequency identification (RFID)

answer

Wireless technology that uses small tags containing small amounts of digital information, and readers capable of accessing it. The passive type of these tags operate by harvesting some of the power a scanner or reader emits, enabling a vast array of applications. Common uses such as tracking library books, identifying lost pets, contactless payments, and wireless door locks are just scratching the surface.

question

ransomware

answer

A nasty form of malware that encrypts data or drives on the infected system and demands payment, often within a limited timeframe, in exchange for the keys to decrypt the data.

question

remediation

answer

Repairing damage caused by a virus.

question

replication

answer

When a virus makes copies of itself, often by injecting itself into other executables. See malware and virus.

question

retinal scanner

answer

Biometric security device that authenticates an individual by comparing retinal scans. Rarer in the real world than in media such as movies or video games.

question

rogue anti-malware

answer

Free applications that claim to be anti-malware, but which are actually themselves malware.

question

rootkit

answer

Program that takes advantage of very lowlevel functionality to gain privileged system access and hide itself from all but the most aggressive anti-malware tools. Can strike operating systems, hypervisors, and even device firmware.

question

RSA token

answer

Random-number generators used along with a user name and password to enhance security.

question

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

answer

Security protocol used by a browser to connect to secure Web sites.

question

security token

answer

Devices that store some unique information that a user carries with them. May contain digital certificates, passwords, biometric data, or RSA tokens.

question

session hijacking

answer

Intercepting a valid computer session to get authentication information from it, enabling the attacker to use whatever resources the authentication grants access for as long as the authentication information or session are valid.

question

shoulder surfing

answer

Looking for credentials or other sensitive information by watching someone use a computer or device, often over their shoulder.

question

signature

answer

Code pattern of a known virus; used by antivirus software to detect viruses.

question

smart card

answer

Hardware authentication involving a credit card-sized card with circuitry that can be used to identify the bearer of that card.

question

social engineering

answer

Using or manipulating people inside the networking environment to gain access to that network from the outside.

question

software firewall

answer

Firewall implemented in software running on servers or workstations.

question

spam

answer

Unsolicited e-mails from both legitimate businesses and scammers that account for a huge percentage of traffic on the Internet.

question

spear phishing

answer

Dangerous targeted phishing attack on a group or individual that carefully uses details from the target's life to increase the odds they'll take the bait.

question

spoofing

answer

Pretending to be someone or something else by placing false information into packets. Commonly this type of data includes a source MAC address or IP address, e-mail address, Web address, or user name. Generally a useful tool for enhancing or advancing other attacks, such as social engineering or spear fishing..

question

spyware

answer

Software that runs in the background of a user's PC, sending information about browsing habits back to the company that installed it onto the system.

question

Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI)

answer

Used by hardware firewalls to inspect each incoming packet individually for purposes such as blocking traffic that isn't in response to outgoing requests.

question

stealth virus

answer

Virus that uses various methods to hide from antivirus software

question

tailgating

answer

Form of infiltration and social engineering that involves following someone else through a door as if you belong in the building.

question

telephone scam

answer

Social engineering attack in which the attacker makes a phone call to someone in an organization to gain information.

question

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

answer

Encryption protocol used to securely connect between servers and clients, such as when your Web browser securely connects to Amazon's servers to make a purchase.

question

trigger port

answer

In port triggering, outbound traffic on this port will cause the router to open the destination port and wait for a response.

question

Trojan horse

answer

Program that does something other than what the user who runs the program thinks it will do. Used to disguise malicious code.

question

trusted root CA

answer

A highly respected certificate authority (CA) that has been placed on the lists of trusted authorities built into Web browsers.

question

unauthorized access

answer

Anytime a person accesses resources in an unauthorized way. This access may or may not be malicious.

question

unified threat management (UTM)

answer

Providing robust network security by integrating traditional firewalls with many other security services such as IPS, VPN, load balancing, antimalware, and more.

question

virus

answer

Program that can make a copy of itself without your necessarily being aware of it. Some viruses can destroy or damage files. The best protection is to back up files regularly.

question

virus shield

answer

Passive monitoring of a computer's activity, checking for viruses only when certain events occur.

question

worm

answer

Very special form of virus. Unlike other viruses, this does not infect other files on the computer. Instead, it replicates by making copies of itself on other systems on a network by taking advantage of security weaknesses in networking protocols.

question

zero-day attack

answer

Attack targeting a previously unknown bug or vulnerability that software or hardware developers have had zero days to fix.

question

zombie

answer

Computer infected with malware that has turned it into a botnet member.

question

data classification

answer

Mary's company routinely labels data according to its sensitivity or potential danger to the company if someone outside accesses the data. This is an example of __________________.

question

Trojan horse

answer

A(n) __________________ masquerades as a legitimate program, yet does something different than what is expected when executed.

question

definition files. signature.

answer

Antivirus software uses updatable __________________ to identify a virus by its __________________.

question

object access auditing

answer

Enable __________________ to create Event Viewer entries when a specific file is accessed.

question

unauthorized access

answer

Although not all __________________ is malicious, it can lead to data destruction.

question

social engineering

answer

Most attacks on computer data are accomplished through __________________.

question

firewall

answer

A(n) __________________ protects against unauthorized access from the Internet.

question

smart card

answer

Many companies authenticate access to secure rooms using an ownership factor such as a(n) __________________.

question

Transport Layer Security (TLS). HTTPS.

answer

Before making a credit card purchase on the Internet, be sure the Web site uses the __________________ protocol (that replaced the older SSL protocol), which you can verify by checking for the __________________ protocol in the address bar.

question

polymorph virus

answer

A virus that changes its signature to prevent detection is called a(n) __________________.

question

Social engineering

answer

What is the process of using or manipulating people to gain access to network resources? A. Cracking B. Hacking C. Network engineering D. Social engineering

question

Smart card

answer

Which of the following might offer good hardware authentication? A. Strong password B. Encrypted password C. NTFS D. Smart card

question

Local Security Policy

answer

Which of the following tools would enable you to stop a user from logging on to a local machine but still enable him to log on to the domain? A. AD Policy Filter B. Group Policy Auditing C. Local Security Policy D. User Settings

question

Port forwarding

answer

Which hardware firewall feature enables incoming traffic on a specific port to reach an IP address on the LAN? A. Port forwarding B. NAT C. DMZ D. Multifactor authentication

question

He installed a Trojan horse.

answer

Zander downloaded a game off the Internet and installed it, but as soon as he started to play he got a Blue Screen of Death. Upon rebooting, he discovered that his Documents folder had been erased. What happened? A. He installed spyware. B. He installed a Trojan horse. C. He broke the Group Policy. D. He broke the Local Security Policy

question

WPA2

answer

Which of the following should Mary set up on her Wi-Fi router to make it the most secure? A. NTFS B. WEP C. WPA D. WPA2

question

Effective permissions

answer

A user account is a member of several groups, and the groups have conflicting rights and permissions to several network resources. The culminating permissions that ultimately affect the user's access are referred to as what? A. Effective permissions B. Culminating rights C. Last rights D. Persistent permissions

question

They automatically scan e-mails, downloads, and running programs.

answer

What is true about virus shields? A. They automatically scan e-mails, downloads, and running programs. B. They protect against spyware and adware. C. They are effective in stopping pop-ups. D. They can reduce the amount of spam by 97 percent.

question

Kerberos

answer

What does Windows use to encrypt the user authentication process over a LAN? A. PAP B. TPM C. HTTPS D. Kerberos

question

Telephone scams and Phishing

answer

Which threats are categorized as social engineering? Select all that apply. A. Telephone scams B. Phishing C. Trojan horses D. Spyware

question

Quarantine the computer so the suspected malware does not spread.

answer

A user calls to complain that his computer seems awfully sluggish. All he's done so far is open his e-mail. What should the tech do first? A. Educate the user about the dangers of opening e-mail. B. Quarantine the computer so the suspected malware does not spread. C. Run anti-malware software on the computer. D. Remediate the infected system.

question

Boot to Safe Mode and run System Restore or Boot to the Windows Recovery Environment and run System Restore.

answer

Which of the following are good examples of remediation? Select two. A. Boot to Safe Mode and run System Restore. B. Boot to the Windows Recovery Environment and run System Restore. C. Boot to a safe environment and run antivirus software. D. Remove a computer suspected of having malware from the network, effectively quarantining the computer.

question

Applaud the technician for proper compliance.

answer

A user calls and complains that the technician who fixed his computer removed some software he used to download movies and music on the Internet. A check of approved software does not include the uTorrent application, so what should the supervisor do? A. Applaud the technician for proper compliance. B. Educate the user about the legal issues involved with movie and music downloads. C. Add the uTorrent application to the approved software list and make the technician apologize and reinstall the software. D. Check with the user's supervisor about adding uTorrent to the approved software list.

question

Chain of custody

answer

Mike hands the hard drive containing suspicious content to the head of IT security at Bayland Widgets Co. The security guy requests a record of everyone who has been in possession of the hard drive. Given such a scenario, what document should Mike give the IT security chief? A. Chain of custody B. Definition file C. Entry control roster D. Trusted root CA

question

Install anti-malware software on every computer. Set the software up to update the definitions and engine automatically. Set the software up to scan regularly. Educate the users about what sites and downloads to avoid.

answer

Cindy wants to put a policy in place at her company with regard to malware prevention or at least limitation. What policies would offer the best solution? A. Install anti-malware software on every computer. Instruct users on how to run it. B. Install anti-malware software on every computer. Set the software up to scan regularly. C. Install anti-malware software on every computer. Set the software up to update the definitions and engine automatically. Set the software up to scan regularly. D. Install anti-malware software on every computer. Set the software up to update the definitions and engine automatically. Set the software up to scan regularly. Educate the users about what sites and downloads to avoid.

question

Often via email & disguised as from trusted company. Requests a username, password, or account number. Tricks unsuspecting users.

answer

Describe how a phishing attack works.

question

A package of security services providing robust network security by integrating traditional firewalls with many other security services such as IPS, VPN, load balancing, antimalware, and more.

answer

What is Unified Threat Management (UTM)?

question

Social engineering

answer

Some hackers try to deceive people to get others to tell them confidential information. What is this called?

