SCED 342 – Space – Flashcards

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Which of the following is a characteristic of a scientific theory?
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A scientific theory is the best explanation for observable facts. Hint: A well-tested hypothesis based on repeatable observations becomes a scientific theory
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Summarize the basic steps followed in many scientific investigations.
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raise a question; background research; form hypothesis; test hypothesis; analyze data; share the results with the scientific community if they support the hypothesis Hint: Think about the process of troubleshooting a problem, such as for a car or computer. Troubleshooting is the result of a problem occurring due to an unknown cause, and the goal is to find the cause.
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What are the sciences that collectively make up Earth Science?
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astronomy oceanography meteorology geology
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The principal divisions of Earth's layers listed progressively from the surface toward the center are _____.
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crust, mantle, and core
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What is the physical difference between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere?
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The lithosphere is more rigid than the asthenosphere.
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What are the two sources of energy that power the Earth system?
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the sun and Earth's interior
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What are the names of the four spheres that: 1. includes all life on Earth, 2. extends form the surface of the Earth to its center, 3. is comprised to all water and ice on the Earth, and 4. is a gaseous envelope that surrounds the Earth?
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1. biosphere, 2. geosphere, 3. hydrosphere, 4. atmosphere
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How much of Earth's surface do oceans cover, and how much of the planet's total water supply do oceans represent?
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The oceans of the Earth collectively cover 71% of its surface, and represent over 96% of the Earth's total water supply.
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Which phenomena can be regarded as natural hazards?
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earthquakes hurricanes volcanic eruptions
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How old is the Earth?
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4.6 billion years' old
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If you compress geologic time into a single year, how much time has elapsed since Columbus arrived in the New World?
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2.999 seconds
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The idea of ________ suggests that the physical, chemical, and biological laws that operate today have also operated in the geologic past.
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uniformitarianism
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"This rock is fifteen million years old," is an example of ________.
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a numerical date
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A worm would stand a poor chance of being fossilized because ________.
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worms have no hard parts
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Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil?
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fossil dung
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Which of the following fossils would be a good example of an index fossil?
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marine microfossils
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What are index fossils used for?
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to match rock layers of the same age across different geographic locations
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The longest subdivision of the geologic time scale is the ________.
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eon
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We now live in the ________ era.
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cenozoic
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Which of the following is evidence of continental drift?
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Matching rock units are found in Brazil and Africa. Glossopteris fossils have been found on Antarctica and Australia. Coal deposits have been found in North America.
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Which of the following statements by Alfred Wegener led to the ultimate rejection of continental drift as a hypothesis about continental movement?
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Wegener suggested that the continents broke through thinner oceanic crust as they migrated over time.
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What evidence first indicated to scientists that the continents were once connected?
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the apparent jigsaw-like fit of continents together, as in the case of South America and Africa
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With regards to ancient climates, Wegener's continental drift hypothesis states that 300 million years ago,
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areas in North America, northern Africa, Europe, and Asia produced tropical swamps along the equator while areas in South America, Africa, India, Australia, and Antarctica were glaciated at the South Pole.
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Before the 1960s, how did geologists view the ocean basins and continents of the Earth?
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Scientists believed that all ocean basins and landmasses were permanently fixed in their positions.
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How do plates move at divergent plate boundaries?
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plates move apart
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How do plates move at convergent plate boundaries?
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plates move together
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how do plates move at transform plate boundaries?
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plates move side by side
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In general, where do both earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur? Choose all that apply.
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at convergent and divergent plate boundaries
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what forms at divergent plate boundaries?
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new oceanic lithosphere
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In general, where do volcanoes form in subduction zones?
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on the overriding plate, away from the convergent boundary
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Why are volcanoes not found at transform boundaries?
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Transform boundaries do not cause changes to the pressure, temperature, or composition of the mantle.
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The East African rift is a divergent plate boundary that is splitting the continent of Africa into two pieces. What will eventually form around this divergent boundary?
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an ocean
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Which type of tectonic boundary is the result of two tectonic plates colliding with each other?
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convergent
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At a subduction zone where oceanic lithosphere meets continental lithosphere, which would subduct and why?
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The oceanic lithosphere would subduct because it has a higher density at 3.0 grams per cubic centimeter.
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Why are volcanic chains associated with convergent boundaries?
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Partial melting occurs due to subduction. **Partial melting is triggered by water loss in the plate. This melts mantle material, which rises to the surface.
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Plate A has oceanic lithosphere on its leading edge that is 10 million years old. Plate B has oceanic lithosphere on its leading edge that is 200 million years old. Which plate will be subducted if they collide with each other, and why?
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Plate B will subduct because it is older—and therefore colder—and denser.
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In a collision between two continental plates, can a continental plate subduct? Why or why not?
