question

10.1-1. There is a general agreement among researchers that personality a. is mainly learned. b. can be characterized by five basic trait dimensions. c. has an infinite number of possible trait dimensions. d. is mainly genetic.

answer

b

question

10.1-2. Individuals with personality disorders a. comply with societal expectations. b. reject societal expectations. c. are unable to perform some roles expected by society. d. have a strong sense of self.

answer

c

question

10.1-3. Personality disorders were once known as a. character disorders. b. identity disorders. c. conduct disorders. d. maladaptive behavioral patterns.

answer

a

question

10.1-4. Unlike disorders like depression and PTSD, a. personality disorders develop gradually. b. multiple causal events can be identified when a personality disorder has developed. c. those with personality disorders experience considerable subjective distress. d. personality disorders are emotional disorders.

answer

a

question

10.1-5. Which statement about personality disorders is accurate? a. The category is broad and encompasses behavioral problems that vary widely in form and severity. b. The personality disorders are considered situation-specific problems in behaving. c. Most of the personality disorders are extreme reactions to stressful life events. d. Even the milder cases of personality disorders produce severe impairments in social and occupational functioning.

answer

a

question

10.1-6. Because they were regarded as being different from standard psychiatric syndromes, the personality disorders in DSM-IV were a. not listed. b. categorized as emotional disorders. c. separated from mood disorders. d. given what is called a "provisional" category.

answer

c

question

10.1-7. The behavioral patterns of individuals with personality disorders a. tend to fluctuate over time. b. tend to normalize with experience as an individual matures. c. are thought to be relatively consistent over time, with little adaptation to new kinds of experiences. d. are remarkable in their tendency to shift dramatically from one kind of disorder to another.

answer

c

question

10.1-8. According to the DSM-5, which of the following must be true for a personality disorder diagnosis? a. The patient's behavior must reflect a lack of impulse control. b. The patient must experience mild irritability. c. Signs of psychosis must be present. d. The person's behavior problems must cause them distress or impairment.

answer

d

question

10.1-9. People find Adam difficult to be around. His behavior is unpredictable and erratic but most often is annoying to others. He doesn't seem to learn from his bad experiences, instead he keeps repeating the same mistakes over and over. His family says Adam has been like this since at least junior high school. Adam most likely has a. a mood disorder. b. an anxiety disorder. c. a dissociative disorder. d. a personality disorder.

answer

d

question

10.1-10. Misdiagnoses are common when looking at potential personality disorders because a. the diagnostic criteria are objective. b. many of the personality disorders share common features. c. most of those in treatment for personality disorders are heavily medicated. d. it is usually not possible to determine when the problematic behavior began.

answer

b

question

10.1-11. Since there are substantial problems with reliability and validity of the diagnoses of personality disorders, a. they are rarely used in clinical practice. b. it is less likely that research on a disorder will be able to be replicated by other researchers. c. they are considered by clinicians only as suggestions and do not have an impact on treatment decisions. d. very little research or search for treatments is done.

answer

b

question

10.1-12. The five- factor model a. is a model of normal personality that includes an expanded description of the five basic personality dimensions. b. is a model that attempts to explain personality disorders by dividing them into five main categories. c. is a model that explains the causes of personality disorders by describing the five most important factors that lead to their development. d. is a five-step model for the treatment of personality disorders.

answer

a

question

10.1-13. Which of the following is a factor that complicates determining the causes of personality disorders? a. The high likelihood that an individual with one personality disorder may also have another b. The availability of only prospective data c. The wealth of biological data available d. The inability to gather information from the patients themselves, due to the prevalence of memory disorders among those with personality disorders

answer

a

question

10.1-14. The finding that temperament may play a role in the etiology of personality disorders suggests that a. all personality disorders have a biological basis. b. learning plays a significant role in the development of personality disorders. c. the environment does not play a causal role in the development of mood disorders. d. a susceptibility to the development of a personality disorder may be inherited.

answer

d

question

10.1-15. The best description of the biological component of personality disorders is a. they are directly inherited disorders. b. they have no biological component, they are learned. c. personality traits are inherited that predispose a person to developing a personality disorder. d. people inherit the trait of anxiety, which underlies all of the personality disorders and predisposes people to developing a personality disorder.

answer

c

question

10.1-16. The "clusters" of personality disorders found in the DSM-5 are grouped based on a. similar etiologies. b. level of dysfunction. c. symptom or feature similarities. d. expected prognosis.

answer

c

question

10.1-17. What do all of the Cluster A disorders have in common? a. Lack of emotional expression b. Oddness or eccentricity c. Clear link to schizophrenia d. Trust in other people

answer

b

question

10.1-18. Which of the following is a Cluster B personality disorder? a. Depressive b. Schizoid c. Paranoid d. Borderline

answer

d

question

10.1-19. Individuals who seem odd and eccentric to others may have personality disorders from a. Cluster A. b. Cluster B. c. Cluster C. d. proposed diagnostic categories needing further study.

answer

a

question

10.1-20. Helen is suspicious and doubts the loyalty of even her friends. She is unwilling to forgive perceived insults and never forgets a grudge. She is most likely to be diagnosed with ________ personality disorder. a. paranoid b. histrionic c. schizoid d. schizotypal

answer

a

question

10.1-21. The best single-word description for the person with paranoid personality disorder is a. delusional. b. impulsive. c. unemotional. d. mistrustful.

answer

d

question

10.1-22. Unlike the person with paranoid schizophrenia, the person with paranoid personality disorder a. becomes delusional in response to an actual betrayal or hurtful incident with another person. b. has persistent loss of reality contact. c. tends to confide in others and assume the loyalty of his or her friends. d. is in contact with reality, although he or she may have transient psychotic symptoms.

answer

d

question

10.1-23. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of paranoid personality disorder? a. Introversion and openness to feelings b. Excitement seeking and neuroticism c. Antagonism and neuroticism d. Fantasy proneness and tough mindedness

answer

c

question

10.1-24. Sam shows little emotion and is a loner. He has no social relationships, other than his family, and he seems to experience little pleasure, if any. What personality disorder might Sam have? a. Paranoid b. Schizoid c. Borderline d. Narcissistic

answer

b

question

10.1-25. Greg has been diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. Knowing this, which of the following jobs would he be most likely to enjoy? a. Night-time security guard who works alone b. Receptionist at a busy dentist's office c. Insurance inspector who uncovers clues that criminal behavior has occurred d. Elementary school teacher who works with children who have emotional problems

answer

a

question

10.1-26. The central problem of schizoid personality disorder is a. recurrent depression. b. a marked disregard for the feelings of others. c. cognitive and perceptual distortions. d. an inability to form attachments to other people.

answer

d

question

10.1-27. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of schizoid personality disorder? a. Low agreeableness and high antagonism b. High introversion and low openness to feelings c. High introversion and low agreeableness d. Low excitement seeking and high fantasy proneness

answer

b

question

10.1-28. Individuals with schizoid and paranoid personality disorders differ significantly in their a. ability to function. b. display of psychotic symptoms. c. level of emotionality. d. likelihood of recovery.

answer

c

question

10.1-29. A cognitive explanation for schizoid personality disorder proposes that the individual with this disorder believes that a. he is basically alone. b. few people can be trusted. c. no one can live up to his or her expectations. d. he is misunderstood.

answer

a

question

10.1-30. Tom tells you that he can make his roommate take out the trash by simply thinking about his roommate doing it. He agrees with you that this could sometimes just be a coincidence, but he seems to truly believe he can sometimes get people to do things just by thinking about it. You find him understandable when he talks, but sometimes hard to follow. His clothes are messy and don't match. Tom tells you not to tell anyone about his power, because he knows that other people don't like him because they are jealous and they would hurt him if they could. The best diagnosis for Tom is a. borderline personality disorder. b. paranoid personality disorder. c. schizotypal personality disorder. d. schizoid personality disorder.

answer

c

question

10.1-31. Which of the following personality disorders is most likely to be mistaken for schizophrenia? a. Avoidant b. Borderline c. Schizoid d. Schizotypal

answer

d

question

10.1-32. While the individual with ________ personality disorder appears cool and aloof, the individual with ________ personality disorder is best described as odd. a. avoidant; schizotypal b. schizoid; schizotypal c. schizoid; avoidant d. schizotypal; avoidant

answer

b

question

10.1-33. Thought and speech oddities comparable to those seen in schizophrenia have been documented in ________ personality disorder. a. paranoid b. schizoid c. schizotypal d. borderline

answer

c

question

10.1-34. Schizophrenic disorders seem to be most strongly linked genetically to ________ personality disorder. a. schizoid b. schizotypal c. avoidant d. Both A and B.

answer

b

question

10.1-35. Transient psychotic symptoms are seen in which of the following personality disorders? a. Paranoid and schizoid b. Schizotypal and schizoid c. Schizoid and antisocial d. Paranoid and schizotypal

answer

d

question

10.1-36. Lori is vain and self-centered. When she goes out, it is not at all uncommon for her to do things that ensure she is the center of attention. Her close friends describe her as a "drama queen." Assuming that her behavior is sufficient to warrant a diagnosis, which of the following personality disorders is she most likely to be diagnosed with? a. Antisocial b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic

answer

c

question

10.1-37. Luisa is a lively and emotional graduate student. She dresses provocatively and behaves in a very seductive manner with her male professors. She has had a long string of short-lived, stormy romances. Luisa is most likely to have a diagnosis of a. histrionic personality disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. dependent personality disorder. d. passive-aggressive personality disorder.

answer

a

question

10.1-38. Like many individuals with personality disorders, individuals with histrionic personality disorder are rarely able to maintain relationships over time. Why? a. Their extreme distrust makes lasting relationships impossible. b. Their self-reliance leads them to feel that they do not need anyone else. c. Their exaggerated sense of self-importance is generally off-putting. d. Their need for attention and manipulation is likely to drive others away.

answer

d

question

10.1-39. Histrionic personality disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in people who a. are emotionally unexpressive and prefer living alone. b. later develop schizophrenic symptoms. c. are attention-seeking and overly emotional. d. depend on others because they do not feel competent.

answer

c

question

10.1-40. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of histrionic personality disorder? a. Low openness to feelings and high fantasy proneness b. High extraversion and high neuroticism c. High neuroticism and low agreeableness d. High conscientiousness and low assertiveness

answer

b

question

10.1-41. Which of the following best accounts for why women are more likely to be diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder than men? a. Women are more likely to develop this disorder. b. The symptoms tend to be maladaptive exaggerations of traits normally seen in women. c. Women are naturally more likely than men to engage in attention-seeking behaviors. d. The primary feature of this disorder is emotionality and women are more emotional than men.

answer

b

question

10.1-42. Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with histrionic personality disorder? a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b. Excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c. Cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention

answer

d

question

10.1-43. Which of the following core dysfunctional beliefs might explain the development of histrionic personality disorder? a. "I need a man to define me." b. "I am the only one I can trust." c. "I am completely helpless." d. "If I am not fun, they will abandon me."

answer

d

question

10.1-44. Which of the following personality disorders might be the female equivalent of antisocial personality disorder? a. Avoidant b. Schizotypal c. Histrionic d. Schizoid

answer

c

question

10.1-45. Hope believes that she is the "star" of her graduate class and that the other students dislike her because they are jealous of her superior intelligence. She believes that she is entitled to be exempted from an important exam because of her outstanding performance in class. Hope probably suffers from a. histrionic personality disorder. b. narcissistic personality disorder. c. dependent personality disorder. d. schizoid personality disorder.

answer

b

question

10.1-46. Which of the following distinguishes narcissistic personality disorder from the other Cluster B disorders? a. Emotionality b. Grandiosity c. Impulsivity d. Vanity

answer

b

question

10.1-47. Some people always think that everyone is looking at them and talking about them, wishing to be like them. This self-focused view of the world would be expected in someone with ________ personality disorder. a. borderline b. histrionic c. narcissistic d. paranoid

answer

c

question

10.1-48. Why is it that people with narcissistic personality disorder are unlikely to seek treatment? a. They are suspicious that therapists will steal their ideas. b. They afraid they will become dependent on the therapist. c. They are hypersensitive to criticism. d. They think they are nearly perfect and in no need of change.

answer

d

question

10.1-49. The histrionic seeks ________, while the narcissist needs ________. a. attention; admiration b. acceptance; admiration c. admiration; attention d. acceptance; approval

answer

a

question

10.1-50. Parental overvaluation is associated with which personality disorder? a. Antisocial b. Borderline c. Histrionic d. Narcissistic

answer

d

question

10.1-51. At a young age, children are not able to understand that the world that others experience is different from their own. Children also tend to overestimate their own abilities. A failure to outgrow these youthful characteristics might explain the development of ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. histrionic d. narcissistic

answer

d

question

10.1-52. Early criminal behavior is most characteristic of a. antisocial personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. c. schizoid personality disorder. d. schizotypal personality disorder.

answer

a

question

10.1-53. ________ personality disorder is much more common in men than women and involves the exploitation of others without remorse. a. Antisocial b. Histrionic c. Borderline d. Paranoid

answer

a

question

10.1-54. Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with antisocial personality disorder? a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b. Excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c. Irritable and aggressive pattern of irresponsible behavior d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention

answer

c

question

10.1-55. Symptoms of what disorder are present in individuals who later develop antisocial personality disorder? a. Attention-deficit disorder b. Attachment disorder c. Conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder d. Depression

answer

c

question

10.1-56. Antisocial personality disorder differs from the other Cluster B disorders in that a. a lack of concern for the feelings of others is not displayed. b. a need for approval or attention is not displayed. c. symptoms are only present after age 15. d. it is seen equally on men and women.

