Section 11: Anesthesiology – Flashcards

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question
The drug xylazine is best described as an - Antiinflammatory - Analgesic and sedative - Antiemetic - Anesthetic
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Analgesic and sedative
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Detomidine is approved for use in - Dogs - Cats - Horses - Cattle
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Horses
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Butorphanol is best described as a/an - Antiinflammatory - Analgesic - Anesthetic - Diuretic
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Analgesic
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Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised? - Hepatic - Renal - Cardiovascular - All body systems
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Cardiovascular
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In the United States, xylazine is not approved for use in - Dogs - Cats - Horses - Cattle
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Cattle
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Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide - Analgesia - Muscle relaxation - Anesthesia - Diuresis
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Muscle relaxation
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The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to - Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone - Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement - Increase the dose of butorphanol - Increase the dose of xylazine
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Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
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Which drug is the most potent sedative? - Xylazine - Detomidine - Acepromazine - Diazepam
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Detomidine
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Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses? - Diazepam - Butorphanol - Acepromazine - Flunixin meglumine
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Acepromazine
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The combination drug Telazol contains - Diazepam and ketamine - Diazepam and xylazine - Zolazepam and tiletamine - Xylazine and tiletamine
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Zolazepam and tiletamine
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Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is - High cost - Difficulty of administration - Poor analgesia - Movement of the patient
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Movement of the patient
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Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs? - Isoflurane - Halothane - Sevoflurane - Nitrous oxide
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Halothane
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Which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body? - Isoflurane - Halothane - Sevoflurane - Nitrous oxide
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Nitrous oxide
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All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except - Acepromazine - Diazepam - Isoflurane - Neuromuscular blocking agents
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Neuromuscular blocking agents
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Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate? - Phenobarbital - Thiopental - Pentobarbital - Propofol
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Propofol
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Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except - Longer duration of action - Crosses the placental barrier - Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias - Smaller dose volume
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Crosses the placental barrier
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At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate? - Decreases - No effect - Increases - Prevents a decrease
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Prevents a decrease
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Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as - Anesthetics - Analgesics - Antiinflammatories - Antihistamines
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Analgesics
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The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it - Does not cause cardiac arrhythmias - Produces a short period of analgesia - Has antiemetic properties - Is an antiinflammatory
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Produces a short period of analgesia
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Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may - Cause colic - Slow the heart rate - Cause excitement - Increase salivation
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Cause colic
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Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis? - Glycopyrrolate - Acepromazine - Xylazine - Diazepam
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Acepromazine
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Which drug is a narcotic antagonist? - Naloxone - Atropine - Pancuronium - Droperidol
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Naloxone
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A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains - 10 mg/ml - 100 mg/ml - 20 mg/ml - 40 mg/ml
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100 mg/ml
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Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure? - Shorten the recovery time - Prolong the recovery time - Leave the recovery time unaltered - Necessitate increasing the dose of induction agent
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Prolong the recovery time
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Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine? - Butorphanol - Detomidine - Yohimbine - Pentazocine
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Yohimbine
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Diazepam is used to produce - Analgesia - Hypnosis - Muscle relaxation - Vomiting
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Muscle relaxation
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Epinephrine - Increases the heart rate - Decreases the heart rate - Decreases the blood pressure - Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
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Increases the heart rate
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Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia - Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required - Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required - Slows the induction process - Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required
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Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
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A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it - Decreases the arterial PaO - Increases the arterial PaO - Slows the induction time - Prolongs the recovery time
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Decreases the arterial PaO
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How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain? - 5 - 10 - 20 - 30
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20
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What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution. - 24 ml - 40 ml - 60 ml - 65 ml
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40 ml
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Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of - Pentobarbital - Thiamylal - Ketamine - Guaifenesin
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Ketamine
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Which of the following is not a good reason to use a preanesthetic? - Calms the patient - Minimizes the dose of induction agent needed - Smoothes induction and recovery - Increases vagal activity
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Increases vagal activity
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If 180 ml of a 5% solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150-kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered? - 30 - 60 - 90 - 15
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60
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Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is - Useful to prevent movement - Not to be used for cesarean section - An excellent caudal analgesic - An old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today
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An excellent caudal analgesic
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Mask inductions are - Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction - Best used in aggressive dogs and cats - Absolutely the best way to induce anesthesia in all dogs and cats - More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats
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More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats
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Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration? - Tachycardia - Excessive salivation - Mydriasis - Decreased gastrointestinal motility
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Excessive salivation
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The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog? - 2 - 4 - 6 - 8
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4
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Halothane concentrations of 1% to 2% may produce any of the following except - Hypotension - Hypoventilation - Hypothermia - Increased cardiac output
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Increased cardiac output
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The adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are - Nothing to worry about - Never present with smaller doses - Dose dependent - Not dose dependent
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Dose dependent
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The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is - Increased heart rate - Increased respiratory rate - Active palpebral reflex - Responsive movement
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Responsive movement
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Propofol is a/an - Xylazine antagonist - Ultrashort-acting barbiturate - Ketamine-like dissociative - Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
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Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
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Acepromazine should be avoided in - Patients with a history of seizures - Aggressive patients - All old dogs - All Dobermans
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Patients with a history of seizures
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In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except - Respiratory depression - Decreased heart rate - Analgesia - Excitement
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Excitement
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When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing - Respiratory depression - Potency of the agent - Cardiovascular effects - Solubility coefficients
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Potency of the agent
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Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic? - Thiopental sodium - Ketamine - Xylazine - Acepromazine
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Ketamine
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Which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times? - Nitrous oxide - Isoflurane - Halothane - Sevoflurane
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Halothane
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In rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins? - Femoral - Jugular - Auricular - Cephalic
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Auricular
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The oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent rebreathing of exhaled gases with an Ayre's T piece is - 0.5 L/min - 1 L/min - 2 L/min - Greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation
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Greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation
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A half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of - 375 psi - 2200 psi - 750 psi - 50 psi
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750 psi
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When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is - 10 cm HO - 20 cm HO - 60 cm HO - 70 cm HO
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20 cm HO
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Precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed - In the circle - Out of the circle - Either in or out of the circle - In the high-pressure portion of the anesthetic system
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Out of the circle
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If the unidirectional valves are missing from an anesthetic machine, it is - Okay to use the machine until you find them - Okay to use the machine if soda lime is new - Okay to use the machine with the pop-off valve closed - Definitely not okay to use the machine, except with a nonrebreathing circuit
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Definitely not okay to use the machine, except with a nonrebreathing circuit
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The oxygen flush valve - Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer - Increases the anesthetic concentration within the circuit - Causes the patient to breathe deeper - Is used primarily to keep the reservoir bag deflated
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Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer
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The advantages of a nonrebreathing system, as compared with a circle breathing system, include all of the following, except - Reduced resistance to breathing - Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed - Reduced mechanical dead space - No soda lime required
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Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed
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The minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the - Patient's metabolic rate - Patient's respiratory rate - Drugs used for premedication - Size of the soda lime canister
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Patient's metabolic rate
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All inhalant anesthetic machines should have - A nitrous oxide flowmeter - Blood pressure monitors - Respiratory monitors - An anesthetic waste gas scavenging system
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An anesthetic waste gas scavenging system
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Vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following, except the - Method of regulating output - Method of vaporization - Location in the anesthetic circuit - Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used
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Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used
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An intravenous catheter should be - Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs - As small as possible to avoid pain - Placed in critically ill patients only - Left in place for at least 3 days after surgery
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Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
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The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least - The same as the patient's tidal volume - Three times the patient's tidal volume - Six times the patient's tidal volume - Nine times the patient's tidal volume
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Three times the patient's tidal volume
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Pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of - Respiratory rate - Cardiac output - Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood - Oxygen content of arterial blood
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Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood
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Which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate? - It removes carbon dioxide from the breathing circuit. - Its capacity should be at least one to two times the patient's tidal volume. - It can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color. - It should be changed once a month.
