psych-chapter 3 – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
1. Unpleasant withdrawal symptoms are indicative of A) narcolepsy. B) psychological reactance. C) dissociation. D) physical dependence. E) REM rebound.
answer
D
question
2. Research indicates that memories retrieved during hypnosis are A) forgotten again as soon as the person awakens from the hypnotic state. B) accurate recollections of information previously learned. C) experienced as being inaccurate even when they are true. D) often a combination of fact and fiction. E) often accurate indicators of childhood sexual abuse.
answer
D
question
3. Which theory suggests that dreams are mental responses to random bursts of neural stimulation? A) dissociation theory B) social influence theory C) activation-synthesis theory D) Freud's dream theory E) divided consciousness theory
answer
C
question
4. Our inability to fall asleep early as we had planned is most likely a reflection of A) dissociation. B) narcolepsy. C) the circadian rhythm. D) night terrors. E) sleep apnea.
answer
C
question
5. When people are experiencing vivid dreams A) their bodies often move in accordance with what they dream. B) their eyes are likely to move under their closed eyelids. C) they are more likely to sleepwalk than during any other stage of sleep. D) their slow brain-wave patterns indicate that they are deeply asleep. E) they intermittently stop breathing.
answer
B
question
6. At 3 o'clock in the morning, John has already slept for 4 hours. As long as his sleep continues, we can expect an increasing occurrence of A) sleeptalking. B) hypnagogic sensations. C) muscle tension. D) REM sleep. E) Stage 4 sleep.
answer
D
question
7. Under hypnosis, Mrs. Mohammed is encouraged by her therapist to vividly experience and describe the details of an argument she had with her father when she was a child. The therapist is employing a technique called A) age regression. B) posthypnotic suggestion. C) paradoxical sleep. D) dissociation. E) posthypnotic amnesia.
answer
A
question
8. Circadian rhythm refers to A) the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience. B) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle. C) the experience of sleep apnea following an extensive transoceanic flight. D) the cycle of five distinct stages that we experience during a normal night's sleep. E) a pattern of brain waves that occur during sleep.
answer
B
question
9. An altered state of consciousness in which people experience fantastic images and often feel separated from their bodies is most closely associated with the use of A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) barbiturates. D) marijuana. E) LSD.
answer
E
question
10. Consciousness is A) the ability to solve problems, reason, and remember. B) the sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem. C) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. D) effortless encoding of incidental information into memory. E) our awareness of ourselves and our environment
answer
E
question
11. Deep sleep appears to play an important role in A) narcolepsy. B) sleep apnea. C) paradoxical sleep. D) posthypnotic amnesia. E) physical growth.
answer
E
question
12. Morphine and heroin are A) amphetamines. B) opiates. C) hallucinogens. D) barbiturates. E) stimulants.
answer
B
question
13. Forty-year-old Lance insists that he never dreams. Research suggests that he probably A) experiences very little REM sleep. B) would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep. C) dreams during Stage 4 rather than during REM sleep. D) experiences more Stage 4 sleep than most people. E) passes through the sleep cycle much more rapidly than most people.
answer
B
question
14. The activation-synthesis theory best helps to explain why A) most dreams are realistic portrayals of pleasant life events. B) dreams are accompanied by eye movements. C) dreams typically express unacceptable feelings in a symbolically disguised form. D) individuals with sleep apnea are unable to recall any of their dreams. E) people often experience sudden visual images during REM sleep.
answer
E
question
15. Studies of marijuana's effects indicate that A) daily use of the drug is currently higher than it has ever been among high school seniors. B) regular users may achieve a high with less of the drug than occasional users. C) regular usage has no serious negative effects on physical health. D) usage consistently reduces feelings of anxiety and depression. E) marijuana is the most commonly used psychoactive drug in North America.
answer
B
question
16. Drivers are slower to detect traffic signals if they are conversing on a cellphone. This best illustrates the impact of A) age regression. B) selective attention. C) REM rebound. D) choice blindness. E) disinhibition.
answer
B
question
17. Drug tolerance refers to the A) absence of pain or anxiety following the use of a drug. B) loss of social inhibitions following drug use. C) discomfort and distress that follow the discontinued use of a drug. D) reduced effect of a drug resulting from its regular usage. E) belief that drug use should be legalized.
answer
D
question
18. Sensory experiences that occur without a sensory stimulus are called A) night terrors. B) neuroadaptations. C) dissociations. D) hallucinations. E) stressors.
answer
D
question
19. Plato's belief that death involves the separation of the mind from the body is known as A) the circadian rhythm. B) age regression. C) dissociation. D) dualism. E) hypnagogic state.
