test 5 – Microbiology – Flashcards
351 test answers
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answers 351question
| What are the gran negative aerobic rods (coccobacilli)? |
answer
| Bordetella pertussis Legionella pneumophila Haemophilus influenza Brucella abortus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the gram negative aerobic rods (bacilli) |
answer
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa Rhizobium leguminosarum |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the fast fermenting gram negative enterics |
answer
| Klebsiella Escherichia Enterobacter |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the slow fermenting gram negative enterics |
answer
| Serratia Citrobacter |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the non-coliform enteric pathogens (gram negative enterics) |
answer
| Proteus mirabilis Yersinia entercolitica Yersinia pestis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What gram negative species cause gastrointestinal problems |
answer
| Helicobacter pylori Salmonella enteritidis Salmonella typhi |
Unlock the answer
question
| What gram negative species cause dental caries? |
answer
| Streptococcus mutans, S. mitis, S. oralis, S. sanguis, S. gordonii, Lactobacillus acidophilus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What gram negative species cause gingivitis |
answer
| Streptococcus mutans, Fusobacterium and Actinobacteria (anaerobes) |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause periodontal disease |
answer
| Campylobacter jejuni, Treponema denticola, Porphyromonas gingivalis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause gastric and duodenal ulcers |
answer
| Helicobacter pylori |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause gastroenteritis |
answer
| Salmonella, campylobacter, e. coli |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes dysentery |
answer
| shigella |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes antibiotic associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis |
answer
| Clostridium difficile |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Asiatic cholera |
answer
| vibrio cholerae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause food poisoning |
answer
| +Staphylococcus aureus +Bacillus cereus +Clostridium perfringens +Clostridium botulinum Campylobacter jejuni Salmonella typhimurium Escherichia coli O157:H7 |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are some common bacterial foodborne pathogens |
answer
| Gram Positives: Bacillus cereus Listeria monocytogenes Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus Vibrio parahaemolyticus Vibrio vulnificus Gram negatives: Escherichia coli Shigella spp. Vibrio cholera Yersinia enterocolitica |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause food infections |
answer
| Salmonella E. Coli O157:7 Campylobacter jejuni +Listeria monocytogenes: Listeriosis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause general respiratory problems |
answer
| Hemophilus influenza Klebsiella pneumonia Legionella pneumophila Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause sinusitis |
answer
| Haemophilus influenza Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes strep throat |
answer
| + Streptococcus pyogenes |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes diphtheria |
answer
| + Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause pneumonia |
answer
| Gram positives: Streptococcus pneumonia Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus agalactiae Mycoplasma pneumonia (atypical) Moraxella catarrhalis Gram negatives: E. Coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus influenza Chlamydophila pneumonia (atypical) Legionella pneumonphila (atypical) Klebsiella pneumonia |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes whooping cough |
answer
| - Bordetella pertussis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes tuberculosis |
answer
| + Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes chlamydia |
answer
| Chlamydia trachomatis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes gonorrhea |
answer
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes syphilis |
answer
| Treponema pallidum |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause UTI's |
answer
| Escherichia coli Proteus mirabilis Enterobacter cloacae Serratia marcescens Pseudomonas aeruginosa Klebsiella pneumonia (2nd most common) +Staphylococcus aureus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes causes meningitis |
answer
| Neisseria meningitides Haemophilus influenza Streptococcus pneumonia Escherichia coli Listeria monocytogenes |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes otitis externa |
answer
| - Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes otitis media |
answer
| +Streptococcus pneumonia -Haemophilus influenzae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes acne, boils, pimples, impetigo |
answer
| + Staphylococcus aureus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes hot tub itch, folliculitis, cellulitis |
answer
| - Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause necrotizing fasciitis |
answer
| Gram positives: Streptococcus pyogenes Staphylococcus aureus Vibrio vulnificus Clostridium perfringenes Bacteroides fragilis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes anthrax (zoonoses) |
answer
| + bacillus anthracis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Brucellosis (zoonoses) |
answer
| - Brucella abortus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Leptospirosis (zoonoses) |
answer
| Leptospira |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Lyme disease (arthropod borne) |
answer
| - Borrelia burgdorferi |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Ehrlichiosis (arthropod borne) |
answer
| +Ehrlichia |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Rickettsiosis (Typhus, Rocky mountain spotted fever) -- arthropod borne |
answer
| - Rickettsias |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes plague? |
answer
| - Yersinia pestis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes toxic shock syndrome and scaled skin syndrome |
answer
| + staphylococcus aureus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes scarlet fever |
answer
| + streptococcus pyogenes |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)? |
answer
| - E. Coli O157:H7 |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbe causes diptheria |
answer
| + cornebacterium diphtheriae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes cause nosocomial infections |
answer
| Gram positives: MRSA, Clostridium difficile Gram negatives: Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, Legionella pneumophila |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are two groups of unrelated bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites of eukaryotic cells? |
answer
| Rickettsias and chlamydiae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What microbes can be described as energy parasites, and why? |
answer
| Chlamydiae are unable to produce enough ATP to sustain metabolism outside of a host cell |
Unlock the answer
question
| What nosocomial infections can Acinetobacter baumanni cause? |
answer
| bacteremia, secondary meningitis, and ventilator-associated pneumonia in ICU |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the aerobic gram-negative nonenteric bacilli (do not ferment sugars)? |
answer
| pseudomonas, pseudomonas aeruginosa, brucella abortis, brucella suis, francisella tularensis, bordetella pertussis, legionella |
Unlock the answer
question
| Where can you find the pseudomonas |
answer
| free-living, soil, seawater, freshwater, plants, animals |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the characteristics of the pseudomonas |
answer
| small, gram-negative, single polar flagellum, oxidative, metabolically versatile (protease, amylase, pectinase, cellulase) |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is most at risk for infections by pseudomonas aeruginosa |