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Continental plates are too buoyant to subduct.
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Which tectonic boundary results when two tectonic plates pull apart from each other?
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divergent boundaries
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Divergent boundaries are not one, smooth ridge of separation. Instead, they are broken into a series of segments, with different segments of fault offset from others. What features allow for the offset of divergent boundaries?
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transform faults
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Crustal rifting is currently occurring in East Africa. Which of the following features would you expect to find there?
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normal faults long wide valley lava flows
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Which of the following are features of a divergent plate boundary? Choose all that apply.
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a rift valley an oceanic ridge
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Which of the following is a feature of a continental-continental convergent plate boundary?
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slivers of oceanic crust in a large mountain range
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Which of the following is an example of a transform plate boundary?
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San Andreas fault
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After World War II, what was discovered about the ocean floor?
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There is no oceanic crust older than 180 million years old.
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Which of the choices below is a feature of the oceanic ridge system?
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rift valley
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Where is continental rifting currently taking place?
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in the East African Rift Valley
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Why does oceanic lithosphere subduct under continental lithosphere, whereas continental lithosphere does not subduct under oceanic lithosphere?
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The oceanic lithosphere is thinner and denser than the continental lithosphere, which is thicker and less dense.
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At a transform plate boundary, the two plates move
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past each other
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Which two observations help constrain the dimensions of Earth's core and mantle?
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Earth's density and the wobble of Earth's rotation axis
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What does the wobble of Earth's rotation axis tell us?
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The core must be denser than the mantle
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How do we know that the radius of Earth's core has to be at least 3100 km?
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A smaller core would require material with an unnatural density.
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How do we know that the radius of Earth's mantle has to be at least 1771 km?
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If the mantle were smaller, the rock making up the mantle would have a density that is too low.
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How do we know the actual dimensions of Earth's core and mantle?
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from earthquake waves passing through Earth
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How do continental crust and oceanic crust differ?
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Continental crust is thicker than oceanic crust; continental crust is less dense than oceanic crust, the oldest continental crust is older than the oldest oceanic crust, and the continental crust is composed of a variety of rock types, whereas oceanic crust is composed basalt and gabbro.
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Contrast the physical characteristics of the asthenosphere and the lithosphere.
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The asthenosphere is weaker than the lithosphere because it is cooler and has a higher viscosity than the lithosphere.
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Regardless of their size, most rocks are made up of __________.
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minerals
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Minerals must be solid, have an orderly atomic structure, have a recognized chemical composition, be naturally occurring, and __________
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.be generally inorganic in origin
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A scientist creates diamonds using high-pressure laboratory experiments. These diamonds are not considered minerals because which of the following requirements has been violated?
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minerals must occur naturally
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The amount or quality of light that is reflected from a mineral surface is known as __________.
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luster
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What causes the same mineral to occur in varieties that are different colors?
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A small amount of impurities in the crystal structure.
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Which of the following best describes the term streak?
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The color of a powdered form of a mineral produced by rubbing it across a hard surface.
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Since color is not a very useful way to identify a mineral, what other optical property or properties can be used?
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luster and streak
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What causes a lack of cleavage in some minerals?
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Bonds of equal strength in all directions
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Which of the following best defines the relationship between minerals and rocks?
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In a mineral, atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of mineral grains.
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The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is known as _______
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luster
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The resistance of a mineral to scratching or abrasion is known as ________.
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hardness
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Due to the arrangement of weaker bonds in their crystal lattice, the tendency of certain minerals to break along smooth, parallel planes is known as ________.
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clevage
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Three of the following ARE true for minerals. Which one of the following is NOT true for minerals?
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they can be a liquid, solid, gas
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What is the difference between magma and lava?
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Magma is molten rock located below the surface; lava is molten rock erupted above ground.
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What are the two most important driving forces of metamorphism?
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high heat and pressure
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_____ igneous rocks are those that cool below the surface.
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intrusive
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What are the two important processes involved in lithification of sedimentary rocks?
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cementation and compaction
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An igneous rock becomes buried, is subject to high heat and pressure, and recrystallizes. This rock then is eroded, transported, deposited and subsequently lithified. Which rock types—in order—did the original igneous rock develop into?
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metamorphic and sedimentary
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What is meant by the statement "Every metamorphic rock has a parent rock"?
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All metamorphic rocks are created only through the change of preexisting rock.
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Which of the following statements about the rock cycle is correct?
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A sedimentary rock subjected to intense heat and pressure will become a metamorphic rock.
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Which kind of rocks may contain fossils?
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sedimentary
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What is the single most common and characteristic feature of sedimentary rocks?
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horizontal strata or beds
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Why are sedimentary rocks important?
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Sedimentary rocks provide geologists with information necessary to study the history of the Earth, and also hold various resources of economic importance.