answer
D
question
20. By 1960, the study of consciousness had been revived by psychologists' renewed interest in A) behavior genetics. B) emotion. C) socialization. D) mental processes. E) mental health.
answer
D
question
21. Sleeptalking may occur during A) Stage 1 sleep. B) Stage 2 sleep. C) REM sleep. D) Stage 4 sleep. E) any stage of sleep.
answer
E
question
22. Alcohol consumption is least likely to make people more A) fearful. B) aggressive. C) self-conscious. D) sexually daring. E) self-disclosing.
answer
C
question
23. The cocktail party effect provides an example of A) perceptual constancy. B) perceptual set. C) selective attention. D) stroboscopic movement. E) the phi phenomenon.
answer
C
question
24. Felix was so preoccupied with his girlfriend's good looks that he failed to perceive any of her less admirable characteristics. This best illustrates the dangers of A) perceptual adaptation. B) figure-ground relationships. C) selective attention. D) the cocktail party effect. E) perceptual constancy.
answer
C
question
25. The school of thought in psychology that systematically avoided the study of consciousness during the first half of the last century was A) psychoanalysis. B) behaviorism. C) functionalism. D) structuralism. E) Gestalt psychology.
answer
B
question
26. Nightmares are to ________ as night terrors are to ________. A) REM sleep; Stage 4 sleep B) narcolepsy; sleep apnea C) delta waves; alpha waves D) Stage 4 sleep; Stage 1 sleep E) Stage 1 sleep; REM sleep
answer
A
question
27. The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of A) withdrawal. B) dissociation. C) resistance. D) tolerance. E) narcolepsy.
answer
D
question
28. Paradoxical sleep is to slow-wave sleep as ________ sleep is to ________ sleep. A) REM; Stage 1 B) Stage 1; REM C) REM; Stage 2 D) Stage 2; REM E) REM; Stage 4
answer
E
question
29. The brain waves associated with REM sleep are most similar to those of A) Stage 1 sleep. B) Stage 2 sleep. C) Stage 3 sleep. D) Stage 4 sleep. E) Stage 5 sleep.
answer
A
question
30. Unconscious information processing is more likely than conscious processing to A) occur slowly. B) be limited in its capacity. C) contribute to effective problem solving. D) occur simultaneously on several parallel dimensions. E) relate to childhood events.
answer
D
question
31. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during Stage 2 sleep are called A) alpha waves. B) circadian rhythms. C) sleep spindles. D) delta waves. E) amplitude waves.
answer
C
question
32. The large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep are called A) alpha waves. B) beta waves. C) delta waves. D) theta waves. E) sleep spindles
answer
C
question
33. Which of the following provides the clearest indication of a drug addiction? A) physical dependence B) hallucinations C) narcolepsy D) alpha waves E) REM rebound
answer
A
question
34. Those who emphasize that mood fluctuations may be indicative of seasonal affective disorder are highlighting the importance of A) neuroadaptation. B) animal magnetism. C) biological rhythms. D) narcolepsy. E) REM sleep.
answer
C
question
35. Advocates of the social influence theory of hypnosis are likely to argue that A) hypnosis is a unique state of consciousness. B) hypnotized people are simply enacting the role of good hypnotic subjects. C) the process of dissociation best explains hypnotic phenomena. D) most hypnotized people are consciously faking hypnosis. E) hypnotic susceptibility is positively correlated with introversion
answer
B
question
36. Mr. Dayton occasionally stops breathing while sleeping. He wakes up to snort air for a few seconds before falling back to sleep. Mrs. Dayton complains that her husband snores. Clearly, Mr. Dayton suffers from A) sleep apnea. B) narcolepsy. C) insomnia. D) night terrors. E) aphasia.
answer
A
question
37. After drinking three cans of beer, Akiva felt less guilty about the way he mistreated his wife and children. Akiva's reduced guilt most likely resulted from the fact that his alcohol consumption has A) reduced his sexual desire. B) destroyed some of his brain cells. C) reduced his self-awareness. D) directed his attention to the future. E) increased his level of sympathetic nervous system arousal
answer
C
question
38. The ability to pay attention to only one voice at a time is called A) perceptual set. B) convergence. C) perceptual adaptation. D) the phi phenomenon. E) the cocktail party effec
answer
E
question
39. In one study, both hypnotized and unhypnotized subjects were told to throw acid in a researcher's face. In this experiment, hypnotized people A) usually refused to engage in antisocial behavior. B) behaved in the same fashion as unhypnotized individuals. C) were easily influenced to act against their own will. D) experienced much more anxiety than unhypnotized individuals. E) often immediately awakened from the hypnotic state.