answer
| burn patients and people with cystic fibrosis |
Unlock the answer
question
| What infections does -pseudomonas aeruginosa cause? |
answer
| pneumonia, UTI, abscess, ear and eye infections, septicemia, endocarditis, meningitis, bronchopneumonia, corneal infectiosn with contacts, skin rashes |
Unlock the answer
question
| What type of pathogen is -pseudomonas aeruginosa and what is it resistant to? |
answer
| opportunistic pathogen to the debilitated or immunocompromised. Resists soaps, dyes, quats, drugs, drying and heat. Chronic nosocomial pathogen. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What zoonosis does -Brucella cause? How do they affect animals and humans? |
answer
| Brucella abortis (cows) Brucella suis (pigs) Brucellosis = Malta fever, undulant fever, Bang's disease. In animals, it crosses the placenta and causes abortion In humans, causes fever, chills, sweating, headache, muscle pain, weakness, weight loss, focal infections in the liver, spleen, bone marrow and kidneys. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does -Francisella tularensis cause? |
answer
| Tularensis- Rabbit fever- vectors include rabbits, rodents, wild animals, arthropods. Causes headache, backache, fever, chills, weakness, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, swollen glands. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the virulence factors of -Bordetella pertussis |
answer
| Whooping cough Receptors bind to ciliated epithelium. Toxins kill cells, build up mucus and block airways. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the two stages of whooping cough |
answer
| -Bordetella pertussis 1. catarrhal stage: cold-like 2. paroxysmal stage: coughing fits, "whooping" |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does -Legionella cause |
answer
| Legionnaire's disease: rising fever, cough, diarrhea, abdominal pain, lung consolidation, impaired respiration, impaired function |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the characteristics of Legionella pneumophila |
answer
| gram-negative motile short rods, filaments, fastidious. Found in fresh water, aerosols, nosocomial |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the Enterobacteriacae |
answer
| Gram-negative, small non-spore forming rods, aerobic, ferment when no O2, facultative anaerobes. Found in soil, water, decaying matter, large bowel. Ferment glucose, nitrates to nitrites, oxidase negative, catalase positive, often motile |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is the difference between the coliforms and noncoliforms of the enterobacteriacae? |
answer
| coliforms ferment lactose quickly and noncoliforms are non or slow lactose fermenters |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are some virulence factors of the enterobacteriacae? |
answer
| endotoxins overcome the host defenses quickly and multiply. Also enterotoxins, capsules, hemolysins, fimbrae to colonize the host. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are some antigens of the enterobacteriacae? |
answer
| flagellar (H) capsule/fimbri (K) somatic=cell wall = LPS (O) |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is the most common enterobacteriacae coliform? Describe some characteristics of it? diseases it causes? |
answer
| Escherichia coli enterotoxigenic enteroinvasive enteropathogenic (wasting disease of newborns) -infantile diarrhea -traveler's diarrhea |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are some enterobacteriacae coliforms? |
answer
| -Klebsiella pneumonia -Enterobacter -Hafnia -Citrobacter -Serratia |
Unlock the answer
question
| What diseases can Klebsiella pneumonia cause? |
answer
| nosocomial prneumonai, meningitis, bacteriemia, wound infections, UTI |
Unlock the answer
question
| What diseases can -Proteus cause? |
answer
| UTI, wounds, pneumonia, septiciemia, infant diarrhea, burns |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are some non-coliform pathogens that cause zoonoses |
answer
| Salmonella enteriditis S. paratypi S. schottmulleri S. hiirschfield S. typhimurium |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe -Salmonella typhi. What does it cause? |
answer
| gram negative noncoliform pathogen. cause typhoid fever. motile. adheres to mucosa of small intestine, progressive invasion that leads to septicemia, then to the lympht nodes, then to the liver and spleen, and ultimately cause bacteremia. causes fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe -Shigella |
answer
| noncoliform pathogen. gram negative. causes shigellosis (sever abdominal cramps, watery stool with mucus and blood). also shigella dysentery when it invates the villi of the large intestine. non-motile, no capsule, not fastidious, no H2S or urease. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are some virulence factors of -Shigella |
answer
| endotoxin- fever enterotoxin. causes inflammation, degeneration of the villi, bleeding, heavy mucus production. Shiga toxin- heat-labile exotoxin infective dose = 200 cells |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe -Yersinia pestis |
answer
| Nonenteric. Causes plague. Gram negative rod. Bipolar stain. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are some virulence factors of Yersinia pestis |
answer
| capsular and envelope proteins protect against phagocytosis and promote intracellular growth. also coagulase, endotoxin. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the three types of plague? |
answer
| 1. bubonic- bite to lymph node, inflammation = bubo. fever, chills, nausea 2. septicemic: coagulate blood in vessels, subcutaneous hemmorage, purpura to necrosis to gangrene 3. pneumonic: lungs, fatal |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the oxidase-positive nonenteric pathogens? |
answer
| -pasteurella multocida (zoonose) -haemophilus -h. influenza -h. aegyptius -h. ducreyi |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe -Haemophilus |
answer
| tiny gram-negative pleomorphic rods. fastidious, sensitive. REquire blood for hemitin (x factor), cytochromes, catalase, peroxidase |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does -h. influenza cause |
answer
| acute bacterial meningitis |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does -h. aegyptius cause? |
answer
| conjunctivitis/pink eye. subconjunctival hemorrhage |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does -h. ducreyi cause |
answer
| chancroid -STD- painful necrotic ulcer on genitalia. lymph nodes swell like buboes. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What viruses cause the common cold |
answer
| rhinoviruses and coronaviruses- no cure |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes influenza (the flu) |
answer
| influenza (H1N1)- vaccination - avian and swine flu. cause by RNA viruses transmitted through the air |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes Rabies (describe) |
answer
| Rabies virus causes acute encephalitis spread through animal bites travels to the brain by following the peripheral nerves fatal once it reaches the CNS and symptoms begin to show |
Unlock the answer
question
| What viruses cause the common cold |
answer
| rhinoviruses and coronaviruses- no cure |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes influenza (the flu) |
answer
| influenza (H1N1)- vaccination - avian and swine flu. cause by RNA viruses transmitted through the air |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes Rabies (describe) |
answer
| Rabies virus causes acute encephalitis spread through animal bites travels to the brain by following the peripheral nerves fatal once it reaches the CNS and symptoms begin to show |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes chicken pox |
answer
| varicella-zoster virus |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe yellow fever |
answer