answer

b

question

10.1-57. Henry was a charming middle-aged man who came to the attention of authorities on bigamy charges. He had a long history of courting and supposedly marrying elderly widows, then absconding with their money. His diagnosis is most likely a. narcissistic personality disorder. b. borderline personality disorder. c. histrionic personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder.

answer

d

question

10.1-58. What "border" did the term "borderline" in borderline personality refer to? a. The border between mood and anxiety disorders b. People with borderline personality disorder were thought to be on the brink of psychosis, on the border between sanity and insanity. c. Because people with borderline personality disorder behave normally much of the time, they were thought to only be on the edge of mental illness. d. The behaviors exhibited by people with borderline personality disorder lie on continuum between neurotic and psychotic disorders.

answer

d

question

10.1-59. Impulsivity and extreme instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and mood best characterize a. histrionic personality disorder. b. antisocial personality disorder. c. avoidant personality disorder. d. borderline personality disorder.

answer

d

question

10.1-60. Which of the following is most typical of the interpersonal attitudes and behaviors of someone with borderline personality disorder? a. Vacillation between overidealization and bitter disappointment b. Excessive trust and dependence on others' opinions c. Cruel and callous exploitation of others for personal gain d. Repeated manipulation of others to gain attention

answer

A

question

10.1-61. Loretta has a long history of first idealizing men and then feeling they have abandoned her. Feelings of emptiness change into reckless acts of sexual promiscuity, gambling, and suicide attempts. She feels that she has never had a sense of self. Loretta probably has ________ personality disorder. a. narcissistic b. histrionic c. dependent d. borderline

answer

d

question

10.1-62. Self-mutilation, such as is seen in borderline personality disorder, is a. a form of suicidal behavior. b. a form of self-punishment. c. done to reduce depression. d. associated with an increase in anxiety and depression.

answer

b

question

10.1-63. Glenna believed that Sam loved her and that she could not live without him. When he told her he did not want to see her again, she became violently angry and manipulated him into staying with her by threatening suicide. Which of the following personality disorder does Glenna's behavior suggest she might have? a. Narcissistic b. Histrionic c. Dependent d. Borderline

answer

d

question

10.1-64. Transient psychotic and dissociative experiences can occur in ________ personality disorder. a. borderline b. antisocial c. narcissistic d. obsessive-compulsive

answer

a

question

10.1-65. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of borderline personality disorder? a. High extraversion and low fantasy proneness b. High impulsivity and affective instability c. High antagonism and low neuroticism d. High agreeableness and low excitement seeking

answer

b

question

10.1-66. The borderline personality differs from histrionic disorder in that a. impulsive behavior is rare. b. a need for others is not exhibited. c. comorbid diagnoses are rare. d. the central role of sexuality is not present.

answer

d

question

10.1-67. The main difference between borderline personality disorder and antisocial personality disorder is that a. while both have impulsive sex, the person with borderline personality disorder uses others and the person with antisocial personality disorder really cares about others. b. both avoid abandonment, the person with borderline personality disorder because they love others and the person with antisocial personality disorder because they need others to love them. c. both exploit others but the person with borderline personality disorder does it due to an angry reaction to disappointments and the person with antisocial personality disorder does it for gain and without guilt. d. both show suicidal behavior, the person with borderline personality disorder because he or she wants to die and the person with antisocial personality disorder to get attention.

answer

c

question

10.1-68. According to Paris (2007), a key causal factor in borderline personality disorder seems to be a. inconsistent or highly punitive discipline in childhood. b. impulsivity and affective instability interacting with such factors as trauma or loss. c. a negative attributional style. d. an inability to empathize with other people.

answer

b

question

10.1-69. About half of the individuals with borderline personality disorder also qualify for a diagnosis of ________ at some time. a. antisocial personality disorder b. schizophrenia c. a mood disorder d. histrionic personality disorder

answer

c

question

10.1-70. In which of the following disorders is a comorbid diagnosis of depression most commonly seen? a. Antisocial personality disorder b. Obsessive compulsive personality disorder c. Dependent personality disorder d. Histrionic personality disorder

answer

c

question

10.1-71. According to Paris' multidimensional theory of borderline personality disorder (BPD), people with high levels of impulsivity and affective instability a. are likely to develop BPD in response to even minor stressors. b. are likely to develop BPD if they are exposed to trauma. c. come mainly from intact homes and are unlikely to develop BPD. d. come to enjoy acting out.

answer

b

question

10.1-72. The research on the association between borderline personality disorder and childhood sexual abuse a. proves child sexual abuse is the leading cause of borderline personality disorder. b. are problematic - the abuse most likely is occurring with other factors that might be more important. c. has shown that the reports of sexual abuse were mostly false reports. d. suggests that some genetic component underlies both the disorder in the child and the parents' tendency to abuse.

answer

b

question

10.1-73. The individual with avoidant personality disorder behaves most similarly to someone with ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. schizoid d. schizotypal

answer

c

question

10.1-74. The individual with avoidant personality disorder is unlikely to develop lasting relationships as a result of his or her a. callousness. b. fear of rejection. c. desire to control others. d. lack of interest.

answer

b

question

10.1-75. Stu has no friends except his brother. He would desperately love to date women but is certain no woman would be interested in him. He tried a dating service but was convinced that the secretary was trying to get rid of him because he was such a poor candidate. The most likely diagnosis for Stu is a. avoidant personality disorder. b. schizoid personality disorder. c. paranoid personality disorder. d. schizotypal personality disorder.

answer

a

question

10.1-76. Helena has avoidant personality disorder. She is likely to a. engage in a series of intense, unstable relationships. b. have no interest in social relationships. c. avoid achievement situations where she might fail. d. be hypersensitive to any sign of criticism or rejection.

answer

d

question

10.1-77. In contrast to schizoid individuals, those with avoidant personality disorder a. are emotional and dramatic. b. are impulsive and self-destructive. c. are extremely upset by their lack of social relationships. d. are exploitive rather than compliant.

answer

c

question

10.1-78. Sharon says, "I would love to be in an intimate relationship. My life is terribly boring and lonely. But I am extremely shy and I would fall apart if any man criticized me in the slightest." This description best matches the symptoms of ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. dependent c. avoidant d. borderline

answer

c

question

10.1-79. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of avoidant personality disorder? a. High extraversion and low openness to feelings b. High introversion and high neuroticism c. High antagonism and low neuroticism d. High agreeableness and high angry hostility

answer

b

question

10.1-80. Avoidant personality disorder is extremely similar to and hard to distinguish from a. generalized social phobia. b. schizoid personality disorder. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. paranoid personality disorder.

answer

a

question

10.1-81. Emily calls her husband every day at work to ask him what she should make for dinner. She spends her days at her mother's, because Emily worries that something will go wrong in her own home that she won't be able to handle. Even though she paints and draws well, Emily has never tried to take a class or use her talent, because she says she knows she really isn't good enough. Emily's most likely diagnosis is a. borderline personality disorder. b. dependent personality disorder. c. schizoid personality disorder. d. paranoid personality disorder.

answer

b

question

10.1-82. Involvement in an abusive relationship (as the one who is abused) would be most expected of the individual with ________ personality disorder. a. antisocial b. borderline c. dependent d. schizotypal

answer

c

question

10.1-83. Hattie has a dependent personality disorder. This means that she a. experiences little distress in her life. b. has difficulty in initiating relationships. c. has acute discomfort when she is alone. d. prefers being alone rather than being with people who might criticize her.

answer

c

question

10.1-84. People who lack self-confidence despite good skills, who panic at the possibility of being separated from their spouse, and remain in abusive relationships have many of the symptoms of ________ personality disorder. a. histrionic b. dependent c. avoidant d. narcissistic

answer

b

question

10.1-85. The fear of abandonment is seen in both borderline and dependent personality disorder. A key difference is their reaction to it: a. The person with borderline personality disorder gets depressed, and the person with dependent personality disorder gets angry. b. The person with borderline personality disorder gets angry, and the person with dependent personality disorder becomes submissive. c. The person with borderline personality disorder goes to other people for a replacement, and the person with dependent personality disorder stays alone and sad. d. The person with borderline personality disorder tries to resolve the issues rationally, and the person with dependent personality disorder is afraid to seek out new relationships.

answer

b

question

10.1-86. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of dependent personality disorder? a. High neuroticism and high agreeableness b. High introversion and low conscientiousness c. High fantasy proneness and low neuroticism d. High excitement seeking and low openness to feelings

answer

a

question

10.1-87. What core belief might explain the behavior of the individual with dependent personality disorder? a. "I am helpless." b. "I don't know who I am without you." c. "Unless I make people laugh, they will not like me." d. "Others exist to benefit me."

answer

a

question

10.1-88. John has a great need for order and perfectionism. He can't leave the house until every hair is in place, and he has been known to iron the same shirt over and over to ensure that he is wrinkle-free. What personality disorder does John's behavior suggest? a. Avoidant b. Dependent c. Obsessive-compulsive d. Narcissistic

answer

c

question

10.1-89. The individual with ________ personality disorder is likely to be described as rigid and cold. a. borderline b. histrionic c. obsessive-compulsive d. dependent

answer

c

question

10.1-90. Harold is perfectionistic and extremely concerned with maintaining a set routine. He probably suffers from ________ personality disorder. a. schizoid b. obsessive-compulsive c. dependent d. avoidant

answer

b

question

10.1-91. What is the main difference between Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) and Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD)? a. People with OCD are more perfectionistic than people with OCPD. b. People with OCPD are less conscientious about their rituals than people with OCD. c. People with OCPD do not have true obsessions or compulsions like people with OCD have. d. People with OCD can do a compulsion once and feel better, people with OCPD never feel better no matter how many times they do them.

answer

c

question

10.1-92. Which basic personality traits from the five-factor model seem most important in the development of obsessive compulsive personality disorder? a. High conscientiousness and low compliance b. High extraversion and high openness to feelings c. High excitement seeking and low openness to feelings d. High fantasy proneness and high agreeableness

answer

a

question

10.1-93. Why does the person with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder have problems in interpersonal relationships? a. They have no interest in having relationships. b. They have no time for relationships due to excessive devotion to work. c. They are too emotionally expressive. d. Their manipulative behavior tends to destroy relationships.

answer

b

question

10.1-94. Which of the following best explains why it is such a challenge to treat personality disorders? a. They develop early in life. b. The diagnostic criteria for these disorders suffers from subjectivity. c. Comorbid diagnoses are the norm, not the exception. d. By definition, they are enduring patterns of thought and behavior.

answer

d

question

10.1-95. Which of the following statements is NOT true of treating personality disorders? a. Individuals with personality disorders from Clusters A and B are more difficult to treat because of their interpersonal difficulties and reluctance to enter therapy. b. Treatment for individuals with dependent personality disorder ought to be altered so that excessive dependency is not fostered. c. People with personality disorders have trouble establishing good therapeutic relationships with their therapist. d. People with both a personality disorder diagnosis and another type of disorder are easier to treat than people with just a personality disorder because they have more distress.

answer

d

question

10.1-96. Why is the use of medication for borderline personality disorder controversial? a. Because it is unethical to alter someone's personality through chemical means b. Because research shows it clearly doesn't help c. Because it is frequently associated with suicidal behavior d. Because of the possibility of severe side effects

answer

c

question

10.1-97. Donna has borderline personality disorder. She is in therapy, but progress is slow. One problem is that some days she thinks her therapist is the most wonderful person in the world. On other days, she thinks he is worthless and untrustworthy. This type of thinking is called a. dialectical. b. splitting. c. entitlement. d. psychopathological.

answer

b

question

10.1-98. Dialectical behavior therapy is a. a promising, problem-focused treatment for borderline personality disorder. b. a long-term therapy for borderline personality disorder that focuses on personality change. c. an old, long-term therapy for borderline personality disorder that has been found to be ineffective. d. is a short-term therapy for borderline personality disorder that involves medication and brief hospitalization.

answer

a

question

10.1-99. Which of the following is a part of the clinical picture in antisocial personality and psychopathy? a. Careful planning of future activities that will help their families. b. Using charm to make a strong first impression. c. Strong feelings of remorse after wronging others. d. A total lack of desire to maintain friendships with others.

answer

b

question

10.1-100. Which of the following is true about the connection between psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder? a. Psychopathy is another name for antisocial personality disorder. b. Many people who have antisocial personality disorder do not have psychopathy. c. Psychopathy is a less severe form of antisocial personality disorder. d. Psychopathy is a more easily treated form of antisocial personality disorder.

answer

b

question

10.1-101. Antisocial personality disorder differs from psychopathy in that antisocial personality disorder a. is an older diagnosis. b. focuses more on personality characteristics. c. focuses more on observable behaviors. d. is a less severe and more treatable form of the disorder.

answer

c

question

10.1-102. The presence of psychopathy a. is the single best predictor of future violence and crime recidivism. b. means that a person also has antisocial personality disorder. c. means a person is less likely to be violent and to repeat crimes. d. is the single best predictor that treatment will be successful.

answer

a

question

10.1-103. An employee evaluation: "He takes what he wants rather than earns it. He hates routine and boredom more than anything else. Thrill-seeking and impulsive actions have gotten him fired from this job. It will get him fired at many others." What kind of disorder does the employee illustrate? a. Histrionic personality disorder b. Psychopathy c. Borderline personality disorder d. Substance abuse

answer

b

question

10.1-104. The best current research shows that children of parents with antisocial personality disorder who were adopted into other families a. did not develop antisocial personality disorder. b. developed antisocial personality disorder at higher rates regardless of the quality of their adoptive family. c. developed antisocial personality disorder at higher rates only if their adoptive family had problems, such as marital conflict. d. developed antisocial personality disorder at a later age than if they had been raised by their biological parents.

