PSYCH 220 (2011) – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
1. On average, children grow _____ inches per year during middle and late childhood. A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 5 to 7 D. 7 to 10
answer
B. 2 to 3
question
2. During elementary school years, most children double their: A. height. B. weight. C. muscle-to-fat ratio. D. strength capabilities.
answer
D. strength capabilities.
question
3. Advances in the _____ of the brain are linked to children's ____. A. parietal lobe; sharper color and peripheral vision B. occipital lobe; better spatial skills C. prefrontal cortex; improved attention, reasoning, and cognitive control D. temporal lobe; eye-hand coordination and pincer grasp
answer
C. prefrontal cortex; improved attention, reasoning, and cognitive control
question
4. Which of the following is true of overweight children? A. Recently the increase in child obesity in the U.S. has seen a significant jump. B. In many countries, girls are more likely than boys to be overweight. C. Non-Latino White children are more likely to be overweight than African American and Latino children. D. Boys are more likely to be overweight than girls in the U.S.
answer
B. In many countries, girls are more likely than boys to be overweight.
question
5. Cardiovascular disease is _____ in children. A. uncommon B. highly prevalent C. increasing D. on the decline
answer
A. uncommon
question
6. A recent study found that children with a high body mass index and waist circumference are at risk for _____ a constellation of factors, including obesity, high blood pressure, and type 2 diabetes. A. ICF syndrome B. hyperventilation syndrome C. severe acute respiratory syndrome D. metabolic syndrome
answer
D. metabolic syndrome
question
7. The incidence of cancer in children has _____ in recent years. A. been linked to obesity B. increased dramatically C. slightly increased D. decreased dramatically
answer
C. slightly increased
question
8. _____ are characterized by an uncontrolled proliferation of abnormal cells. A. Blood and bone cancers B. All child cancers C. Skin and bone cancers D. Skin and blood cancers
answer
B. All child cancers
question
9. One in every _____ children in the United States develops cancer before the age of 19. A. 75 B. 130 C. 250 D. 330
answer
D. 330
question
10. Approximately _____ of all children from 3 to 21 years of age in the United States receive special education or related services. A. 5 percent B. 14 percent C. 20 percent D. 32 percent
answer
B. 14 percent
question
11. A learning disability: A. is primarily the result of environmental disadvantage. B. is primarily the result of mental retardation. C. is mainly due to cultural or economic disadvantage. D. is not primarily the result of visual, hearing, or motor disabilities.
answer
D. is not primarily the result of visual, hearing, or motor disabilities.
question
12. _____ is characterized by severe impairments in reading and spelling ability. A. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder B. Dysgraphia C. Dyslexia D. Dyscalculia
answer
C. Dyslexia
question
13. Interventions with children who have a learning disability often focus on: A. improving math ability. B. improving right and left brain functioning. C. improving writing skills. D. improving reading ability.