| virus that is transmitted through the bite of the Aedes species of mosquitos. causes jaundice, fever, damaged liver and sometimes kidney fever. has a vaccine that can prevent it for ten years. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What viruses cause pneumonia |
answer
| influenza virus A and B, Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and Human parainfluenza viruses (in children). can get into the lungs and respiratory system, causing fever and difficulty breathing. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes polio (describe) |
answer
| poliomyelitis. acute viral infectious disease spread from person to person via the oral-fecal route. 90% of polio infections cause no symptoms. Range of symptoms if it enters the bloodstream. Oral vaccines given for treatment. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What virus causes Measles (Rubeola)-describe |
answer
| paramyxovirus of the genus Morbillivirus. enveloped, single-stranded, negative-sense RNA virus. Symptoms include fever, cough, runny nose, red eyes and rash. Contracted through the air like the flu. White dots in the throat are common. Vaccines available. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe rotavirus |
answer
| the most common cause of severe diarrheal disease in infants and young children globally. accounts for more than half a million deaths a year due to dehydration. General double-stranded RNA virus. Vaccines available. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe norovirus |
answer
| RNA virus that causes 90% of epidemic non-bacterial outbreaks of gastroenteritis around the world. REsponsibel for 50% of all foodborne outbreaks of gastroenteritis in the US. Transmitted by faecally contaminated food or water, person to person contact, or aerosolization of the virus and contamination of surfaces. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe herpes virus |
answer
| sexually transmitted disease that affects one in five adults in the US. infects nerves and has cycles of infection. The structure of the herpes viruses consist of a relatively large double-stranded, linear DNA genome encased within an icosahedral protein cage called a capsid, which is wrapped in a lipid bilayer called the envelope. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe hepatitis |
answer
| type A and B have vaccines types A through E are common can be spread through improper food handling and needle sharing. Viral hepatitis can be caused by Hep A-E, herpes simplex, cytomegalovirus, Epstein-barr, yellow fever, and adenoviruses. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe yellow fever virus |
answer
| spread by mosquitos. common problem in tropical areas. causes jaundice. there is a vaccine, but no treatment once someone is infected. fifty percent die once they are in teh toxic phase. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe viral encephalitis |
answer
| encephalitis = swelling aroudn the brain. viral sources are transmitted by mosquito bites. vaccine available. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe west nile virus |
answer
| transmitted by mosquitos. brain swelling and death are common. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe HIV/AIDS |
answer
| highly transmissible virus. can sit quietly in the immune system within our cells for many years. can mutate form one person to another, making it hard to develop a vaccine. Transmitted through blood transfusions, unprotected sex, sharing needles. There are now HIV vaccinations that make AIDS more survivable. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe human papillomavirus |
answer
| common STD that is hard to test for in men. More than 30-40 types are transmitted through sexual contact and infect the anogenital region. Closely associated with genital wards but is also linked to cervical cancer. There is a vaccine. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe mumps (virus) |
answer
| painful swelling of the salivary glands (parotid gland). disease is self-limiting, no specific treatment besides controlling the symptoms with painkillers. |
Unlock the answer
question
| define prodrome (medicine) |
answer
| an early symptom or set of symptoms that might indicate the start of a disease before specific symptoms occur. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe rubella (virus) |
answer
| german measles. infection fot eh mother during pregnancy can be serious. child may be born with congenital rubella syndrome, which is a range of serious incruable illnesses. Spontaneous abortion can occur in up to 20% of cases. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe SARS virus |
answer
| Severe acute respiratory syndrome. Caused by the SARS coronavirus. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the structure of viruses |
answer
| contain a single type of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) and a protein coat, sometimes enclosed by an envelope composed of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe how viruses work |
answer
| they are obligatory intracellular parasites. they multiply by using the host cell's synthesizing machinery to cause the synthesis of specialized elements that can transfer the viral nucleic acid to other cells. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does host range mean |
answer
| the spectrum of host cells in which a virus can multiply. most viruses infect only specific types of cells in one host species |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is host range determined by |
answer
| the specific attachment site on teh host cell's surface and the availability of host cellular factors |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the viral size |
answer
| 20 to 1000 nm in length. ascertained by electron microscopy. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the nucleic acid of viruses |
answer
| viruses contain either DNA or RNA, and the nucleic acid may be single or double stranded, linear or circular, or divided into several separate molecules. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe viral capsids and envelopes |
answer
| the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus is called the capsid. the capsid is composed of subunits, capsomeres, which can be a single type of protein or several types. The capsid of some viruses is enclosed by an envelope consisting of lipids, proteins, and carbs. Some envelopes are covered with carb-protein complexes called spikes. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe helical viruses |
answer
| ex: ebola virus. resemble long rods, capsids are hollow cylinders surrounding the nucleic acid |
Unlock the answer
question
| Decribe polyhedral viruses |
answer
| ex: adenovirus many-sided. usually the capsid is an icosahedron |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe enveloped viruses |
answer
| covered by an enveope and are roughly spherical but highly pleomorphic. enveloped helical viruses: influenza enveloped polyhedral viruses: Simplexvirus |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe complex viruses |
answer
| have complex structures. many bacteriophages have a polyhedral capsid with a helical tail attached. |
Unlock the answer
question
| How are viruses classified |
answer
| based on what type of nucleic acid, their strategy for replication and their morphology |
Unlock the answer
question
| How are virus families and genuses named |
answer
| family names end in -viridae; genus names end in -virus |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is a viral species |
answer
| a group of viruses sharing the same geneticf information and ecological niche |
Unlock the answer
question
| how are viruses grown |
answer
| in living cells |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are the easiest viruses to grow |
answer
| bacteriophages |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the plague method |
answer