answer

b

question

10.1-105. In research studies, in addition to failing to learn to avoid punishment, psychopaths a. did not cognitively understand the connection between a behavior and its consequence. b. felt a great deal of anticipatory anxiety about punishment, leading to impulsive behaviors. c. did not show normal fear potential startle responses. d. showed larger than normal fear potential startle responses.

answer

c

question

10.1-106. Carl has psychopathy. You would expect him to a. be very concerned about possible punishment and to try to avoid it as much as possible. b. be very interested in rewards and to continue his behavior even when the rewards don't come as often as they did. c. only be interested in rewards occasionally and to change his behavior quickly if rewards don't come as often as they did. d. be equally interested in rewards and punishments and do his best to get the first and avoid the second.

answer

b

question

10.1-107. Who is most likely to develop antisocial personality disorder? a. A child with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder b. A child with oppositional defiant disorder c. A child with conduct disorder d. A child with conduct disorder and A or B

answer

d

question

10.1-108. Which type of child is most likely to show the personality traits of a psychopath as an adult? a. One who has fearlessness, low anxiety, and high callousness b. One who has high fear and high callousness c. One who has trouble regulating emotions and high levels of emotional reactivity, including aggression d. One who has high depression, high anxiety, and is quick to anger

answer

a

question

10.1-109. Which of the following seems to have the most impact in decreasing the amount of criminal activities of people with psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder? a. Cognitive behavioral treatment b. Medication c. Growing older d. Nothing has any impact

answer

c

question

10.1-110. Which of the following is a common component of cognitive behavioral treatments for antisocial personality? a. Punishment b. Relaxation c. Self-critical thinking d. Response-prevention training

answer

c

question

10.1-111. According to your textbook, each very high-risk antisocial youth may cost society between ____ and ____ in rehabilitation, incarceration, and costs to victims. a. $12,000; $20,000 b. $120,000; $200,000 c. $1.2 million; $2 million d. $12 million; $20 million

answer

c

question

10.1-112. One proposed revision for the DSM-5 pertaining to the diagnosis of personality disorders did not occur. Which change was this? a. All existing personality disorders will be split into two sub-categories (chronic and intermittent) b. All existing personality disorders will be removed and only mood disorders will remain c. A categorical approach will be used to achieve diagnosis d. A dimensional approach will be used to achieve diagnosis

answer

d

question

11.1-1. Why does it make sense to view addiction as a mental disorder? a. The symptoms reflect behaviors that involve the pathological need for a substance. b. The most effective treatments are psychological. c. Neurochemical imbalances underlie the problematic behaviors observed. d. Substance abuse frequently develops in an attempt to self-medicate negative mood states.

answer

a

question

11.1-2. Unlike psychoactive substance abuse, psychoactive substance dependence usually involves a. physiological symptoms such as tolerance and withdrawal. b. continued use despite social and occupational problems. c. pathological use of the substance. d. the use of substances that laws prohibit one from buying or using.

answer

a

question

11.1-3. Henry used to become intoxicated after six drinks. Now he needs ten or twelve to get the same effect. This is an example of a. a psychoactive substance abuse disorder. b. tolerance. c. withdrawal symptoms. d. an organic impairment.

answer

b

question

11.1-4. The occurrence of withdrawal symptoms a. indicates that substance abuse has developed. b. is necessary for a diagnosis of substance abuse. c. is seen when use of any psychoactive substance is terminated. d. signals that the body has adjusted to the presence of the drug.

answer

d

question

11.1-5. Which of the following is a consequence of organic impairment resulting from long-term substance use, as opposed to being a consequence of drug toxicity? a. Alcohol amnestic disorder b. Alcoholic intoxication c. Amphetamine delusional disorder d. Cannabis delirium

answer

a

question

11.1-6. Judd has been drinking heavily for a number of years. When he is not drinking, he experiences profuse sweating and shakes. This indicates that Judd a. has an organic impairment. b. has withdrawal symptoms when he abstains from alcohol. c. cannot be diagnosed with substance dependence. d. has developed a tolerance for alcohol.

answer

b

question

11.1-7. Which of the following is a diagnosis found in the DSM-5? a. Alcoholism b. Alcoholic Syndrome Disorder c. Substance-Interdependence Disorder d. Alcohol Use Disorder

answer

d

question

11.1-8. Which of the following statements about alcohol problems is accurate? a. The lifetime prevalence for alcoholism in the United States is about 30 percent. b. The average life span of an alcoholic is twelve years shorter than the average citizen. c. Although alcohol impairs motor behavior, it does not lower performance on complex cognitive tasks. d. Alcohol abuse is a "pure" disorder, with less than 5 percent of alcohol abusers having a coexisting mental disorder.

answer

b

question

11.1-9. Which of the following statements is true about alcohol use? a. Alcoholism is extremely serious but rarely fatal. b. Alcoholism is more common in women that in men. c. Alcoholism increases the risk of suicide. d. Alcoholism is strongly associated with accidental death, but not with violent acts.

answer

c

question

11.1-10. Which mental disorder is most commonly comorbid with alcoholism? a. Panic disorder b. Obsessive compulsive disorder c. Dissociative amnesia d. Depression

answer

d

question

11.1-11. Observed changes in drinking patterns suggest that in the future a. the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will increase. b. the ratio of male to female problem drinkers will decrease. c. the proportion of blacks that are problem drinkers will increase. d. the proportion of blacks that are problem drinkers will decrease.

answer

b

question

11.1-12. Of the following, who is most likely to be an alcoholic? a. A woman with no criminal history b. A woman with multiple children c. A male with a personality disorder d. A male with multiple children

answer

c

question

11.1-13. Alcohol's effects on ________ explain its ability to impair judgment. a. dopamine b. epinephrine c. glutamate d. endogenous opioids

answer

c

question

11.1-14. At low levels, alcohol's effect on the brain is ________; at higher levels, alcohol's effect is ________. a. to inhibit glutamate (an excitatory neurotransmitter); release opium-like endorphins b. too minimal to have an impact; massive and excitatory c. depressive; excitatory d. to activate the brain's "pleasure centers"; depress brain functioning

answer

d

question

11.1-15. Alcoholic blackouts a. cause hangovers. b. are seen only with heavy drinking. c. can occur with just moderate drinking. d. only happen when alcohol dependence has developed.

answer

c

question

11.1-16. What evidence is there that the legal definition of alcohol intoxication (a blood alcohol content of 0.08) should be changed? a. Most alcohol-related accidents occur at much lower blood alcohol levels. b. Most alcohol-related accidents occur at much higher blood alcohol levels. c. Few people show any impairment at this blood alcohol level. d. Judgment becomes impaired long before this blood alcohol level is reached.

answer

d

question

11.1-17. The typical course of alcohol-related disorder a. is always a continuous and gradual decline. b. is a rapid decline followed by abstinence. c. is a gradual decline followed by increasing physical problems. d. is varied but often progresses from early to late stage disorder.

answer

d

question

11.1-18. Passing out from a high blood level of alcohol a. may actually be a safety device. b. means a person has not yet developed tolerance. c. means that a person's blackouts have worsened and increased over time. d. may be the result of an allergic reaction to alcohol.

answer

a

question

11.1-19. Which of the following is a misconception about alcohol? a. A person with a strong will cannot become an alcoholic. b. Alcohol can interfere with sleep. c. Mixing different types of alcohol does not make people more drunk than the same amount of a single type. d. Drinking coffee does not counteract the effects of alcohol.

answer

a

question

11.1-20. Which of the following best explains why women tend to not "hold their booze" as well as men? a. Women tend to eat less. b. Women metabolize alcohol less quickly than men. c. Women usually drink more quickly than men. d. Women tend to drink mixed drinks, while men prefer beer.

answer

b

question

11.1-21. Cirrhosis of the liver a. is a rare complication of alcoholism. b. is due to an allergic-type reaction of the body to alcohol. c. is caused by overworking the liver trying to assimilate large amounts of alcohol. d. is debilitating but rarely fatal.

answer

c

question

11.1-22. Heavy drinking during pregnancy, especially the early part, often causes a. Down syndrome in the child. b. incomplete fusion of the spinal canal in the child. c. aggressiveness and withdrawal in the child. d. premature birth and higher rates of still-births.

answer

c

question

11.1-23. Malnutrition a. does not occur in alcoholics since alcohol provides both calories and nutrients. b. only occurs when alcoholics are destitute and not able to afford to purchase food. c. may occur in alcoholics since alcohol interferes with the body's ability to use nutrients. d. is rare among alcoholics because alcohol is most commonly consumed with food.

answer

c

question

11.1-24. Bertha has been drinking to excess for many years. She is malnourished. This is because a. alcohol has few calories. b. alcohol impairs the body's ability to utilize nutrients. c. alcoholism impairs her ability to choose healthy foods. d. alcoholism causes people to lose their appetites.

answer

b

question

11.1-25. Alcohol amnestic disorder may occur due to a. low thiamine levels. b. decreased GABA levels. c. high opioid levels. d. impaired serotonergic functioning.

answer

a

question

11.1-26. Alcohol withdrawal delirium a. occurs when alcohol and other drugs are used simultaneously. b. most commonly occurs in alcoholics who suffer from a mood or personality disorder. c. typically lasts from three to six days. d. is characterized by dissociative and amnesic symptoms.

answer

c

question

11.1-27. Your text describes two commonly recognized psychotic reactions to alcohol. They are a. alcoholic tolerance and alcoholic withdrawal. b. what used to be called "alcohol dependence" and "alcohol withdrawal." c. what used to be called "delirium tremens" and "Korsakoff's psychosis." d. alcohol intoxication and alcohol amnestic disorder.

answer

c

question

11.1-28. Korsakoff's psychosis is now known as a. alcoholic withdrawal. b. alcohol withdrawal delirium. c. delirium tremens. d. alcohol amnestic disorder.

answer

d

question

11.1-29. When John stopped drinking after his last week-long binge, he became very ill. He was disoriented, hallucinating, and paranoid. John seems to be experiencing a. a severe hangover. b. alcohol withdrawal delirium. c. alcohol amnestic disorder. d. alcohol-induced psychosis.

answer

b

question

11.1-30. Betty was admitted to the hospital in a state of withdrawal from alcohol. She was diagnosed with alcohol withdrawal delirium (formerly known as delirium tremens). She most likely showed which of the following behaviors? a. Delusions of grandeur and an inability to get to sleep b. Disorientation for time and place and vivid hallucinations c. Severe memory deficit and the tendency to falsify reporting events (confabulation) d. Prolonged sleep followed by convulsions and heart failure

answer

b

question

11.1-31. The central feature of alcohol amnestic disorder is a. the presence of hallucinations. b. a deep sleep, following which the individual has no memory of past events. c. acute fear and extreme suggestibility. d. a memory defect for recent events.

answer

d

question

11.1-32. Concerning the causes of alcoholism, a. there are probably several different patterns of causes associated with several different types of alcohol dependence. b. there is strong evidence that individuals at risk for alcohol dependence inherit a faulty metabolism. c. most research evidence points to genetic liability as the primary cause of alcohol dependence in men, but not in women. d. the causes of alcohol dependence are primarily psychosocial rather than biological in nature.

answer

a

question

11.1-33. All drugs that people become dependent upon a. are socially acceptable. b. act on pleasure pathways in the brain. c. provide the user with renewed energy. d. produce withdrawal symptoms when use is ceased.

answer

b

question

11.1-34. What is the role of the mesocorticolimbic dopamine pathway (MCLP)? a. It is the area of the brain that is activated by drugs and that produces euphoria. b. It is the area of the brain that is destroyed by alcohol and leads to amnestic disorder. c. It metabolizes all psychoactive drugs. d. It explains why genetically vulnerable individuals have altered brain wave patterns.

answer

a

question

11.1-35. Studies of the genetics of alcoholism a. have not provided support for the notion that a susceptibility to alcoholism can be inherited. b. are not able to determine if the tendency of alcoholism to "run in families" is a result of environmental or biological factors. c. suggest that an inherited altered sensitivity to alcohol might create a vulnerability to alcohol abuse. d. have identified the gene that causes alcoholism.

answer

c

question

11.1-36. James has two alcoholic parents. Research suggests that his risk for alcoholism is a. nearly 100 percent. b. greater than if he had one alcoholic parent. c. no greater than if he had one alcoholic parent. d. about 10 percent higher than if he had no alcoholic parents.

answer

b

question

11.1-37. Men who are at high risk for becoming alcoholics a. experience more pleasure when they ingest alcohol than nonalcoholic men. b. experience greater lessening of feelings of stress after alcohol consumption than nonalcoholic men. c. tend to be more impulsive than the general population. d. respond less dramatically to alcohol related-cues than nonalcoholic men.

answer

b

question

11.1-38. Which of the following men has an alcohol-risk personality? a. Tim, who is shy, anxious, and withdrawn. b. Brian, who is organized, detail-oriented, and ambitious. c. Sean, who is impulsive, risk-taking, and poor at planning. d. Art, who is frequently depressed and has a low level of self-esteem.