answer
D. improving reading ability.
question
14. ADHD occurs _____ more in boys than in girls. A. two to three times B. four to nine times C. ten times D. marginally
answer
B. four to nine times
question
15. A recent study revealed that peak thickness of the cerebral cortex _____ in children with ADHD. A. occurs in adulthood B. never occurs C. occurs three years later D. occurs two years earlier
answer
C. occurs three years later
question
16. These disorders consist of serious, persistent problems that involve relationships, aggression, depression, and fears associated with personal or school matters, as well as other inappropriate socioemotional characteristics. Approximately 8 percent of children who have a disability and require an individualized education plan fall into this classification. A. Autism B. ADHD C. Emotional and behavioral disorders D. Learning disorders
answer
C. Emotional and behavioral disorders
question
17. _____ is a severe developmental autism spectrum disorder that has its onset in the first three years of life and includes deficiencies in social relationships, abnormalities in communication, and restricted, repetitive, and stereotyped patterns of behavior. A. Asperger syndrome B. ADHD C. Autistic disorder D. ICF syndrome
answer
C. Autistic disorder
question
18. _____ is a relatively mild autism spectrum disorder in which the child has relatively good verbal language, milder nonverbal language problems, and a restricted range of interests and relationships. A. Asperger syndrome B. ADHD C. Autistic disorder D. ICF syndrome
answer
A. Asperger syndrome
question
19. Boys are _____ as likely to have autism spectrum disorders as girls are. A. half B. equally C. twice D. four times
answer
D. four times
question
20. A(n) _____ is a written statement that spells out a program that is specifically tailored for the student with a disability. A. tailored education plan (TEP) B. individualized education plan (IEP) C. exclusive education plan (EEP) D. disabilities education plan (DEP)
answer
B. individualized education plan (IEP)
question
21. Piaget proposed that the concrete operational stage lasts from approximately _____ years of age. A. 3 to 5 B. 5 to 7 C. 7 to 11 D. 10 to 13
answer
C. 7 to 11
question
22. The _____ theory states that memory is best understood by considering two types of memory representations: verbatim memory trace, and gist. A. local fluff B. fuzzy trace C. verbatim trace D. fuzzy matter
answer
B. fuzzy trace
question
23. Thinking reflectively and productively and evaluating evidence are all parts of: A. critical thinking. B. metacognition. C. cognitive monitoring. D. control processes.
answer
A. critical thinking.
question
24. The ability to think about something in novel and unusual ways and to come up with unique solutions to problems is called ____. A. spontaneity B. congruency C. elasticity D. creativity
answer
D. creativity
question
25. The type of thinking that produces many answers to the same question is called: A. divergent thinking. B. convergent thinking. C. expressive thinking. D. productive thinking.
answer
A. divergent thinking.
question
26. _____ involves knowing about knowing. A. Megacognition B. Teradata C. Metacognition D. Metadata
answer
C. Metacognition
question
27. Michael Pressley believes that the key to education is helping students: A. to develop social skills. B. to learn creativity. C. to learn a repertoire of strategies for problem solving. D. to formulate career plans.
answer
C. to learn a repertoire of strategies for problem solving.
question
28. Mental age (MA) is: A. the age that an individual mentally identifies himself at. B. the age at which an individual attains cognitive maturity. C. an individual's level of mental development relative to others. D. an individual's age at the time of peak cortical thickness.
answer
C. an individual's level of mental development relative to others.
question
29. Who developed the concept of mental age? A. Alfred Binet B. William Stern C. David Wechsler D. Robert J. Sternberg
answer
A. Alfred Binet
question
30. Which of the following is a type of intelligence identified by Howard Gardner? A. Intrapersonal B. Analytical C. Practical D. Creative
answer
A. Intrapersonal
question
31. Which of the following statements about IQ and intelligence is true? A. Modifications in environment have no impact on one's IQ score. B. Schooling has been shown to have no influence over intelligence. C. IQ scores have been slowly decreasing around the world. D. IQ scores have been rapidly increasing around the world.
answer
D. IQ scores have been rapidly increasing around the world.
question
32. Those individuals who have IQs of 55 to 70 are classified as _____ mentally retarded. A. mildly B. moderately C. severely D. profoundly
answer
A. mildly
question
33. What percentage of mentally retarded are considered moderately retarded? A. About 89 percent B. About 6 percent C. About 3.5 percent D. Less than 1 percent
answer
B. About 6 percent
question
34. About _____ percent of the mentally retarded are in the severe category, with IQs of ____. A. 1; 25 to 35 B. 6; 40 to 54 C. 3.5; 25 to 39 D. 10; 15 to 25
answer
C. 3.5; 25 to 39
question
35. Organic retardation is caused by: A. a genetic disorder or brain damage. B. being raised by poorly educated parents. C. an impoverished intellectual environment. D. traumatic experiences in early childhood.
answer
A. a genetic disorder or brain damage.
question
36. Children with above-average intelligence and a superior talent for something are called: A. gifted. B. creative. C. perspicacious. D. sagacious.