answer
B
question
40. A person who falls asleep in the midst of a heated argument probably sufferes from: A) sleep apnea B) narcolepsy C) night terrors D) insomnia
answer
B
question
41. When the release of ACh is blocked, the result is A) depression. B) muscular paralysis. C) aggression. D) schizophrenia. E) euphoria.
answer
B
question
42. Sir Charles Sherrington observed that impulses took more time to travel a neural pathway than he might have anticipated. His observation provided evidence for the existence of A) association areas. B) glial cells. C) synaptic gaps. D) interneurons. E) neural networks.
answer
C
question
43. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron's reaction is A) inhibited by the myelin sheath. B) delayed by the refractory period. C) an all-or-none response. D) dependent on neurotransmitter molecules. E) primarily electrical rather than chemical.
answer
C
question
44. The strengthening of synaptic connections facilitates the formation of A) interneurons. B) endorphins. C) neural networks. D) glial cells. E) lesions.
answer
C
question
45. The best way to detect enlarged fluid-filled brain regions in some patients who have schizophrenia is to use a(n) A) EEG. B) MRI. C) PET scan. D) brain lesion. E) X-ray.
answer
B
question
46. Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex? A) thalamus B) amygdala C) medulla D) hippocampus E) cerebellum
answer
A
question
47. Which of the following is the component of the limbic system that plays an essential role in the processing of new memories? A) hypothalamus B) thalamus C) hippocampus D) medulla E) cerebellum
answer
C
question
48. The IQ scores of the five members of the Duluth family are 100, 82, 104, 96, and 118. For this distribution of scores, the range is A) 6. B) 14. C) 36. D) 48. E) 100.
answer
C
question
49. Surveys indicate that people are much less likely to support "welfare" than "aid to the needy." These somewhat paradoxical survey results best illustrate the importance of A) random sampling. B) wording effects. C) the placebo effect. D) naturalistic observation. E) hindsight bias.
answer
B
question
50. In order to provide a baseline against which they can evaluate the effects of a specific treatment, experimenters make use of a(n) A) dependent variable. B) random sample. C) independent variable. D) control condition. E) experimental condition.
answer
D
question
51. Because she had a serious traffic accident on Friday the 13th of last month, Felicia is convinced that all Friday the 13ths will bring bad luck. Felicia's belief best illustrates A) the illusion of control. B) illusory correlation. C) the hindsight bias. D) the false consensus effect. E) random sampling.
answer
B
question
52. Political officials who have no doubt that their own economic and military predictions will come true most clearly demonstrate A) illusory correlation. B) random sampling. C) overconfidence. D) the placebo effect. E) operational definition.
answer
C
question
53. The process of replication is most likely to be facilitated by A) the hindsight bias. B) the false consensus effect. C) illusory correlation. D) operational definitions. E) the placebo effect.
answer
D
question
54. When you read a bar graph, it is most important for you to A) understand the concept of the false consensus effect. B) mentally transform the data into a scatterplot. C) identify the value of the standard deviation. D) note the range and size of the scale values. E) remember that correlation facilitates prediction
answer
D
question
55. Which perspective would suggest that the facial expressions associated with the emotions of lust and rage are inherited? A) cognitive B) behavioral C) evolutionary D) social-cultural E) psychodynamic
answer
C
question
56. Behaviorists dismissed the value of A) science. B) introspection. C) spaced practice. D) neuroscience. E) reinforcement
answer
B
question
57. In the early 1960s, the cognitive revolution in psychology involved a renewal of interest in the scientific study of A) mental processes. B) hereditary influences. C) unconscious motives. D) learned behaviors. E) evolutionary influences.
answer
A
question
58. Dr. Tiao conducts basic research on the effects of head injuries on people's problemsolving and abstract-reasoning skills. Which psychological specialty does her research best represent? A) developmental psychology B) biological psychology C) industrial/organizational psychology D) clinical psychology E) personality psychology
answer
B
question
59. The cognitive perspective in psychology focuses on how A) feelings are influenced by blood chemistry. B) people try to understand their own unconscious motives. C) behavior is influenced by environmental conditions. D) people encode, process, store, and retrieve information. E) how behaviors and thinking vary across cultures
answer
D
question
60. The personality theorist, Sigmund Freud, was an Austrian A) chemist. B) physician. C) theologian. D) politician. E) philanthropist.
answer
B