answer

c

question

11.1-39. Rates of alcoholism among Asian populations are ________ than among European peoples. This fact may be related to ________. a. higher; genetic differences in the sensitivity of the MCLP b. higher; genetic differences in the ability to metabolize alcohol c. lower; religious differences in the acceptability of alcohol d. lower; a mutant enzyme that leads to hypersensitive reactions to alcohol

answer

d

question

11.1-40. The "alcohol flush reaction" a. is seen during alcohol withdrawal. b. produces a spike in blood pressure and body temperature. c. results from an inability to metabolize alcohol. d. might explain the reduced rate of alcoholism seen among Native American peoples.

answer

c

question

11.1-41. One limitation on the findings of genetic influences on alcoholism is that a. not enough research has been done using twins. b. there are so many cultural differences in the use of alcohol that it blurs the genetic differences. c. there have not been enough studies of the majority of children of alcoholics (those who do not become alcoholics). d. there has been too much of a focus on the study of the nonalcoholic children of alcoholics.

answer

c

question

11.1-42. Which of the following is a common personality characteristic of those who later abuse alcohol? a. overly sensitive to the feelings of others b. high tolerance for frustration c. strong need for praise and admiration d. over-certainty of ability to fulfill expected gender roles

answer

c

question

11.1-43. Which parenting skill or parental behavior is most associated with adolescent substance use? a. Overindulging children by giving them too many gifts and privileges b. Restricting children from any form of experimentation with alcohol and other drugs c. Restricting the expression of positive emotions d. Lack of monitoring the adolescent's activities

answer

d

question

11.1-44. Persons at high risk for developing alcohol-related problems tend to be more ________ than those at low risk. a. impulsive b. vain c. dependent d. submissive

answer

a

question

11.1-45. Which statement about alcohol abuse disorders and other psychological disorders is accurate? a. Since alcohol has a negative effect on neurotransmitters, it is extremely rare for people with schizophrenia to become alcohol or drug dependent. b. Since alcohol has an anti-anxiety effect, most of the people who are alcohol dependent and have another disorder suffer from generalized anxiety disorder. c. The personality disorder most often associated with alcohol abuse is antisocial personality disorder. d. The personality disorder most often associated with alcohol abuse is obsessive compulsive personality disorder.

answer

c

question

11.1-46. The individual with which of the following diagnoses is most likely to also abuse alcohol? a. Borderline personality disorder b. Antisocial personality disorder c. Dissociative identity disorder d. Somatization disorder

answer

b

question

11.1-47. Rosa comes to you for treatment of her alcohol abuse. You suspect that she might have some other disorder as well. Why is it important for you to evaluate her status? a. Treating another disorder, when present along with alcohol abuse, usually clears up the excessive drinking as well. b. Her genetic liability may be much stronger if the alcohol abuse is the only disorder. c. The other disorder should be treated first. d. The co-occurrence of another mental disorder has a very significant effect on treatment outcome.

answer

d

question

11.1-48. According to the tension-reduction explanation for alcoholism, a. alcoholics drink more because they are under greater stress. b. all those who experience stress-reduction following alcohol consumption are at an increased risk for alcoholism. c. alcoholics do not get "high" when they drink, they merely experience a decrease in negative mood states. d. alcohol's ability to alleviate tension should be enhanced in those with a genetic susceptibility to alcoholism.

answer

b

question

11.1-49. The tension-reduction model of alcoholism a. does not explain why some excessive drinkers are able to maintain control over their drinking while others are not. b. suggests that alcoholism is environmentally determined. c. proposes that alcoholism is an incurable disease. d. provides an explanation for the role that personality traits play in the development of alcohol abuse.

answer

a

question

11.1-50. The reciprocal influence model of alcohol use suggests that a. expectancies of social benefit can influence adolescents to begin or to continue drinking. b. the final common pathway of alcohol use is motivation. c. alcoholics are especially intolerant of stress, and thus susceptible to the tension-reducing properties of alcohol. d. marital partners may enable one another to continue drinking.

answer

a

question

11.1-51. The reciprocal influence model is best described as a ________ explanation for teen drinking. a. behavioral b. cognitive c. psychodynamic d. sociocultural

answer

b

question

11.1-52. The reciprocal influence model suggests that a. teens will start drinking early no matter what. b. it may be possible to interrupt the cycle by changing expectancies about drinking. c. it would be hard to interrupt the cycle because most teens' expectancies about drinking are accurate. d. even with different expectancies, teens still drink.

answer

b

question

11.1-53. Problematic drinking behavior commonly develops during a. a period of great success in an individual's life. b. old age. c. crisis periods in a marriage or other intimate personal relationship. d. the transition to middle age.

answer

c

question

11.1-54. A moderating variable is a. something that makes a person more or less likely to inherit a disorder such as alcoholism. b. something that influences the connection between two other variables. c. something that causes alcoholics not to have as strong a reaction to alcohol as earlier. d. something that causes some alcoholics not to have as much impairment as others.

answer

b

question

11.1-55. An example of a moderating influence would be a. the effect of time on outcome expectancy about alcohol. b. a wife enabling her husband to continue drinking by making excuses for him. c. a gene that reduces the chances of a person becoming an alcoholic. d. the impact of therapy on the divorce and suicide rates of alcoholics.

answer

a

question

11.1-56. Bill is an alcoholic. His wife, Marge, has a lot of ready excuses she uses to explain to his boss, their friends, and their children to explain his frequent absences. This is an example of a. how marriages of alcoholics often last a long time. b. why treatment needs to include identifying factors that may encourage drinking. c. how marriage can increase the risk of alcoholism. d. why most alcoholics rate their marriages as successful.

answer

b

question

11.1-57. Binge drinking in college a. is not as common as most people think. b. leads to alcoholism later in life. c. can lead to many alcohol-related health and life problems. d. leads to more problems for men than women.

answer

c

question

11.1-58. The incidence of alcoholism among Muslims and Mormons is low because a. individuals who practice these religions are likely to live in areas where alcohol is not readily available. b. these religions prohibit alcohol consumption. c. members of both groups are likely to have inherited an inability to metabolize alcohol properly. d. strong family and community bonds protect these populations from all psychological disorders.

answer

b

question

11.1-59. Which of the following countries has the highest per capita rate of alcohol consumption? a. Argentina b. France c. Germany d. United States

answer

b

question

11.1-60. Which of the following is the most significant barrier to getting an alcoholic into treatment? a. The availability of alcohol b. The detoxification process c. Overcoming denial d. Finding a suitable treatment program

answer

c

question

11.1-61. Why might opiate antagonists be used in the treatment of alcoholism? a. To minimize withdrawal b. To minimize cravings c. To make alcohol aversive d. To prevent alcohol from acting on the brain's reward system

answer

b

question

11.1-62. What complicates the use of Antabuse in the treatment of alcoholism? a. While it lessens cravings, it does nothing to improve negative mood states. b. There is a risk of dependence. c. It has to be administered intravenously. d. Exposure to all alcohol must be avoided.

answer

d

question

11.1-63. Randy has been dependent on alcohol for at least ten years. Drinking has ruined his marriage, his occupational standing, and his health. If a friend told Randy that he needed to enter treatment, and Randy responded the way most alcohol dependent people do, he would probably say a. "Alcohol is my enemy but I don't think I am strong enough to combat it." b. "I have an addictive personality and without help, I will never overcome my addiction." c. "You have a very good point; I need to do some serious thinking about getting treatment." d. "Who do you think you are attacking me? You are the one with the problem."

answer

d

question

11.1-64. Adam and Beth are both being treated for alcohol dependence by being given medications. Adam's medication makes him vomit if he drinks after taking it. Beth's medication reduces her craving for alcohol. Most likely Adam is taking ________; Beth is taking ________. a. methadone; Naltrexone b. Naltrexone; methadone c. methadone; Antabuse d. Antabuse; Naltrexone

answer

d

question

11.1-65. The first stage in the treatment of any form of substance dependence is a. group psychotherapy. b. treating physical withdrawal symptoms. c. the use of Antabuse. d. the administration of antidepressants.

answer

b

question

11.1-66. Aversive conditioning for alcoholics a. punishes the alcoholic for drinking by making him or her sick after drinking. b. uses educational and life skills training to help the alcoholic understand the negative aspects of drinking. c. includes family members to try to help the alcoholic understand the harm his or her behaviors have done. d. involves pairing alcohol with something unpleasant like electric shock.

answer

d

question

11.1-67. Controlled drinking - teaching alcoholics to drink in moderation - a. has been generally accepted as a useful treatment. b. is incorporated in Brief Motivational Intervention c. works better than complete abstinence. d. seems to work well for all types of alcoholics.

answer

b

question

11.1-68. "I am a person who has an affliction-I cannot drink like social drinkers. Spiritual change may help me in recovering from my addiction, but I will be an alcoholic for life." The person who said this would feel most comfortable in ________. a. relapse prevention b. Alcoholics Anonymous c. aversive conditioning treatment d. a replacement program

answer

b

question

11.1-69. In contrast to some other treatment programs, Alcoholics Anonymous a. offers both group and one-on-one support. b. is successful, but only with severe alcoholics who have "hit bottom." c. uses primarily psychodynamic interventions, although advocates of AA would disagree. d. has a low dropout rate.

answer

a

question

11.1-70. Which statement about Project MATCH is accurate? a. It showed that matching a client's personality to a form of treatment makes no difference. b. It proved that treatment based on Alcoholics Anonymous is superior to other forms of treatment. c. It showed that treatments only work when they are carefully matched with the personality profiles of the clients in them. d. It proved that therapists must establish warm relationships with their clients in order for therapy to be effective.

answer

a

question

11.1-71. Which type of treatment for alcoholism has been found to be most effective? a. Inpatient treatment b. Outpatient treatment c. Twelve-step programs d. All were about equal

answer

d

question

11.1-72. The abstinence violation effect is a. the relapse rate percentage used in treatment outcome studies of addicts. b. the effect that physiologically addicting drugs have in making continued abstinence difficult. c. the tendency of an abstainer to relapse completely after a minor transgression. d. the Alcoholics Anonymous phrase for relapsing.

answer

c

question

11.1-73. What type of treatment focuses primarily on clients learning to recognize situations that are likely to trigger drinking? a. Alcoholics Anonymous b. Motivational Enhancement Therapy c. Relapse Prevention Treatment d. Abstinence Violation Prevention

answer

c

question

13.1-1. Psychosis is a striking and essential feature of schizophrenia. Psychosis means a. a tendency to be unpredictably violent. b. a significant loss of contact with reality. c. an inability to know right from wrong. d. an abrupt shift in personality from one pattern to another.

answer

b

question

13.1-2. Schizophrenia occurs in about ________ of the general population. a. 1 out of 1,000 b. 1 out of 100 c. 1 out of 10 d. 1 out of 10,000

answer

b

question

13.1-3. Which of the following accounts for the belief that schizophrenia is becoming more common in males than females? a. Males are more likely to hallucinate than females so may be overdiagnosed. b. Men are more likely to seek treatment. c. Females with schizophrenia have less severe symptoms so may be misdiagnosed. d. Women respond better to treatment than men.

answer

c

question

13.1-4. Which of the following people has the highest risk of developing schizophrenia? a. A person who came from New Guinea b. Someone who was physically abused as a child c. A person whose father was over 50 when he/she was born d. Someone who has a history of depression

answer

c

question

13.1-5. The majority of cases of schizophrenia begin in a. late adulthood or old age. b. late adolescence or early adulthood. c. late childhood or early adolescence. d. there is no age where the majority of cases begin.

answer

b

question

13.1-6. The term "demence precoce" was used by Benedict Morel to describe schizophrenia and to also explain the a. lack of brain damage that characterizes the brain of most schizophrenics. b. effectiveness of psychological treatments for schizophrenia. c. transient nature of most schizophrenias. d. difference between schizophrenia and dementias of old age.

answer

d

question

13.1-7. One disadvantage of early descriptions of schiziophrenia, such as Kraepelin's use of the term "dementia praecox," is that a. they assumed that what we call schizophrenia only occurred in elderly patients. b. they were actually describing Alzheimer's dementia, not schizophrenia. c. they did not distinguish between the varying types of schizophrenia that we know about today. d. they assumed the intellectual functioning of patients remained constant even as their bodies aged.

answer

c

question

13.1-8. When Bleuler coined the term "schizophrenia," the kind of split he believed was central to the disorder was a. a division of personality within the person. b. a divergence between the person's chronological age and his or her intellectual performance. c. an inability to make an intimate connection with other people. d. a break with reality.

answer

d

question

13.1-9. Kraepelin used the term "praecox" to convey that schizophrenia typically develops early in life. The actual age of onset of the condition a. typically is during the early teenage years. b. typically is during the mid-twenties. c. typically is during the mid-thirties. d. typically is during the mid-forties.

answer

b

question

13.1-10. Joe has a delusional belief. When people argue with him, a. he admits he could be wrong. b. he only admits he is wrong after being shown more proof than most people would need. c. he doesn't admit he is wrong to other people, but he admits it to himself. d. he doesn't admit he could be wrong, no matter what proof he is shown.

answer

d

question

13.1-11. Delusions are a. perceptions with no basis in reality. b. only seen in schizophrenia. c. necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. d. disturbances in the content of thought.

answer

d

question

13.1-12. Which of the following is an example of a delusion? a. Bob thought the CIA was controlling his thoughts. b. The voices in Jaimie's head told him not to trust the priest. c. Tracy did not think she could get pregnant the first time she had sex. d. Carla saw and felt bugs crawling up her arm.

answer

a

question

13.1-13. Sterling believes that the TV special that was on last night was shown to tell her that she should break up with her boyfriend. She is absolutely certain this is true and plans to do it. This type of belief is an example of a a. thought broadcasting delusion. b. delusion of reference. c. made feelings delusion. d.thought insertion delusion.