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It should be changed once a month.
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If the rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, all of the following may be the cause, except - The oxygen flow may be too high. - The oxygen flow may be too low. - There may be a leak in the system. - The waste gas scavenging system is not working properly.
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The oxygen flow may be too high.
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Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color? - Green - Gray - Blue - Brown
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Blue
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The approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is - 70 L - 700 L - 7000 L - 2200 L
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700 L
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The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is - 70 L - 700 L - 7000 L - 2200 L
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7000 L
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The pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is - 20 to 30 psi - 50 to 60 psi - 100 to 120 psi - 2200 psi
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50 to 60 psi
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Which statement concerning the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit is least accurate? - It is calibrated in centimeters of water or millimeters of mercury. - It is helpful when ventilating patients. - It is related to the pressure in the patient's airway. - It measures oxygen partial pressure.
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It measures oxygen partial pressure.
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Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except - Isoflurane - Halothane - Sevoflurane - Nitrous oxide
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Nitrous oxide
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According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is - 2 ppm - 4 ppm - 6 ppm - 8 ppm
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2 ppm
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There is evidence of increased health risks among people exposed chronically to trace levels of inhalant anesthetic gases. All of the following conditions have been associated with such exposure except - Abortion and congenital abnormalities - Hepatic and renal disease - CNS dysfunction - Insomnia
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Insomnia
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All of the following are methods that reduce waste gas levels except - Scavenging systems - Elimination of breathing circuit leaks - Careful filling of vaporizers to avoid spillage - Chamber and mask inductions
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Chamber and mask inductions
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When inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air? - 2 ml - 5 ml - 7 ml - 10 ml
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5 ml
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Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that - Its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx. - The adaptor is just caudal to the incisors. - It is deep enough to prevent backing out. - Its tip just reaches the third rib.
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Its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx.
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When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be placed in - Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck - Sternal recumbency with its head and neck extended - Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck - Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended
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Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended
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Which of the following is not an advantage for endotracheal intubation? - Ensures a patent airway - Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation - Prevents aspiration pneumonitis - Improves oxygenation of arterial blood
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Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation
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Which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during endotracheal intubation? - Thoroughbred mare - Hereford cow - Persian cat - Dalmatian dog
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Persian cat
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Which of the following is the most common complication of endotracheal intubation? - Placement of the tube in the esophagus - Physical damage to the teeth and oral mucous membranes - Overinflated cuff injuring the trachea - Underinflated cuff collapsing the trachea
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Placement of the tube in the esophagus
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The best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotracheal tube cuff is - Use 1 ml of air for each millimeter of internal diameter of the tube. - Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube. - Inject air until the bulb on the cuff tubing is too hard to collapse. - Use a 12-ml syringe and inject 12 ml of air into the cuff.
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Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube.
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The preferred method for treating a cat with laryngospasm is to - Use a sharp stylet to wedge the endotracheal tube between the vocal cords. - Return the animal to its cage, and wait 20 minutes before trying again. - Place a drop of a topical anesthetic in the laryngeal area, wait a few minutes, and then intubate the animal. - Use a stiffer endotracheal tube that can force the vocal cords open.
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Place a drop of a topical anesthetic in the laryngeal area, wait a few minutes, and then intubate the animal.
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Which of the following is not an advantage of using an endotracheal tube? - Prevents atelectasis of lung alveoli - Encourages proper examination of the animal's mouth, pharynx, and larynx - Provides a means for treating respiratory and cardiac arrest - Increases the chances of airway obstruction
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Increases the chances of airway obstruction
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In a Siamese cat, the endotracheal tube should be removed - As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed - Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway - When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine - As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
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As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
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In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed - As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed - Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway - When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine - As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
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Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
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What is the best technique to secure an endotracheal tube to an animal? - It is best not to secure the tube to the animal, so that it can move freely if the animal starts to wake up. - It should be secured by gauze strips around the head in cats and brachycephalic dogs and caudal to the upper canines in other breeds of dogs. - It can be secured by several wraps of cloth and tape around the animal's nose and the tube. - A rubber band can be looped tightly around the tube and the animal's nose.
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It should be secured by gauze strips around the head in cats and brachycephalic dogs and caudal to the upper canines in other breeds of dogs.
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Which statement concerning use of intravenous anesthesia in large animals is least accurate? - It is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias. - It works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of the patient. - It should not be used on procedures that require more than 45 to 50 minutes to complete. - It requires use of a preanesthetic for sedation and a barbiturate.
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It works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of the patient.
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When monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record all of the following, except - Mucous membrane color and capillary refill time - Heart rate and respiratory rate and depth - Reflexes - Pulse quality and strength
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Reflexes
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The responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient's vital signs and recording observations at approximately - 10-minute intervals - 5-minute intervals - 2-minute intervals - 15-second intervals
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5-minute intervals
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Adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the - Heart rate - Respiratory rate - Mucous membrane color and capillary refill time - Pulse pressure
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Mucous membrane color and capillary refill time
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Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by - Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels - Decreased carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen levels - Increased oxygen levels and decreased carbon dioxide levels - Increased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels
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Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels
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In nonbrachycephalic breeds of dogs recovering from anesthesia, the endotracheal tube should be removed when the - Palpebral reflex returns - Swallowing reflex returns - Pupils resume a central position - Animal shows voluntary movement of the limbs
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Swallowing reflex returns
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Concerning physical stimulation of the recovering anesthetized patient, which statement is least accurate? - Stimulation should not include rubbing the chest, because it may interfere with respiration. - Stimulation can include talking to the patient, moving the limbs, or pinching the toes. - Stimulation increases the flow of information to the reticular activation center of the brain. - A lack of stimulation may cause drowsiness in the conscious animal.
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Stimulation should not include rubbing the chest, because it may interfere with respiration.
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It is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Concerning this, which statement is least accurate? - Turn the patient every 10 to 15 minutes until it regains consciousness. - Turning the patient prevents pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body. - It is advisable to turn all animals dorsally, rather than sternally, to prevent gastric torsion. - Turning the patient helps stimulate respiration and consciousness.
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It is advisable to turn all animals dorsally, rather than sternally, to prevent gastric torsion.