question

Smart cards & biometric devices such as fingerprint/retinal scanners.

answer

What are some hardware-based authentication mechanisms?

question

Via HTTPS, or HTTP over the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

answer

How is the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) protected when secure data needs to be sent?

question

Searching through trash for valuable data

answer

What is dumpster diving?

question

Authorization validates credentials. Encryption makes data unreadable.

answer

What's the difference between authorization & encryption?

question

Malicious software. Prog/code: does something undesirable. Viruses, Trojan horses, worms, rootkits, spyware, botnets, ransomware, spam, etc.

answer

What is malware?

question

Defines what employees may or may not do on company equipment.

answer

What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?

question

Event Viewer

answer

User states that he received an error message in a Windows dialog box. Doesn't remember exact error message. How can a technician view it?

question

Similar to tailgating, but instead of following an authorized person into the building, you're allowed in by an insider.

answer

What is piggybacking?

question

It's phishing but targeting a high value target such as a CEO of a company.

answer

What is whaling?

question

Phishing scams that are done via SMS messaging or texting.

answer

What is SMSishing?

question

Knowledge factors - something the user knows, like a password or PIN. Ownership factors - something the user has, such as a key, smart card, or security token. Inherence factors - something about the user, such as a fingerprint or iris scan Location factor - somewhere you are. This can be used if the individual's location can be pinpointed via GPS or some other method. The individual may be required to be at a certain location in order to log in to the system, for example. Temporal factor - may require logon at a certain time of day, or even within so many seconds or minutes of another event. Ability factor - Something you can do such as typing pattern or voice cadence pattern.

answer

What are the authentication factors?

question

Knowledge factor

answer

Authorization factor where the factor is something the user knows, like a password or PIN.

question

Ownership factor

answer

Authorization factor where the factor is something the user has, such as a key, smart card, or security token.

question

Inherence factors

answer

Authorization factor where the factor is something about the user, such as a fingerprint, facescan, or iris scan

question

Location factor

answer

Authorization factor where the factor is somewhere you are. This can be used if the individual's location can be pinpointed via GPS or some other method. The individual may be required to be at a certain location in order to log in to the system, for example.

question

Temporal factor

answer

Authorization factor where the factor may require logon at a certain time of day, or even within so many seconds or minutes of another event.

question

Ability factor

answer

Authorization factor where the factor is something you can do such as typing pattern or voice cadence pattern.

question

Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs)

answer

What is the best way to protect network devices from a loss of power?

question

Clean equipment with compressed air or a nonstatic vacuum. Maintain proper airflow to keep things cool and to control dusty air. Make sure that the room is ventilated and air-conditioned and that the air filters are changed regularly. If things are really bad, you can enclose a system in a dust shield which comes complete with its own filter.

answer

What are some methods of protecting equipment from "dirty air?"

question

22° Celsius or 72° Fahrenheit

answer

What temperature are most computers designed to operate at?

question

A privacy filter which is little more than a framed sheet or film that you apply to the front of your monitor. Privacy filters reduce the viewing angle, making it impossible to see the contents on the screen for anyone except those directly in front of the screen

answer

What's an excellent way to prevent "shoulder surfing?"

question

The bot hearder

answer

What is the person in charge of the botnet called?

question

1. Identify malware symptoms 2. Quarantine infected system 3. Disable system restore in Windows 4. Remediate infected systems * Update anti-malware software * Use scan and removal techniques - Windows Safe Mode or Preinstallation Environment 5. Schedule scans and run updates 6. Enable system restore & create restore point 7. Educate end user

answer

What's the best way to remove malware?

STUDY

Algorithms Brute Force Attack Computer Security and Reliability Computing Public Key Cryptography

3 Practice Questions – Flashcards 87 terms

Sara Edwards

87 terms

Preview

3 Practice Questions – Flashcards

question

What is the cryptography mechanism which hides secret communications within various forms of data?

answer

steganography

question

Which of the ff. encryption methods combines a random value with the plain text to produce the cipher text?

answer

one-time pad

question

Which type of cipher changes the position of the characters in a plain text message?

answer

transposition

question

The Enigma machine, a cryptographic tool introduced in 1944 and used in WW2, encrypted messages by replacing characters for plain text. Which type of cipher does the Enigma machine use?

answer

substitution

question

In a cryptographic system, what properties should the initialization vector have? (Select two.)

answer

unpredictable; large

question

Which of the ff. is a form of mathematical attack against the complexity of a cryptosystem's algorithm?

answer

analytic attack

question

Which form of cryptanalysis focuses on the weaknesses in the supporting computing platform as a means to exploit and defeat encryption?

answer

statistical attack

question

In which type of attack does the attacker have access to both the plain text and the resulting cipher text, but does not have the ability to encrypt the plain text?

answer

known plaintext

question

Your company produces an encryption device that lets you enter text and receive encrypted text in response. An attacker obtains one of these devices and starts inputting random plain text to see the resulting cipher text. What type of attack is this?

answer

chosen plaintext

question

When an attacker decrypts an encoded message using a different key than was used during encryption, what type of attack has occurred?

answer

key clustering

question

what best describes a side-channel attack?

answer

The attack is based on information from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem.

question

Which of the ff. password attacks adds appendages to known dictionary words?

answer

hybrid

question

Which of the ff. attacks will typically take the longest amount of time to complete?

answer

brute force attack

question

Which type of password attack employs a list of pre-defined passwords that it tries against a logon prompt or a local copy of a security accounts database?

answer

dictionary

question

Why are brute force attacks always successful?

answer

they test every possible valid combination

question

Hashing algorithms are used to perform what activity?

answer

create a message digest

question

Which of the ff. best describes high amplification when applied to hashing algorithms?

answer

a small change in the message results in a big change in the hash value

question

If two different messages or files produce the same hashing digest, then a collision has occurred. What form of cryptographic attack exploits this condition?

answer

birthday attack

question

Which of the ff. is used to verify that a downloaded file has not been altered?

answer

hash

question

You have just downloaded a file. You create a hash of the file and compare it to the hash posted on the Website. The two hashes match. What do you know about the file?

answer

your copy is the same as the copy posted on the webstie

question

Which of the ff. is the strongest hashing algorithm?

answer

SHA-1

question

Which of the ff. is the weakest hashing algorithm?

answer

MD5

question

SHA-1 uses which of the ff. bit length hashing algorithms?

answer

Only 160-bit

question

Which of the ff. does not or cannot produce a hash value of 128 bits?

answer

SHA-1

question

A birthday attack focuses on what?

answer

hashing algorithms

question

If a birthday attack is successful, meaning the attacker discovers a password that generates the same hash as that captured from a user's logon credentials, which of the ff. is true? (Select two.)

answer

a collision was discovered; the discovered password will allow the attacker to log on as the user, even if it is not the same as the user's password

question

when two different messages produce the same hash value, what has occurred?

answer

collision

question

What types of key or keys are used in symmetric cryptography?

answer

a shared private key

question

How many keys are used with symmetric key cryptography?

answer

one

question

Which of the ff. is not true concerning symmetric key cryptography?

answer

Key management is easy when implemented on a large scale.

question

You want to encrypt data on a removable storage device. Which encryption method would you choose to use the strongest method possible?

answer

AES

question

Which of the ff. algorithms are used in symmetric encryption? (Select Three.)

answer

3DES AES Blowfish

question

Which of the ff. are true of Triple DES (3DES)? (Select two.)

answer

is used in IPSec; uses a 168-bit key

question

Which of the ff. are true concerning the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) symmetric block cipher? (Select two.)

answer

AES uses the Rijindael block cipher; AES uses a variable-length block and key length (128-,192- or 256-bit keys)

question

Which of the ff. symmetric block ciphers does not use a variable block length?

answer

International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)

question

Which of the ff. encryption mechanism offers the least security because of weak keys?

answer

DES

question

Which version of Rivest Cipher is a block cipher that supports variable bit length keys and variable bit block sizes?

answer

RC5

question

Bob Jones used the RC5 cryptosystem to encrypt a sensitive and confidential file on his notebook. He used 32 bit blocks, a 64 bit key, and he only used the selected key once. He moved the key onto a USB hard drive which was stored in a safe deposit box. Bob's notebook was stolen. Within a few days Bob discovered the contents of his encrypted file on the Internet. What is the primary reason why Bob's file was opened so quickly?

answer

weak key

question

You are concerned about the strength of your cryptographic keys, so you implement a system that does the following: • The initial key is fed into the input of the bcrypt utility on a Linux workstation. • The bcrypt utility produces an enhanced key that is 128 bits long. The resulting enhanced key is much more difficult to crack than the original key. Which kind of encryption mechanism was used in this scenario?

answer

key stretching

question

Which of the following is considered an out-of-band distribution method for private-key encryption?

answer

copying the key to a USB drive

question

Which of the following is a "stream cipher"

answer

RC4

question

out-of-band distribution

answer

manually distributing the key, such as copying the key to a USB drive

question

in-band distribution

answer

can use a key distribution algorithm, such as Diffie-Hellman, to send the key to the recipient.

question

how many keys are used with asymmetric or public key crypto?

answer

two

question

A receiver wants to verify the integrity of a message received from a sender. A hashing value is contained within the digital signature of the sender. What must the receiver use to access the hashing value to verify the integrity of the transmission?

answer

sender's public key

question

Which of the ff. are characteristics of ECC? (Select two.)

answer

asymmetric encryption; uses a finite set of values within an algebraic field

question

Which of the ff. algorithms are used in asymmetric encryption? (Select two.)

answer

RSA; Diffie-Hellman

question

Above all else, what must be protected to maintain the security and benefit of an asymmetric cryptographic solution, especially if it is widely used for digital certificates?

answer

private keys

question

Which of the ff. generates the key pair used in asymmetric cryptography?

answer

CSP

question

Mary wants to send a message to Sam so that only Sam can read it. Which key would be used to encrypt the message?

answer

Sam's public key

question

Mary wants to send a message to Sam. She wants to digitally sign the message to prove that she sent it. Which key would Mary use to recreate the digital signature?

answer

mary's private key

question

The strength of a cryptosystem is dependent upon which of the ff.?

