SCED 342 – Space

Flashcard maker : Lily Taylor
Which of the following is a characteristic of a scientific theory?
A scientific theory is the best explanation for observable facts.
Hint: A well-tested hypothesis based on repeatable observations becomes a scientific theory
Summarize the basic steps followed in many scientific investigations.
raise a question; background research; form hypothesis; test hypothesis; analyze data; share the results with the scientific community if they support the hypothesis
Hint: Think about the process of troubleshooting a problem, such as for a car or computer. Troubleshooting is the result of a problem occurring due to an unknown cause, and the goal is to find the cause.
What are the sciences that collectively make up Earth Science?
astronomy
oceanography
meteorology
geology
The principal divisions of Earth’s layers listed progressively from the surface toward the center are _____.
crust, mantle, and core
What is the physical difference between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere?
The lithosphere is more rigid than the asthenosphere.
What are the two sources of energy that power the Earth system?
the sun and Earth’s interior
What are the names of the four spheres that: 1. includes all life on Earth, 2. extends form the surface of the Earth to its center, 3. is comprised to all water and ice on the Earth, and 4. is a gaseous envelope that surrounds the Earth?
1. biosphere, 2. geosphere, 3. hydrosphere, 4. atmosphere
When comparing the thickness of the atmosphere to the thickness of the geosphere,
the atmosphere is much thinner than the geosphere, which approximates a radius of 6400 kilometers.
How much of Earth’s surface do oceans cover, and how much of the planet’s total water supply do oceans represent?
The oceans of the Earth collectively cover 71% of its surface, and represent over 96% of the Earth’s total water supply.
Which phenomena can be regarded as natural hazards?
earthquakes
hurricanes
volcanic eruptions
How old is the Earth?
4.6 billion years’ old
If you compress geologic time into a single year, how much time has elapsed since Columbus arrived in the New World?
2.999 seconds
The idea of ________ suggests that the physical, chemical, and biological laws that operate today have also operated in the geologic past.
uniformitarianism
“This rock is fifteen million years old,” is an example of ________.
a numerical date
A worm would stand a poor chance of being fossilized because ________.
worms have no hard parts
Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil?
fossil dung
Which of the following fossils would be a good example of an index fossil?
marine microfossils
What are index fossils used for?
to match rock layers of the same age across different geographic locations
The longest subdivision of the geologic time scale is the ________.
eon
We now live in the ________ era.
cenozoic
Which of the following is evidence of continental drift?
Matching rock units are found in Brazil and Africa.
Glossopteris fossils have been found on Antarctica and Australia.
Coal deposits have been found in North America.
Which of the following statements by Alfred Wegener led to the ultimate rejection of continental drift as a hypothesis about continental movement?
Wegener suggested that the continents broke through thinner oceanic crust as they migrated over time.
What evidence first indicated to scientists that the continents were once connected?
the apparent jigsaw-like fit of continents together, as in the case of South America and Africa
With regards to ancient climates, Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis states that 300 million years ago,
areas in North America, northern Africa, Europe, and Asia produced tropical swamps along the equator while areas in South America, Africa, India, Australia, and Antarctica were glaciated at the South Pole.
Before the 1960s, how did geologists view the ocean basins and continents of the Earth?
Scientists believed that all ocean basins and landmasses were permanently fixed in their positions.
How do plates move at divergent plate boundaries?
plates move apart
How do plates move at convergent plate boundaries?
plates move together
how do plates move at transform plate boundaries?
plates move side by side
In general, where do both earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur? Choose all that apply.
at convergent and divergent plate boundaries
what forms at divergent plate boundaries?
new oceanic lithosphere
In general, where do volcanoes form in subduction zones?
on the overriding plate, away from the convergent boundary
Why are volcanoes not found at transform boundaries?
Transform boundaries do not cause changes to the pressure, temperature, or composition of the mantle.