answer

b

question

13.1-14. How common are delusions in schizophrenia? a. They are experienced by approximately 50 percent of schizophrenics. b. Delusions are an essential feature of schizophrenia; the presence of delusions is required for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. c. Over 90 percent of those with schizophrenia experience delusions. d. While hallucinations are a common occurrence in schizophrenia, delusions are rare.

answer

c

question

13.1-15. Hallucinations are a. sensory experiences with no basis in reality. b. only seen in schizophrenia. c. necessary for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. d. disturbances in the content of thought.

answer

a

question

13.1-16. Which of the following is an example of the most common type of hallucination seen in schizophrenia? a. Bill was convinced that his mother was inserting evil thoughts into his mind. b. Sondra tried to ignore the voices in her head. c. Ned believed he was Elvis. d. Rachel would frequently see her husband, even though he had been dead for several years.

answer

b

question

13.1-17. What type of hallucinations are the most common? a. Auditory b. Tactile c. Visual d. Gustatory

answer

a

question

13.1-18. Neuroimaging studies of hallucinating patients suggest that auditory hallucinations a. are actually heard. b. are usually drug induced. c. may reflect a cognitive error. d. activate the brain areas involved in speech comprehension.

answer

c

question

13.1-19. People with schizophrenia may have difficulty with the form of thought - in other words, their thoughts do not make sense. The observable sign of this is a. a delusion. b. a hallucination. c. disorganized speech. d. disorganized behavior.

answer

c

question

13.1-20. "My father and I swiggered to the beach yesterday." This is an example of a a. delusion. b. auditory hallucination. c. negative symptom. d. neologism.

answer

d

question

13.1-21. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom of schizophrenia? a. Julia heard voices that told her she was evil. b. Karen no longer socialized with her friends. c. Ellen suspected that her husband had poisoned her food. d. Georgia's speech sounded normal, but made no sense.

answer

b

question

13.1-22. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom? a. Hallucinations b. Emotional unresponsiveness c. Emotional turmoil d. Delusions

answer

b

question

13.1-23. Negative symptoms a. are those that are harmful. b. are more disturbing to the patient than positive symptoms. c. are a common side effect of antipsychotic medications. d. are characterized as an absence or deficit of normal behaviors.

answer

d

question

13.1-24. Over the course of the disorder, most individuals with schizophrenia a. show either positive-syndrome or negative-syndrome types. b. show the Type II form exclusively. c. develop the "disorganized" form of the disorder. d. display a mix of positive and negative symptoms.

answer

d

question

13.1-25. Which of the following is most likely seen in an individual with paranoid schizophrenia? a. Have delusions of reference b. Exhibit primarily negative symptoms c. Show more significant cognitive impairments than are seen in the other subtypes d. Respond poorly to treatment

answer

a

question

13.1-26. Which of the following people is more likely exhibiting paranoid schizophrenia? a. The teen who has been in a catatonic state for several days b. The woman who believes she is being persecuted because she is Helen of Troy c. The man who shows little emotion,and who makes no sense when he speaks d. The mother of three who first showed signs of schizophrenia in her teens and now is unable to care for herself or her children.

answer

b

question

13.1-27. Disorganized schizophrenia a. is most commonly seen in women. b. is characterized by disorganized speech. c. usually develops in late adulthood. d. responds well to treatment.

answer

b

question

13.1-28. Which of the following is likely a sign of disorganized schizophrenia? a. Dillon believes he is God, but will respond to any direction he is given. b. Peter appears to feel no emotion and tends to make odd facial expressions and movements. c. Kyle constantly is asking for a doctor as he is convinced that his stomach is going to explode. d. Trista fears for her life because the pictures on the wall have told her that she is not safe.

answer

b

question

13.1-29. Which of the following statements is correct about changes for the diagnosis of schizophrenia in the DSM-5? a. Schizophrenia will not be included in the DSM-5 b. Subtypes of schizophrenia were removed but the diagnosis of schizophrenia will remain c. Only the paranoid subtype remains d. Only the catatonic subtype remains

answer

b

question

13.1-30. Moira is schizophrenic. She giggles a lot, acts silly, and talks "baby talk." She experiences frequent auditory hallucinations and bizarre delusions. Moira most likely belongs to the ________ subtype of schizophrenia. a. disorganized b. undifferentiated c. residual d. catatonic

answer

a

question

13.1-31. Patients in a catatonic stupor a. are highly suggestible. b. experience overwhelming hallucinations. c. exhibit both echopraxia and echolalia. d. show pronounced motor signs.

answer

d

question

13.1-32. DeJuan is highly suggestible and automatically obeys the commands of his brother. He sometimes stands in the same strange posture for hours despite his hands and feet becoming swollen due to immobility. This has been going on for over a year. Which diagnosis does this best illustrate? a. schizophrenia b. schizoaffective disorder c. schizotypal disorder d. schizophreniform disorder

answer

a

question

13.1-33. Which of the following best describes the person with paranoid schizophrenia? a. Jake, who shows bizarre behavior, delusions, and disordered speech but has normal emotions. b. Lincoln, whose schizophrenia involves a chronic pattern of wild excitement followed by muteness and immobility. c. Constance, whose speech is incoherent and filled with invented words but whose emotions are inconsistent and inappropriate for the situation. d. Pauline, who is convinced that her husband is poisoning her food and can hear voices (that others cannot hear) calling her a liar and a thief.

answer

d

question

13.1-34. There is some debate as to whether ________ is a variant of schizophrenia or a form of mood disorder. a. residual type b. schizoaffective disorder c. schizophreniform disorder d. undifferentiated type

answer

b

question

13.1-35. Julia clearly had psychotic symptoms. As she also showed symptoms of bipolar disorder, she was ultimately diagnosed with a. residual type. b. schizoaffective disorder. c. schizophreniform disorder. d. undifferentiated type.

answer

b

question

13.1-36. Virginia exhibits a variety of schizophrenic symptoms including delusions, auditory hallucinations, and formal thought disorder. She has been symptomatic for a little more than a month. Virginia qualifies for a diagnosis of a. paranoid schizophrenia. b. schizoaffective disorder, manic type. c. undifferentiated schizophrenia. d. schizophreniform disorder.

answer

d

question

13.1-37. Which of the following could be described as "short-term" schizophrenia? a. Undifferentiated schizophrenia b. Schizoaffective disorder c. Delusional disorder d. Schizophreniform disorder

answer

d

question

13.1-38. The individual diagnosed with schizophreniform disorder a. has a mild case of schizophrenia combined with signs of a mood disorder. b. usually exhibits symptoms of schizophrenia that last for at least a month but less than 6 months. c. is likely to take actions based on their delusions. d. experiences a schizophrenia-like psychosis that lasts for less than a month.

answer

b

question

13.1-39. Harold and Tanya both have a wide range of schizophrenic symptoms. Harold's symptoms have lasted for eight months; Tanya's have lasted only eight weeks. According to the DSM-5, their diagnoses should be a. schizophrenia for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya. b. disorganized schizophrenia for Harold; schizophrenia for Tanya. c. schizoaffective disorder for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya. d. schizophreniform disorder for Harold; brief psychotic disorder for Tanya.

answer

a

question

13.1-39. Harold and Tanya both have a wide range of schizophrenic symptoms. Harold's symptoms have lasted for eight months; Tanya's have lasted only eight weeks. According to the DSM-5, their diagnoses should be a. schizophrenia for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya. b. disorganized schizophrenia for Harold; schizophrenia for Tanya. c. schizoaffective disorder for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya. d. schizophreniform disorder for Harold; brief psychotic disorder for Tanya.

answer

a

question

13.1-41. Individuals with delusional disorder differ from those with schizophrenia in that a. they behave relatively normally other than the delusions. b. their delusions are not well-formed. c. they know their delusions are delusions. d. they rarely act on their delusions.

answer

a

question

13.1-42. Which of the following statements most clearly summarizes our understanding of schizophrenia? a. The relative influence of nature and nurture has been established. b. While much is known about the causes of schizophrenia, there are many questions still to be answered. c. The role of genes in schizophrenia is negligible. d. Schizophrenia is primarily caused by expressed emotion in families.

answer

b

question

13.1-43. Most of the evidence suggests that, if schizophrenia is inherited, it a. is due to an abnormality on Chromosome 21. b. involves one or two genes. c. is a sex-linked, recessive condition. d. involves a multitude of genes that work in concert.

answer

d

question

13.1-44. In genetic studies, a "proband" or "index case" is someone who a. is related to someone with the disorder of interest. b. shows signs of the disorder of interest. c. shares at least 25 percent of his or her genes with an affected subject. d. has the disorder of interest.

answer

d

question

13.1-45. Both of Mary's parents have been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Bob has an identical twin who has schizophrenia. Who is more likely to develop schizophrenia and why? a. Bob, because he is male and has a family history of schizophrenia. b. Mary, because all of her genes come from her parents and they both have the disease. c. Bob, because he has inherited the same susceptibility that his twin is expressing. d. Mary, because females are more susceptible than males to the genetic forms of schizophrenia.

answer

c

question

13.1-46. "Familial" does not mean the same thing as "genetic" because a. families don't always share genes. b. families share both genes and the environment. c. genes are not expressed in every generation. d. the strength of the correlations seen in familial concordance patterns does not allow any conclusions to be made.

answer

b

question

13.1-47. Studies of family concordance patterns for schizophrenia have found a. little evidence of increased concordance with increased gene-sharing. b. such strong correspondence between gene-sharing and diagnosis that environmental factors have been ruled out. c. strong correspondence between gene-sharing and diagnosis but only for males. d. that the more genetically related you are to someone with schizophrenia, the greater your risk of the disorder.

answer

d

question

13.1-48. Lori just found out that she is pregnant. Her husband has schizophrenia. What is her unborn child's risk of developing schizophrenia? a. 1 percent b. 10 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent

answer

b

question

13.1-49. If schizophrenia were exclusively a genetic disorder, a. anyone with schizophrenia in his or her family history would develop schizophrenia. b. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be 100 percent. c. marrying a schizophrenic would not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. d. numerous cures would now be available.

answer

b

question

13.1-50. Studies of the offspring of nonschizophrenic co-twins from discordant twin pairs suggest that a. environmental factors play a more important role than genetic factors in the origin of schizophrenia. b. genetic factors cause schizophrenia, while environmental factors are essentially unimportant. c. a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia may remain unexpressed in some individuals unless it is released by some unknown environmental factors. d. the heritability of schizophrenia involves the transmission of a single dominant gene.

answer

c

question

13.1-51. Adoption studies are typically used a. to establish the primary role that the environment plays in most disorders. b. to separate the effects of nature and nurture. c. to assess the effectiveness of long-term treatment protocols. d. in order to isolate the environmental factors that "trigger" a disorder.

answer

b

question

13.1-52. The Danish adoption studies have been criticized for a. not treating the subjects found to have schizophrenia. b. not assessing the child-rearing environments of the index and control groups. c. only studying males. d.not confirming the family history of the subjects.

answer

b

question

13.1-53. When adoption studies of schizophrenia contain all the necessary controls and measurements, a. the role of genes is found to be negligible. b. index subjects are more likely to develop schizophrenia than the control subjects. c. the environment is found to be a more important determinant of psychological health than family history. d. no significant effects are seen.

answer

b

question

13.1-54. Communication deviance a. may be an environmental risk factor for the development of schizophrenia. b. is an early indication of schizophrenia. c. is not seen in control adoptees. d. and disordered speech are the same thing.

answer

a

question

13.1-55. Studies of adopted children who were at high-risk for developing schizophrenia found that which of the following appeared to increase the likelihood that these children would show high levels of thought disorders? a. Vague, confusing, and unclear communication b. Physical abuse c. Permissive parenting d. Divorce

answer

a

question

13.1-56. Adopted children who were high risk for schizophrenia, who were raised in healthy families, a. showed the same risk for schizophrenia as those adopted into dysfunctional families - genes were the most important factor. b. showed higher risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - they had trouble fitting in with the family. c. showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - a good environment may protect people with genetic vulnerabilities from developing schizophrenia. d. showed lower risk for schizophrenia than those adopted into dysfunctional families - the environment causes people to develop schizophrenia, not genes.

answer

c

question

13.1-57. Linkage analysis a. is being used to help locate genes associated with schizophrenia. b. is being used to identify family risk factors. c. is being used to find the connections between stress and schizophrenia. d.is being used to show problems in connections between neurons.

answer

a

question

13.1-58. Which of the following is a plausible explanation for how maternal influenza might lead to schizophrenia later in life? a. The flu virus may lie dormant in the brain until adolescence when it becomes active and initiates the degeneration that results in the symptoms of schizophrenia. b. The flu exposure may alter the fetal genes such that a susceptibility to schizophrenia is now part of the child's genetic makeup. c. Maternal antibodies could cross the placenta and interfere with brain development such that the risk of developing schizophrenia is enhanced later in life. d. The flu virus frequently has long-term effects on the behavior of affected individuals; maternal infection with influenza may result in an environment that is likely to trigger schizophrenia in the susceptible individual.

answer

c

question

13.1-59. The finding that prenatal viral exposure, rhesus incompatibility, and early nutritional deficiency are associated with an increased risk of developing schizophrenia indicates that a. genes do not play a role in vulnerability to schizophrenia. b. anything that interferes with normal brain development might lead to a greater risk of schizophrenia. c. environmental factors are more important than genetic factors when it comes to determining who is likely to develop schizophrenia. d. the results of twin studies reflect the impact of a shared prenatal environment, not shared genes.