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Once extubated, all animals should be placed in - Right lateral recumbency with the neck extended - Left lateral recumbency with the neck in a normal, flexed position - Sternal recumbency with the neck extended - Whatever position is most comfortable for the patient
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Sternal recumbency with the neck extended
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Following discontinuation of the anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable, because it - Helps reinflate collapsed alveoli - Allows for a faster recovery - Helps flush anesthetic gas out of the hoses - Allows expired waste gas to be evacuated by the scavenger system
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Helps reinflate collapsed alveoli
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In the anesthetized surgical patient, pale mucous membranes can indicate all of the following, except - Inadequate oxygen levels - Cyanosis - Excessive blood loss - Decreased tissue perfusion
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Cyanosis
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In patients with which of the following characteristics is it recommended to wait a longer period before extubation because of the likelihood of vomiting or airway obstruction? - Dolichocephalic - Undershot mandible - Brachycephalic - Cleft palate
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Brachycephalic
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Providing good nursing care for the recovering anesthetized patient is the duty of the attending anesthetist. Which of the following is not advisable for a patient immediately following surgery? - Providing ample bedding to prevent heat loss and increase comfort - Providing fresh food and water once the animal is conscious - Providing a source of heat in hypothermia cases - Administering postoperative analgesics as directed by the veterinarian
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Providing fresh food and water once the animal is conscious
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98. The minimum acceptable heart rate (beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is - 40 bpm - 60 bpm - 80 bpm - 100 bpm
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60 bpm
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It is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat's heart rate falls below - 160 bpm - 120 bpm - 100 bpm - 140 bpm
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100 bpm
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An anesthetist should be aware of the effects of anesthetic agents on the patient. When used as preanesthetics, atropine and acepromazine can cause all of the following, except - Prolapse of the nictitating membrane - Respiratory depression - Reduced salivation and tear production - Pupil dilatation in cats
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Respiratory depression
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A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates - Congestive heart failure - Decreased peripheral blood perfusion - Decreased ventilation - Hypertension
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Decreased peripheral blood perfusion
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Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed - Direct monitoring - Central venous pressure - Indirect monitoring - Peripheral venous pressure
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Direct monitoring
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When monitoring the mucous membrane color of an anesthetized patient with pigmented gingivae, you could use each of the following alternative sites except - Pinnae - Tongue - Buccal mucous membranes - Membranes lining the prepuce or vulva
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Pinnae
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During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian? - 5 - 8 - 10 - 12
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8
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Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent - Apnea - Mydriasis - Hypercapnia - Atelectasis
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Atelectasis
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The causes of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except - Progression from light to moderate anesthesia - Response to metabolic acidosis - Response to a mild surgical stimulus - Presence of pulmonary edema
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Progression from light to moderate anesthesia
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If the rectum of a patient is covered by a surgical drape or is otherwise inaccessible to the anesthetist, a rough estimate of body temperature can be obtained by - Touching the patient's nose or tail - Touching the patient's feet or ears - Touching the patient's tongue or mucous membranes - Feeling the temperature of exhaled air
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Touching the patient's feet or ears
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Throughout anesthesia, the animal's temperature should be maintained as close to normal as possible. Hypothermia can be prevented by all of the following measures except - Warming the stainless-steel V trough before using it - Administering warm intravenous fluids - Use of a circulating warm-water heating pad - Providing a comfortable air temperature in the surgery room
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Warming the stainless-steel V trough before using it
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Malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal syndrome to the anesthetized patient. Which of these species is most prone to this condition? - Cattle - Pigs - Dogs - Goats
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Pigs
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Use of succinylcholine in combination with general anesthetics may be advantageous to the surgeon during certain procedures, but it gives the anesthetist one less measure with which to monitor anesthetic depth. What measure would be of no use in monitoring patients given succinylcholine? - Eye position and pupil size - Heart rate - Jaw muscle tone - Respiratory rate
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Jaw muscle tone
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Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth? - Pinna reflex - Pedal reflex - Jaw muscle tone - Eye position
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Eye position
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Which statement concerning eye position, pupil size, and responsiveness to light as indicators of anesthetic depth is least accurate? - In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light. - In stage III, plane 2 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually rotated ventrally with slightly dilated pupils. - In stage II of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central, and the pupils may be dilated and responsive to light. - In stage IV of anesthesia, the eyes are central with widely dilated pupils that are unresponsive to light.
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In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light.
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The presence or absence of salivary and lacrimal secretions may give clues regarding anesthetic depth. In an animal that has not received an anticholinergic, which statement concerning observance of these secretions is most accurate? - Production of tears and saliva increases with increasing anesthetic depth. - Production of tears and saliva is totally absent in light anesthesia. - Tear and saliva production diminishes as anesthetic depth is increased. - Tear and saliva production increases in all stages of anesthesia in the absence of anticholinergics.
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Tear and saliva production diminishes as anesthetic depth is increased.
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The anesthetized patient may respond to surgical stimulation if the anesthetic depth is inadequate. Response to a painful stimulus may be indicated by all of the following except - A considerable increase in heart rate and an increase in blood pressure - A decrease in lacrimation and salivation - An increase in respiratory rate - Sweating on the foot pads
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A decrease in lacrimation and salivation
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A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. This animal is in what stage and plane of anesthesia? - Stage III, plane 2 - Stage III, plane 3 - Stage III, plane 4 - Stage IV, plane 1
answer
Stage III, plane 3
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A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, its heart rate is 80 beats/min, its pupils are centrally positioned, its jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. What should be your response or actions to the condition of this animal? - It is adequately anesthetized; no adjustments are necessary. - You should try to stimulate the animal, to lighten the plane of anesthesia. - You should notify the veterinarian of the dog's condition but not be alarmed. - You should reduce the vaporizer setting to 1.5% isoflurane and continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth.
answer
You should reduce the vaporizer setting to 1.5% isoflurane and continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth.
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What stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding? - Stage I - Stage II - Stage III, plane 1 - Stage III, plane 2
answer
Stage II
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A dog received intramuscularly the correct dose of xylazine. Second-degree heart block and bradycardia developed. Based on the most common cause of this adverse reaction, what would be the best therapy? - No treatment is required. - Yohimbine - Glycopyrrolate - Doxapram
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Glycopyrrolate
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An abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate - Intravenous fluid overload - Increased cardiac output - Dehydration - Liver disease
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Intravenous fluid overload
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A 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter? - 1 mg - 0.01 mg - 1 µg - 0.1 mg
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0.1 mg
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Cardiac arrhythmias that occur during anesthesia are commonly associated with all of the following except - Normocapnia - Excessive halothane concentration - Hypoxemia - Myocardial ischemia
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Normocapnia
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Mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-anesthetized horse - Can be used as an indication of anesthetic depth - Is not important - Is not practical to monitor - Is important for long procedures only
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Can be used as an indication of anesthetic depth
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Surgical evaluation of a dog hit by a car revealed a PCV of 18% and plasma protein below 2.5 g/dl. All of the following are true, except the - Patient is predisposed to pulmonary edema. - Fluid administration rates should be watched closely. - Patient should receive plasma or whole blood before surgery. - Patient should not receive fluid before surgery.
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Patient should not receive fluid before surgery.
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The estimated blood volume in dogs is - 25 ml/kg - 50 ml/kg - 75 ml/kg - 100 ml/kg
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75 ml/kg
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The volume of blood administered to a patient is determined by all of the following except - PCV of the donor - PCV of the recipient - Desired PCV - Age of the recipient
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Age of the recipient
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While monitoring a horse during inhalation anesthesia, you note that the heart rate suddenly increases to 80 beats/min. Your most appropriate response is to - Increase the delivered anesthetic concentration - Administer intravenously 10 mg of butorphanol - Evaluate the peripheral pulse, mucous membranes, and other vital organ function before responding - Not be concerned, because the horse is not moving
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Evaluate the peripheral pulse, mucous membranes, and other vital organ function before responding
question
While monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls to 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. Your first response should be to - Administer a vasoactive agent - Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate - Turn down the oxygen flow - Not be concerned
answer
Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate
question
Whole blood should be administered in which of the following presurgical situations? - PCV 30% - PCV 14% - Von Willebrand positive - Chronic anemia, PCV 25%
answer
PCV 14%
question
A 10-kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 µg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml? - 3 - 5 - 30 - 50
answer
30
question
The most common arrhythmia associated with use of thiobarbiturates in dogs during induction of anesthesia is - Atrial fibrillation - Ventricular tachycardia - Bigeminy - Second-degree atrioventricular block
answer
Bigeminy
question
Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except - Hypotension - Pain - Light plane of anesthesia - Xylazine overdose
answer
Xylazine overdose
question
A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except - The induction agent - Difficulty intubating - Hypoxemia - Breathing oxygen-enriched air
answer
Breathing oxygen-enriched air
question
Hypothermia has become significant in a 4-kg anesthetized cat. The best way to restore body heat is - With a warm-water blanket - To submerge the animal in warm water - With a heat lamp - To warm the air in the breathing circuit by some method
answer
To warm the air in the breathing circuit by some method
question
In a cat that is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be present except - Pale mucous membranes - Tachycardia - Bradycardia - Voluntary movement
answer
Voluntary movement
question
An isoflurane-anesthetized cat suddenly begins breathing 30 times a minute during a surgical procedure. Your first response should be to - Turn down the oxygen flow rate - Immediately begin to bag the patient - Turn up the anesthetic concentration - Evaluate vital organ function and endotracheal tube placement and make necessary adjustments
answer
Evaluate vital organ function and endotracheal tube placement and make necessary adjustments
question
If a dog is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be seen except - Tachycardia - Bradycardia - Pale mucous membranes - Increased jaw muscle tone
answer
Increased jaw muscle tone
question
A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy? - Propranolol - Quinidine - Lidocaine - Atropine
answer
Lidocaine
question
Dobutamine is used in emergency anesthetic and clinical situations to - Increase the respiratory rate - Increase cardiac output - Correct cardiac arrhythmias - Decrease the heart rate
answer
Increase cardiac output
question
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in a medium-sized dog, you should maintain a ventilation rate of how many breaths per minute? - 5 - 12 - 20 - 30
answer
12
question
During CPR, adequate cardiac massage is present when - The electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. - The heart rate is 60 beats/min. - A peripheral pulse can be palpated. - The mucous membranes are pink.