The East African rift is a divergent plate boundary that is splitting the continent of Africa into two pieces. What will eventually form around this divergent boundary?
an ocean
Which type of tectonic boundary is the result of two tectonic plates colliding with each other?
convergent
At a subduction zone where oceanic lithosphere meets continental lithosphere, which would subduct and why?
The oceanic lithosphere would subduct because it has a higher density at 3.0 grams per cubic centimeter.
Why are volcanic chains associated with convergent boundaries?
Partial melting occurs due to subduction.
**Partial melting is triggered by water loss in the plate. This melts mantle material, which rises to the surface.
Plate A has oceanic lithosphere on its leading edge that is 10 million years old. Plate B has oceanic lithosphere on its leading edge that is 200 million years old. Which plate will be subducted if they collide with each other, and why?
Plate B will subduct because it is older—and therefore colder—and denser.
In a collision between two continental plates, can a continental plate subduct? Why or why not?
Continental plates are too buoyant to subduct.
Which tectonic boundary results when two tectonic plates pull apart from each other?
divergent boundaries
Divergent boundaries are not one, smooth ridge of separation. Instead, they are broken into a series of segments, with different segments of fault offset from others. What features allow for the offset of divergent boundaries?
transform faults
Crustal rifting is currently occurring in East Africa. Which of the following features would you expect to find there?
normal faults
long wide valley
lava flows
Which of the following are features of a divergent plate boundary? Choose all that apply.
a rift valley
an oceanic ridge
Which of the following is a feature of a continental-continental convergent plate boundary?
slivers of oceanic crust in a large mountain range
Which of the following is an example of a transform plate boundary?
San Andreas fault
After World War II, what was discovered about the ocean floor?
There is no oceanic crust older than 180 million years old.
Which of the choices below is a feature of the oceanic ridge system?
rift valley
Where is continental rifting currently taking place?
in the East African Rift Valley
Why does oceanic lithosphere subduct under continental lithosphere, whereas continental lithosphere does not subduct under oceanic lithosphere?
The oceanic lithosphere is thinner and denser than the continental lithosphere, which is thicker and less dense.
At a transform plate boundary, the two plates move
past each other
Which two observations help constrain the dimensions of Earth’s core and mantle?
Earth’s density and the wobble of Earth’s rotation axis
What does the wobble of Earth’s rotation axis tell us?
The core must be denser than the mantle
How do we know that the radius of Earth’s core has to be at least 3100 km?
A smaller core would require material with an unnatural density.
How do we know that the radius of Earth’s mantle has to be at least 1771 km?
If the mantle were smaller, the rock making up the mantle would have a density that is too low.
How do we know the actual dimensions of Earth’s core and mantle?
from earthquake waves passing through Earth
How do continental crust and oceanic crust differ?
Continental crust is thicker than oceanic crust; continental crust is less dense than oceanic crust, the oldest continental crust is older than the oldest oceanic crust, and the continental crust is composed of a variety of rock types, whereas oceanic crust is composed basalt and gabbro.
Contrast the physical characteristics of the asthenosphere and the lithosphere.
The asthenosphere is weaker than the lithosphere because it is cooler and has a higher viscosity than the lithosphere.
Regardless of their size, most rocks are made up of __________.
minerals
Minerals must be solid, have an orderly atomic structure, have a recognized chemical composition, be naturally occurring, and __________
.be generally inorganic in origin
A scientist creates diamonds using high-pressure laboratory experiments. These diamonds are not considered minerals because which of the following requirements has been violated?
minerals must occur naturally
Ice is a mineral
why is glass not considered a mineral?
glass has a disorderly atomic structure
The amount or quality of light that is reflected from a mineral surface is known as __________.
luster
What causes the same mineral to occur in varieties that are different colors?
A small amount of impurities in the crystal structure.
Which of the following best describes the term streak?
The color of a powdered form of a mineral produced by rubbing it across a hard surface.
Since color is not a very useful way to identify a mineral, what other optical property or properties can be used?
luster and streak
Cleavage is the splitting of minerals along natural planes of weakness.