answer

b

question

13.1-60. Which of the following has been found to lead to an increased risk of developing schizophrenia? a. Prenatal alcohol exposure. b. Prenatal influenza exposure. c. Alcohol use during middle adulthood. d. Influenza exposure between ages 5 and 10.

answer

b

question

13.1-61. Schizophrenia is best described as a a. genetically influenced single gene disorder. b. genetically influenced multiple gene disorder. c. genetically determined single gene disorder. d. genetically determined multiple gene disorder.

answer

b

question

13.1-62. Studies of monochorionic and dichorionic twins a. offer further evidence of the role of the prenatal environment in schizophrenia. b. suggest that schizophrenia is more heritable than previously thought. c. indicate that the risk of developing schizophrenia is not altered by the prenatal environment. d. establish that genetic relatedness to an affected individual has nothing to do with one's risk of developing schizophrenia.

answer

a

question

13.1-63. The fact that a significant number of monozygotic twins share the same placenta, while no dizygotic twins do, suggests that a. we may have overestimated the influence of genetics in schizophrenia. b. being a monozygotic twin is a risk factor for schizophrenia. c. genetic influences are even more important than previously thought. d. monozygotic twins have a form of genetic schizophrenia while dizygotic twins have an environmentally caused form.

answer

a

question

13.1-64. Based on current research, which statement is most justified? a. Genetics play such a strong role, they are a sufficient condition for schizophrenia. b. Genetics increase a person's vulnerability to develop schizophrenia. c. Genetics may not be sufficient for schizophrenia, but everyone who develops schizophrenia must have some number of "schizophrenia genes." d. Genetics cannot play a significant role in the cause of schizophrenia because most people with the disorder have no close relatives who have it.

answer

b

question

13.1-65. Enlarged brain ventricles a. are seen in all schizophrenics. b. suggest that there has been a loss of brain tissue. c. are more commonly seen in the brains of paranoid schizophrenics. d. can be used to confirm a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder.

answer

b

question

13.1-66. Compared to his nonschizophrenic identical twin, Matthew (who is schizophrenic) is more likely to a. have been born with physical birth defects. b. have been considered "different" or "odd" in childhood. c. have a higher intelligence level on IQ tests. d. be artistically or musically talented.

answer

b

question

13.1-67. What is the value of research that monitors children at high risk for schizophrenia for a long time? a. It can identify the specific genes responsible for the disorder. b. It can identify factors that precede breakdown and aid in intervention efforts. c. It can separate the impact of genetics from that of subtle neurological impairment. d. It can identify the factors that improve treatment outcome.

answer

b

question

13.1-68. Based on developmental studies of children who later developed schizophrenia, a. it is usually impossible to detect early signs of the disorder. b. the first signs are usually delusions or hallucinations. c. the first signs are usually seen in the way children move. d. the first signs are usually seen in speech problems.

answer

c

question

13.1-69. What are endophenotypes? a. Abnormally shaped cells in the brain b. Neurotransmitters that are slightly different in chemical composition than normal c. Measurable traits that are thought to be linked to specific genes that might be important in schizophrenia d. Specific chromosomes that are thought to be important in the genetic transmission of schizophrenia

answer

c

question

13.1-70. Why might Kraepelin's idea that schizophrenia was similar to dementia not be as far from the truth as previously thought? a. Evidence suggests that there sometimes are progressive changes in brain volume over time in people with schizophrenia. b. The symptoms of the two disorders overlap tremendously. c. On autopsy, people with schizophrenia show the same smoothing of the brain as is seen in people with dementia. d. The same biological treatments work for both disorders.

answer

a

question

13.1-71. Which of the following is a brain area that has been shown to be involved in schizophrenia? a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe c. Hippocampus d. Hypothalamus

answer

c

question

13.1-72. Ursula has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. If PET scans were done to measure her brain's activity, which area would probably be underactive? a. The visual cortex b. The deepest portions of the brain, the medulla and reticular activating system c. The frontal lobes d. The hypothalamus and pituitary

answer

c

question

13.1-73. People with schizophrenia often show poor performance on tasks like the Wisconsin Card Sorting Task, which is thought to indicate a dysfunction of the a. parietal lobe. b. occipital lobe. c. temporal lobe. d. frontal lobe.

answer

d

question

13.1-74. Aberrant salience means that a. enlarged brain ventricles cause people with schizophrenia to be unable to concentrate. b. a large amount of communication deviance in the family can cause a person with schizophrenia to relapse. c. dysregulated dopamine can cause people with schizophrenia to pay too much attention to stimuli that are not actually important. d. people with schizophrenia often show unusual motor behaviors.

answer

c

question

13.1-75. There is a new trend to focus on dopamine receptor sensitivity rather than on dopamine itself because a. there is strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine. b. there is no strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have too much dopamine. c. the is strong evidence that people with schizophrenia have used too many drugs. d. there is only one type of dopamine receptor.

answer

b

question

13.1-76. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that researchers suspect might be involved in schizophrenia because a. it makes dopamine. b. it causes the ventricles to enlarge. c. it is missing in the brains of people with schizophrenia. d. alterations in glutamate levels can produce schizophrenic-like symptoms in normal subjects.

answer

d

question

13.1-77. Studies on neurocognition have found that people with schizophrenia a. are unable to pay attention on demand b. can't control their thoughts from jumping from topic to topic. c. have abnormal neurochemical changes in response to negative thoughts. d. get too focused on one thing and tune out the rest of the real world.

answer

a

question

13.1-78. A mother constantly demands that her son show her how much she is loved, but when he tries to hug her she yells at him to be more discreet. No matter what the child does, he is wrong. Further, the mother prohibits him from commenting on this paradox. What does this interaction pattern best illustrate? a. Double-bind communication b. Loosening of associations c. Fragmented thinking d. Expressed emotion

answer

a

question

13.1-79. One aspect of family environment that has been found to be important in schizophrenia is a. the level of expressed emotion. b. the level of parental grief over their child's illness. c. if the mother is cold and aloof. d. if lots of double-bind communications are used.

answer

a

question

13.1-80. What is a stressor that has been found to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia? a. Being an identical twin b. Being raised in an isolated rural area c. Being a recent immigrant d. Living alone

answer

c

question

13.1-81. Most people with schizophrenia a. are cured. b. remain hospitalized for the rest of their lives. c. continue to show signs of illness. d. develop other disorders.

answer

c

question

13.1-82. The best predictor of overall functioning over time for someone with schizophrenia is a. how much impairment the person suffers. b. how severe the person's positive symptoms are. c. how severe the person's negative symptoms are. d. how much therapy the person gets.

answer

c

question

13.1-83. First-generation antipsychotics a. work by blocking dopamine receptors. b. are not effective. c. produce few side effects. d. include Risperdal and Zyprexa.

answer

a

question

13.1-84. The first-generation antipsychotics seem to work because they block dopamine. This is supported by the new research findings that a. patients report they feel better right away, although there isn't any actual clinical changes occurring. b. changes in symptoms occur without any side effects. c. changes in symptoms begin to occur weeks after starting to take the medications, rather than immediately. d. changes in symptoms begin to occur very quickly after starting the medications, not weeks later as previously thought.

answer

d

question

13.1-85. Extrapyramidal side effects a. are involuntary movements that result mainly from taking first-generation antipsychotic drugs. b. are often fatal side-effects from second-generation antipsychotic drugs. c. are an increase in mood (reduction in depression) that occurs in people with schizoaffective disorder. d. are voluntary, unusual movements that result mainly from taking second-generation antipsychotic drugs.

answer

a

question

13.1-86. Which of the following is true about second generation antipsychotics in the treatment of schizophrenia? a. They are more effective than first generation antipsychotics. b. They work by decreasing frontal lobe activity. c. They prevent prenatal brain damage. d. They are no more effective than first generation antipsychotics.

answer

d

question

13.1-87. Social-skills training for people with schizophrenia a. has been very successful in reducing symptoms. b. tries to help people learn a trade so they can earn a living. c. tries to help people gain the skills they need for daily living outside the hospital. d. tries to help cure people of schizophrenia.

answer

c

question

13.1-88. Which type of training has an emphasis on helping patients deal with their neurocognitive deficits? a. Cognitive remediation training b. Social skills training c. Case management d. Family therapy

answer

a

question

13.1-89. Cognitive-behavioral treatment for people with schizophrenia a. tries to help people learn a trade so they can earn a living. b. tries to help people gain the skills they need for daily living. c. tries to help people find the services they need in the community. d. tries to help people question their delusions to help reduce their intensity.

answer

d

question

13.1-90. One-on-one psychotherapy for people with schizophrenia a. shows very little promise. b. seems to be very effective when combined with medication. c. is an effective replacement for medication. d. has many side effects.

answer

b

question

3.1-1. Understanding the causes of mental disorders is important because a. effective treatment is not possible without such an understanding. b. classification of disorders cannot be done without such information. c. such knowledge might make both the prevention and cure of mental disorders possible. d. disagreements about the causes of psychopathology have long limited the advancements made in the study of abnormal psychology.

answer

c

question

3.1-2. Dr. Fox studies the causes of depression. In other words, she looks at factors that play a role in the ________ of depression. a. etiology b. epidemiology c. prevalence d. resiliency

answer

a

question

3.1-3. Etiology is a. a condition that tends to maintain maladaptive behavior. b. the causal pattern of a disorder. c. a predisposition toward developing a disorder. d. a condition that makes it less likely a person will experience the negative consequences of stress.

answer

b

question

3.1-4. In order to develop chicken pox, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pox. Note, however, that not everyone who is exposed to the virus is affected. In other words, the virus is a a. risk factor. b. necessary cause. c. sufficient cause. d. contributory cause.

answer

b

question

3.1-5. While having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a ________, but not a ________. a. risk factor; sufficient cause b. sufficient cause; necessary cause c. necessary cause; risk factor d. contributory cause; sufficient cause

answer

b

question

3.1-6. If having a gene for Parkinson's disease guarantees that Parkinson's disease will develop, the presence of the gene can be described as a a. risk factor. b. necessary cause. c. sufficient cause. d. contributory cause

answer

c

question

3.1-7. Suppose that the presence of a particular gene is a necessary cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The gene is also a sufficient cause for the occurrence of schizophrenia. b. There are other things besides this gene that can cause schizophrenia. c. Most people with schizophrenia will have that gene. d. A person with that gene may or may not become schizophrenic

answer

d

question

3.1-8. Childhood abuse is commonly seen in those who develop dissociative disorders later in life. Childhood abuse would best be described as a a. necessary contributory cause. b. proximal contributory cause. c. reinforcing contributory cause. d. distal contributory cause.

answer

d

question

.1-9. Karen was sexually abused by her father at the age of 5. She developed a severe separation anxiety reaction whenever her mother tried to leave. As an adult, Karen developed a dissociative disorder due to the same abuse. This is an example of how the same factor, in this case abuse, can be a. both a sufficient and a necessary cause. b. both a reinforcing contributory cause and a punishing contributory cause. c. both a primary and a secondary process. d. both a proximal and a distal causal factor.

answer

d

question

3.1-10. A couple is in counseling. She states that she drinks because he rejects her. He states that he rejects her because she drinks. It appears that in this example of bidirectionality a. the drinking is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage. b. the rejection is probably the actual predisposing cause for the problems in this marriage. c. the drinking and rejection influence and maintain each other. d. the drinking and rejection are caused by another third variable unknown to the couple.

answer

c

question

3.1-11. A diathesis can best be described as a a. proximal necessary cause. b. sufficient cause. c. contributory cause. d. proximal causal factor.

answer

c

question

3.1-12. A predisposition toward developing a disorder a. necessarily is biological. b. is called a diathesis. c. increases the likelihood of developing any given disorder by 50%. d. necessarily is a psycho-social stressor

answer

b

question

1-13. In the diathesis-stress model, a stressor is a. a distal, sufficient cause of a mental disorder. b. a necessary or contributory cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d. a biological vulnerability

answer

c

question

3.1-14. In the diathesis-stress model, a diathesis is a. a distal necessary or contributory cause of a mental disorder. b. a sufficient cause that is distal from the onset of symptoms. c. a necessary or contributory cause that is proximal to the onset of symptoms. d. a biological vulnerability that virtually guarantees the development of the disorder.

answer

a

question

3.1-15. Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that a. people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem. b. low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression. c. people with low self-esteem have a predisposition for developing depression. d. the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem will always trigger depression.

answer

c

question

3.1-16. The loss of a parent may be a. a stressor. b. a diathesis. c. a diathesis and/or a stressor. d. Neither a diathesis nor a stressor

answer

c

question

3.1-17. The additive model of the diathesis stress theory proposes that a. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need a very large amount of stress to develop the disorder. b. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder. c. someone with no diathesis will never develop the disorder. d. someone with no genes for the disorder will never develop the disorder

answer

b

question

3.1-18. A protective factor is a. an influence that modifies a person's response to environmental stressors. b. an influence that modifies a person's response to genetic problems. c. a distal causal factor for a mental disorder. d. a biological makeup that makes people more resistant to

answer

a

question

3.1-19. Ryan, age 8, was cut from the school soccer team. After the initial disappointment, he became a boy scout, which he really enjoyed. Now as an adult, when he did not get into graduate school, rather than become depressed, Ryan found a job in his field that he enjoys, and plans to try again later. This is an example of a. a necessary and sufficient cause. b. the diathesis-stress theory. c. the interactive model of the diathesis-stress theory. d. the steeling or inoculation effect of some stressful experiences

answer

d

question

3.1-20. According to the text, which of the following has not been identified as a potential protective factor? a. Exposure to moderate stressors b. High intelligence c. An introverted personality d. A warm and supportive parent

answer

c

question

3.1-21. When psychologists say that a person shows resilience, it means a. the person has not been faced with significant stressors. b. that regardless of the stresses the person faces, he or she will feel no emotional distress. c. the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances. d. recovering from traumatic events without the need for psychological protective factors.