| a method to grow viruses in the lab. mixes bacteriophages with host bacteria and nutrient agar. after several viral multiplication cycles, the bacterial in the area surroudnign the original virus are destroyed; the area of lysis is called a plaque. each plaque originates with a single viral particle; teh concentraion of viruses is given as plaque-forming units |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe some aspects of growing animal viruses in the lab |
answer
| sometimes requires whole animals. simian AIDS and feline AIDS provide models for studying human AIDS. some animal viruses can be cultivated with embryonated eggs. viral growth can cause cytopathic effects in cell culture. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are cell cultures |
answer
| cells growing in culture media in the lab |
Unlock the answer
question
| how can viruses be identified |
answer
| serological tests RFLPs PCR |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe viral multiplication |
answer
| viruses do not contain enzymse for energy production or protein synthesis. For a virus to multiply, it must invade a host cell and direct the host's metabolic machinery to produce viral enzymes and components. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the lytic cycle |
answer
| a phage causes the lysis and death of a host cell. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe lysogeny |
answer
| some viruses can have their DNA incorporated as a prophage into the DNA of the host cell. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the attachment phase of the lytic cycle |
answer
| sites of the phage's tail fibers attach to complementary receptor sites on the bacerial cell. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the penetration phase of the lytic cycle |
answer
| phage lysozyme opens a portion of the bacterial cell wall, the tail sheath contracts to force the tail core thorugh the cell wall, and phage DNA enters the bacterial cell. Capsid remains outside. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the biosynthesis phase of the lytic cycle |
answer
| transcription of phage DNA produces mRNa coding for proteins necessary for phage multiplication. Phage DNA is replicated, and capsid proteins are produced. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the eclipse period of the lytic cycle |
answer
| separate phage DNA and protein can be found. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe maturation during the lytic cycle |
answer
| phage DNA and capsids are assembled into complete viruses. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the release phase of the lytic cycle |
answer
| phage lysozyme breaks down the bacterial cell wall, and the new phages are released. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the lysogenic cycle |
answer
| prophage genes are regulated by a erpressor coded for by the prophage. The prophage is replicated each time the cell divides. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What can cause a cell to switch from the lysogenic cycle to the lytic cycle |
answer
| exposure to certain mutagens can lead to excision fothe prophage and initiation of the lytic cycle. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the effects of lysogeny |
answer
| lysogenic cells become immune to reinfection with the same phage and may undergo phage conversion |
Unlock the answer
question
| How can a lysogenic phage transfer bacterial genes |
answer
| A lysogenic phage can transfer bacterial genes form one cell to another through transduction. Any genes can be trasnferred in gernealized transduction, and specific genes can be trasnferred in specialized transduction. |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do animal viruses attach to the host |
answer
| they attach to the plasma membrane of the host cell |
Unlock the answer
question
| how does entry of animal viruses occur |
answer
| receptor-mediated endocytosis or fusion |
Unlock the answer
question
| Where does multiplication of animal viruses occur |
answer
| int eh cytoplasm of the host cell |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does retroviridae reverse transcriptase do |
answer
| transcribes DNA from RNA |
Unlock the answer
question
| How are viruses relased in animal cells |
answer
| budding= method of release adn envelope formation nonenveloped viruses are released through ruptures in the host cell membrane |
Unlock the answer
question
| what transforms normal cells to concerous cells |
answer
| activated oncogenes |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are oncogenic viruses |
answer
| viruses capable of producing tumors |
Unlock the answer
question
| what can a provirus do |
answer
| remain latent, produce viruses, or transform the host cell |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a latent viral infection |
answer
| one in which the virus remains in teh host cell for long periods without producing an infection (cold sores and shingles) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are persistent viral infections |
answer
| disease processes that occur over a long period and are generally fatal. caused by conventional viruses; viruses accumulate over a long period |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are prions |
answer
| infectious proteins first discovered inteh 1980's. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what do prion diseases involve? examples? |
answer
| involve the degeneration of brain tissue. CJD and mad cow disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| what causes prion diseases |
answer
| they are the result of an altered protein. teh cause can be a mutation in the normal gene for PrPC or contact with an altered protein . |
Unlock the answer
question
| How to plant viruses enter the host |
answer
| through wounds or with invasive parasites like insects |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are viroids |
answer
| infectious pieces of RNA that cause some plant diseases, sucha s potato spindle tuber disase and cocanut cadang cadang viroid |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe contagious cancer |
answer
| a parasitic cancer or transmissibe cancer is a cancer cell or cluster of cancer cells that can be transmitted form animal to animal. ex: devil facial tumour disease. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are pathogens |
answer
| disease-causing microbes |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is pathology |
answer
| the study of disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| what etiology |
answer
| the cause of disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is pathogenesis |
answer
| the development of disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is infection |
answer
| the invasion and growth of pathogens in the body |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is disease |
answer
| an abnormal state in which part or all of hte body is not properly adjusted or is incapable of performing its normal functions |
Unlock the answer
question
| define normal microbiota |
answer
| microbes that establish permanent colonies inside or on teh body without producing disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| define transient microbiota |
answer
| microbes that are present for various periods and then disappear |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is microbial antagonism |
answer
| when normal microbiota prevent pathogens from causing an infection |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is symbiosis |
answer
| living together (normal microbes and the host) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is commensalism |
answer
| one organism benefits, the other is unaffected |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is mutualism |
answer
| both organisms benefit |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is parasitism |
answer
| one organism benefits at the expense of the other |
Unlock the answer
question
| example of commensalism |
answer
| staphylococcus epidermidis on the skin and corynebacteria that inhabit the surface of the eye |
Unlock the answer
question
| example of mutualism |
answer