What causes a lack of cleavage in some minerals?
Bonds of equal strength in all directions
Which of the following exhibits three sets of cleavage at 90° angles?
galena
Hornblende has _____ cleavage planes at _____ angles.
two; non-90 degrees
quartz exhibits
conchoidal fracture
Which of the following best defines the relationship between minerals and rocks?
In a mineral, atoms are bonded in a regular, repetitive, internal structure; a rock is a lithified or consolidated aggregate of mineral grains.
The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is known as _______
luster
The resistance of a mineral to scratching or abrasion is known as ________.
hardness
Due to the arrangement of weaker bonds in their crystal lattice, the tendency of certain minerals to break along smooth, parallel planes is known as ________.
clevage
Three of the following ARE true for minerals. Which one of the following is NOT true for minerals?
they can be a liquid, solid, gas
What is the difference between magma and lava?
Magma is molten rock located below the surface; lava is molten rock erupted above ground.
What are the two most important driving forces of metamorphism?
high heat and pressure
_____ igneous rocks are those that cool below the surface.
intrusive
What are the two important processes involved in lithification of sedimentary rocks?
cementation and compaction
An igneous rock becomes buried, is subject to high heat and pressure, and recrystallizes. This rock then is eroded, transported, deposited and subsequently lithified. Which rock types—in order—did the original igneous rock develop into?
metamorphic and sedimentary
What is meant by the statement “Every metamorphic rock has a parent rock”?
All metamorphic rocks are created only through the change of preexisting rock.
Which of the following statements about the rock cycle is correct?
A sedimentary rock subjected to intense heat and pressure will become a metamorphic rock.
Which kind of rocks may contain fossils?
sedimentary
What is the single most common and characteristic feature of sedimentary rocks?
horizontal strata or beds
Why are sedimentary rocks important?
Sedimentary rocks provide geologists with information necessary to study the history of the Earth, and also hold various resources of economic importance.
Which of the following minerals is most resistant to chemical weathering?
quartz
Why does water frozen in the cracks of a rock help to break down the rock?
Water expands when frozen and physically forces the rock apart
what is salt weathering?
the formation of minerals in rock cracks during the evaporation of salty water, forcing rock apart
What do freeze-thaw and salt weathering have in common?
Both freeze-thaw and salt weathering require rain and force rocks apart physically.
What is the definition of physical weathering?
Mechanical processes break substances into smaller pieces.
Which of the following is an example of chemical weathering?
a car fender getting rusty
How does physical weathering cause chemical weathering to be more effective?
When a rock is physically broken into smaller pieces, there is more surface area on which chemical weathering can occur.
How can water cause mechanical weathering?
When water within fractures in a rock freezes, it expands, which applies pressure to the portions of rock immediately around it. This pressure breaks off pieces of the rock.
Which of the following volcanic forms best describes large, nearly symmetrical structures composed of interbedded lavas and pyroclastic material primarily deposited from a central vent?
composite volcanoes
Which of the following volcanic types typically produces small, steep-sided structures composed of pyroclastic material?
cinder cones
What do we call mudflows produced by the melting of snow and glaciers on composite volcanoes?
lahars
At which type of tectonic setting would you expect the development of shield volcanoes?
mantle plumes
At which type of tectonic setting would you expect the development of composite volcanoes?
an oceanic plate subducted beneath a continental plate
Which of the following are types of volcanoes?
cinder cones
shield volcanoes
composite volcanoes
dome complexes
What information do geologists use to classify volcanoes?
shape and type of deposits
cinder cones are made of__?
pyroclastic deposits
In general, how often do most cinder cones erupt?
most cinder cones erupt once
What are shield volcanoes generally made of?
basalt flows
What is the range of shield volcano height?
300-10,000 meters
What are composite volcanoes made of?
pyroclastic deposits
basalt flows
Why are shield volcanoes wider than composite volcanoes?
The lava that flows out of shield volcanoes is more fluid than the lava that flows out of composite volcanoes.