answer

c

question

3.1-22. Which of the following is an example of the phenomena that the term resilience has been used to describe? a. Julie dreams of becoming a successful lawyer but never finished college. b. After failing French the first time, Carl did not earn a passing grade when he took the course for a second time. c. After his father died, Julio had a hard time maintaining responsibilities at work. d. Following the events of September 11th, the children of PS100 in New York City were able to resume their studies and finish the school year without incident

answer

d

question

3.1-23. Resilient children a. show resilience in all domains. b. may still experience emotional distress. c. usually have survived chronic maltreatment. d. are increasingly rare.

answer

b

question

3.1-24. What is the primary focus of the field of developmental psychopathology? a. Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults. b. To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal. c. To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness. d. Understanding how disorders develop over time.

answer

b

question

3.1-25. Which of the following most accurately describes the notion of different viewpoints of abnormal behavior? a. Each viewpoint accurately describes the causes and symptoms of 2-3 different disorders. b. Each viewpoint offers its own explanation of abnormal behavior. c. All viewpoints are equally valid. d. Only the biological viewpoint has been studied experimentally

answer

b

question

3.1-26. Dr. Simon, a psychiatrist, takes a biopsychosocial viewpoint of psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is he most likely to suggest for Julia's current state of depression? a. Intense psychotherapy b. A prolonged vacation c. A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs d. Family therapy and a change in her work environment

answer

c

question

3.1-27. The disorders first recognized as having biological bases are best characterized as disorders that a. involved significant damage to brain tissue. b. were characterized by neurochemical imbalances. c. did not cause neurological damage. d. resulted from contact with other animal species.

answer

a

question

3.1-28. Which of the following is true? a. Most mental disorders are caused only by psychological factors. b. Most mental disorders have a simple biological explanation. c. Most mental disorders are caused by neurological damage. d. Most mental disorders are not caused by neurological damage

answer

d

question

3.1-29. The site of communication between two neurons is the a. synapse. b. neurotransmitter. c. nucleus. d. vesicle.

answer

a

question

3.1-30. Which statement about neural communication is accurate? a. All neurotransmitters increase the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will transmit a message. b. The reason neural messages are transmitted from cell to cell is because they physically touch each other. c. The part of the neuron that receives messages is called the synapse. d. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse determine whether messages are sent from one neuron to another.

answer

d

question

3.1-31. Neurotransmitters released into the synapse may be reuptaken into the axon endings from which they originated. One name for this process is: a. retracing. b. deactivation. c. recapture. d. inhibitory transmission

answer

b

question

3.1-32. Suppose the reuptake of a specific neurotransmitter were deficient and the deactivation enzymes associated with the neurotransmitter were also deficient. What effect would this have? a. There would be more of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. b. There would be less of the neurotransmitter in the synapse. c. Since the two deficiencies would balance each other out, there would be no change in the levels of the neurotransmitter. d. The neurons would become especially sensitive to the neurotransmitter

answer

a

question

3.1-33. Reuptake of neurotransmitters is a. the process by which neurotransmitters are repeatedly released into the synapse. b. the process by which neurotransmitters are reabsorbed by the axon. c. the process by which neurotransmitters stimulate the post-synaptic neuron to fire. d. the process by which neurotransmitters are connected to hormones

answer

b

question

3.1-34. Norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and GABA are all a. hormones that affect behavior. b. catecholamines that inhibit nerve impulses. c. neurotransmitters that are involved in psychopathology. d. forms of neurotransmitters called amino acids that can cause brain damage.

answer

c

question

3.1-35. Cortisol is a hormone that a. is released by the hypothalamus and travels to the pituitary gland, causing it to respond. b. the pituitary gland releases to stimulate the adrenal gland. c. the adrenal gland produces that mobilizes the body to deal with stress. d. reduces the reuptake of the monamine neurotransmitters.

answer

c

question

3.1-36. Which of the following statements is true? a. Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes. b. Genes play a role in most mental disorders. c. Genes do not affect biochemical processes. d. The genes that will be expressed in an individual are not affected by experience.

answer

b

question

3.1-37. What do genes consist of? a. Trisomes b. Chromosomes c. DNA d. Proteins

answer

c

question

3.1-38. Down syndrome has been linked to a. a chemical imbalance. b. a gene on the X chromosome. c. possessing an extra X chromosome. d. possessing an extra chromosome in chromosome

answer

d

question

3.1-39. Normal human cells have a. twenty-two chromosome pairs and one pair of sex chromosomes. b. twenty-one trisomy chromosome pairs, one autosomal pair and one pair of sex chromosomes. c. twenty-one chromosome pairs and two trisomy chromosome pairs. d. twenty-three chromosome pairs

answer

a

question

3.1-40. When examining heredity, mental disorders are almost always a. influenced by one particular gene. b. influenced by multiple genes. c. influenced by recessive genes. d. not influenced by genes.

answer

b

question

3.1-41. Mental disorders are almost always influenced by multiple genes. This means they are a. easy to discover. b. chemical circuits. c. polygenic. d. probands.

answer

c

question

3.1-42. The genetic influences that determine behavior may never be fully understood due to a. the ease of research to differentiate between the effects of the environment and the effects of genes. b. the likelihood that most behaviors are determined by the interaction of many genes and the environment. c. the tendency to rely upon twin studies in genetic research. d. our significant understanding of how genes impact brain chemistry.

answer

b

question

3.1-43. Genes a. determine how a person will behave. b. cause people to develop mental disorders. c. determine what characteristics a person will have. d. determine the range of characteristics a person has.

answer

d

question

3.1-44. Ian was predisposed to being very aggressive with his peers in school, who responded by rejecting him. Later in life Ian began to associate with other aggressive youth and to participate in a variety of delinquent behaviors. This is an example of a. phenotypic vulnerability to aggression. b. a phenotypic diathesis. c. polygenic expression. d. the way the genotype may shape the phenotype

answer

d

question

3.1-45. Attractive children and unattractive babies tend to be treated differently. In other words, an infant's physical phenotype may alter how others respond to him or her. What type of genotype-environment correlation is this an example of? a. Active b. Evocative c. Passive d. Persuasive

answer

b

question

3.1-46. Andrea and her parents are shy and quiet. Her parents never take Andrea to any activities where there are many people. They buy her books and crafts that she can do by herself. This shows a. an evocative effect of genotype on environment. b. a passive effect of genotype on environment. c. an active effect of genotype on environment. d. a lack of genotype-environment correlation.

answer

a

question

3.1-47. Highly coordinated children are picked out at an early age by coaches and given special opportunities to excel at sports. Extraverted children seek out social situations and become unusually comfortable with strangers. Both of these phenomena illustrate a. the power of the phenotype over the genotype. b. genotype-environment correlations. c. the polygenic effect of chromosomes on behavior. d. how the environment shapes one's genetic endowment.

answer

b

question

3.1-48. Which method for studying genetic influences fails to control for the possible effect of sharing a common environment? a. Family history or pedigree method b. Adoption method c. Association studies d. Linkage analysis

answer

a

question

3.1-49. If trait is highly heritable, it would be expected that a. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins and monozygotic twins would be comparable. b. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for monozygotic twins. c. the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be greater than the concordance rate for dizygotic twins. d. the concordance rate for dizygotic twins would be close to 100%.

answer

c

question

3.1-50. If fraternal (or dizygotic) twins are more likely to be concordant for a trait than other siblings, can it be concluded that the higher concordance rate is due to the greater degree of genetic relatedness? a. Yes. b. Yes, but only if the siblings studied are of the same sex and age. c. No, because the greater similarity can be attributed to environmental influence. d. No, because fraternal twins are no more genetically alike than other siblings.

answer

d

question

3.1-51. Which of the following is NOT a common method for studying genetic influences? a. The study of specific gene defects b. Twin studies c. Adoption studies d. Family history (pedigree) studies

answer

a

question

3.1-52. Why is it particularly useful to study identical twins who were raised in different environments? a. Differences in brain function can easily be identified. b. Concordance rates tend to be higher. c. It is possible that the genetics of twins who have been separated have changed in ways to explain any differences found. d. It is possible that high concordance rates between identical twins reared together is due to their being treated more similarly than nonidentical twins

answer

d

question

3.1-53. George and Logan are brothers. They live in a small apartment in the city with some other relatives. Their family is extremely poor. Their father is hardest on George, the eldest, and sometimes physically abuses him. Which environmental factor is likely to be more important in the later adjustment of George and Logan? a. Their poverty. b. The overcrowding of their living situation. c. The physical abuse. d. The fact that they live with other family members.

answer

c

question

3.1-54. Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence? a. Family economic status b. Divorce c. Death of a parent d. Sibling rivalry

answer

d

question

3.1-55. Which of the following is a misconception about genetics and behavior? a. The influence of genetics on behavior disappears as we get older. b. Just because a disorder runs in families does not mean genetics are the reason. c. Genetic research strategies provide useful tests of the influence of the environment on behavior. d. Genetics influence behavior by making the person more or less susceptible to environmental influences.

answer

a

question

3.1-56. Todd and his siblings have parents who are physically abusive to each other. When they fight, they expect Todd to stay quiet and keep the other children under control. They allow the other children to cry and hide, but Todd must stay in the room with them and referee. This is an example of a. a genotype-environment correlation. b. a shared environmental influence. c. a nonshared environmental influence. d. a protective factor.

answer

c

question

3.1-57. Which of the following strives to describe the location of genes responsible for mental disorders? a. Association studies b. Family histories c. Twin studies d. Adoption studies

answer

a

question

3.1-58. Suppose that, using linkage analysis, a researcher finds that family members with a high likelihood of developing depression also are very likely to be of below average height. This would mean a. being short is a contributory factor for depression. b. the gene for depression is probably located near the gene for height. c. height and depression are probably caused by the same gene. d. having depression causes people not to grow as tall as they would if they didn't have depression.

answer

b

question

3.1-59. Tracy and Shahid are both 3 months old. Tracy is highly active, easily irritated, and cries easily. Shahid is quiet, adapts easily to change, and seems fearless. These differences illustrate a. the impact of shared environmental influences. b. how physical handicaps can have a genetic origin. c. differences in temperament. d. the fact that personality is more influenced by the environment than by genetics.

answer

c

question

3.1-60. A child consistently identified as behaviorally inhibited is most likely to a. be an outgoing adult. b. develop conduct disorder. c. be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder in adulthood. d. have been born prematurely.

answer

c

question

3.1-61. Which of the following statements about brain dysfunction and psychiatric disorders is correct? a. Identifiable brain damage is often the cause of psychiatric disorders. b. Brain damage may decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition. c. Changes in brain function appear to play a role in many psychiatric disorders. d. Brain development can be altered by experience, always leading to changes in the brain that decrease the risk of developing a psychiatric condition

answer

c

question

3.1-62. Neural plasticity is a. the process by which neurotransmitters are broken down in the brain. b. the flexibility of the brain—existing neural circuits can change or new ones can be made.c. strong evidence of brain damage, leading to the development of a mental disorder. d. the best indicator of temperament and its effect on the personality development of a child.

answer

b

question

3.1-63. Biological discoveries a. have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal. b. demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology. c. make it clear that mental disorders are diseases and should be dealt with by the medical profession. d. have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders

answer

d

question

3.1-64. According to Freud, a person who does not appropriately resolve each psychosexual stage would be ___________ at that stage. a. defended b. fixated c. repressed d. displaced

answer

b

question

3.1-65. In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage centers on castration anxiety? a. Genital b. Oral c. Anal d. Phallic

answer

d

question

3.1-66. Which period of psychosexual development occurs when a child becomes preoccupied with the development of skills and activities? a. Genital b. Phallic c. Latency d. Pubertal

answer

c

question

3.1-67. One important contribution of Freud's theory was that a. he truly understood the role of women in society. b. he heavily utilized experimental evidence to support his theories. c. he applied the same principles to normal and abnormal behavior. d. he increased the focus on positive growth for individuals.

answer

c

question

3.1-78. Finding meaning in life and dealing with death form core values in which of the following perspectives? a. Existential b. Humanistic c. Behavioral d. Object-relations

answer

a

question

3.1-79. The humanistic perspective focuses primarily upon the capacity of the individual to a. confront the dilemma of our deaths. b. be driven by unconscious motives. c. rationally explain our behavior. d. engage in positive self-growth.

answer

d

question

3.1-80. One of Freud's major contributions to current perspectives of mental disorders is a. the concept of the Oedipal complex. b. the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior. c. the concept of the Electra complex. d. the understanding of the three structures of personality

answer

b

question

3.1-81. Which of the following is a criticism of traditional psychoanalytic theory? a. Underemphasis on the sex drive b. Overly positive view of women c. Lack of scientific evidence d. Too much focus on symptoms and not enough on underlying cause

answer

c

question

3.1-82. Which perspective was initially developed through laboratory research? a. Behavioral b. Biological c. Humanistic d. Psychodynamic

answer

a

question

3.1-83. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. In classical conditioning terms, the dog can be described as a(n) a. conditioned response. b. unconditioned response. c. conditioned stimulus. d. unconditioned stimulus.