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Which of the following minerals is most resistant to chemical weathering?
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quartz
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Why does water frozen in the cracks of a rock help to break down the rock?
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Water expands when frozen and physically forces the rock apart
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what is salt weathering?
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the formation of minerals in rock cracks during the evaporation of salty water, forcing rock apart
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What do freeze-thaw and salt weathering have in common?
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Both freeze-thaw and salt weathering require rain and force rocks apart physically.
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What is the definition of physical weathering?
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Mechanical processes break substances into smaller pieces.
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Which of the following is an example of chemical weathering?
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a car fender getting rusty
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How does physical weathering cause chemical weathering to be more effective?
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When a rock is physically broken into smaller pieces, there is more surface area on which chemical weathering can occur.
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How can water cause mechanical weathering?
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When water within fractures in a rock freezes, it expands, which applies pressure to the portions of rock immediately around it. This pressure breaks off pieces of the rock.
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Which of the following volcanic forms best describes large, nearly symmetrical structures composed of interbedded lavas and pyroclastic material primarily deposited from a central vent?
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composite volcanoes
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Which of the following volcanic types typically produces small, steep-sided structures composed of pyroclastic material?
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cinder cones
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What do we call mudflows produced by the melting of snow and glaciers on composite volcanoes?
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lahars
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At which type of tectonic setting would you expect the development of shield volcanoes?
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mantle plumes
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At which type of tectonic setting would you expect the development of composite volcanoes?
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an oceanic plate subducted beneath a continental plate
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Which of the following are types of volcanoes?
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cinder cones shield volcanoes composite volcanoes dome complexes
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What information do geologists use to classify volcanoes?
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shape and type of deposits
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In general, how often do most cinder cones erupt?
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most cinder cones erupt once
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What are shield volcanoes generally made of?
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basalt flows
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What is the range of shield volcano height?
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300-10,000 meters
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Why are shield volcanoes wider than composite volcanoes?
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The lava that flows out of shield volcanoes is more fluid than the lava that flows out of composite volcanoes.
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What type of magma erupts out of dome complexes?
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felsic magma
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What type of volcanoes are the highest?
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shield volcanoes
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What is the range of dome complex height?
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500-2,000 meters
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In which two plate tectonic settings would one expect magma to be generated?
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at a mid-oceanic ridge and at an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
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The point within Earth from which earthquake wave energy radiates is known by which of the following terms?
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focus
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On average, how many damaging earthquakes occur each year?
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1000
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Most earthquakes are the result of movement along which of the following features?
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faults
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During the 1906 San Francisco earthquake, the Pacific Plate moved 4.7 meters (15 feet) north relative to the North American Plate. Which of the following types of stress was exerted on the rocks during this earthquake?
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shear stress
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Which of the following events allows rocks on either side of a fault to rebound elastically, causing an earthquake?
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friction along the fault place is overcome
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Early in the study of earthquakes, seismologists learned that P waves arrive at seismograph stations all over Earth, but a shadow zone exists for S waves. Which of the following responses best explains this phenomenon?
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the outer core of Earth is liquid
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Which type of seismic waves generally cause the most structural damage as they travel through Earth?
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surface waves
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Earthquakes with a deep focus are most often associated with which of the following tectonic settings?
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trenches
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As stress is applied to rocks and deformation occurs, which of the following terms best characterizes the energy that is stored in the process?
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elastic energy
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Earthquakes occurring at depths up to 700 km (435 mi) are associated with which of the following plate boundaries?
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convergent boundaries
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Fastest moving waves?
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P Waves
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Which kind of seismic wave is responsible for the most shaking (and thus, the most damage to human structures)?
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surface waves
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How does triangulation determine the epicenter of an earthquake?
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On a map, a circle is drawn around each of three recording stations, with the radius being the distance from the station to the epicenter of the earthquake. The epicenter is located where the three circles intersect.
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What are the differences between P waves, S waves, and surface waves?
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P waves are the fastest and have the lowest amplitudes; S waves are the second fastest and have the second lowest amplitudes; surface waves are the slowest and have the highest amplitudes.
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What is an earthquake, and how do earthquakes generally occur?
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a sudden shaking of the ground that is caused by the rapid movement of one block of rock past another block of rock at a fault
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Which of the following locations contains the most water in Earth's hydrosphere aside from the oceans?
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glaciers
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In the hydrologic cycle, water that falls on land in the form of precipitation returns to the ocean in which of the following pathways?
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all of the responses are correct (runoff, further precipitation, groundwater flow)
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When considering the movement of water on Earth within the hydrologic cycle, which of the following choices is responsible for driving this process?
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The hydrologic cycle works because water exists on Earth in solid, liquid, and gaseous states.
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Water in the hydrologic cycle readily moves from the land to the oceans through several pathways. How does the vast majority of water get from the ocean to the land surface?