answer

the secrecy of the key

question

Which form of asymmetric cryptography is based upon Diffie-Hellman?

answer

El Gamal

question

Which cryptography system generates encryption keys that could be used with DES, AES, IDEA, RC5 or any other symmetric cryptography solution?

answer

Diffie-Hellman

question

implements the diffie-hellman key exchange protocol using the elliptic curve cryptography

answer

ECDH

question

exists only for the lifetime of a specific communication session

answer

ephemeral keys

question

uses no deterministic algorithm when generating public keys

answer

perfect forward secrecy

question

can be reused by multiple communication sessions

answer

static keys

question

what is the purpose of key escrow?

answer

To provide a means for legal authorities to access confidential data

question

Which aspect of certificates makes them a reliable and useful mechanism for providing the identity of a person, system, or service on the Internet?

answer

trusted third-party

question

Which of the ff. items are contained in a digital certificate? (Select two.)

answer

validity period; public key

question

In what form of key management solution is key recovery possible?

answer

centralized

question

Which of the ff. conditions does "not" result in a certificate being added to the certificate revocation list?

answer

certificate expiration

question

Which of the ff. is an entity that accepts and validates information contained within a request for a certificate?

answer

registration authority

question

Which of the ff. would you find on a CPS?

answer

declaration of the security that the organization is implementing for all certificates

question

PKI

answer

A hierarchy of computers for issuing certificates

question

A PKI is a method for managing which type of encryption?

answer

asymmetric

question

What technology was developed to help improve the efficiency and reliability of checking the validity status of certificates in large complex environments?

answer

online certificate status protocol

question

You have lost the private key that you have used to encrypt files. You need to get a copy of the private key to open some encrypted files. Who should you contact?

answer

recovery agent

question

You have a Web server that will be used for secure transactions for customers who access the Web site over the Internet. The Web server requires a certificate to support SSL. Which method would you use to get a certificate for the server?

answer

obtain a certificate from a public PKI

question

To obtain a digital certificate and participate in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), what must be submitted and where should it be submitted?

answer

identifying data and a certification request to the registration authority (RA)

question

when is the best time to apply for a certificate renewal?

answer

near the end of the certificate's valid lifetime

question

what is the main function of a tpm hardware chip?

answer

generate and store cryptographic keys

question

Which of the ff. is a direct protection of integrity?

answer

digital signature

question

Which of the ff. statements is "true" when comparing symmetric and asymmetric cryptography?

answer

asymmetric key cryptography is used to distribute symmetric keys

question

Which of the ff. is "not" true regarding to S/MIME?

answer

uses IDEA encryption

question

Which of the ff. technologies is based upon SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)?

answer

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

question

Which of the ff. can be used to encrypt Web, e-mail, telnet, file transfer, and SNMP traffic?

answer

IPSec

question

What is the primary use of Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)?

answer

protect credit card information

question

Secure Multi-Purpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) is used primarily to protect what?

answer

e-mail attachments

question

The PGP or Pretty Good Privacy encryption utility relies upon what algorithms? (Select two.)

answer

IDEA 3DES

question

Which public key encryption system does PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) use for key exchange signatures?

answer

RSA

question

Which of the ff. communication encryption mechanisms has a specific version for wireless communications?

answer

TLS (Transport Layer Security)

question

Which security mechanism can be used to harden or protect e-commerce traffic from Web servers?

answer

SSL

question

What form of cryptography is "not" scalable as a stand-alone system for use in very large and ever expanding environments where data is frequently exchanged between different communication partners?

answer

Symmetric cryptography

question

What form of cryptography is scalable for use in very large and ever-expanding environments where data is frequently exchanged between different communication partners?

answer

asymmetric cryptography

question

Which of the ff. is an entity that accepts and validates information contained within a request for a certificate?

answer

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Computer Networks Network Topology Wide Area Network Wireless Access Points

Ch. 12 (post lecture) – Flashcards 20 terms

Robert May

20 terms

Preview

Ch. 12 (post lecture) – Flashcards

question

A ___ server tracks who is logging on to the network as well as which services on the network are available to each user -file -application -authentication -dedicated

answer

authentication

question

a ___ network can contain servers as well as individual computers -switch -star -peer-to-peer -client/server

answer

client/server

question

A ___ is a group of two or more computers, or nodes, designed to share information and resources

answer

network

question

most home networks use ___ cable, which is most susceptible to interference -fiber-optic -unshielded twisted-pair -coaxial -Wi-Fi

answer

unshielded twisted-pair

question

A ___ sends data from one collision domain to another -router -link -switch -bridge

answer

bridge

question

____ is the amount of data that can be transmitted across a transmission medium in a certain amount of time -data capacity -bandwidth -infusion -scalability

answer

bandwidth

question

For business networks, which of the following is NOT a main cable type? -coaxial -duplex -twisted-pair -fiber-optic

answer

duplex

question

which of the following is NOT a common network topology? -linera bus -star -ring -cluster

answer

cluster

question

which of the following is the most commonly used client/server network topology? -ring -star -hierarchical -cluster

answer

star

question

____ cable is NOT a subject to electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference -coaxial -fiber-optic -twisted-pair -polycarbonate

answer

fiber-optic

question

ring networks use the ___ method to avoid data collisions -active-check -packet screening -token -passive-check

answer

token

question

the computers in a lab on a floor of a building would be connected using a ___ -WAN -MAN -LAN -PAN

answer

LAN

question

a print-server uses a print ___ as a software holding area for jobs waiting to be printed -spooler -logger -heap -stack

answer

spooler

question

in a ___ network, data collisions can occur fairly easily because the network is essentially composed of a single cable -hierarchical -star -bus -cluster

answer

bus

question

the ends of the cable in a bus network use a ___ to absorb signals so that they are not reflected back to network components that have already received the signals -stopper -endcap -terminator -block

answer

terminator

question

a ___ keeps your computer safe by determining who is trying to access it -switch -firewall -hub -gateway

answer

firewall

question

configuring an account to disable itself after a set number of login attempts using invalid passwords is a method of counter a ___ -spammer -brute force attack -trojan horse -worm

answer

brute force attack

question

a ___ server is a server that stores and manages files for network users -print -file -e-mail -database

answer

file

question

a ___ is a set of rules for how information and communication are exchanged -token -packet -frame -protocol

answer

protocol

question

which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting network cabling? -bandwidth -interference -cable diameter -maximum run length

answer

cable diameter

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Computer Forensics Computer Science Forensics

Computer forensics – 2nd half – quiz 9 – Flashcards 25 terms

Lewis Edwards

25 terms

Preview

Computer forensics – 2nd half – quiz 9 – Flashcards

question

Because attorneys do not have the right of full discovery of digital evidence, it is not possible for new evidence to come to light while complying with a defense request for full discovery.? t/f

answer

false

question

One of the most critical aspects of digital forensics is validating digital evidence because ensuring the integrity of data you collect is essential for presenting evidence in court.? t/f

answer

true

question

The advantage of recording hash values is that you can determine whether data has changed.? t/f

answer

true

question

In private sector cases, like criminal and civil cases, the scope is always defined by a search warrant.? t/f

answer

false

question

Advanced hexadecimal editors offer many features not available in digital forensics tools, such as hashing speci?c ?les or sectors. ? t/f

answer

true

question

What format below is used for VMware images? a. .vhd b. .vmdk c. .s01 d. .aff

answer

question

?In which file system can you hide data by placing sensitive or incriminating data in free or slack space on disk partition clusters? a. ?NTFS b. ?FAT c. ?HFSX d. ?Ext3fs

answer

question

Which password recovery method uses every possible letter, number, and character found on a keyboard?? a. ?rainbow table b. ?dictionary attack c. ?hybrid attack d. ?brute-force attack

answer

question

The goal of recovering as much information as possible can result in ________________, in which an investigation expands beyond the original description because of unexpected evidence found.? a. ?litigation b. ?scope creep c. ?criminal charges d. ?violations

answer

question

Which of the following file systems can't be analyzed by OSForensics? a. ?FAT12 b. Ext2fs c. ?HFS+ d. ?XFS

answer

question

?In Windows, the ______________ command can be used to both hide and reveal partitions within Explorer. a. ?format b. ?fdisk c. ?grub d. ?diskpart

answer

question

?Select the tool below that does not use dictionary attacks or brute force attacks to crack passwords: a. ?Last Bit b. ?AccessData PRTK c. ?OSForensics d. ?Passware

answer

question

?Within Windows Vista and later, partition gaps are _____________ bytes in length. a. ?64 b. ?128 c. ?256 d. ?512

answer

question

Which option below is not a disk management tool?? a. Partition Magic? b. ?Partition Master c. ?GRUB d. ?HexEdit

answer

question

Typically, anti-virus tools run hashes on potential malware files, but some advanced malware uses ________________ as a way to hide its malicious code from antivirus tools.? a. ?hashing b. ?bit-shifting c. ?registry edits d. ?slack space

answer

question

A user with programming experience may use an assembler program (also called a __________ ) on a file to scramble bits, in order to secure the information contained inside.? a. ?compiler b. shifter c. ?macro d. ?script

answer

question

What letter should be typed into DiskEdit in order to mark a good sector as bad?? a. ?M b. ?B c. ?T d. ?D

answer

question

Many commercial encryption programs use a technology called _____________, which is designed to recover encrypted data if users forget their passphrases or if the user key is corrupted after a system failure.? a. ?key vault b. ?key escrow c. ?bump key d. ?master key

answer

question

What technique is designed to reduce or eliminate the possibility of a rainbow table being used to discover passwords?? a. salted passwords b. ?scrambled passwords c. ?indexed passwords d. master passwords

answer

question

When performing a static acquisition, what should be done after the hardware on a suspect's computer has been inventoried and documented?? a. ?Inventory and documentation information should be stored on a drive and then the drive should be reformatted. b. ?Start the suspect's computer and begin collecting evidence. c. The hard drive should be removed, if practical, and the system's date and time values should be recorded from the system's CMOS.? d. ?Connect the suspect's computer to the local network so that up to date forensics utilities can be utilized.