answer
A peripheral pulse can be palpated.
question
The only accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of respiration is by - Observing abdominal and chest movements during respiration - Counting the respiratory rate - Feeling air move through the endotracheal tube or nostrils - Measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures
answer
Measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures
question
Dehydration greater than 10% is - A seriously morbid state - Nothing to worry about - Not something that affects skin turgor - Not associated with depression
answer
A seriously morbid state
question
Patients that have water withheld for long periods before surgery and general anesthesia may be prone to - Vomiting during induction - Dehydration and hypotension - Nothing more than other patients - Respiratory depression
answer
Dehydration and hypotension
question
When xylazine is used to induce vomiting before surgery - There is nothing to worry about. - Do not place an endotracheal tube. - Examine the airway for gastric contents before placing the endotracheal tube. - Do not administer atropine.
answer
Examine the airway for gastric contents before placing the endotracheal tube.
question
Immediately after tracheal intubation in a 3-kg cat you notice extreme respiratory distress. The most likely cause is - Light plane of anesthesia - Hypoxemia - Nothing; this is normal. - Bronchial intubation
answer
Bronchial intubation
question
After placing, lubricating, and inflating the cuff of the endotracheal tube, you note a sudden decrease in heart rate. The most likely cause is - Low oxygen flow - Too deep a plane of anesthesia - Cuff is underinflated - Cuff may be overinflated, producing vagal-induced bradycardia
answer
Cuff may be overinflated, producing vagal-induced bradycardia
question
During CPR, 2% lidocaine is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. A complication that may occur after intravenous infusion of lidocaine is - Bradycardia - Coughing - Tachycardia - Vomiting
answer
Bradycardia
question
Indications of poor cardiac function include all of the following except - Cyanosis in patients with a PCV of 45% - Poor perfusion - Cardiac arrhythmias - Normal pulse
answer
Normal pulse
question
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to - Treat cardiac arrhythmias - Produce positive inotropic effects - Stimulate respiration - Combat acidosis
answer
Combat acidosis
question
Doxapram may produce all of the following except - CNS excitement - Increased ventilation rate - Respiratory alkalosis - Hypoventilation
answer
Hypoventilation
question
Obesity delays elimination of what drug because of its high lipid solubility? - Propofol - Xylazine - Thiopental - Guaifenesin
answer
Thiopental
question
______ is commonly used along with ketamine or thiopental as an induction agent for adult horses. - Propofol - Phenobarbital - Guaifenesin - Isoflurane
answer
Guaifenesin
question
______ can cause convulsions when administered alone at high doses. - Dissociative anesthetics - Barbiturates - Benzodiazepine tranquilizers - Propofol
answer
Dissociative anesthetics
question
______ is an analgesic and a sedative. - Acepromazine - Atropine - Diazepam - Xylazine
answer
Xylazine
question
All of the following drugs predispose the animal to bloat, except - Atropine - Medetomidine - Glycopyrrolate - Midazolam
answer
Midazolam
question
A drug is considered an ______ if its action at the receptor is to stimulate. - Agonist - Antagonist - Anarchist - Antitussive
answer
Agonist
question
What drugs will not slow the heart rate? - Anticholinergics - Phenothiazine tranquilizers - Alpha-2 agonists - Gas anesthetics
answer
Anticholinergics
question
Phenothiazine tranquilizers - Cause nausea - Increase the seizure threshold - Cause vasoconstriction - Suppress the sympathetic nervous system
answer
Suppress the sympathetic nervous system
question
An overdose of a barbiturate anesthetic can be appropriately treated with all of the following except - Respiratory stimulant - Fluid therapy - Ventilator support - An increase in the concentration of isoflurane
answer
An increase in the concentration of isoflurane
question
The following general anesthetic agents can be delivered to effect except - Isoflurane - Telazole given IM - Ketamine/diazepam IV - Thiopental IV
answer
Telazole given IM
question
No more than ______ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient. - 40% - 50% - 60% - 70%
answer
70%
question
Never use nitrous oxide - In a closed anesthesia circuit - In cats - With rubber tubes on the anesthesia machine - With isoflurane
answer
In a closed anesthesia circuit
question
______ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used. - Solubility - Diffusion hypoxia - Biotransformation - Inflammation
answer
Diffusion hypoxia
question
Recovery from barbiturate anesthesia is prolonged by all of the following except - Increased blood glucose concentration - Sight hounds - Liver disease - Elevated cardiac output
answer
Elevated cardiac output
question
______ may occur because of rapid recovery from isoflurane anesthesia. - Diffusion hypoxia - Second gas effect - Biotransformation - Emergence delirium
answer
Emergence delirium
question
______ should not be used as part of the anesthetic plan if the patient has an intestinal obstruction. - Isoflurane - Acepromazine - Nitrous oxide - Atropine
answer
Nitrous oxide
question
Pediatric patients younger than 3 months that undergo general anesthesia are at higher risk than adult patients for all of the following except - Having a fluid overdose - Developing hypothermia - Developing hypoglycemia - Biting the endotracheal tube in half
answer
Biting the endotracheal tube in half
question
Which of the following would not cause pale mucous membranes? - Stress causing catecholamine release leading to vasoconstriction - Anemia - Hyperthermia - Hypotension
answer
Hyperthermia
question
The effect of intravenous administration of any anesthetic drug is usually detected in - 30 to 60 seconds - 3 to 5 minutes - 15 to 20 minutes - 1 hour
answer
30 to 60 seconds
question
Kidney function can be assessed by the following preanesthetic screening tests except - BUN - ALT - Urinalysis - Creatinine
answer
ALT
question
The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed by measuring all of the following except - PCV - Hematocrit - Total solids - Hemoglobin
answer
Total solids
question
A patient's hydration status can be assessed by all the following except - Respiratory rate - PCV - Total solids - Skin turgor
answer
Respiratory rate
question
Measures that help decrease waste anesthetic gas exposure include all except - Frequent changing of the soda lime canister - Properly fitting endotracheal tube cuffs - Avoiding use of masks or induction chambers - Leak testing the anesthesia machine
answer
Frequent changing of the soda lime canister
question
Charcoal canisters attached to the exhaust of the anesthesia machine - Absorb carbon dioxide - Remove all gas anesthetic agents - Remove all gas anesthetic agents except nitrous oxide - Change color when the canister must be changed
answer
Remove all gas anesthetic agents except nitrous oxide
question
Daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include all of these except - Leak testing - Weighing the charcoal canister - Calibrating of the vaporizer - Filling the vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent
answer
Calibrating of the vaporizer
question
When cleaning up a gas anesthetic spill, you should do all of the following except - Open windows - Turn on any venting fans - Soak up the agent in absorbent material - Dispose of in a paper bag in the trash in the surgical area
answer
Dispose of in a paper bag in the trash in the surgical area
question
Which of the following statements about neuromuscular blocking agents is false? - Neuromuscular blocking agents cause profound muscle relaxation. - Neuromuscular blocking agents interfere with acetylcholine activity. - Neuromuscular blocking agents work at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ). - Neuromuscular blocking agents must be injected around the nerve.