answer

c

question

3.1-84. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid whenever he sees a dog. He goes for treatment, where he is gradually exposed to dogs, until he can be in the same room with a dog without feeling any fear. Three weeks later, while walking in his neighborhood, Jose hears a dog barking viciously. For a few weeks after this, his fear returns. This shows a. the treatment had no effect. b. extinction. c. stimulus-stimulus expectancy. d. spontaneous recovery.

answer

d

question

3.1-85. If a response has been learned through conditioning, it would be appropriate to treat it using the process of a. displacement. b. extinction. c. spontaneous recovery. d. stimulus-stimulus expectancy.

answer

b

question

3.1-86. Learning not to do something because you are punished when you do it is an example of a. classical conditioning. b. generalization. c. instrumental conditioning. d. observational learning.

answer

c

question

3.1-87. Alicia developed a fear of spiders after being bitten by one. However, she has no problems looking at pictures of spiders. This is an example of a. discrimination. b. generalization. c. instrumental conditioning. d. intrapsychic conflict.

answer

a

question

3.1-88. Due to ________, we can learn from the experiences of others. a. classical conditioning b. generalization c. instrumental conditioning d. observational learning

answer

d

question

3.1-89. The behavioral perspective has been criticized for a. focusing on symptoms. b. not providing an explanation for how abnormal behavioral responses are acquired. c. viewing basic human nature as good. d. its overemphasis on the use of punishment

answer

a

question

3.1-90. Behaviorists suggest maladaptive behavior can be a result of a. extinction. b. lack of generalization of behaviors. c. a poor response-outcome expectancy. d. failure to learn adaptive behaviors

answer

d

question

3.1-91. From the cognitive-behavioral perspective, an important limitation with the behavioral perspective is the fact that a. behaviorists went too far in attacking the psychoanalytic perspective. b. behaviorists failed to attend to the importance of mental processes. c. behaviorists held an overly stringent view of what constitutes scientific inquiry. d. behaviorists overemphasized the importance of subjective experience.

answer

b

question

3.1-92. Cognitive-behavioral psychologists believe that abnormal behavior a. consists of learned maladaptive response patterns. b. results from distorted thinking and information processing. c. results from neurotic thought processes. d. results from impaired patterns of interpersonal relationsh

answer

b

question

3.1-93. A(n) ________ serves to guide our processing of information and may serve to distort memories. a. attribution. b. conditioned stimulus c. schema d. unconditioned stimulus

answer

c

question

3.1-94. Schemas a. do not really influence how we interpret the world. b. may be a source of psychological vulnerability. c. are always types of biases that color our interpretation of the world. d. are attempts to change other people's behavior

answer

b

question

3.1-95. The process of assigning causes to things that happen is called a. attribution. b. internal reinforcement. c. schema therapy. d. cognition.

answer

a

question

3.1-96. It is a hot day and a child sprays you with a garden hose. You might react with amusement (and even thanks!) or considerable anger. The fact that one event can be interpreted in different ways is central to the ________ approach to therapy. a. operant conditioning b. classical conditioning c. cognitive d. sociocultural

answer

c

question

3.1-97. New perceptions and experiences tend to be worked into our existing schemas, even if the new information must be distorted to fit them. This process is called a. accommodation. b. assimilation. c. appropriation. d. attribution.

answer

b

question

3.1-98. Making a new experience fit existing frameworks is associated with ________; changing our existing frameworks to incorporate a new experience is associated with ________. a. positive attributions; negative attributions b. accommodation; assimilation c. self-efficacy; self-identity d. assimilation; accommodation

answer

d

question

3.1-99. According to cognitive theorists, a lot of information that contributes to a person's psychopathology a. is processed at a conscious, intentional level. b. is processed at a nonconscious level. c. is not processed at all. d. is processed only when in interpersonal relationships

answer

b

question

3.1-100. The effects of early social deprivation a. are explained differently by the various psychosocial perspectives. b. have not been well-established. c. can't be explained by psychosocial theories. d. are not seen when physical needs are adequately met

answer

a

question

3.1-101. Lasting negative effects of abuse on psychological functioning are most likely when the abuse occurs in a. early childhood. b. adolescence. c. early adulthood. d. old age.

answer

a

question

3.1-102. Abused infants and toddlers a. tend to develop into resilient adults. b. have a tendency to be passive and to avoid conflict with both peers and authorities. c. are likely to show inconsistent attachment behavior. d. are likely to develop close bonds with same-sex peers

answer

c

question

3.1-103. According to Bowlby, a. despair is a normal response to separation. b. the display of despair in response to separation is indicative of an insecure attachment. c. frequent parental separation in infancy contributes to the development of resiliency. d. the failure to experience normal parental separations in infancy contributes to an inability to tolerate relationship-related stressors in adulthood

answer

a

question

3.1-104. Infant characteristics a. do not affect parental behavior. b. only affect parental behavior when psychopathology is present. c. are not influenced by biological factors. d. can influence the quality of attachment relationshi

answer

d

question

3.1-105. Dana's mother suffers from serious depressive episodes. Dana is likely to a. be at risk for depression herself. b. become a happy-go-lucky child because she had to cope with so much. c. act in an aggressive, criminal manner. d. have intense attachments to her mother

answer

a

question

3.1-106. Which parental style is characterized by warmth, control, and communication? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive/indulgent c. Authoritative d. Neglectful-uninvolved

answer

c

question

3.1-107. The four parenting styles described in the text differ along two dimensions, warmth and control. The style associated with the most positive developmental outcome is best described as ________ in warmth and ________ in control. a. high; low b. low; low c. high; moderately high d. low; moderately high

answer

c

question

3.1-108. A lack of social skills, poor school performance, and moodiness have all been associated with which of the following parenting styles? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive/indulgent c. Authoritative d. Neglectful-uninvolved

answer

d

question

3.1-109. Which of the following statements regarding divorce and psychopathology is true? a. A causal relationship has been established between psychopathology and a parental divorce. b. There is a positive correlation between psychopathology and divorce. c. The adverse effects of parental divorce are always temporary. d. While a relationship between parental divorce and psychopathology has been established, there are no data to suggest that divorced persons experience an increased rate of psychopathology.

answer

b

question

3.1-110. Why is it difficult to determine the nature of the relationship between divorce and the psychological functioning of family members? a. Cause and effect cannot be determined as preexisting behavioral abnormalities in either the parents or the children may make divorce more likely. b. The findings have been too inconsistent for any conclusions to be drawn. c. While the effects of divorce are negative on children, the effects on the spouses are generally positive. d. Due to modern acceptance of divorce, there has been an ongoing decrease in the negative effects of divorce. As the impact of divorce has been decreasing, the effect of divorce on family functioning has become impossible to detect.

answer

a

question

3.1-111. A major factor associated with a child's rejection by peers is a. overly aggressive behavior. b. being too intelligent. c. socioeconomic background. d. a lack of empathy.

answer

a

question

3.1-112. An elementary school principal wants to know the best predictors of juvenile delinquency and dropping out of school in high school so she can provide preventive interventions. Your best advice is: a. "Look for kids who are very popular because they are class clowns." b. "Silent, depressed, loners tend to be dropouts because they are often depressed." c. "There is no way to predict juvenile delinquency as early as elementary school." d. "The best predictor is aggression toward peers, which leads to peer rejection."

answer

d

question

3.1-113. Studies on the cultural differences in parental tolerance of under- or overcontrolled behavior suggest that a. these different styles can produce different rates of problem behaviors in different cultures. b. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behavior problems - they seem to be primarily genetic. c. parental styles make no difference in rates of different behavior problems - they seem to be independent of culture. d. all cultures feel the same about bringing their children for treatment, regardless of the type of behavior problem.

answer

a

question

3.1-114. Which of the following is NOT a culture-bound syndrome? a. Hikiko-mori b. Zar c. Hoopa d. Koro

answer

c

question

3.1-115. A psychologist who studied the relationship between sociocultural factors and mental disorders would be most likely to study a. parenting style and self-schemas. b. poverty and racial discrimination. c. peer rejection and attributional style. d. assimilation and accommodation.

answer

b

question

3.1-116. Cross-cultural research on stress demonstrates that a. depression is a common response to life challenges in all countries studied. b. stress rarely leads to any evidence of illness in non-Western cultures. c. responses to stress vary cross-culturally. d. culture-specific reactions are not seen to alterations in the environment.

answer

c

question

3.1-117. Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is supported by the existing data? a. Low SES may cause abnormal behavior. b. Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES. c. Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness. d. All of the above.

answer

d

question

3.1-117. Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is supported by the existing data? a. Low SES may cause abnormal behavior. b. Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES. c. Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness. d. All of the above.

answer

d

question

4.1-1. Psychological assessment refers to the a. procedures used to summarize a client's problem. b. process used to arrive at a diagnosis. c. development of a treatment plan. d. determination of how environmental factors impact the course of a disorder.

answer

a

question

4.1-2. A person comes to a mental health professional with a certain complaint. The professional attempts to understand the nature and extent of the problem. This process is called a. diagnosis. b. assessment. c. clinical treatment. d. screening.

answer

b

question

4.1-3. Why is it important to have why is it important to have an appropriate classification of the presenting problem? a. A formal diagnosis may be needed for insurance purposes. b. A determination of the range of presenting symptoms is needed to ensure proper placement in a treatment facility. c. A recognition of what type of disorder is present will aid in the development of an effective treatment plan. d. All of the above.

answer

d

question

4.1-4. Dr. Vera says, "It may only provide a limited view of a person's problems, but it is important for planning appropriate treatment. Administratively, it is essential so that a facility can know what kinds of problems clients need help with. Even if we don't want to do it, insurance claims require it." What is Dr. Vera is referring to? a. Formal diagnosis b. Screening activities c. Taking a personal history d. Assessment

answer

a

question

4.1-5. Which of the following statements regarding assessment is true? a. Assessment should focus only on the client's current level of functioning. b. An adequate assessment includes a determination of the amount of danger the client poses to himself and others. c. An adequate assessment should include as much information as possible. d. Assessment should focus on biological concerns rather than social concerns.

answer

c

question

4.1-6. What role does the social context play in assessment? a. Social context is not considered during assessment, only during diagnosis. b. An evaluation of the environment in which the client lives is necessary in order to understand the demands they face, as well as the supports that are present. c. Environmental factors are usually the proximal cause of mental disorders and frequently need to be addressed before any form of treatment commences. d. The social context need only be considered when a course of treatment is being selected; significant others in the client's life should be the primary decision makers.

answer

b

question

4.1-7. Which of the following is a true statement about assessment and professional orientation? a. Regardless of whether a therapist is behaviorally or psychodynamically oriented, the same basic assessment procedures are employed. b. The focus of the assessment will be largely determined by the professional orientation of the clinician. c. While some assessment procedures will vary, a biological screening and administration of a personality test are components of all assessments. d. The assessment techniques employed will serve to reveal the causal factors that are most consistent with the clinician's orientation.

answer

b

question

4.1-8. The need for rapport between a clinician and a client means a. that the clinician and the client must feel friendly toward each other. b. that someone who is court ordered will be an easy client. c. clients don't need to be given any feedback about their test performance. d. the client must feel comfortable with the clinician and the assessment.

answer

d

question

4.1-9. Which of the following demonstrates reliability? a. An IQ test is effective in predicting the academic performance of both males and females. b. Scores on an IQ test are not affected by mood. c. Scores on two different intelligence tests are highly correlated. d. When an IQ test is administered to the same person repeatedly, the results do not differ.

answer

d

question

4.1-10. A valid test a. measures what it is designed to measure. b. yields consistent results. c. is standardized. d. rarely is reliable.

answer

a

question

4.1-11. Which of the following statements about reliability and validity is true? a. Reliable tests are usually valid. b. Valid tests are usually reliable. c. There is no relationship between reliability and validity. d. In order for a test to be reliable, it must be valid.

answer

b

question

4.1-12. Psychological test results are often compared to each other to determine a mid-range, or normal point. In order to accomplish this, test administration must be completely consistent from one person to the next. What is this process called? a. validity b. standardization c. reliability d. T-score distribution

answer

b

question

4.1-13. Which of the following would be used to reveal a dysrhythmia in brain activity? a. CAT scan b. EEG c. MRI d. PET scan

answer

b

question

4.1-21. Because his psychologist suspects he might have substantial brain damage, Tony was given a five-hour battery of tests that included listening to rhythmic beats presented by tape recorder and putting different shaped blocks into grooves while blindfolded. The procedure Tony experienced is called the a. Rorschach. b. MMPI-2. c. Rhythm Test d. functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) test.

answer

c

question

4.1-22. Ed has suffered a head injury in a car accident. He is referred to a psychologist to see what types of impairment now exist and to get some suggestions for treatment. The best assessment strategy would be a. a CAT scan. b. neuropsychological tests. c. a PET scan. d. an fMRI.

answer

b

question

4.1-23. In which of the following circumstances would a psychosocial assessment clearly need to be used? a. Mr. Harvey has been having problems with his memory since his stroke. b. After a change in her hormone treatment regimen, Hillary began to show severe mood swings. c. Ever since the divorce, James has been sleeping less and less. d. Since the car accident, Jill has had nightmares

answer

c

question

4.1-24. A psychosocial assessment typically begins with a. a physical examination. b. an assessment of global level of functioning. c. administration of the MMPI. d. an interview.

answer

d

question

4.1-25. Under what circumstances is a structured interview most likely to be used? a. When consistent information is needed for research purposes b. When an accurate diagnosis is needed to ensure appropriate treatment c. When the behavior of the client is erratic d. When the information provided in an unstructured interview is found to lack reliability

answer

a

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