What type of magma erupts out of dome complexes?
felsic magma
What type of volcanoes are the highest?
shield volcanoes
What is the range of dome complex height?
500-2,000 meters
Mauna Loa, a volcano in Hawaii, is an excellent example of a ________.
shield volcano
Composite volcanoes are also known as ________.
stratovolcanoes
A concentration of heat in the mantle capable of producing magma is called a ________.
hot spot
In which two plate tectonic settings would one expect magma to be generated?
at a mid-oceanic ridge and at an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
The point within Earth from which earthquake wave energy radiates is known by which of the following terms?
focus
On average, how many damaging earthquakes occur each year?
1000
Most earthquakes are the result of movement along which of the following features?
faults
During the 1906 San Francisco earthquake, the Pacific Plate moved 4.7 meters (15 feet) north relative to the North American Plate. Which of the following types of stress was exerted on the rocks during this earthquake?
shear stress
Which of the following events allows rocks on either side of a fault to rebound elastically, causing an earthquake?
friction along the fault place is overcome
What do we call seismic waves that are transmitted along the outside of Earth?
surface waves
Which of the following motions best describes the movement of S waves as they travel through rocks following the release of energy during an earthquake?
shaking particles at right angles to the direction of travel
Which of the three types of seismic waves travels through rock with the greatest velocity?
p waves
Which of the following types of seismic body waves travels only through solids?
s waves
Early in the study of earthquakes, seismologists learned that P waves arrive at seismograph stations all over Earth, but a shadow zone exists for S waves. Which of the following responses best explains this phenomenon?
the outer core of Earth is liquid
Which type of seismic waves generally cause the most structural damage as they travel through Earth?
surface waves
Earthquakes with a deep focus are most often associated with which of the following tectonic settings?
trenches
As stress is applied to rocks and deformation occurs, which of the following terms best characterizes the energy that is stored in the process?
elastic energy
Earthquakes occurring at depths up to 700 km (435 mi) are associated with which of the following plate boundaries?
convergent boundaries
Which of the following responses provides the best reason for why the asthenosphere is not capable of storing elastic energy?
Elastic energy can only be stored in cold, brittle rocks.
How can the epicenter location of earthquakes at an oceanic-oceanic convergence zone be used to determine which plate is being subducted?
The epicenters will be located on the plate that is not being subducted.
Fastest moving waves?
P Waves
Which kind of seismic wave is responsible for the most shaking (and thus, the most damage to human structures)?
surface waves
A ________ is an instrument that is used to record earthquake vibrations
seismograph
On a typical seismogram, ________ will show the highest amplitudes.
surface waves
How does triangulation determine the epicenter of an earthquake?
On a map, a circle is drawn around each of three recording stations, with the radius being the distance from the station to the epicenter of the earthquake. The epicenter is located where the three circles intersect.
Which type(s) of seismic waves tend(s) to cause the greatest destruction to buildings?
surface waves
What are the differences between P waves, S waves, and surface waves?
P waves are the fastest and have the lowest amplitudes; S waves are the second fastest and have the second lowest amplitudes; surface waves are the slowest and have the highest amplitudes.
What is an earthquake, and how do earthquakes generally occur?
a sudden shaking of the ground that is caused by the rapid movement of one block of rock past another block of rock at a fault
Which of the following is the primary step that allows water to enter the groundwater system?
infiltration
Which of the following statements about the global water supply is true?
Decreased precipitation could impact water supply available for humans.
Rank the following sources of water from largest to smallest in terms of percentage of the world’s total supply.
oceans
glaciers
groundwater
non-glacial ice and snow
lakes
rivers
Which of the following locations contains the most water in Earth’s hydrosphere aside from the oceans?
glaciers
In the hydrologic cycle, water that falls on land in the form of precipitation returns to the ocean in which of the following pathways?
all of the responses are correct (runoff, further precipitation, groundwater flow)
Which of the following conditions is associated with high infiltration rates?
abundant vegetation
permeable soil
gentle slopes
When considering the movement of water on Earth within the hydrologic cycle, which of the following choices is responsible for driving this process?