answer
Neuromuscular blocking agents must be injected around the nerve.
question
When given a neuromuscular blocking agent, the last muscle(s) to become paralyzed is/are the - Muscles of the tail - Diaphragm - Abdominal muscles - Muscle into which the drug was injected
answer
Diaphragm
question
Neuromuscular blocking agents - Cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters - Interfere with transmission of the electrical impulse along the nerve fiber - Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ - Block catecholamine release
answer
Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ
question
Local anesthetics - Cause increased release of inhibitory neurotransmitters - Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber - Disrupt nerve impulse transmission at the NMJ - Block catecholamine release
answer
Interfere with transmission of the impulse along the nerve fiber
question
The MAC of an anesthetic agent will change for all of the following reasons except - Preanesthetic drug administration - Patient's age - Patient's breed - Anemia
answer
Patient's breed
question
Inhalant anesthetics with low ______ have short induction and recovery periods. - Toxicity - Solubility coefficient - Vapor pressure - Biotransformation
answer
Solubility coefficient
question
Highly volatile anesthetics are best suited for - IV administration - Precision vaporizers - Draw-over vaporizers - Open-drop or cone systems
answer
Precision vaporizers
question
Recovery from a volatile anesthetic will be prolonged because of all of the following except when - The animal is under for several hours. - A high percent of the anesthetic is biotransformed. - The solubility coefficient is high. - The MAC is high.
answer
The MAC is high.
question
Which volatile anesthetic agent is the most potent? - One with a 1 MAC value of 0.59 - One with a 1 MAC value of 1.2 - One with a 1 MAC value of 5.3 - One with a 1 MAC value of 0.09
answer
One with a 1 MAC value of 0.09
question
Which agent in the table above has the shortest induction and recovery time? - A - B - C - D
answer
B
question
Which agent in the table above can maintain the patient under anesthesia at the lowest alveolar concentration? - A - B - C - D
answer
C
question
Which agent in the table above has the longest induction and recovery time? - A - B - C - D
answer
C
question
Weaning off of a ventilator should include all of the following except - Reversal of the neuromuscular blocking drug - Increase rate of ventilating breaths - Decrease anesthetic gas concentration delivered - Respiratory stimulant drugs
answer
Increase rate of ventilating breaths
question
A/an ______ in the blood stimulates the animal to take a breath. - Decrease in oxygen saturation - Decrease in carbon dioxide - Increase in carbon dioxide - Increase in pH
answer
Increase in carbon dioxide
question
The active phase of normal breathing is - Shorter in duration than the passive phase - The same duration as the passive phase - Longer in duration than the passive phase - Variable in duration, sometimes shorter, sometimes longer
answer
Shorter in duration than the passive phase
question
Overinflation of the lungs during artificial ventilation - Is of little concern, except during open-chest surgery - May cause emphysema - May cause oxygen toxicity - May cause the endotracheal tube to disconnect from the anesthesia machine
answer
May cause emphysema
question
Neuromuscular blocking agents - Provide analgesia - Provide sedation - Paralyze all skeletal muscles except the diaphragm - Do not cross the blood-brain barrier
answer
Do not cross the blood-brain barrier
question
Neuromuscular blocking agents - Paralyze skeletal muscles, but all reflexes are maintained - Are also known as - Slow gut motility and predispose the patient to bloat - First paralyze the diaphragm
answer
Are also known as
question
Neuromuscular blocking agents are used for all of the following except - Analgesia - Facilitation of fracture reduction - Facilitation of ocular surgery to immobilize the eye - Prevention of spontaneous inspiratory efforts by the patient
answer
Analgesia
question
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - Are reversal agents for depolarizing neuromuscular blockers - Are reversal agents for nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers - Decrease the concentration of acetylcholine in the NMJ - Increase the breakdown of acetylcholine in the NMJ
answer
Are reversal agents for nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers
question
Local anesthetics - Are readily absorbed through intact skin - Prevent nerve cell depolarization - Are combined with vasodilators to prolong their activity - Are injected directly into the nerve
answer
Prevent nerve cell depolarization
question
______ pain originates from internal organs. - Somatic - Preemptive - Visceral - Referred
answer
Visceral
question
______ analgesia is the administration of an analgesic before the pain develops. - Somatic - Preemptive - Visceral - Referred
answer
Preemptive
question
To quickly lighten the depth of anesthesia in a patient under inhalant anesthesia, the anesthetist should - Suck all of the anesthetic gas from the lungs - Increase the flow of oxygen - Turn the vaporizer setting off or down - Prevent the patient from taking a breath
answer
Turn the vaporizer setting off or down
question
The patient is in an excessively deep plane of anesthesia. Which answer would not be an explanation? - The vaporizer is set at a high concentration. - The IV induction agent was given too quickly. - The pet has a low body temperature. - The endotracheal tube is kinked.
answer
The endotracheal tube is kinked.
question
The patient is under anesthesia and in shock. Which of the following symptoms would you observe? - Bradycardia - Hypertension - Cyanotic mucous membranes - Excessively long capillary refill time
answer
Excessively long capillary refill time
question
If the soda lime canister is exhausted, the patient may become - Cyanotic - Too light under anesthesia - Hypercapnic - Hyperthermic
answer
Hypercapnic
question
You have just completed filling the cuff on the endotracheal tube. The pressure relief valve is stuck in the closed position. Your best option is to - Turn up the oxygen flow rate - Start bagging the pet - Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine - Continue prepping the pet for surgery, and fix the valve release knob after the surgery is finished
answer
Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine
question
A small animal patient's systolic blood pressure was measured at 50 mm Hg. What is your best course of action? - Turn up the oxygen flow rate. - Turn up the concentration of gas anesthetic. - Close the pop-off valve. - Increase the drip rate of the IV fluids.
answer
Increase the drip rate of the IV fluids.
question
The patient is dyspneic. You should do all of the following except - Turn down the vaporizer - Check the oxygen flow - Check the endotracheal tube - Disconnect the pet from the anesthesia machine
answer
Disconnect the pet from the anesthesia machine
question
A dog under anesthesia has a heart rate of 230 beats/min. Which of the following is the best explanation? - This is normal. - The patient is in too deep a plane of anesthesia. - The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia. - The patient is hypothermic.
answer
The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia.
question
The patient is in shock. Which of these symptoms would not be expected? - Tachycardia - Hypertension - Prolonged capillary refill time - Pale mucous membranes
answer
Hypertension
question
The patient is in respiratory arrest. Which of the following is the correct action and reason? - Check the heart, because if the pet is not breathing, then the heart is not beating. - Start ventilating breaths, because arrest is obviously due to an obstructed endotracheal tube. - Tell the surgeon because he or she will be angry. - Turn off the vaporizer, because chances are the pet is too deep, and you need to begin ventilating breaths with oxygen alone.
answer
Turn off the vaporizer, because chances are the pet is too deep, and you need to begin ventilating breaths with oxygen alone.