answer

question

?In order to aid a forensics investigation, a hardware or software ______________ can be utilized to capture keystrokes remotely. a. ?keygrabber b. ?keylogger c. ?packet capture d. ?protocol analyzer

answer

question

The AccessData program has a hashing database, ________________, which is available only with FTK, and can be used to filter known program files from view and contains the hash values of known illegal files.? a. ?DeepScan Filter b. Unknown File Filter (UFF) c. ?Known File Filter (KFF) d. ?FTK Hash Imager

answer

question

The term for detecting and analyzing steganography files is _________________.? a. ?carving b. ?steganology c. ?steganalysis d. ?steganomics

answer

question

A ____________ image file containing software is intended to be bit-stream copied to floppy disks or other external media.? a. ?fdisk b. ?format c. ?dd d. ?DiskEdit

answer

question

The _______________________ maintains a national database of updated file hash values for a variety of OSs, applications, and images, but does not list hash values of known illegal files.? a. ?Open Hash Database b. ?HashKeeper Online c. ?National Hashed Software Referenced. d. National Software Reference Library

answer

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Client Server Network Computer Networks Wireless Access Points

csci final- ch 12 – Flashcards 25 terms

Alice Rees

25 terms

Preview

csci final- ch 12 – Flashcards

question

what is another name for the physical address assigned to each network adapter?

answer

media access control MAC

question

a print server uses a print ____ as a software holding area for printing jobs

answer

queue

question

what is CSMA/CD?

answer

a method used to avoid data collisions

question

which cable type is the most costly to install

answer

fiber-optic

question

which of the following is NOT a common network topology

answer

cluster

question

which of the following is FALSE about servers

answer

all networks require at least two servers

question

a ___ server is a server that stores and manages files for network users

answer

file

question

which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting network cabling?

answer

cable diameter

question

___ are devices used to send data between 2 networks

answer

routers

question

an _____ address is the address external entitites use to communicate with your network

answer

question

____ cable is NOT subject to electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference

answer

fiber-optic

question

____ are often equipped to act as hardware firewalls

answer

routers

question

an ____ is used exclusivley within a corporation or organization

answer

intranet

question

a ____ uses the public internet communications infrastructure to build a secure, private network

answer

VPN

question

a ____ is a set of rules for how information and communication are exchanged

answer

protocol

question

a ____ is a group of two or more computers, or nodes, configured to share information and resources

answer

network

question

which of the following devices sends data from one collision domain to another

answer

bridge

question

an ____ server tracks who is logging on to the network as well as which services on the network are avaliable to each user

answer

authentication

question

for business networks, which of the following is NOT a main cable type?

answer

Duplex

question

a ____ keeps your computer safe by confirming who is trying to access it

answer

firewall

question

packet ___ is a form of protection for your computer that looks at each packet that comes into your computer network

answer

screening

question

a ____ server is a heavily secured server located on a special perimeter network between a company's secure internal network and it's firewall

answer

bastion host

question

facial recognition is an example of ____ authentication

answer

biometric

question

which is NOT a networking protocol

answer

HyperText Transfer Protocol

question

the standard communications protocol used on most client/server networks is

answer

ethernet

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Intrusion Detection System Policies And Procedures

MIS 300, CH10 – Flashcards 14 terms

Niamh Mitchell

14 terms

Preview

MIS 300, CH10 – Flashcards

question

With regard to the security threat/loss scenario, human error would be categorized as a

answer

Threat

question

Security safeguards that involve vulnerabilities in hardware and software are referred to as .... safeguards

answer

Technical

question

Breaking into computers, servers, and networks to steal data is called

answer

Hacking

question

.... is one term used to describe what occurs when someone deceives by pretending to be someone else

answer

Protexting -pretending

question

Which of the following technical safeguards is BEST for preventing unauthorized network access?

answer

Firewalls

question

Senior management in organizations must address two critical security functions

answer

Security POLICY, Risk MANAGEMENT

question

When a criminal pretends to be someone they are not, the criminal is said to be what

answer

Spoofing

question

With regard to the security threat/loss scenario, the practice of buying online using HTTPS would be categorized as a

answer

Safeguard

question

All of the following are a data safeguards EXCEPT which one ?

answer

Help desk

question

One of the reasons we do not know the full extent of financial and data loss due to computer security threats is bc

answer

All of the studies on the cost of computer crime are based on surveys

question

With regard to the security threat/Loss scenario, unauthorized data disclosure would be categorized as a

answer

Loss

question

One personal security safeguard is to take security seriously. Another important security safeguard is to

answer

Use multiple passwords

question

The major factors associated with an organizational response to a security incident include all of the following EXCEPT

answer

Alerting the media

question

The best password will use

answer

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Intrusion Detection System

MIS Chapter 10 Review – Flashcards 81 terms

Ewan Knight

81 terms

Preview

MIS Chapter 10 Review – Flashcards

question

_____ occurs when computer criminals invade a computer system and replace legitimate programs with their own unauthorized ones.

answer

Usurpation

question

Adware and spyware are similar to each other in that they both _______.

answer

Reside in the background and observe a user's behavior

question

In the case of public key encryption, each site has a private key to encode a message and a public key to decode it. T/F

answer

False

question

Technical safeguards involve both software and hardware components of an information system. T/F

answer

True

question

Risk management is a critical security function addressed by an organization's senior management. T/F

answer

True

question

_____ is the process of transforming clear text into coded, unintelligible text for secure storage or communication.

answer

Ecryption

question

A ________ pretends to be a legitimate company and sends emails requesting confidential data.

answer

Phisher

question

Which of the following uses an individual's personal physical characteristics such as fingerprints, facial features, and retinal scans for verification purposes?

answer

biometric authentication

question

Hiring, training, and educating employees in an organization is a technical safeguard. T/F

answer

False

question

With https, data are encrypted using a protocol called the __________.

answer

Secure Sockets Layer

question

_______ are created by companies as false targets for computer criminals to attack.

answer

Honeypots

question

Which of the following occurs when millions of bogus service requests flood a Web server and prevent it from servicing legitimate requests?

answer

denial of service

question

Mark receives an email from his bank asking him to update and verify his credit card details. He replies to the email with all the requested details. Mark later learns that the email was not actually sent by his bank and that the information he had shared has been misused. Mark is a victim of________.

answer

phishing

question

As one of the safeguards against security threats, a person should preferably use the same password for different sites so as to avoid confusion. T/F

answer

False

question

The procedure of entrusting a party with a copy of an encryption key that can be used in case the actual key is lost or destroyed is called ______.

answer

key escrow

question

Davian, a professional hacker, trues every possible combination of characters to crack his victim's email password. Using this technique, he can crack a six-character password of either upper- or lowercase letters in about ten minutes. Which of the following techniques is used by Davian to obtain access to his victim's email?

answer

brute force attack

question

Most secure communications over the Internet use a protocol called_________.

answer

https

question

The loss of encryption keys by employees is referred to as key escrow. T/F

answer

False

question

Which of the following statements is true of the financial losses due to computer crimes?

answer

All studies on the costs of computer crimes are based on surveys.

question

There are no standards for tallying costs of computer crime. T/F

answer

True

question

______ occurs when a threat obtains data that is supposed to be protected.

answer

Unauthorized data closure

question

A key is a number used with an encryption algorithm to encrypt data. T/F

answer

True

question

_______ take computers with wireless connections through an area and search for unprotected wireless networks.

answer

Wardrivers

question

A virus is a computer program that replicates itself. T/F

answer

True

question

Thomas is responsible for creating backup copies of information in a system. He also works along with IT personnel to ensure that the backups are valid and that effective recovery procedures exist. Thomas is involved in establishing______.

answer

Data safeguards

question

Breaking into computers, servers, or networks to steal proprietary and confidential data is referred to as __________.

answer

hacking

question

Smart cards are convenient to use because they do not require a personal identification number for authentication. T/F

answer

False

question

Malware definitions are patterns that exist in malware code. T/F

answer

True

question

Existence of accounts that are no longer necessary does not pose a security threat. T/F

answer

False

question

In terms of password management, when an account is created, users should ________.

answer

immediately change the password they are given to a password of their own.

question

______ are all files that browsers store on users' computers when they visit Web sites.

answer

question

Which of the following is a symptom for phishing?

answer

email spoofing

question

While making online purchases, a person should buy only from vendors who support https. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is a technical safeguard against security threats?

answer

firewall

question

Which of the following is considered a personal security safeguard?

answer

removing high-value assets from computers

question

Why asymmetric encryption, two different keys are used for encoding and decoding a message. T/F

answer

true

question

Which of the following statements is true of position sensitivity?

answer

it enables security personnel to prioritize their activities in accordance with the possible risk and loss.

question

Which of the following information should be provided by users of smart cards for authentication?

answer

personal identification number

question

To safeguard data against security threats, every information system today requires a user name and a password. In this case, which of the following functions is performed by the user name?

answer

Identification

question

________refers to an organization-wide function that is in charge of developing data policies and enforcing data standards.

answer

Data administration

question

Which of the following statements is true of symmetric encryption?

answer

it uses the same key for both encoding and decoding

question

_______ is a technique for intercepting computer communications

answer

Sniffing

question

Incorrectly increasing a customer's discount is an example of incorrect data modification. T/F

answer

True

question

Backup and recovery against computer security threats are __________.

answer

data safeguards

question

Which of the following is a data safeguard against security threats?

answer

physical security

question

Viruses, worms, and Trojan horses are types of firewalls. T/F

answer

False

question

Packet-filtering firewalls cannot prohibit outsiders from starting a session with any user behind the firewall. T/F

answer

False

question

Incident-response plans should provide centralized reporting of all security incidents. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is a human safeguard against threats?

answer

Procedure design

question

Pretexting occurs when someone deceives by pretending to be someone else.T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following are the three independent factors that constitute the enforcement of security procedures and policies?

answer

responsibility, accountability, and compliance

question

A_______ is a message that individuals or organizations take to block a threat from obtaining an asset.