| e.coli that synthesizes vitamins K and B in the gut |
Unlock the answer
question
| example of parasitism |
answer
| disease-causing bacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are opportunistic microbes |
answer
| microbes that do not cause disease under normal conditions but cause disease under special conditions (e.coli) |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are Koch's postulates |
answer
| 1. the same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease 2. the pathogen must be isolated in pure culture 3. the pathogen isolated from pure culture must cause the same disease in a healthy, susceptible lab animal 4. teh pathogen must be re-isolated from the inoculated lab animal |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are some exceptions to Koch's postulates |
answer
| 1. things that cannot grow on artifical media 2. some disease have unequivocal signs and symptoms 3. some disease (pneumonia) may be caused by a variety of microbes 4. some pathogens (S. pyogenes) can cause different diseases. 5. some diseases (HIV) affect humans only. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are symptoms |
answer
| subjective changes in body functions |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are signs |
answer
| objective changes (measurable) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a syndrome |
answer
| a specific group of symptosm or signs that always accompanies a specific disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| how are communicable diseases transmitted |
answer
| directly or indirectly from one host to another |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a contagious disease |
answer
| one that is easily spread |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is disease incidence |
answer
| number of people contracting the disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is disease prevalenec |
answer
| number of cases at a particular time |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is an acute disease |
answer
| one that develops rapidly but lasts a short time (influenza) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a chronic disease |
answer
| develops slowly, but is likely to continue or recur for long periods (tuberculosis, hep B) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a subacute disease |
answer
| one that is intermediate between acute and chronic (sclerosing panencephalitis) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a latent disease |
answer
| oen in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time but then becomes active to produce symptoms (shingles) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is herd immunity |
answer
| the presence of immunity to a disease in most of the population |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a local infection |
answer
| affects a small area of the body |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a systemic infection |
answer
| spread throughout the body via the circulatory system. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a focal infection |
answer
| a local infection that spread systemically to another spot on the body, where it is located. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a primary infection |
answer
| an acute infection that causes the initial illness |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a secondary infection |
answer
| one that can occur after the host is weakened from a primary infection |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is an inapparent or subclinical infection |
answer
| one that does not cause any signs of disease in the host |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a predisposing factor |
answer
| something that makes the body more susceptible to disease or alters the course of a disease (age, gender, climate, fatigure, poor nutrition) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the incubation period |
answer
| the interval between the initial infection and the first appearane of signs and symptoms. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the prodromal period |
answer
| characterized by the appearane of teh first mild signs and symptoms |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the period of illness |
answer
| the diease is at its height,a nd all disease signs and symptoms are apparent. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the period of decline |
answer
| the signs and symptoms subside |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the period of convalescence |
answer
| the body retursn to its prediseased state and health is restored. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are the five stages to the development of a disease |
answer
| 1. incubation period. 2. prodromal period. 3. period of illness 4. period of decline 5. period of convalescence. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a reservoir of infection |
answer
| a continual source of infection |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are zoonoses |
answer
| diseases that affect wild and domestic animals and can be transmitted to humans |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is droplet transmission |
answer
| transmission via saliva or mucus in coughing or sneezing. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is vehicle transmission |
answer
| transmission by a meidum such as water, food, or air |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is airborne transmission |
answer
| pathogens carried on water droplets or dust for a distance greater than one meter |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do arthropod vectors transmit disease |
answer
| 1. mechanical (flies carrying the diease on them, spores, etc.. ex: cholora) 2. biological (malaria) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a nosocomial infection |
answer
| any infection tha tis acquired during the course of stay in a hospital |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a health care associated infection |
answer
| include infections that are acquired in a setting other than a hospital |
Unlock the answer
question
| how many hospital patients acquire nosocomial infections |
answer
| 5-15% |
Unlock the answer
question
| how are normal microbes responsible for nosocomial infections |
answer
| when they are introduced into the body through such medical procedures as surgery and catheterization |
Unlock the answer
question
| what bacteria are the most frequent causes of nosocomial infections |
answer
| opportunistic, drug-resistant, gram-negative bacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| how are nosocomial infections transmitted |
answer
| through direct contact between staff members and patients and between patients, and through fomites such as catheters, syringes, and respiratory devices. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are emerging infectious diseases |
answer
| new diseases and diseases that are increasing in incidence |
Unlock the answer
question
| what leads to emerging infectious diseases |
answer
| the use of antibiotics and pesticides, climatic changes, travel, the lack of vaccinations, and improved case reporting |
Unlock the answer
question
| who is responsible for surveillance and response to emerging infectious diseases |
answer
| the CDC, NIH, and WHO |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the science of epidemiology |
answer
| the study of the transmission, incidence, and frequency of disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is descriptive epidemiology |
answer
| data about infected people are collected and analyzed |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is analytical epidemiology |
answer
| a group of infected people is compared with an uninfected group |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is experimental epidemiology |
answer
| controlled experiments designed to test hypotheses are performed |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does case reporting do |