question
A patient in ASA class I physical status is - A normal patient with no organic disease - A moribund patient - An adult animal with no signs of evident disease on physical examination - In absolutely no danger while under anesthesia
answer
A normal patient with no organic disease
question
Ways to minimize exposure to waste anesthetic gas include - Use of loose-fitting masks - Properly inflate the endotracheal tube cuff - Immediately disconnect of the patient from the anesthesia machine once the procedure is completed - Connect the patient to the breathing circuit after both the oxygen and isoflurane are turned on
answer
Properly inflate the endotracheal tube cuff
question
Treatment for hypotension during anesthesia includes - Turning up the anesthetic gas - Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids - Increasing the flow of oxygen - Giving ventilating breaths
answer
Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids
question
Hypothermia - Prolongs anesthetic induction - Prolongs anesthetic recovery - Is common in obese patients - Is of no concern in neonatal patients
answer
Prolongs anesthetic recovery
question
Isoflurane is mainly eliminated from the body by the - Renal system - GI system - Respiratory system - Hepatic system
answer
Respiratory system
question
It is generally safe to extubate the patient when the patient - Vocalizes - Swallows - Stands - Can rest in a sternal position
answer
Swallows
question
Which of the following is not a valid reason for administering a preanesthetic medication? - It reduces the amount of general anesthetic for induction. - It may calm an excited animal. - It may reduce possible noxious side effects from the general anesthesia. - It increases patient safety by allowing the animal to stay under the general anesthetic for a longer time.
answer
It increases patient safety by allowing the animal to stay under the general anesthetic for a longer time.
question
An epidural agent would be administered where in a dog? - Between L7 and the sacrum - Just cranial to C1 - Immediately caudal to T13 - Directly into the spinal cord at T1
answer
Between L7 and the sacrum
question
The epidural space is located - Just below the supraspinous ligament - In the subarachnoid area - Between the dura mater and the vertebrae - Immediately above the spinal cord
answer
Between the dura mater and the vertebrae
question
Epidural anesthesia could be appropriately used for all procedures except - Tail amputation - Cesarean section - Eye enucleation - Perianal surgery
answer
Eye enucleation
question
The drug used for epidural anesthesia is - Thiopental - Ketamine - Propofol - Lidocaine
answer
Lidocaine
question
Perivascular injection of a barbiturate solution, such as thiopental, can cause - Local anesthesia - Tissue slough - Increased blood pressure - Respiratory acidosis
answer
Tissue slough
question
The barbiturate anesthetic drug that can be used in sight hounds for its ability to produce faster anesthetic recovery is - Ketamine - Thiopental - Pentobarbital - Methohexital
answer
Methohexital
question
Sevoflurane is primarily eliminated from the body by - Respiration - Liver metabolism - Feces - Kidney excretion
answer
Respiration
question
The usual induction vaporizer setting for sevoflurane is - 2% to 6% - 1% to 4% - 5% to 7% - Up to 3%
answer
5% to 7%
question
The usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is - 0.25% to 1% - 3.3% to 4% - 0.5% to 2% - 1% to 3%
answer
3.3% to 4%
question
Which of these is a cyclohexamine agent? - Ketamine - Acetylpromazine - Xylazine - Propofol
answer
Ketamine
question
Acepromazine is classified as a(an) - Anticholinergic - Phenothiazine - Benzodiazepine - Thiazine derivative
answer
Phenothiazine
question
The preanesthetic mix abbreviated contains - Buprenorphine, atropine, acepromazine - Butorphanol, atipamezole, atropine - Buprenorphine, atropine, atipamezole - Butorphanol, acepromazine, atropine
answer
Butorphanol, acepromazine, atropine
question
What drug is an antagonist of medetomidine (Domitor)? - Yohimbine - Dopram - Atipamezole - Naloxone
answer
Atipamezole
question
Naloxone is classified as a(an) opioid - Agonist - Mixed agonist/antagonist - Mu and kappa blocker - Antagonist
answer
Antagonist
question
Which of the following is a neuromuscular blocking agent? - Succinylcholine - Lidocaine - Morphine - Yohimbine
answer
Succinylcholine
question
Which of the following is the anesthetic with the lowest blood/gas coefficient? - Halothane - Isoflurane - Nitrous oxide - Sevoflurane
answer
Sevoflurane
question
All are traits of sevoflurane except - Low lipid solubility - Smooth recovery - Nonpungent odor - Severe heart depression
answer
Severe heart depression
question
All are controlled substances except - Acepromazine - Ketamine - Fentanyl - Diazepam
answer
Acepromazine
question
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include - Aspirin and xylazine - Diazepam and acetaminophen - Carprofen and ketoprofen - Acetylpromazine and ibuprofen
answer
Carprofen and ketoprofen
question
All are true statements regarding transdermal use of fentanyl except - Analgesic effect is immediate on placement of the patch. - Patch should be applied to clipped skin. - Patch is normally left in place for 3 to 5 days. - Excessive amounts of drug can be released if the patch is heated.
answer
Analgesic effect is immediate on placement of the patch.
question
The false statement regarding postsurgical pain is - The pain serves a useful purpose by preventing activity that could cause further tissue injury. - An animal that experiences postoperative pain is more likely to have a poor anesthetic recovery. - Inhalation anesthetics currently used in small-animal practice do not provide significant, postoperative pain control. - If a procedure is known to be painful in humans, it should be regarded as such in animal patients.
answer
The pain serves a useful purpose by preventing activity that could cause further tissue injury.
question
The fundamental principle of administering analgesics before the animal has an awareness of pain is - Windup - Preemptive analgesia - Referred pain - Balanced analgesia
answer
Preemptive analgesia
question
The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is - Butorphanol - Morphine - Buprenorphine - Oxymorphone
answer
Buprenorphine
question
Which of the following anesthetic agents may provide some analgesia in the postoperative period? - Propofol - Sevoflurane - Ketamine - Isoflurane
answer
Ketamine
question
The local anesthetic agent that has the longest duration of action is - Lidocaine - Mepivacaine - Tetracaine - Bupivacaine
answer
Bupivacaine
question
An alpha-2 agonist that provides sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia is - Acepromazine - Xylazine - Diazepam - Ketamine
answer
Xylazine
question
A capnograph measures - Central venous pressure - Expired CO - Arterial oxygen - Blood pressure
answer
Expired CO
question
Gas cylinders that are a part of the anesthetic machine are attached to it by a - Y piece - Vaporizer - Yoke - Reducing valve
answer
Yoke
question
The type of nonrebreathing system that consists of inner tubing surrounded by larger corrugated tubing is - Mapleson A - Ayres T - Norman mask elbow - Baines
answer
Baines
question
Nonrebreathing systems are generally recommended for patients that weigh - More than 15 lb - Less than 7 kg - Greater than 7 kg - Less than 25 lb
answer
Less than 7 kg
question
The false statement regarding nonrebreathing systems is - They must have a CO absorber. - They allow quick changes of depth of anesthesia. - High amounts of waste gas are produced. - They use high oxygen flow rates.
answer
They must have a CO absorber.
question
Medical oxygen cylinders are colored - Blue - Gray - Green - Orange
answer
Green
question
The pressure in a full cylinder of compressed oxygen is ______ psi. - 1000 - 750 - 500 - 2000
answer
2000
question
The recommended carrier gas flow rate for chamber induction of a small animal is ______ L/min. - 2 - 5 - 1 - 3
answer
5
question
The false statement regarding scavenging systems is - Waste gases can be safely vented to the floor. - Active systems use a vacuum pump to draw gas into the scavenger. - Passive systems use positive pressure of the gas to push gas into the system. - Waste gas should be collected from the anesthetic machine and conducted to a disposal point.
answer
Waste gases can be safely vented to the floor.