The hydrologic cycle works because water exists on Earth in solid, liquid, and gaseous states.
Water in the hydrologic cycle readily moves from the land to the oceans through several pathways. How does the vast majority of water get from the ocean to the land surface?
clouds and precipitation
Plants consume water during photosynthesis. They also release it to the atmosphere during ________.
transpiration
________ is the process by which liquid water changes into water vapor
evaporation
What is the primary energy source that drives the hydrologic cycle?
sun
What is evapotransapiration?
the transfer of water directly from the land’s surface into the atmosphere
External processes that occur at or near Earth’s surface and are powered by ________.
the sun
External processes include weathering, mass wasting, and ________.
erosion
The downslope movement of rock or soil due to the influence of gravity is ________.
mass wasting
Contrast weathering, mass wasting, and erosion.
Weathering is the physical breakdown of rock at Earth’s surface, mass wasting is the transfer of rock and soil downslope due to gravity, and erosion is the physical removal of material by a mobile agent such as water or wind.
How might a forest fire influence mass wasting?
Because plants on a slope bind the regolith with their roots and shield the soil surface from raindrops, a wildfire that destroys these plants would render the soil looser and more susceptible to the erosional forces of rain
What is the relationship between earthquakes and landslides?
If a slope exists under conditions that favor mass wasting but it has not had any movement occur, the shaking force from an earthquake may jar the material loose from the slope.
Why doesn’t sea level drop even though oceans have a higher rate of evaporation than precipitation?
Surface water running off into the oceans make up the difference between evaporation from the oceans and precipitation into the oceans, creating a balance.
Distinguish between internal and external processes.
The sun drives external processes, and heat inside the Earth drives internal processes.
According to the hydrologic cycle, once precipitation has fallen on land, what paths might the water directly take? PLEASE SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
runoff into the sea, infiltration into the ground, runoff unto a lake
What are the three main zones of a river system from highest to lowest?
zone of sediment production, zone of transportation, and zone of deposition
How do gradient, discharge, channel size, and channel roughness typically change from the head to the mouth of a stream?
From the head of a stream to its mouth, the gradient and channel roughness decrease while the discharge and channel size increase.
In what ways does a stream transport its load, and which part of the load moves most slowly? PLEASE SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
as a suspended load,
as a bed load, which is the slowest mode of particle transport in streams
as a dissolved load
What is the difference between capacity and competence?
Capacity is the maximum load of solid particles a stream can transport per unit time, whereas competence is a measure of a stream’s ability to transport particles based on size rather than quantity.
Where are bedrock channels more likely to be found?
Bedrock channels are typically found in the headwaters of river systems where streams have steep slopes.
What is groundwater, and how does it relate to the water table?
Groundwater is water that occupies the zone of saturation within the ground. The water table is the upper limit of the groundwater
Please contrast porosity and permeability.
Porosity is the percentage of the total volume of rock or sediment that consists of pore spaces, whereas permeability is the ability of a rock or sediment to transmit fluid.
The Mississippi Delta is an example of which of the following?
zone of deposition
If you were to examine the longitudinal profile of a typical river, you would probably find that the gradient is ________.
steepest near the headwaters
Gravel would most likely exist in the ________ of a river.
bed load
Calcium and sodium ions make up much of the ________ of streams.
dissolved load
Streams erode downward until they reach ________.
their base level
Groundwater is the largest reservoir of ________.
freshwater that is readily available to humans
Groundwater tends to flow through bodies of rock or sediment that ________.
have a high permeability
Daily changes in the elevation of the ocean surface are called ________.
tides
A ________ is characterized by a single high and low tide each tidal day.
diurnal tidal pattern
A ________ is characterized by two high tides and two low tides each tidal day, with both the high and low tides having approximately the same height.
semidiurnal tidal pattern
When does the spring tide occur?
when the Sun, Moon, and Earth are aligned in a straight line
The daily tidal range is of the least magnitude during ________.
neap tides
How is climate different from weather?