answer

safeguard

question

A threat is a person or an organization that seeks to obtain or alter data illegally, without the owners permission or knowledge.T/F

answer

True

question

Financial institutions must invest heavily in security safeguards because they are obvious targets for theft. T/F

answer

True

question

A criticism of biometric authentication is that it provides weak authentication. T/F

answer

False

question

Packet-filtering firewalls are the most sophisticated type of firewall.T/F

answer

False

question

An_______includes how employees should react to security problems, whom they should contact, the reports they should make, and steps they can take to reduce further loss.

answer

incident-response plan

question

_______ is a broad category of software that includes viruses, worms, Trojan horses, spyware, and adware.

answer

Malware

question

Technical safeguards include encryption and usage of passwords. T/F

answer

False

question

In an organization, security sensitivity for each position should be documented. T/F

answer

True

question

An________is a computer program that senses when another computer is attempting to scan a disk or access a computer.

answer

intrusion detection system

question

A help-desk information system has answers to questions that only a true user of an account or system would know. T/F

answer

True

question

______ a site means to take extraordinary measures to reduce a system's vulnerability.

answer

Hardening

question

Malware protection is an example of a technical safeguard. T/F

answer

True

question

A person calls the Stark residence and pretends to represent a credit card company. He asks Mrs. Stark to confirm her credit card number. this is an example of _______.

answer

pretexting

question

Damages to security systems caused by natural disasters are minimal when compared to the damages due to human errors.T/F

answer

False

question

The creation of backup copies of databse contents makes the data move vulnerable to security threats. T/F

answer

False

question

Every information system today should require users to sign on with a user name and a password. In this case, which of the following functions is performed by the user's password?

answer

authentication

question

Spoofing is a technique for intercepting computer communications. T/F

answer

False

question

In a brute force attack, a password cracker trues every possible combination of characters. T/F

answer

True

question

_______ are viruses that masquerade as useful programs like a computer game, an MP3 file, or some other useful innocuous program.

answer

Trojan horses

question

A _______ sits outside an organizational network and is the first device that Internet traffic encounters.

answer

perimeter firewall

question

Advanced persistent threats can be a means to engage in cyber warfare and cyber espionage. T/F

answer

True

question

IP spoofing occurs when an intruder uses another site's IP address to masquerade as that other site. T/F

answer

True

question

A_____ examines the source address, destination address, and other data of a message and determines whether to let that message pass.

answer

packet-filtering firewall

question

Which of the following types of encryption is used by the secure sockets layer protocol?

answer

public key encryption

question

Spyware programs are installed on a user's computer without the user's knowledge. T/F

answer

True

question

Wardrives are those who engage in phishing to obtain unauthorized access to data. T/F

answer

False

question

A user name authenticates a user, and a password identifies that user. T/F

answer

False

question

An _______ is a sophisticated, possibly long-run computer hack that is perpetrated by large, well-funded organizations like governments.

answer

advanced persistent threat

question

A______ is a plastic card that has a microchip loaded with identifying data.

answer

smart card

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Chief Financial Officer Chief Information Officer Chief Operating Officer Computer Based Systems Educational Technology Size And Structure Systems Analysis

MIS Chapter 11 review – Flashcards 70 terms

Owen Clarke

70 terms

Preview

MIS Chapter 11 review – Flashcards

question

Organizations outsource projects to engage its management team in their free time. T/F

answer

False

question

Which of the following is a risk of outsourcing information systems?

answer

Vendors can gain access to critical knowledge of the outsourcing company.

question

information systems infrastructure is known to be very malleable. T/F

answer

False

question

In organizations where primary information systems support only accounting activities, a reporting arrangement wherein the chief information officer reports to the ________ is practical.

answer

chief financial officer

question

A systems analyst monitors, fixes, and tunes computer networks. T/F

answer

False

question

The _______ group's purpose is to protect information assets by establishing standards and management practices and policies.

answer

data administration

question

Which of the following staff functions is at the top-most level of a typical senior-level reporting relationship?

answer

chief operating officer

question

A salesperson's responsibility is to design and write computer programs. T/F

answer

False

question

A _____ designs and writes computer codes.

answer

programmer

question

Information systems users have the right to receive effective training in a format convenient to a user. T/F

answer

True

question

Information technology concerns products, techniques, procedures, and designs of computer-based technology. T/F

answer

True

question

______ is the process of hiring another organization to perform a service.

answer

outsourcing

question

Which of the following is right of a user of information systems?

answer

contributing to requirements for new system features and functions

question

An organization that wishes to leverage the power of social media and elastic cloud opportunities to help accomplish its goals and objectives should ideally turn to the ______ group within its IT department for information.

answer

technology

question

The responsibilities of a chief information officer are the same as those of a child technology officer. T/F

answer

False

question

The knowledge of responsibilities and duties of an information systems department helps one become a better consumer of the IS department's services. T/F

answer

True

question

The ______ group within the information systems department manages the process of creating new information systems as well as maintaining existing information system,s.

answer

development

question

In ______, hardware are both operating system and application software are leased.

answer

software as a service (SaaS)

question

Which of the following is a responsibility of a systems analyst?

answer

determining system requirements

question

In the context of information systems, maintenance means fixing problems or adapting existing information systems to support new features and functions. T/F

answer

True

question

A user support representative installs software and repairs computer equipment. T/F

answer

False

question

In an organization, the IS department's principal manager is called the ______.

answer

chief information officer

question

A _____ monitors, maintains, fixes, and tunes computer networks.

answer

network administrator

question

An outsource vendor can choose the technology that it wants to implement, unless a contract requires otherwise. T/F

answer

True

question

A technical writer writes program documentation, help-text, procedures, job descriptions, and training materials. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is a responsibility of a small-scale project manager?

answer

initiate, plan, manage, monitor, and close down projects

question

An operations group within an IT department may include programmers, test engineers, and technical writers. T/F

answer

False

question

Gaining economies of scale is an advantage of outsourcing. T/F

answer

True

question

In service-oriented outsourcing, a vender is in the driver's seat. T/F

answer

True

question

Implementation risk is increased by outsourcing information systems services. T/F

answer

False

question

As a user of information systems, an employee has a responsibility to avoid _______.

answer

unauthorized hardware modifications

question

A user has the right to obtain necessary computing resources to perform his or her work efficiently. T/F

answer

True

question

The _____group investigates new information systems and determines how the organization can benefit from them.

answer

technology

question

Microsoft's Azure is an example of SaaS. T/F

answer

False

question

Information technology must be places into the structure of the information systems before an organization can use it. T/F

answer

True

question

_______ is a title given to the principal manager of an organization's IS department.

answer

chief information officer

question

The potential loss of intellectual capital is a concern related to outsourcing. T/F

answer

True

question

______ refers to the leasing of hardware with preinstalled operating systems.

answer

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

question

Which of the following statements is true of the development group of a company's information systems department?

answer

The size and structure of the group depends on whether programs are developed in-house or outsourced.

question

An information systems department is responsible for adapting infrastructure and systems for new business goals. T/F

answer

True

question

A _______ committee is a group of senior managers from the major business functions that works with the chief information officer to set information systems priorities and decide major IS projects and alternatives.

answer

steering

question

The purpose of an outsourcing relations department is to negotiate agreements with other companies to provide equipment, applications, or other services. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is an advantage of outsourcing information systems?

answer

It can be an easy way to gain expertise otherwise not known.

question

A ________ performs a wide range of activities such as programming, testing, database design, communications and networks, project management, and is required to have an entrepreneurial attitude.

answer

consultant

question

The rights of an information systems user depend on the purpose of a system's usage. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is true if the development group of a company's information systems department is staffed primarily by programmers, test engineers, technical writers, and other development personnel?

answer

The company develops programs in-house

question

Large-scale project managers require deeper project management knowledge than small-scale managers. T/F

answer

True

question

in order to accomplish organizational goals and objectives, an organization's information systems must be aligned with its ______.

answer

competitive strategy

question

Outsourcing has made in-house information systems functions obsolete. T/F

answer

False

question

In organizations that operate significant nonaccounting information systems, such as manufacturers, a reporting arrangement wherein the chief information officer reports to the _______ is more common and effective.

answer

chief executive officer

question

The structure of an information systems (IS) department typically remains unchanged among organizations.T/F

answer

False

question

It is a chief technology officer's responsibility to identify new technologies relevant to an organization. T/F

answer

True

question

When a company outsources a system, it has complete control over prioritizing software fixes. T/F

answer

False

question

The purpose of an information system is to help an organization accomplish its goals and objectives. T/F

answer

True

question

The _____ evaluates new technologies, new ideas, and new capabilities and identifies those that are most relevant to the organization.

answer

chief technology officer

question

New information systems must be consistent with an organization's goals and objectives. T/F

answer

True

question

The ______ group manages the computing infrastructure, including individual computers, in-house server farms, networks, and communications media.

answer

operations

question

An important function of the development group of a company's information systems department is to monitor user experience and respond to user problems. T/F

answer

False

question

The membership of a steering committee is determined by the CEO and other members of the executive staff. T/F

answer

True

question

Protection of information assets is a major function of an information systems department. T/F

answer

True

question

It is a user's responsibility to install patches and fixes when asked to do so. T/F

answer

True

question

A database administrator's responsibility is to design and write automates test scripts. T/F

answer

False

question

Each outsource vendor has its own methods and procedures for its services. T/F

answer

True

question

Acquiring licensed software is a form of outsourcing. T/F

answer

True

question

In the context of right to reliable network and internet services, reliable means that one can use it without problems almost all the time. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is true of the alignment between information systems and organizational strategies?

answer

Information systems must evolve with changes made in organizational strategies.

question

Parting business with an outsource vendor is exceedingly risky. T/F

answer

True

question

Which of the following is a responsibility of an information systems user?

answer

following security and backup procedures

question

If a company's information systems related programs are not developed in-house, then the development group of the IS department will be staffed primarily by _______.

answer

systems analysts

question

It is impossible to outsource an entire business function. T/F

answer

False

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Encoding And Decoding Secure Sockets Layer

MIS Final Exam ch 12 – Flashcards 44 terms

Alexandra Robertson

44 terms

Preview

MIS Final Exam ch 12 – Flashcards

question

1) A(n) ________ is a measure that individuals or organizations take to block a threat from obtaining an asset.