question
High-pressure system tests of the anesthetic machine check for - Escape of anesthetic gas from the machine - Leaks between flowmeter and patient - Oxygen or nitrous oxide leakage - Leaks within the anesthetic circuit and attachments
answer
Oxygen or nitrous oxide leakage
question
Soda lime granules in the CO absorber canister should be checked for color change - Immediately before a starting a procedure - Three to 6 hours after the procedure - One hour before starting the procedure - During and up on completing the procedure
answer
During and up on completing the procedure
question
For a given inhalation anesthetic agent, a vaporizer setting of ______ times MAC will produce a surgical depth of anesthesia. - 2 - 0.5 - 1 - 1.5
answer
1.5
question
When using a mechanical ventilator, the animal's chest is under - Continuous pressure - Negative pressure - Positive pressure - No pressure
answer
Positive pressure
question
To intubate a 45-lb dog, you should select an endotracheal tube with an internal diameter of ______ mm. - 5 - 8 - 11 - 15
answer
11
question
The piece of equipment that facilitates intubating a patient is the - Esophageal stethoscope - Laryngoscope - Ophthalmoscope - Otoscope
answer
Laryngoscope
question
A noncuffed endotracheal tube would most likely be used in a - Newborn kitten - Calf - Lamb - Newborn foal
answer
Newborn kitten
question
An anesthetized animal should receive sigh breaths every ______ minutes. - 15 to 20 - 3 to 5 - 10 to 15 - 5 to 10
answer
5 to 10
question
A dog in an appropriate plane of anesthesia under isoflurane would be expected to have a pulse oximeter reading of - 97 - 120 - 85 - 90
answer
97
question
The pulse oximeter probe is generally placed on the - Tongue - Chest - Tail - Nose
answer
Tongue
question
An esophageal stethoscope can be used to monitor - Direct blood pressure - Oxygen saturation - Heart and respiratory rates - Carbon dioxide levels
answer
Heart and respiratory rates
question
If IV access is difficult, emergency drugs can be administered safely and effectively by the ______ route. - Intracardiac - Intraperitoneal - Intratracheal - Intramuscular
answer
Intratracheal
question
Puppies or kittens delivered by cesarean section that have reduced respiratory function can be given this drug underneath their tongue to stimulate respiration. - Atropine - Doxapram - Epinephrine - Lidocaine
answer
Doxapram
question
Which of the following is least commonly used in cattle to perform procedures? - Sedation - Restraint - General anesthesia - Local analgesics
answer
General anesthesia
question
Before administering a general anesthetic, which of the following is the least important part of an animal's history? - When the animal last ate - When the animal was last vaccinated - Whether the animal has a concurrent disease - Prior anesthetic history
answer
When the animal was last vaccinated
question
With dogs and cats, food is most commonly withheld before anesthesia for - 1 to 2 hours - 3 to 5 hours - 6 to 8 hours - 10 to 12 hours
answer
10 to 12 hours
question
Which of the following can activate the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system? - Intubation - Handling viscera - Administration of opioids - Painful stimuli
answer
Painful stimuli
question
All of the following are appropriate uses of anticholinergic drugs except - As an antidote for organophosphate poisoning - As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis - As an aid in the treatment of corneal ulcers - As treatment for bradycardia
answer
As an agent to increase intestinal peristalsis
question
The values of the PCV/TP may indicate that all of the following are present except - Anemia - Hypoproteinemia - Dehydration - Infection
answer
Infection
question
Which of the following is not an opioid drug? - Diazepam - Fentanyl - Meperidine - Butorphanol
answer
Diazepam
question
Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Phenothiazine tranquilizers may make an animal more aggressive. - Obese animals are often underdosed. - Brachycephalic animals are prone to respiratory complications. - Isoflurane is more respiratory depressive than halothane.
answer
Obese animals are often underdosed.
question
Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Diazepam is a potent sedative. - Xylazine can cause bloat in deep-chested dogs. - Atropine does not have to be administered with butorphanol. - Opioids can be given by the epidural route.
answer
Diazepam is a potent sedative.
question
Which of the following is least likely to cause hypotension after administration? - Propofol - Thiopental - Acepromazine - Ketamine
answer
Ketamine
question
Which of the following is not seen when ketamine is administered IV rather than IM? - Lower dose rate used - Quicker onset of effects - Longer duration of effects - Less pain on injection
answer
Longer duration of effects
question
Why is apnea sometimes prolonged after barbiturates are administered too rapidly? - Apnea is part of the excitement phase. - Apnea is part of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. - Barbiturates cause hypotension. - Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide.
answer
Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide.
question
For which of the following species is ketamine use approved? - Cats - Birds - Horses - Dogs
answer
Cats
question
Which of the following is (are) not characteristic(s) of propofol? - Rapid induction and recovery - Absence of "hangover effect" with repeated injections - Good postanesthesia analgesia - Smooth recoveries
answer
Good postanesthesia analgesia
question
Which of the following is not characteristic of ketamine anesthesia? - Increased muscle tone - Tachycardia - Tachypnea - Central pupils
answer
Tachypnea
question
Which of the following is least likely to be a result of administering barbiturates perivascularly? - An excitement phase - Pain - Tissue sloughing - Transient apnea
answer
Transient apnea
question
Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Barbiturates are not active when protein-bound. - Barbiturates are less potent in their unbound (free) form. - Methohexital can be safely used in sight hounds. - Barbiturates may cause hypotension when administered too quickly.
answer
Barbiturates are less potent in their unbound (free) form.
question
By which route can short-acting barbiturate drugs be safely administered to induce general anesthesia? - IV - IM - Oral - SQ
answer
IV
question
Advantages of inhalant anesthetics over injectable anesthetics include all of the following except - The ability to quickly change the anesthetic concentration - Less toxic effects on various body systems - Less expensive - Relatively rapid anesthetic induction and recovery
answer
Less expensive
question
When inducing anesthesia with intravenous barbiturates, - Give the full dose over 10 seconds. - Give slowly to effect. - Give the full dose over 5 seconds. - Give 1/2 of the dose quickly, the rest to effect.
answer
Give 1/2 of the dose quickly, the rest to effect.
question
What is the maximum effective length for a scavenger hose used with a passive system? - 5 feet - 10 feet - 15 feet - 20 feet
answer
20 feet
question
Which of the following is least useful for detecting the proper placement of an endotracheal tube? - Observing condensation in the tube with each breath - Detecting one rigid tube, rather than two, in the neck area - Feeling air come out of the tube when pressing on the chest - Seeing the rebreathing bag move with respirations
answer
Feeling air come out of the tube when pressing on the chest
question
What is the standard color of medical nitrous oxide cylinders, and what is the pressure in a full cylinder? - Green; 750 psi - Blue; 750 psi - Green; 2000 psi - Blue; 2000 psi
answer
Blue; 750 psi
question
Mask induction of anesthesia using inhalation agents is - The best way to induce anesthesia in a patient with upper airway obstruction - Best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic that is more soluble in body fluids, such as halothane - Less expensive than routine parenteral induction - Best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic that is relatively insoluble in body fluids, such as isoflurane
answer
Best accomplished using a volatile anesthetic that is relatively insoluble in body fluids, such as isoflurane
question
Postanesthetic myositis is most likely to occur in - Pigs - Horses - Ruminants - Rabbits
answer
Horses
question
Malignant hyperthermia associated with inhalant anesthesia is most likely to be encountered in - Dogs - Rabbits - Pigs - Sheep
answer
Pigs
question
What agent is usually avoided when anesthetizing horses? - Xylazine - Atropine - Guaifenesin - Thiopental
answer
Atropine
question
When using a gas flowmeter with a spherical (floating ball) indicator, the flow should be read - At the top of the indicator - At the bottom of the indicator - At the center of the indicator - Spherical indicators are not in common use.