Climate is the sum of all statistical weather information that helps describe a region.
Air is best described as ________.
a mixture of gases, with solid particles and liquid droplets in it
Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
nitrogen
Weather is ultimately driven by ________.
Energy input from the sun
________ is when Earth is closest to the sun, whereas the farthest point is called ________
Perihelion, aphelion
The line separating the dark half of Earth from the lighted half is called ________.
The circle of illumination
All places at the same ________ have identical angles of sunlight and lengths of daylight.
Latitude
A day of the year when the length of the night is equal to the length of the day is known as a(n) ________.
Equinox
Which of the following happens on June 21 or 22 each year?
The Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day of the year.
On Earth, what causes the development of winds, ocean circulation patterns, and weather?
Unequal heating of Earth’s surface
Which represents the point in Earth’s revolution around the Sun when it is at aphelion?
Early July
As the angle of the Sun’s rays striking Earth flattens out at a particular location, how does this affect the amount of solar heating at that location?
Solar rays are more spread out and less intense.
If the tilt of Earth on its rotational axis were changed to vertical (perpendicular to the plane of orbit), how would that affect seasonality?
No seasonality would occur on Earth
Which of the following characteristics of Earth’s relationship to the Sun explains the existence of Earth’s seasons?
Earth’s axis is tilted relative to its orbital plane.
Earth’s axis always points in the same direction relative to the stars.
Earth orbits around the Sun, completing one orbit each year.
Earth spins on its axis, completing one rotation each day.
What is the June solstice?
the time of the year when Earth’s geographic North Pole is leaning most directly toward the Sun
How does the inclination of Earth’s axis change over the course of a year?
The inclination of Earth’s axis does not change.
What is the December solstice?
the time of the year when Earth’s geographic North Pole is leaning most directly away from the Sun
When are the Sun’s rays perpendicular to Earth’s surface at the equator?
March Equinox
September Equinox
Where does the length of day remain the same throughout the year?
equator
When do all locations on Earth experience equal lengths of day and night?
March and September equinox
What causes it to be colder in the winter and warmer in the summer in the northern hemisphere?
Summer temperatures are warmer because more sun energy per unit area is received during this time.
The Moon has __________ because all energy is reradiated back to space.
a relatively low average surface temperature
The Sun emits __________ radiation, but it is radiated back off of planetary bodies as __________ radiation.
shortwave; longwave
If the greenhouse effect ceased to exist on Earth, which of the following would result?
The average surface temperature would drop to below the freezing temperature of water.
Which of the following is true about Venus?
The high abundance of greenhouse gases absorb most outgoing longwave radiation.
The dense atmosphere of Venus is ________, causing most incoming solar radiation to be _________.
Light in color; reflected
The amount of water vapor in the air is called ________.
Humidity
Dust in the atmosphere is responsible for which of the following?
Reflection of solar energy
Even though ground-level ozone is a health hazard, the “ozone layer” in the stratosphere is a health benefit because ________.
it screens out some harmful solar radiation
The form of oxygen that combines three atoms of oxygen into each molecule is ________
Ozone
Which of the following gases is the greatest absorber of energy emitted by Earth?
Carbon Dioxide
In which layer of the atmosphere do most weather phenomena occur?
Troposphere
Ozone is concentrated in the middle part of the ________.
Stratosphere
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is the ________
Troposphere
Why is the ozone layer crucial to our existence?
Creation of ozone molecules absorbs harmful UV rays.
What is the primary cause of the seasons?
changes in the angle of the Sun above the Earth’s horizon
The view that the sun is the center of the solar system is called a ________.
heliocentric model
Approximately how much further away from the sun is Saturn, as compared to Earth?
10 times as far
One astronomical unit (AU) is equal to approximately ________.