answer

safeguard

question

2) Which of the following types of security loss is WikiLeaks an example of? A) unauthorized data disclosure

answer

unauthorized data disclosure

question

3) A person calls the Stark residence and pretends to represent a credit card company. He asks Mrs. Stark to confirm her credit card number. This is an example of ________.

answer

pretexting

question

4) A ________ pretends to be a legitimate company and sends emails requesting confidential data.

answer

phisher

question

5) Mark receives an email from his bank asking him to update and verify his credit card details. He replies to the mail with all the requested details. Mark later learns that the mail was not actually sent by his bank and that the information he had shared has been misused. Mark is a victim of ________.

answer

phising

question

6) Which of the following is a synonym for phishing?

answer

email spoofing

question

________ is a technique for intercepting computer communications.

answer

Sniffing

question

________ take computers with wireless connections through an area and search for unprotected wireless networks.

answer

Drive-by sniffers

question

Breaking into computers, servers, or networks to steal proprietary and confidential data is referred to as ________.

answer

hacking

question

Which of the following occurs when millions of bogus service requests flood a Web server and prevent it from servicing legitimate requests?

answer

DOS attack

question

________ occurs when computer criminals invade a computer system and replace legitimate programs with their own unauthorized ones.

answer

Usurpation

question

A(n) ________ is a sophisticated, possibly long-running, computer hack that is perpetrated by large, well-funded organizations like governments.

answer

Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)

question

Which of the following statements is true of the financial losses due to computer security threats?

answer

The financial losses faced by companies due to human error are enormous.

question

A(n) ________ is a computer program that senses when another computer is attempting to scan a disk or access a computer.

answer

intrusion detection system

question

Which of the following is considered a personal security safeguard?

answer

send no valuable data via email or IM

question

During which of the following computer crimes does a password cracker try every possible combination of characters?

answer

brute force attack

question

________ are small files that browsers store on users' computers when they visit Web sites.

answer

question

Which of the following is a human safeguard against security threats?

answer

procedure design

question

Which of the following is a technical safeguard against security threats?

answer

identification and authorization

question

Which of the following is a data safeguard against security threats?

answer

physical security

question

Backup and physical security are ________ against computer security threats.

answer

data safeguards

question

A user name ________ a user.

answer

identifies

question

A password ________ a user.

answer

autheticates

question

Users of smart cards are required to enter a ________ to be authenticated.

answer

personal identification number

question

A ________ has a microchip that is loaded with identifying data

answer

smart card

question

Which of the following uses an individual's personal physical characteristics such as fingerprints, facial features, and retinal scans for verification purposes?

answer

biometric authentication

question

________ is the process of transforming clear text into coded, unintelligible text for secure storage or communication.

answer

encryption

question

Which of the following statements is true of symmetric encryption?

answer

With symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encoding and decoding.

question

The most secure communications over the Internet use a protocol called ________.

answer

HTTPS

question

With HTTPS, data are encrypted using a protocol called the ________.

answer

Secure Socket Layer (SSL)

question

With HTTPS, data are encrypted using the Secure Socket Layer (SSL) protocol, which is also known as ________.

answer

Transport Layer Security (TLS

question

A(n) ________ sits outside an organizational network and is the first device that Internet traffic encounters.

answer

perimeter firewall

question

________ determine whether to pass each part of a message by examining its source address, destination addresses, and other such data.

answer

Packet-filtering firewalls

question

________ includes viruses, worms, Trojan horses, spyware, and adware.

answer

Malware

question

Which of the following refers to viruses that masquerade as useful programs?

answer

Trojan horses

question

Adware and spyware are similar to each other in that they both ________.

answer

are installed without a user's permission

question

Which of the following is an example of a data safeguard against security threats?

answer

backup and recovery

question

Organizations should protect sensitive data by storing it in ________ form.

answer

encrypted

question

The procedure of entrusting a party with a copy of an encryption key that can be used in case the actual key is lost or destroyed is called ________.

answer

key escrow

question

Which of the following statements is true about position sensitivity?

answer

Documenting position sensitivity enables security personnel to prioritize their activities.

question

The enforcement of security procedures and policies consists of three interdependent factors:

answer

responsibility, accountability, and compliance

question

In terms of password management, when an account is created, users should ________.

answer

immediately change the password they are given to a password of their own

question

Typically, a help-desk information system has answers to questions that only a true user would know. Which of the following statements is true of this information?

answer

It helps authenticate a user

question

Activity log analyses constitute an important ________ function.

answer

security monitoring

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Characters Identity Management Network Security

security chapter 12 – Flashcards 30 terms

Jacoby Flores

30 terms

Preview

security chapter 12 – Flashcards

question

OpenID is an example of a web-based federated identity management (FIM) system.? True False

answer

True

question

Which term below describes the time it takes for a key to be pressed and then released? Dwell time Lead time Sync time Show time

answer

Dwell time

question

What kind of biometrics utilizes a person's unique physical characteristics for authentication, such as fingerprints or unique characteristics of a person's face? Cognitive biometrics Reactive biometrics Standard biometrics Affective biometrics

answer

Standard biometrics

question

answer

hybrid

question

?A list of the available nonkeyboard characters can be seen in Windows by opening what utility? ?charmap.exe ?charlist.exe ?chardump.exe ?listchar.exe

answer

charmap.exe

question

?A U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) smart card that is used for identification of active-duty and reserve military personnel along with civilian employees and special contractors is called: ?Common Access Card (CAC) ?Identity Validation Card (IVC) ?Credential Validation Card (CVC) ?Personal Credential Card (PCC)

answer

?Common Access Card (CAC)

question

A secret combination of letters, numbers, and/or characters that only the user should have knowledge of, is known as a: token password biometric detail challenge

answer

password

question

Token credentials can be revoked at any time by the user without affecting other token credentials issued to other sites. True False

answer

Token credentials can be revoked at any time by the user without affecting other token credentials issued to other sites.

question

The use of one authentication credential to access multiple accounts or applications is referred to as? Individual Sign On Single Sign On Unilateral Sign On Federated Sign On

answer

Single Sign On

question

Geolocation is the identification of the location of a person or object using technology, and can be used as part of an authentication method.? True False

answer

True

question

What is the center of the weakness of passwords? human memory encryption technology handshake technology human reliability

answer

human memory

question

What type of attack involves using every possible combination of letters, numbers, and characters to create candidate digests that are then matched against those in a stolen digest file? Space division Brute force Known ciphertext Known plaintext

answer

Brute force

question

Passwords provide strong protection. True False

answer

False

question

The use of a single authentication credential that is shared across multiple networks is called: Access management Authorization management Identity management Risk management

answer

Identity management

question

What technology allows users to share resources stored on one site with a second site without forwarding their authentication credentials to the other site? OpenAuth OAuth SAML Kerberos

answer

OAuth

question

Using a rainbow table to crack a password requires three steps: Creation of the table, comparing the table to known hash values, and decrypting the password. True False

answer

False

question

?What federated identity management (FIM) relies on token credentials? ?OAuth ?OpenID ?Windows Live ?OpenPass

answer

OAuth

question

Passwords that are transmitted can be captured by what type of software? application analyzer system analyzer function analyzer protocol analyzer

answer

protocol analyzer

question

?Select below the decentralized open-source FIM that does not require specific software to be installed on the desktop: ?OAuth ?OpenID ?Windows Live ID ?OpenPass

answer

OpenID

question

The use of what item below involves the creation of a large pregenerated data set of candidate digests? Rainbow tables Randomized character list Word list Cascade tables

answer

Rainbow tables

question

Using one authentication credential to access multiple accounts or applications

answer

Single sign-on

question

Five elements that can prove the genuineness of a user: what you know, what you have, what you are, what you do, and where you are.

answer

authentication factors

question

A small device that can be affixed to a keychain with a window display that shows a code to be used for authentication.

answer

token

question

A password attack in which every possible combination of letters, numbers, and characters is used to create encrypted passwords that are matched against those in a stolen password file.

answer

brute force attack

question

A password hashing algorithm that requires significantly more time than standard hashing algorithms to create the digest

answer

key stretching

question

A popular key stretching password hash algorithm.

answer

Bcrypt

question

A random string that is used in hash algorithms.

answer

salt

question

A password attack that slightly alters dictionary words by adding numbers to the end of the password, spelling words backward, slightly mispelling words, or including special characters.

answer

hybrid attack

question

A hash used by modern Microsoft Windows operating systems for creating password digests.

answer

NTLM (new technology LAN Manager) hash

question

A password attack that creates encrypted versions of common dictionary words and compares them against those in a stolen password file..

answer

Dictionary attack

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Client Server Network Computer Networks Hypertext Transfer Protocol

Flashcards and Answers – TIA Chapter 12 Exam 44 terms

Evie Nicholson

44 terms

Preview

Flashcards and Answers – TIA Chapter 12 Exam

question

A ________ is a group of 2 or more computers, or nodes, configured to share information and resources. a. network b. route c. bridge d. bus

answer

a. network

question

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using networks as compared to a stand-alone computer? A. Enable software sharing B. Facilitate knowledge sharing C. Enhanced communication capabilities D. Ease of maintenance and administration

answer

D. Ease of maintenance and administration

question

A ___ allows multiple users to connect to the Internet through one connection. A. file server B. hub C. network D. packet screener

answer

C. network

question

___ networks contain servers as well as computers that individual users access and use. A. Client/Server B. Peer-to-peer C. Switch D. CSMA/CD

answer

A. Client/Server

question

In a(n) _________ network, each node connected to the network communicates directly with every other node. a. peer-to-peer b. intranet c. extranet d. client/server

answer

a. peer-to-peer

question

P2P networks become difficult to manage when they are expanded beyond ________ users a. 20 b. 5 c. 10 d. 50

answer

C. 10

question

A ________ is a network used by one person connected via wireless media a. LAN b. PAN c. WAN d. MAN

answer

B. PAN

question

A _______ uses the public Internet communications infrastructure to build a secure, private network a. LAN b. WAN c. MAN d. VPN

answer

D. VPN

question

A(n) ___ is used exclusively within a corporation or organization. A. VPN B. intranet C. extranet D. Internet