answer
A. gifted.
question
37. _____ is knowledge about language, such as knowing what a preposition is or the ability to discuss the sounds of a language, and allows children to think about their language, understand what words are, and even define them. A. Metacognition B. Metalinguistic awareness C. Metapragmatics D. Morphology
answer
B. Metalinguistic awareness
question
38. This leading developmental neuroscientist and his colleagues recently proposed that the prefrontal cortex likely orchestrates the functions of many other brain regions during development.
answer
Mark Johnson
question
39. This theorist distinguished between convergent thinking and divergent thinking.
answer
J.P. Guilford
question
40. This theorist described three criteria that characterize gifted children, whether in art, music, or academic domains.
answer
Ellen Winner
question
41. This is a disability in which individuals consistently show problems in one or more of these areas: inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
answer
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
question
42. The cognitive ability to order stimuli along a quantitative dimension.
answer
Seriation
question
43. A kind of thinking which produces many different answers to the same questions.
answer
Divergent Thinking
question
47. During the elementary years, a child's self-understanding includes increasing reference to all of the following EXCEPT: A. psychological characteristics. B. social comparison. C. social aspects. D. physical characteristics.
answer
D. physical characteristics.
question
48. Which of the following terms refers to self-evaluations in the different domains of an individual's life? A. self-concept B. self-esteem C. self-awareness D. self-control
answer
A. self-concept
question
49. Self-esteem refers to _____ self-evaluation while self-concept refers to _____ self-evaluation. A. global; domain-specific B. personal; academic C. subjective; objective D. interpersonal; intrapersonal
answer
A. global; domain-specific
question
50. Research reported in 2003 shows that individuals with high self-esteem: A. are rarely likely to be bullies. B. can be either prosocial or antisocial in their behavior C. always try to help others. D. are unpredictable.
answer
B. can be either prosocial or antisocial in their behavior
question
51. Albert Bandura called the belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes __. A. self-efficacy B. self-confidence C. self-esteem D. self-awareness
answer
A. self-efficacy
question
52. Erik Erikson's fourth stage of development, appearing during middle and late childhood, is called: A. industry versus inferiority. B. trust versus mistrust. C. ego integrity versus ego despair. D. ego autonomy versus ego independence.
answer
A. industry versus inferiority.
question
53. Julio cannot get his science project to work. In fact, it seems to him that nothing he makes ever works properly. According to Erik Erikson, Julio is at risk for developing a sense of: A. stagnation. B. inferiority. C. shame and doubt. D. identity diffusion.
answer
B. inferiority.
question
54. _____ is the highest level in Kohlberg's theory of moral development. A. Postconventional reasoning B. Conventional reasoning C. Preconventional reasoning D. Universal reasoning
answer
A. Postconventional reasoning
question
55. Kohlberg emphasized perspective taking and _____ as critical aspects of the social stimulation that challenges children to change their moral reasoning. A. sibling interaction B. peer interaction C. parental influence D. teacher influence
answer
B. peer interaction
question
56. Which of the following would NOT be considered an arbitrary rule? A. eating soup with a spoon B. raising your hand in class to ask a question C. shutting off your cell phone ringer while in church D. not lying to your boss about your late report
answer
D. not lying to your boss about your late report
question
57. Moral rules are widely accepted, somewhat impersonal and: A. arbitrary. B. obligatory. C. determined by social consensus. D. based on universal principles.
answer
B. obligatory.
question
58. At what age do children begin to express objective ideas about fairness? A. at around 4 years B. at around 6 years C. at around 8 years D. at around 10 years
answer
B. at around 6 years
question
59. Which of the following characteristics is ascribed to males according to our common stereotypes? A. nurturant B. aggressive C. lower sense of self-esteem D. uninterested in power
answer
B. aggressive
question
60. Broad categories that reflect general impressions and beliefs about males and females are known as: A. gender identities. B. gender constancies. C. gender stereotypes. D. gender roles.
answer
C. gender stereotypes.
question
61. Comparing the math and visuospatial abilities of males and females show that: A. most males outperform the majority of females. B. most females outperform the majority of males. C. there is no significant difference between the sexes pg. . D. there is considerable overlap between the sexes on these skills.