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clouds and precipitation
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Plants consume water during photosynthesis. They also release it to the atmosphere during ________.
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transpiration
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________ is the process by which liquid water changes into water vapor
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evaporation
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What is the primary energy source that drives the hydrologic cycle?
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sun
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What is evapotransapiration?
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the transfer of water directly from the land's surface into the atmosphere
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Contrast weathering, mass wasting, and erosion.
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Weathering is the physical breakdown of rock at Earth's surface, mass wasting is the transfer of rock and soil downslope due to gravity, and erosion is the physical removal of material by a mobile agent such as water or wind.
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How might a forest fire influence mass wasting?
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Because plants on a slope bind the regolith with their roots and shield the soil surface from raindrops, a wildfire that destroys these plants would render the soil looser and more susceptible to the erosional forces of rain
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What is the relationship between earthquakes and landslides?
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If a slope exists under conditions that favor mass wasting but it has not had any movement occur, the shaking force from an earthquake may jar the material loose from the slope.
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Why doesn't sea level drop even though oceans have a higher rate of evaporation than precipitation?
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Surface water running off into the oceans make up the difference between evaporation from the oceans and precipitation into the oceans, creating a balance.
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How do gradient, discharge, channel size, and channel roughness typically change from the head to the mouth of a stream?
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From the head of a stream to its mouth, the gradient and channel roughness decrease while the discharge and channel size increase.
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What is the difference between capacity and competence?
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Capacity is the maximum load of solid particles a stream can transport per unit time, whereas competence is a measure of a stream's ability to transport particles based on size rather than quantity.
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What is groundwater, and how does it relate to the water table?
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Groundwater is water that occupies the zone of saturation within the ground. The water table is the upper limit of the groundwater
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When does the spring tide occur?
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when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned in a straight line
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Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
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nitrogen
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Which of the following characteristics of Earth's relationship to the Sun explains the existence of Earth's seasons?
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Earth's axis is tilted relative to its orbital plane. Earth's axis always points in the same direction relative to the stars. Earth orbits around the Sun, completing one orbit each year. Earth spins on its axis, completing one rotation each day.
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What is the June solstice?
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the time of the year when Earth's geographic North Pole is leaning most directly toward the Sun
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Where does the length of day remain the same throughout the year?
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equator
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What causes it to be colder in the winter and warmer in the summer in the northern hemisphere?
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Summer temperatures are warmer because more sun energy per unit area is received during this time.
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If the greenhouse effect ceased to exist on Earth, which of the following would result?
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The average surface temperature would drop to below the freezing temperature of water.
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Why is the ozone layer crucial to our existence?
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Creation of ozone molecules absorbs harmful UV rays.
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What is the primary cause of the seasons?
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changes in the angle of the Sun above the Earth's horizon
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The view that the sun is the center of the solar system is called a ________.
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heliocentric model
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terrestrial planet
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Venus
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It was stated in the animation that in our solar system, Mars generates more interest by scientists and nonscientists than any other planet. For which reason do you think Mars generates so much interest by these groups?
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Besides Venus, Mars is the planet closest to Earth and has many similarities.
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What evidence observed on Mars indicates that at one time it may have had a warmer climate and a water cycle similar to that on Earth?
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Large valleys that resemble channels
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How are the appearances of craters used in the relative dating of the Moon's surface features?
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Craters that are surrounded by bright rays are younger than rayless craters because the rays are material ejected from the crater onto the surrounding surface.
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How are Venus and Earth similar to and different from each other?
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Venus and Earth are similar in that they have similar interior compositions; however, Venus has a weaker magnetic field than Earth, has a thicker atmosphere than Earth, and is more heavily cratered than Earth.
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What other body in our solar system most resembles Mercury?
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earth's moon
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What surface features do Mars and Earth have in common?
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playas, lake beds, and sedimentary rock layers
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What is the nature of Jupiter's Great Red Spot?
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The Great Red Spot is a large, anticyclonic storm
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How are Jupiter and Saturn similar to one another? PLEASE SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
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Both planets have rings The internal structures of both planets are very similar
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Why are the largest volcanoes on Earth so much smaller than the largest ones on Mars?
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The tectonic plates on Earth are still in motion, constantly moving active volcanoes away from the mantle plumes below. However, the tectonic plates on Mars are not in motion, so active volcanoes remain over the lava plumes and grow extremely large because of repeated eruptions.
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How does the Sun compare in size and brightness to other main-sequence stars?
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The Sun has a medium brightness and a medium size among the other main-sequence stars.
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How did astronomers determine that the universe is expanding?
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The lights emanating from other galaxies are moving away from the Milky Way, which we can detect as the shift of the galaxies' spectral lines towards the red end of the spectrum.
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