150 million kilometers (93 million miles)
terrestrial planet
Venus
The material expelled when a meteorite strikes the surface of a planet is called ________ and it creates a(n) ________
Ejecta; impact crater
Olympus Mons, thought to be the largest volcano in the solar system, can be found on which planet?
Mars
The blue color of both Uranus and Neptune is caused by the presence of which gas in their atmospheres?
Methane
Which satellite in the solar system exhibits active volcanism?
Lo
Which is the only planet in the solar system whose axis of rotation is in an orientation parallel to its orbital plane?
Uranus
It was stated in the animation that in our solar system, Mars generates more interest by scientists and nonscientists than any other planet. For which reason do you think Mars generates so much interest by these groups?
Besides Venus, Mars is the planet closest to Earth and has many similarities.
What evidence observed on Mars indicates that at one time it may have had a warmer climate and a water cycle similar to that on Earth?
Large valleys that resemble channels
The following images show five planets in our solar system. Rank these planets from left to right based on their average surface (or cloud-top) temperature, from highest to lowest. (Not to scale.)
Mercury
Earth
Mars
Jupiter
Neptune
The following images show five planets in our solar system. Rank these planets from left to right based on the amount of time it takes them to orbit the Sun, from longest to shortest. (Not to scale.)
Neptune
Jupiter
Mars
Earth
Mercury
The following images show four planets in our solar system. Rank these planets from left to right based on the number of moons that orbit them, from highest to lowest. (Not to scale.)
Jupiter
Mars
Earth
Mercury
Which of the following describes a trend that occurs with increasing distance from the Sun?
Distance between planets increases.
The moon’s light-colored areas are called ________.
Lunar highlands
Which of the following is the oldest feature on the Moon’s surface?
Lunar highlands
Which of the following is a dwarf planet?
Pluto
Why is Pluto classified as a dwarf planet?
Pluto is not large enough to sweep its orbit clear of other debris.
Saturn’s well-developed rings are made of ________.
numerous particles of water ice and rocky debris
What differentiates terrestrial planets from Jovian planets?
Terrestrial planets are smaller, more dense, and closer to the Sun than Jovian planets, which are larger, less dense, and farther from the Sun.
As an overview, how did Earth’s Moon form?
Hint A1: When Did the Moon Form? Did the Moon form at the same time as the rest of the solar system, or did it form after Earth had already coalesced into a planet?
Compare the Moon’s maria to its highlands
The maria are smooth plains of dark basaltic lava, whereas the highlands are light elevated areas filled with breccia.
How are the appearances of craters used in the relative dating of the Moon’s surface features?
Craters that are surrounded by bright rays are younger than rayless craters because the rays are material ejected from the crater onto the surrounding surface.
How are Venus and Earth similar to and different from each other?
Venus and Earth are similar in that they have similar interior compositions; however, Venus has a weaker magnetic field than Earth, has a thicker atmosphere than Earth, and is more heavily cratered than Earth.
What other body in our solar system most resembles Mercury?
earth’s moon
What surface features do Mars and Earth have in common?
playas, lake beds, and sedimentary rock layers
What is the nature of Jupiter’s Great Red Spot?
The Great Red Spot is a large, anticyclonic storm
How are Jupiter and Saturn similar to one another? PLEASE SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
Both planets have rings
The internal structures of both planets are very similar
What is distinctive about Jupiter’s satellite Io?
It is possibly the most volcanic body in our solar system.
What evidence suggests that Mars had an active hydrologic cycle in the past? PLEASE SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.
Ice caps are found on Mars below 30 degrees latitude
Mars has surface structures similar to dendritic drainage patterns on Earth
Mars has empty stream-like valleys
Why are the largest volcanoes on Earth so much smaller than the largest ones on Mars?
The tectonic plates on Earth are still in motion, constantly moving active volcanoes away from the mantle plumes below. However, the tectonic plates on Mars are not in motion, so active volcanoes remain over the lava plumes and grow extremely large because of repeated eruptions.