answer

B. intranet

question

A(n) ___ server tracks who is logging on to the network as well as which services on the network are available to each user. A. gateway B. authentication C. dedicated D. File

answer

B. authentication

question

Which of the following is FALSE about servers? A. Servers are the workhorses of the client/server network B. Servers interface with many different network users C. A file server stores and manages files for a network D. All networks require at least two servers

answer

D. All networks requires at least two serveers

question

A(n) server is a server that stores and manages files for network users. A. file B. e-mail C. print D. database

answer

A. file

question

A print server uses a print ___ as a software holding area for printing jobs. A. strack B. queue C. buffer D. heap

answer

B. queue

question

When a client computer connects to a network and requests the use of Microsoft Office 2010, for example, the ___ server delivers the software to the client computer. A. communication database B. database C. application D. file

answer

C. Application

question

Which of the following is NOT a common network topology? A. Star B. Cluster C. Bus D. Ring

answer

B. Cluster

question

A ___ is a set of rules for how information and communication are exchanged. A. protocol B. token C. switch D. packet

answer

A. protocol

question

Ring networks use the ___ method to avoid data collisions. A. packet screening B. active-check C. token D. passive-check

answer

C. token

question

The ends of the cable in a bus network use a(n) ___ to absorb a signal so that it is not reflected back onto parts of the network that have already received the signal. A. endcap B. terminator C. stopper D. block

answer

B. terminator

question

Which of the following networks is most known for data collisions? A. Star B. Bus C. Hierarchical D. Cluster

answer

B. Bus

question

A ___ is passed from computer from computer to computer around the ring of a ring topology network. A. packet B. protocol C. proxy D. token

answer

D. token

question

Which of the following is he most commonly used client/server network topology? A. Star B. Cluster C. Ring D. Hierarchical

answer

A. Star

question

The star topology uses a central ___ to connect all network nodes. A. terminator B. gateway C. switch D. router

answer

C. switch

question

If fair allocation of network access is a major requirement of the network, choose a(n) _________ topology a. ring b. cluster c. star d. bus

answer

A. ring

question

What is CSMA/CD? A. A type of network topology B. A special signal of a star network C. a method used to avoid data collisions D. The central communication device on a star or ring network

answer

C. a method used to avoid data collisions

question

In a network that uses the star topology, the signal that is sent to indicate a signal collision is called a ___ signal. A. hit B. crash C. stop D. jam

answer

D. jam

question

A ___ topology is created when more than one topology is used to build a network. A. hybrid B. multiple-use C. fusion D. crossover

answer

A. hybrid

question

Which of the following networks has high scalability? A. star B. ring C. bus D. hybrid

answer

A. star

question

For business networks, which of the following is NOT main cable type? a. twister-pair b. coaxial c. duplex d. fiber-optic

answer

C. duplex

question

Which of the following is NOT a factor to consider when selecting network cabling? A. Cable diameter B. Interference C. Maximum run length D. Bandwidth

answer

A. cable diameter

question

Which of the following causes interference when a cable is exposed to strong electromagnetic fields? A. EMI B. RFI C. STP D. IEEE

answer

A. EMI

question

________ cable is NOT subject to electromagnetic interference or radio frequency interference. A. Twisted-pair B. Fiber-optic C. Polycarbonate D. Coaxial

answer

B. Fiber-optic

question

________ is a protective layer made of glass or plastic, which is wrapped around the core of a fiber-optic cable for protection. A) Shielding B) Cladding C) Sheathing D) Coating

answer

B.) Cladding

question

Which cable type is the most costly to install? A. Fiber-optic B. Twisted-pair C. ThinNet coaxial D. ThickNet coaxial

answer

A. Fiber-optic

question

_______ interference is a type of signal interference in wired transmission media that can be caused by fluorescent lights or machinery with motors or transformers. A. Radio frequency interference B. Transitional C. Crosstalk D. Electromagnetic

answer

D. Electromagnetic

question

Which is NOT a networking protocol? A. Apple File Protocol (AFP) B. NetBios Extended User Interface (NetBEUI) C. Internet Packet Exchange (IPX) D. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

answer

D. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

question

Which of the following is something a network adapter does NOT do? A. It uses high-powered signals so data can move easily over network transmission media. B. It allows or denies access to the computer in which it is installed. C. It verifies that all information transmitted from the computer is correctly received by the recipient. D. It breaks down data and puts it into packets.

answer

C. It verifies that all information transmitted from the computer is correctly

question

The standard communications protocol used on most client/server networks is ________. A) Ethernet B) NOS C) TCP/IP D) VPN

answer

A) Ethernet

question

What is another name for the physical address assigned to each network adapter? A. Network Access Control (NAC) B. Physical Address Control (PAC) C. Network Physical Address (NPA) D. Media Access Control (MAC)

answer

D. Media Access Control (MAC)

question

A(n) _________ address is the address external entities use to communicate with your network. A. AL B. MAC C. WI D. IP

answer

D. IP

question

Which of the following devices sends data from one collision domain to another? A. Switch B. Bridge C. Link D. Band

answer

B. Bridge

question

___ are devices used to send data between two networks. A. Repeaters B. Switches C. Hubs D. Routers

answer

D. Routers

question

A _________ keeps your computer safe by confirming who is trying to access it. A. Gateway B. Firewall C. Hub D. Switch

answer

B. Firewall

question

________ are often equipped to act as hardware firewalls. A. Repeaters B. Switches C. Jammers D. Routers

answer

D. Routers

question

Packet ________ is a form of protection for your computer that looks at each packet that comes into your computer network. A. viewing B. Browsing C. filtering D. screening

answer

D. screening

STUDY

Brute Force Attack Business Process Modeling Business Process Modeling Notation Goals And Objectives Management Information Systems Systems Analysis

WGU C179 – Flashcards 128 terms

Jennifer Hawkins

128 terms

Preview

WGU C179 – Flashcards

question

Moore's Law (Gordon Moore) 1965

answer

Cofounder of Intel said "The number of transistors per square inch on an integrated chip doubles every 18 months."

question

Five-Component Framework

answer

Hardware, Software, Data, Procedures and People

question

Abstract Reasoning

answer

Ability to make and manipulate models. Construct a model or representation

question

Systems Thinking

answer

Model system components and show how components' input and outputs relate to one another

question

Collaboration

answer

Develop ideas and plans with others. Provide and receive critical feedback

question

Ability to Experiment

answer

Create and test promising new alternatives, consistent with available resources

question

The price of a book at a bookstore

answer

Data

question

The average final exam grade for a class

answer

Information

question

The top-selling book for the month

answer

Information

question

The grade achieved on a final exam

answer

Data

question

What is the relationship between data and information?

answer

Information is created when meaning is applied to data

question

Which information system component provides the instructions for using a system or for backing up system data?

answer

Procedures

question

What are two components of a business information system?

answer

Procedures and Data

question

Which type of information do executives require to make strategic decisions?

answer

Coarsely granular

question

Which type of component controls the system resources and productivity applications of an information system?

answer

Software

question

Which business information system component can be processed and then converted into meaningful information?

answer

Data

question

Which role represents the first step toward mastering computer skills?

answer

Computer user

question

What are three examples of business processes?

answer

Submitting a customer feedback form, Establishing digital rights management and Archiving data

question

Which activity is an example of a business process?

answer

Maintaining inventory

question

Nationwide office supply store

answer

Fully automated

question

Fast-food franchise

answer

Partially automated

question

Farmer's market produce vendor

answer

Manual

question

Small owner-operated bakery with only one location

answer

Manual

question

Boutique retail store that features locally produced products

answer

Partially automated

question

Which phrase explains the relationship between business processes and information systems?

answer

Business processes provide the information required for creating an information system

question

BPMN - Business Process Management Notation

answer

Standard flow chart symbols to document a business process

question

Circle with thin boarder

answer

Start

question

Circle with thick boarder

answer

End

question

Diamond shape

answer

Decision or gateway

question

Rectangle with round edges

answer

Activity (+ indicates sub-process defined)

question

Square with fold on top right

answer

Data

question

Arrow with a dashed line

answer

Data flow

question

Arrow with a solid line

answer

Control Flow

question

Dashed line before bracket

answer

Annotation

question

What is process modeling?

answer

A graphical representation of the relationship between components

question

Competitive Advantage for products

answer

1) Create a new product or service 2) Enhance products or services 3) Differentiate products or services

question

Competitive Advantage for process

answer

1) Lock in customers and buyers 2) Lock in suppliers 3) Raise barriers to marker entry 4) Establish alliances 5) Reduce Cost

question

What are two key components of a business process?

answer

Activity and Resource

question

Resource

answer

Inventory database

question

Data flow

answer

Recording inventory changes

question

Local area network (LAN)

answer

Computers connected at a single physical site

question

Wide area network (WAN)

answer

Computers connected between two or more separated sites

question

What are the two main reasons that organizations create information systems?

answer

To solve a major problem and to achieve goals and objectives

question

What determines organizational goals, objectives and information system structure, features and functions?

answer

Competitive strategy

question

Key researcher and thinker in competitive analysis

answer

Michael Porter

question

Porters Five Forces Model - List competitive forces determine industry profitability

answer

1) Bargaining power of customers 2) Threat of substitutions 3) Bargaining power of suppliers 4) Threat of new entrants 5) Rivalry

question

Porters Five Force Model - Bargaining power of customers

answer

Bargaining leverage, Buyer volume / information / incentives, Brand identity, Price sensitivity, Threat of backward integration, Product differentiation, Buyer concentration vs. industry, Substitutes available

question

Porters Five Force Model - Threat of substitution

answer

Switching costs, Buyer inclination to substitute, Price-performance, trade-off of substitutes

question

Porters Five Force Model - Bargaining power of suppliers

answer

Supplier concentration, Importance of volume to supplier, Differentiation of inputs, Impact of inputs on cost or differentiation, Switching costs of firms in the industry, Presence of substitute inputs, Threat of forward integration, Cost relative to total purchases in industry

question

Porters Five Force Model - Threats of new entrants

answer

Absolute cost advantages, Proprietary learning curve, Access to inputs, Government policy, Economies of scale, Capital requirements, Brand identity, Switching costs, Access to distribution, Expected retaliation, Proprietary products

question

Porters Five Force Model - Rivalry

answer

Exit barriers, Industry concentration, Fixed costs/Value added, Industry growth, Intermittent overcapacity, Product differences, Switching costs, Brand identity, Diversity of rivals, Corporate stakes

question

Which component of Porter's five forces industry analysis model describes an influence that can restrict an organization's ability to raise prices without losing customers?