answer
At the center of the indicator
question
A 10% solution of thiopental contains the drug at a concentration of - 0.1 mg/ml - 1 mg/ml - 10 mg/ml - 100 mg/ml
answer
100 mg/ml
question
Which of the following is not a potential toxic effect of commonly used local anesthetics? - Arrhythmias - Neurologic damage if injected into a nerve - Seizures - Acidosis
answer
Acidosis
question
An animal that was hit by a car yesterday is having its diaphragmatic hernia repaired. Which of the following anesthetics would be the least desirable? - Isoflurane - Sevoflurane - Nitrous oxide and halothane - Continuous infusion of propofol
answer
Nitrous oxide and halothane
question
Balanced anesthesia commonly includes all of the following agents except - Nitrous oxide and an inhalant anesthetic - Muscle-paralyzing agents - Thiobarbiturates - Dissociative agents
answer
Dissociative agents
question
The ideal inhalant anesthetic should have all of the following characteristics except - Low vapor pressure - High solubility coefficient - Low MAC - Provide good muscle relaxation
answer
High solubility coefficient
question
Which of the following is associated with diffusion hypoxia? - Isoflurane - Halothane - Sevoflurane - Nitrous oxide
answer
Nitrous oxide
question
Which of the following statements regarding MAC is incorrect? - The MAC expresses the potency of an anesthetic. - A patient at the MAC value is at a surgical plane of anesthesia. - Patient factors such as pregnancy and disease may influence the MAC. - Isoflurane has a lower MAC than sevoflurane.
answer
A patient at the MAC value is at a surgical plane of anesthesia.
question
How much halothane is biotransformed in the body? - About 1% - About 12% - About 20% - About 50%
answer
About 20%
question
The ideal inhalant anesthetic would have - Low vapor pressure, low MAC, high solubility coefficient - Low vapor pressure, high MAC, low solubility coefficient - High vapor pressure, low MAC, high solubility coefficient - Low vapor pressure, low MAC, low solubility coefficient
answer
Low vapor pressure, low MAC, low solubility coefficient
question
What is included as a preservative in halothane? - Thiamylal - Thiopental - Thymol - Theophylline
answer
Thymol
question
Which of the following is not normally present in stage IV of general anesthesia? - Cool extremities - Weak pulse - Constricted pupils - Bradycardia
answer
Constricted pupils
question
Which of the following cannot be used to detect blood pressure? - Oscillometer - Doppler - Sphygmomanometer - Pulse oximeter
answer
Pulse oximeter
question
What reflex may still be present under a light surgical plane of anesthesia? - Patellar - Palpebral - Pinnal - Pharyngeal
answer
Palpebral
question
The optimal plane of anesthesia for most surgery is - Stage 3, plane 1 - Stage 3, plane 2 - Stage 2, plane 2 - Stage 2, plane 3
answer
Stage 3, plane 2
question
Which of the following does not describe a true reflex response? - Blink - Toe pinch - Jaw tone - Ear flick
answer
Jaw tone
question
Which of the following is not likely to result in a patient demonstrating stage II of anesthesia? - Masking an animal with an inhalant anesthetic - Injecting an anesthetic agent IV too rapidly - During recovery, when a premed has not been given - Partial perivascular injection of a barbiturate while inducing anesthesia
answer
Injecting an anesthetic agent IV too rapidly
question
Ideally, in a patient under anesthesia, - The PaO should be high, and the PaCO should be low. - The PaO should be high, and the PaCO should be high. - The PaO should be low, and the PaCO should be low. - The PaO should be low, and the PaCO should be high.
answer
The PaO should be high, and the PaCO should be low.
question
Which of the following monitoring devices is invasive? - Pulse oximeter - Central venous pressure manometer - Doppler blood pressure monitor - Oscillometric blood pressure monitor
answer
Central venous pressure manometer
question
Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of prolonged anesthetic recoveries? - Diazepam - Doxapram - Dopamine - Digoxin
answer
Doxapram
question
Which of the following statements regarding brachycephalic breeds is incorrect? - They may have stenotic nares. - Brachycephalics have a hypoplastic trachea. - A long, floppy soft palate may occlude the trachea. - Brachycephalics often suffer from laryngospasm.
answer
Brachycephalics often suffer from laryngospasm.
question
The pressure in a full medical O tank is - 500 psi - 1000 psi - 1500 psi - 2000 psi
answer
2000 psi
question
For which of the following agents can a nonprecision vaporizer be safely used? - Halothane - Isoflurane - Sevoflurane - None of the above
answer
None of the above
question
For which of the following can a vaporizer not be compensated? - Back pressure - Temperature - Solubility coefficient - Flow rate
answer
Solubility coefficient
question
Which of the following is a component of a Bain anesthetic circuit? - Reservoir bag - Unidirectional valves - Oxygen flush valve - Carbon dioxide absorber
answer
Reservoir bag
question
A half-full nitrous oxide cylinder should be - Green, with a pressure of 2000 psi - Blue, with a pressure of 750 psi - Green, with a pressure of 1000 psi - Blue, with a pressure of 375 psi
answer
Blue, with a pressure of 750 psi
question
Pin indexing on inhalant anesthetic machines is used to - Blow air out of connections - Check for leaks - Prevent oxygen and nitrous oxide cylinders from being exchanged - Ensure that the oldest tanks are used first
answer
Prevent oxygen and nitrous oxide cylinders from being exchanged
question
Which of these species is most prone to developing malignant hyperthermia? - Equine - Porcine - Ovine - Feline
answer
Porcine
question
To minimize waste anesthetic exposure in the surgical suite, a realistic goal is to have the level of halothane no higher than - 2 ppm - 50 ppm - 100 ppm - 1000 ppm
answer
2 ppm
question
Which is the incorrect statement regarding bovine anesthesia? - Nitrous oxide is not suitable for bovine anesthesia. - Cattle should be placed in lateral recumbency during recovery. - The palpebral reflex is still present in cattle at a surgical plane of anesthesia. - Atropine may cause bloat and thus should be avoided in cattle.
answer
Cattle should be placed in lateral recumbency during recovery.
question
Which is the preferred order of administering emergency drugs? - IC, IT, IV - IV, IC, IT - IT, IV, IC - IV, IT, IC
answer
IV, IT, IC
question
Which of the following has not been associated with long-term exposure to waste anesthetic gases? - Carcinogenic effects - Hepatotoxicity - Decline in short-term memory - Increased incidence of miscarriages
answer
Carcinogenic effects
question
Which of the following statements regarding avian anesthesia is incorrect? - IM injections should be given in the pectoral muscle only. - A cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia. - A nonrebreathing circuit should be used in birds. - Ketamine is not effective in birds.
answer
A cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia.
question
For a large dog receiving CPR, compressions and respirations should be administered at - 60 compressions/minute; respirations every 1 to 3 seconds - 60 compressions/minute; respirations every 3 to 5 seconds - 120 compressions/minute; respirations every 15 seconds - 120 compressions/minute; respirations every 3 to 5 seconds
answer
60 compressions/minute; respirations every 3 to 5 seconds
question
Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Furosemide may be used to treat pulmonary edema. - Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant. - When giving medications by the IT route, the dosage rate should be doubled from the IV dose. - Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant.
answer
Dopamine is an analeptic stimulant.
question
Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Neostigmine reverses the effects of succinylcholine. - Succinylcholine is an example of a depolarizing type of muscle-paralyzing agent. - Muscle cells are polarized at rest. - Muscle-paralyzing agents should not be used if an animal has been given an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
answer
Neostigmine reverses the effects of succinylcholine.
question
What agent should be avoided in geriatric patients? - Atropine - Xylazine - Ketamine - Diazepam
answer
Xylazine
question
What agent is excreted largely intact by the cat kidney? - Atropine - Ketamine - Halothane - Acetylpromazine
answer
Ketamine
question
In cattle, an epidural block is performed by inserting the needle between - T13 and L1 - L7 and the sacrum - The sacrum and C1 - Cy1 and Cy2
answer
Cy1 and Cy2
question
For which patients should mask induction with isoflurane be avoided? - Patients undergoing cesarean sections - Patients with impaired cardiac function - Patients with impaired respiratory function - Patients with impaired gastrointestinal function
answer
Patients with impaired respiratory function
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