How did the lunar maria most likely originate?
huge impact basins that were nearly filled with basaltic lava flows
The soil-like layer of the moon composed of igneous rocks, breccia, glass beads, and fine lunar dust is called ________
Lunar regolith
Valles Marineris, a series of vast canyons on Mars, most likely formed by ________.
Down-faulting
Which of the terrestrial planets has the least dense atmosphere?
Mercury
Cosmology is the study of ________.
The universe
A light-year is ________.
the distance light travels in one (Earth) year
According to the big bang theory, the first two elements to form in the universe were ________.
Hydrogen and helium
Our solar system resides in the ________.
Milky Way galaxy
It is believed our solar system formed approximately ________ years ago.
4.6 billion
The first galaxies and stars are believed to have formed ________ years ago.
13.8 billion
Compared to a main-sequence star with a short lifetime, a main-sequence star with a long lifetime is __________.
less luminous, cooler, smaller, and less massive
Compared to a high-luminosity main-sequence star, stars in the upper right of the H-R diagram are __________.
cooler and larger in radius
Compared to a low-luminosity main-sequence star, stars in the lower left of the H-R diagram are __________.
Hotter and smaller in radius
Which of the following statements is true regarding the life cycle of a star?
Every star begins its life cycle as a nebula.
Which of the following best describes the transition from a protostar to main sequence star?
Thermonuclear fusion begins in the core.
What causes the transformation of a red giant to a planetary nebula?
Fusion ceases in the core and collapse under the force of gravity occurs, leading to an enhancement of hydrogen fusion in the shell.
The __________ stage is present in the evolution of medium-mass stars, but absent in low-mass stars.
Red giant
A __________ or __________ are created during the last stage of high-mass star evolution.
neutron star, black hole
Our Sun is current in the ________ stage of solar evolution.
Main sequence star
A star’s ________ can be determined from its color.
Surface temperature
Very large red stars, such as Betelgeuse in the constellation Orion, are called ________.
Supergiant’s
Approximately ________ percent of all stars are ________.
90
main sequence stars
Which are the hottest stars?
Blue sequence stars
Supernova explosions occur in ________ stars.
High mass
If a star ends its life cycle as a black hole, that implies it has a ________ mass.
large
The Crab Nebula is a planetary nebula that formed due to a ________ in the year 1054 A.D., an event recorded by Chinese astronomers.
Supernova
On an H-R diagram, where do stars spend most of their life span?
As main sequence stars
How does the Sun compare in size and brightness to other main-sequence stars?
The Sun has a medium brightness and a medium size among the other main-sequence stars.
What element is the fuel for main-sequence stars?
Hydrogen
What is the final state of a medium-mass (Sunlike) star?
A white dwarf with a mass less than 1.4
Why are black holes hard to find in spite of the fact that they are thought to be abundant?
The gravity of a black hole is so powerful that even light cannot escape it; thus, the black hole cannot be seen.
Which of the following is a very common feature of spiral galaxies?
A central bulge of differing color
A __________ is a relatively small concentration of stars that are closely packed in a spherical form.
globular cluster
A central bulge is characteristic of what galaxy type?
Spiral
Which of the following represents the small- to large-scale classification of celestial bodies?
stars, galaxies, clusters, groups
What might cause the distorted shape of an irregular galaxy?
The collision of two galaxies
The Milky Way galaxy is an example of a(n) ________ galaxy.
Spiral
Which choice correctly describes the three types of galaxies?
1. spiral galaxies, which are flat, disk-shaped, and have arms extending from a central nucleus;
2. elliptical galaxies, which are semi or nearly spherical and have no arms;
3. irregular galaxies, which show no symmetry or patterns
Our own galactic cluster, called the Local Group, consists of more than ________.
40 galaxies
Which of the following is a galaxy classification?
Irregular
How did astronomers determine that the universe is expanding?
The lights emanating from other galaxies are moving away from the Milky Way, which we can detect as the shift of the galaxies’ spectral lines towards the red end of the spectrum.

Get instant access to
all materials

Become a Member