answer
| it provides data on incidence and prevalence to local, state, and national health officials |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is pathogenicity |
answer
| the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease by overcoming the defenses of the host |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is virulence |
answer
| the degree of pathogenicity |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the portal of entry |
answer
| the specific route by which a particular pathogen gains access to the body |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the parenteral route (portal of entry) |
answer
| when some microbes gain access to tissues by inoculation through the skin and mucous membranes in bites, injections, and other wounds. route of penetration |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are some common portals of entry |
answer
| mucous membranes of the conjunctiva and the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary tracts. Most microbes cannot penetrate intact skin- they enter hair follicles and sweat ducts |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the preferred portal of entry |
answer
| many microbes can cause infections only when they gain access through their specific portal of entry |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is LD50? |
answer
| lethal dose for 50% of the inoculated hosts - a way of expressing virulence |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is ID50? |
answer
| infectious dose for 50% of the inoculated hosts- a way of expressing virulence |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do pathogens adhere to the host? |
answer
| surface projections on a pathogen called adhesins (ligands) adhere to complementary receptors on the host cells. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are adhesins |
answer
| surface projections on a pathogen. They can be glycoproteins or lipoproteins and are frequently associated with fimbriae. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is the most common receptor on host cells for pathogens? |
answer
| mannose |
Unlock the answer
question
| what effect do biofilms have on pathogenicity? |
answer
| they provide attachment and resistance to antimicrobial agents |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the purpose of a capsule |
answer
| they prevent the cell from being phagocytized |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the function of proteins in the cell wall of pathogens? |
answer
| proteins in the cell wall can facilitate adherence or prevent a pathogen from being phagocytized |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does coagulase do? why is this important? |
answer
| local infections can be protected in a fibrin clot caused by the bacterial enzyme coagulase |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are kinases? |
answer
| enzymes that destroy blood clots and facilitate the spread of bacteria from a focal infection |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are hyaluronidases? |
answer
| bacterial enzymes that destroy a mucopolysaccharide that holds cells together and facilitates the spread of bacteria from a focal infection |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are collagenases? |
answer
| bacterial enzymes that hydrolyze connective tissue called collagen and that help bacteria spread from focal infections |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are the three enzymes that allow bacteria to spread from a focal infection |
answer
| kinases, hyaluronidase, and collagenase |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is antigenic variation |
answer
| when microbes vary their expression of antigens in order to avoid the host's antibodies |
Unlock the answer
question
| how to bacteria penetrate the host cell cytoskeleton |
answer
| bacteria may produce proteins that alter the actin of the host cell's cytoskeleton allowing bacteria into the cell |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do bacteria get iron from the host |
answer
| siderophores |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do bacterial pathogens directly damage host cells |
answer
| host cells can be destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply inside host cells |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are toxins |
answer
| poisonous substances produced by microorganisms |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is toxemia |
answer
| the presence of toxins in the blood |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is toxigenicity |
answer
| the ability to produce toxins |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are exotoxins |
answer
| toxins produced by bacteria that are released into the surrounding medium. They produce the disease symptoms, not the bacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are antitoxins |
answer
| antibodies produced against exotoxins |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe A-B toxins |
answer
| they consist of an active component that inhibits a cellular process and a binding component that attaches to the two portions to the target cell. Ex: diphtheria toxin |
Unlock the answer
question
| what do membrane-disrupting toxins cause |
answer
| cell lysis Ex: hemolysins |
Unlock the answer
question
| what do superantigens do? |
answer
| they cause the release of cytokines, which cause fever, nausea, and other symptoms (toxic shock syndrome toxin) |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are endotoxins? |
answer
| lipopolysaccharides (LPS), the lipid A component of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| what causes the release of endotoxins |
answer
| bacterial cell death, antibiotics, and antibodies |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does the release of endotoxins cause |
answer
| fever (by inducing the release of interleukin-1) and shock (because of a TNF-induced decrease in blood pressure) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what do endotoxins allow bacteria to do? |
answer
| cross the blood-brain barrier |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the Limulus amobocyte lysate assay used for? |
answer
| to detect endotoxins in drugs and on medical devices |
Unlock the answer
question
| what do plasmids do? |
answer
| carry genes for antibiotic resistance, toxins, capsules, and fimbriae |
Unlock the answer
question
| what can lysogenic conversion create? |
answer
| bacteria with virulence factors, such as toxins or capsules |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do viruses avoid the host's immune response? |
answer
| by growing inside cells |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are cytopathic effects (CPE)? |
answer
| visible signs of viral infections |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are cytocidal effects |
answer
| cell death caused by a virus |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are noncytocidal effects |
answer
| damage to the cell (but not death) caused by a virus |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are some cytopathic effects of viruses |
answer
| stopping mitosis, lysis, formation of inclusion bodies, cell fusion, antigenic changes, chromosomal changes, and transformation |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are symptoms of fungal infections caused by |
answer
| capsules, toxins, and allergic responses. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases caused by |
answer
| damage to host tissue or by the metabolic waste products of the parasite |
Unlock the answer
question
| how to some protozoa avoid destruction by the host's antibodies |
answer
| they change their surface antigens while growing in a host |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are some pathogenic properties of algae? |
answer
| some can produce neurotoxins that cause paralysis when ingested by humans |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are three common portals of exit for pathogens |