answer

Customer bargaining power

question

Which management model was developed by Michael Porter to help organizations identify opportunities to save money and integrate information systems?

answer

Value Chain = 1) Inbound Logistics 2) Operations/Manufacturing 3) Outbound Logistics 4) Sales and Marketing 5) Customer Service

question

Porter Value Chain - 1) Inbound Logistics

answer

Receiving, storing, and disseminating to the products

question

Porters Value Chain - 2) Operations/Manufacturing

answer

Transforming inputs into the final products

question

Porters Value Chain - 3) Outbound Logistics

answer

Collecting, storing, and physically distributing the products to buyers

question

Porters Value Chain - 4) Sales and Marketing

answer

Inducing buyers to purchase the products and providing a means for them to do so

question

Porters Value Chain - 5) Customer Service

answer

Assisting customers' use of the products and thus maintaining and enhancing the products' value

question

What are the main criteria used to define the main strategies of Porter's generic strategies model?

answer

Differentiation and Cost by Industry-wide and Focus

question

A small business wants higher profits and does not want to compete with larger businesses for lowest cost. Which strategy from Porter's generic strategies model should the business implement?

answer

Narrow differentiation

question

Which three activities are primary activities of Porter's value chain model?

answer

Inbound logistics, Operations and Service (others are: Outbound Logistics, Marketing and Sales)

question

Porters Value Chain - Inbound Logistics

answer

Primary Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - Operations

answer

Primary Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - Outbound Logistics

answer

Primary Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - Marketing and Sales

answer

Primary Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - Procurement

answer

Support Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - HR management

answer

Support Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - Technological Development

answer

Support Activity

question

Porters Value Chain - Infrastructure

answer

Support Activity

question

An organization wants to gain a competitive advantage by maximizing staff efficiency. Which method should the organization use to accomplish this goal?

answer

Automation

question

What are two primary factors to consider when developing a new information system for an existing organization?

answer

Technological changes and Personnel requirements

question

Which term describes the use of policies, practices, and tools by systems developers to manage a project's resources? Such resources include documents, schedules, designs, program code, test suites, and any other shared resource needed to complete the project.

answer

Configuration control (Might be version control)

question

What is a possible drawback of outsourcing the development of an information system?

answer

Decreased communication between the company and its clients

question

What is the purpose of prototyping, in the context of systems development?

answer

To provide evidence of usability

question

BPM - Business Process Management

answer

Cyclical process for systematically creating, assessing, and altering business processes. Begins with a model of the existing business process, called an as-is model

question

OMG - Object Management Group

answer

Software-industry standards organization

question

SDLC - Systems Development Like Cycle

answer

Traditional process used to develop information systems and applications

question

SDLC - Systems Development Like Cycle 5 Phases

answer

1) Define System 2) Determine Requirements 3) Design System Components 4) Implement System 5) Maintain System

question

SDLC - Define System

answer

Define goals and scope, Assess feasibility (cost, schedule, technical, organizational), form project team and plan project

question

SDLC - Determine Requirements

answer

Conduct user interviews, Evaluate existing systems, Determine new forms/reports/queries, Identify new application features and functions, Consider security, Create the data model and Consider all five components

question

SDLC - Design System Components

answer

Determine hardware specifications, Determine program specifications (depends on source), Design the database, Design procedures and Create job definitions

question

SDLC - Implement System

answer

Build system components, Conduct unit test, Integrate components, Conduct integrated test and Convert to new system

question

SDLC - Implement System - System Conversion Types

answer

Pilot - portion of the business, Phased - test piece at a time, Parallel - Same time, Plunge (direct install) - cut over

question

SDLC - Maintain System

answer

Record request for change: failures, enhancements, Prioritize requests, Fix failures: patches, service packs, new releases

question

What are two purposes of prototyping a product?

answer

Setting user expectations and minimizing development time

question

What are two benefits of using a prototype approach for information systems?

answer

User involvement provides valuable feedback to developers and the final system is likely to meet user requirements

question

What are two key features of object-oriented systems development?

answer

Supports data modeling and unstructured

question

Polymorphic

answer

The ability to appear in different forms

question

Encapsulation

answer

The act of storing similar components together

question

Classes

answer

Collection of similar components

question

Objects

answer

Entities that can interact with one another

question

Rapid application development

answer

A methodology with simple business requirements, supports a narrow project scope, a short development time frame, and a low number of users

question

Unified Process - Methodology

answer

Is not a single concrete prescriptive process, but rather an adaptable process framework, intended to be tailored by the development organizations and software project teams that will select the elements of the process that are appropriate for their needs

question

Extreme Programming (XP) - Methodology

answer

Encourages (or requires depending on your point of view) "Pair Programming" where developers always work in pairs, and "Test-Driven Development" where unit tests are always created in conjunction with the system under development. Extreme Programming may be a good choice for prototype technologies and research projects.

question

What is a characteristic of the activity planning process when using agile systems methodology?

answer

Iterative

question

What are two characteristics of a project that uses an agile method such as extreme programming (XP)?

answer

The project develops incrementally and the project is collaborative

question

What is a primary characteristic of extreme programming (XP)?

answer

Frequent customer feedback

question

Extreme programming Order

answer

Planning Designing Coding Testing Listening

question

What are two purposes of information systems management?

answer

Maintain data integrity within an organization and Replacing legacy systems with new systems that use emerging technologies

question

IS steering committee

answer

Keeps systems from becoming obsolete by deciding to replace legacy systems with new systems that use emerging technologies

question

IT department

answer

Owns the hardware, installs and maintains the software, and manages permissions

question

What are two roles of the IT department in information systems management?

answer

To ensure the structure and data integrity of each system and To manage data security

question

A pharmacy customer wants to purchase an over-the-counter medication, but only if his coworker did not make a similar purchase earlier the same day. The customer asks the pharmacy clerk to retrieve the coworker's purchase records to verify whether the medication was purchased. How can the clerk assist the customer in an ethical manner?

answer

Don't release any information on the customer's co-worker, but explain the return policy in case they find they've made duplicate purchases

question

What are two ethical concerns in regard to information systems?

answer

Ensuring information security and information accuracy

question

Which two approaches can business managers use to help manage ethics?

answer

Form cross-department ethics committees and Conduct formal ethics training

question

What should a company's code of ethics include?

answer

Ethics training for all employees and Scenarios of unethical behaviors and their resolution

question

The electricity in a company's main office building often fluctuates. Which type of threat does this present to the company's information systems?

answer

Physical

question

Which threat source is categorized as an intentional physical threat to information systems?

answer

Purposeful flooding of an office

question

Which two methods can an organization use to protect its software systems from external threats?

answer

Deploy a hardware firewall and Do not permit employees to open attachments from unknown external senders

question

What are two security options that protect the hardware component of an organization's information systems?

answer

Effective alarm system and Disk drive locks

question

A company is developing a backup strategy for small amount of data. Backup files must be created and stored at the organization's headquarters, and copies must be stored offsite. Which backup should the company use?

answer

Optical media

question

A company is developing a backup strategy for large amount of data. There are no specific data restoration time requirements, but the company must minimize costs. Which backup media should the company use?

answer

Magnetic tape

question

At 4:00 a.m., a major online retailer's operations department receives a report that the company's website is not accessible due to intense and unrelenting network traffic blocking all users. An investigation indicates that a coordinated denial of service attack (DOS) is in process. A continuation of that attack will have a significant detrimental impact on the business. What should the operations manager do first?

answer

Follow the procedures in the disaster recovery plan

question

In the context of a disaster recovery plan, what is a hot site?

answer

A remote data recovery site, often operated by a third party

question

Car rental agencies collect personal information and payment information from customers. Which three types of information should be protected?

answer

Credit card number, Driving license number and Home address

question

Which type of corporate information should be protected because it would be useful to the company's competitors?

answer

Internal financial information

question

What are two reasons that employees should report all security compromises?

answer

Protect the company and its customers and To limit the possible damages

question

Jill made plans to attend a family reunion. Jill's coworker, Mary, exercised seniority and took her vacation during the week of the reunion, so Jill could not attend the event. Jill and Mary share a cubicle. Jill recently overheard a telephone conversation in which Mary implied that she plans to leave the company soon. Jill has also seen Mary copy files from her office computer to portable USB drives. What are three reason Jill should report Mary to her supervisor?

answer

To prove the effectiveness of severity policies and procedures, To bring attention to a potential security breach and To limit damages to the company

question

Which security management technique helps to protect a physical workplace from unauthorized personnel access?

answer

ID badges

question

An information system administrator connects from his workstation to several remote servers that host sensitive and protected data. What should the administrator use to protect against web-based hackers and malware?

answer

Software firewall

question

Basic problem-management steps

answer

Record the issue Categorize the issue Check the issue against known issues Track the issue Close the issue

question

A growing company establishes a customer support center. Each customer issue is handled entirely by the customer service representative (CSR) who receives the initial call. This often means that CSR's assist customers on issues beyond their expertise. The plans to implement a set of management tools and procedures to facilitate effective customer service. What are two possible benefits for the CSR's of using management tools in the customer support center?

answer

An increase in the number of issues that are resolved by each CSR and A decrease in the time required to resolve each issue

question

What is considered to be the most important tool in a customer support center?

answer

Telephone

question

Customer service problem solve order

answer

Record the incident Categorize the incident Verify whether the incident is part of a known problem Track the incident Provide closure

question

When does change management begin?

answer

When an idea for improving a process or procedure is proposed

question

An employee requests a system change, and a supervisor verifies whether the request conflicts with other scheduled changes. In which stage of the change management process would this event occur?

answer

Approval

question

What is the first step of the change management process?

answer

Acceptance and filtering

question

Change Management Process Order

answer

Acceptance and filtering Classification Approval Building, testing , and implementing Post-implementation review

STUDY

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