answer
| 1. the respiratory tract via coughing or sneezing 2. the gastrointestinal tract via saliva or feces 3. the genitourinary tract via secretions from the vagina or penis |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a portal of exit for microbes in the blood |
answer
| arthropods and syringes |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the Aquificae bacteria |
answer
| thought to be the oldest branch of bacteria. Hyperthermophilic and Chemolithoautotrophic. They generate energy by oxidizing electron donors such as hydrogen, thiosulfate, and sulfur with oxygen as the electron acceptor |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the Thermotogae bacteria |
answer
| the second oldest branch of bacteria. Hyperthermophiles (80-90C). Gram negative rods with an outer sheath-like envelope that can balloon out from the ends of the cell. They grow in geothermal areas like marine hydrothermal vents. They are chemoheterotrophs with a functional glycolytic pathway. They can grow anaerobically on carbs and protein digests. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the Deinococcus-Thermus bacteria |
answer
| Three genera- genus Deinococcus is the best studied. Spherical or rod-shaped, often associated in pairs or tetrads. They are aerobic, mesophilic, and catalase positive. They stain gram positive but have a layered cell wall and an outer cell membrane like gram negative bacteria. They are extremely resistant to desiccation and radiation. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the biology of deinococci |
answer
| they can be isolated from ground meat, feces, air, fresh water, and other sources. they have a genome that consists of two circular chromosomes (a mega plasmid and a small plasmid) They have an unusual ability to repair chromosomal damage |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the three groups of photosynthetic bacteria |
answer
| purple bacteria, green bacteria, and cyanobacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe cyanobacteria |
answer
| they carry out oxygenic photosynthesis. they use water as an electron source for the generation of NADH and NADPH. They have chlorophyll a, which absorbs longer wavelengths of light. They are found mostly at the surface of bodies of water. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe purple sulfur bacteria |
answer
| they use reduced sulfur compounds as electron sources and accumulate sulfur granules within their cells. They are anaerobes and use bacteriochlorophyll pigments. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe green sulfur bacteria |
answer
| obligately anaerobic photolithoautotrophs. deposit sulfur granules outside of the cell. they lack flagella and are nonmotile. they are morphologically diverse. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe purple nonsulfur bacteria |
answer
| they use organic molecules as their electron source. Anaerobic |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe green nonsulfur bacteria |
answer
| filamentous, gliding bacteria. thermophilic. anoxygenic photosynthesis with organic compounds as carbon sources or can grou aerobically as a chemoheterotroph. |
Unlock the answer
question
| where are the photosynthetic pigments of cyanobacteria located |
answer
| in the thylakoid membranes |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do cyanobacteria fix carbon dioxide |
answer
| the calvin cycle |
Unlock the answer
question
| what pathway plays an important role in the metabolism of cyanobacteria |
answer
| the pentose phosphate pathway |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are trichomes (cyanobacteria) |
answer
| rows of bacterial cells that are in close contact with one another over a large area |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do cyanobacteria reproduce |
answer
| through binary fission, budding, fragmentation, and multiple fission |
Unlock the answer
question
| what does fragmentation create |
answer
| small motile filaments called hormogonia |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are akinetes |
answer
| thick-walled resting cells that are resistant to desiccation; they often germinate to form new filaments. formed by cyanobacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the phylum Chlamydia |
answer
| nonmotile, coccoid, gram-negative bacteria. |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do chlamydia reproduce |
answer
| within the cytoplasmic vesicles of host cells by a unique developmental cycle involving elementary bodies and reticulate bodies |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the genomes of chlamydias |
answer
| they have one of the smallest prokaryotic genomes |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are the three human pathogens in the Phylum Chlamydiae |
answer
| C. trachomatis, C. psittaci, and C. pneumoniae |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does Chlamydia trachomatis cause |
answer
| trachoma, nongonococcal urethritis, and other diseases in humans and mice |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does Chlamydia psittaci cause |
answer
| psittacosis in humans and infects many other mammals as well. invades the respiratory and genital tracts, the placenta, developing fetuses, they eye, and synovial fluid of the joints |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does Chlamydia pneumonia cause |
answer
| human pneumonia and possibly atherosclerosis and heart disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the Phylum Spirochaetes |
answer
| they are gram-negative, chemoheterotrophic, flexibly helical bacteria that exhibit a crawling motility due to a structure called an axial filament. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are some important members of the Phylum Spirochaetes |
answer
| Treponema and Borrelia. T. Ppallidum causes syphilis B. burgdorferi causes Lyme disease |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the proteobacteria |
answer
| they are the largest and most diverse group of bacteria. Some believe that they arouse from a photosynthetic ancestor. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What are the five classes of the proteobacteria |
answer
| 1. Alphaproteobacteria 2. Betaproteobacteria 3. Gammaproteobacteria 4. Deltaproteobacteria 5. Epsilonproteobacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the genera Rickettsia of the proteobacteria |
answer
| they are in the alphaproteobacteria. They are either parasitic or mutualistic. They enter the host by phagocytosis, escape the phagosome, and then reproduce in the cytoplasm by binary fission. The host cell eventually bursts and releases the new organisms. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does Rickettsia ricketsii cause |
answer
| rocky mountain spotted fever |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe Rhizobium leguminosarum |
answer
| they are proteobacteria that grow symbiotically within the root nodules cells of legumes as nitrogen-fixing bacteroids |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the genus Agrobacterium of the family Rhizobiaceae |
answer
| they are not capable of nitrogen fixation. Invades crown, roots, and stems of many plants and transforms infected plant cells into autonomously proliferating tumors. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What does Agrobacterium tumefaciens cause |
answer
| causes crown gall disease by means of a tumor inducing plasmid |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the genus Neisseria of the class Betaproteobacteria |
answer
| they are nonmotile, aerobic, gram-negative cocci. They are inhabitants of the mucous membranes of animals and human pathogens. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What cause gonorrhea |
answer
| Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
Unlock the answer
question
| what causes bacterial meningitis |
answer
| Neisseria meningitidis |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the genus Bordetella |
answer
| gram-negative aerobic coccobacilli. Chemoorganotrophs with respiratory metabolism. They require organic sulfur and nitrogen in the form of amino acids for growth. They are mammaliam parasites that multiply in the respiratory epithelial cells. Betaproteobacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe Bordetella pertussis |
answer
| nonmotile, encapsulated species that causes whooping cough |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is the largest class of the proteobacteria |
answer
| gammaproteobacteria |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the genus Pseudomonas (gammaproteobacteria) |
answer
| aerobic respiratory chemoheterotrophs. some are major animal and plant pathogens (P. aeruginosa) |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the family Vibrionaceae (gammaproteobacteria) |
answer
| gram-negative, straight or curved rods with polar flagella. They are oxidase-positive and use D-glucose as their sole or primary carbon and energy source. They are aquatic. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe V. cholerae |
answer
| causes cholera. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe the order enterobacteriales |
answer
| consists of one family containing over 41 genera. they are all gram-negative, peitrichously flagellated or nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, straight rods with simple nutritional requirements. |
Unlock the answer
question
| give some examples of enterobacteriales |
answer
| Escherichia, proteus, salmonella, shigella, enterobacter, serratia, erwinia, klebsiella |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the class epsilonproteobacteria |
answer
| the smallest of the proteobacteria groups. contains one order with two families. Campylobacter and Helicobacter are the most important genera. They are microaerophiles, motile, helical or vibroid, gram negative rods. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the genus Campylobacter |
answer
| epsilonproteobacteria. C. jejuni- causes abortion in sheep and enteritis diarrhea in humans |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the genus helicobacter |
answer
| epsilonproteobacteria H. pylori- cause of gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. produces large quantities of urease and urea hydrolysis appears to be associated with their virulence. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What is a lichen |
answer
| a combination of a green alga (or a cyanobacterium) and a fungus. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe protozoa |
answer
| they are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a trophozoite |
answer
| the feeding and growing stage of a protozoan |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is schizogony |
answer
| multiple fission: the nucleus undergoes multiple divisions before the cell divides |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do protozoans reproduce sexually |
answer
| through conjugation |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is protozoan encystment |
answer
| under certain adverse conditions, some protozoa produce a protective capsule called a cyst. it permits the organism to survive when food, moisture, or oxygen are lacking, when the temperature is not suitable, or when there are toxic chemicals present. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the nutritional requirements of protozoans |
answer
| they are aerobic heterotrophs, although many are capable of anaerobic growth. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a cytosome? |
answer
| a mouth-like opening found on ciliated protozoans |
Unlock the answer
question
| where does digestion take place on protozoans |
answer
| in membrane enclosed vacuoles |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the name of a parasite that does not have mitochondria and creates cysts |
answer
| Giardia lamblia (protozoan). causes giardiasis. diagnosed by cysts in the feces. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the name for a protozoan that has an undulating membrane and lacks mitochondria |
answer
| Trichomonas vaginalis. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe euglenoids |
answer
| protozoans. photoautotrophs. they have a semirigid plasma membrane called a pellicle. move by means of a flagella at the anterior end. they have an eyespot to sense light. they are facultative chemoheterotrophs. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe hemoflagellates |
answer
| protozoans that are blood parasites. they are transmitted by the bites of blood feeding insects and are found in the circulatory system of the infected host. Includes the genus Trypanosoma. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe Amebae |
answer
| protozoans that move by extending blunt, lobelike projections of the cytoplasms called pseudopods. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the only pathogenic ameba |
answer
| Entamoeba histolytica- found in the human intestine. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the Apicomplexa |
answer
| protozoans that are not motile in their mature forms and are obligate intracellular parasites. (Plasmodium) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a sporozoite |
answer
| the infective stage of plasmodium |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a merozoite |
answer
| progeny of sporozoites that can infect RBCs |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is a definitive host |
answer
| the host that harbors the sexually reproducing stage of the bug (mosquito for malaria) |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the intermediate host |
answer
| the host in which the parasite undergoes asexual reproduction (the human for malaria) |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe ciliates |
answer
| protozoans that have cilia that are similar to but shorter than flagella. |
Unlock the answer
question
| what is the only ciliate that is a human parasite |
answer
| Balantidium coli- causes a rare type of dysentary |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe slime molds |
answer
| protozoans that are closely related to amebae. Two types: cellular and plasmodial. |
Unlock the answer
question
| Describe helminths |
answer
| multicellular eukaryotic animals that generally possess digestive, circulatory, nervous, excretory, and reproductive systems. |
Unlock the answer
question
| What differences can be made between parasitic helmintsh and their free-living relatives |
answer
| parasitic helminthes may lack a digestive system, their nervous system is reduced, their means of locomotion is reduced, and their reproductive system is often complex |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe the platyhelminths |
answer
| flatworms. classes of parasitic flatworms include trematodes and cestodes. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe trematodes |
answer
| flatworms that are called flukes. they obtain food by absorbing it through their nonliving outer covering, called the cuticle. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe cestodes |
answer
| called tapeworms. they are intestinal parasites. their head is called the scolex. their body is made of segments called proglottids. |
Unlock the answer
question
| describe nematodes |
answer
| protozoans. roundworms. males are smaller than females. most species are dioecious. |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do protozoans reproduce asexually |
answer
| fission, budding, or schizogony |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do cellular slime molds get their nutrition |
answer
| they ingest bacteria by phagocytosis |
Unlock the answer
question
| how do plasmodial slime molds get their nutrition |
answer
| they engulf organic debris and bacteria as it moves |
Unlock the answer
question
| what are the nematodes that infect humans with their larvae |
answer
| hookworms and Trichinella |
Unlock the answer