answer
A. most males outperform the majority of females.
question
62. In which of the following areas has it been found that girls exhibit better skills than boys? A. spatial skills B. verbal skills C. physical skills D. mathematical skills
answer
B. verbal skills
question
63. Boys are more _____ aggressive, whereas girls are more _____ aggressive. A. outwardly; inwardly B. physically; emotionally C. verbally; physically D. physically; verbally
answer
D. physically; verbally
question
64. Across childhood and adolescence, research suggests that: A. girls engage in more prosocial behavior. B. boys engage in more prosocial behavior. C. boys are more likely to share. D. girls are more likely to share.
answer
A. girls engage in more prosocial behavior.
question
65. Cassandra is assertive and nurturant. She could be described as __. A. feminine B. masculine C. aggressive D. androgynous
answer
D. androgynous
question
66. Middle childhood is a period in which some control is transferred from parent to child. This process involves __. A. deregulation B. socioregulation C. coregulation D. bioregulation
answer
C. coregulation
question
67. Which of the following statements about stepfamilies is NOT true? A. The largest number of stepfamilies are preceded by death of a spouse. B. In stepmother families, the father usually has custody of his children. C. In stepfather families, the mother usually has custody of her children. D. In blended families, both parents bring children from previous marriages to the newly formed stepfamily.
answer
A. The largest number of stepfamilies are preceded by death of a spouse.
question
68. _____ percent of children in stepfamilies show adjustment problems. A. Fifty B. Forty C. Twenty-five D. Twenty
answer
C. Twenty-five
question
69. The term that describes the extent to which children are liked or disliked by their peer group is: A. psychometric status. B. socioeconomic status. C. popularity status. D. sociometric status.
answer
D. sociometric status.
question
70. All of the following are peer statuses EXCEPT __. A. rejected B. neglected C. controversial D. conforming
answer
D. conforming
question
1. Kenneth Dodge argues that children go through five steps in processing information about their social world. Which of the following is NOT one of those steps? A. decoding social cues B. interpreting social cues C. selecting an optimal response D. reflecting on social response choices
answer
D. reflecting on social response choices
question
72. In a national survey of more than 15,000 sixth- through tenth-grade students, nearly ______ of the students reported experiencing bullying as either a victim or a perpetrator. A. one-half B. two-thirds C. one-third D. one-quarter
answer
C. one-third
question
73. Children who are bullied have increased feelings of __. A. loneliness B. hostility C. pessimism D. helplessness
answer
A. loneliness
question
74. Children's friendships are typically characterized by: A. familiarity. B. intimacy. C. similarity. D. compatibility.
answer
C. similarity.
question
75. Which of the following is NOT a function of childhood friendships? A. companionship B. cultural regulation C. social comparison D. intimacy/affection
answer
B. cultural regulation
question
76. Which of the following BEST describes intimacy in friendships? A. an emotional relationship with another person B. self-disclosure and the sharing of private thoughts C. knowledge about another person's habits, beliefs, and concerns D. the development of a sexually oriented attraction to another person
answer
B. self-disclosure and the sharing of private thoughts
question
77. The direct instruction approach to student learning and assessment is one of the two approaches. The other one is called the _____ approach. A. behaviorist B. constructivist C. open classroom D. ungraded approach.
answer
B. constructivist
question
78. Which of the following results do advocates of state-mandated testing argue will be positive outcomes of the testing? A. better-run schools and smarter students B. increased student performance and more time teaching subjects tested C. better-prepared teachers and students D. integration of all learning styles and teaching styles
answer
B. increased student performance and more time teaching subjects tested
question
79. Which of the following is NOT an argument against state-mandated tests? A. neglect of students who are gifted B. rote memorization C. teaching to the test D. unrealistically high academic standards
answer
D. unrealistically high academic standards
question
80. Carol Dweck defines the cognitive view individuals develop for themselves as: A. self-efficacy. B. metacognition. C. mindset. D. mind map.
answer
C. mindset.
question
81. Which of the following is an exercise Dweck and her colleagues incorporated in their effort to improve students' motivation to achieve and succeed? A. You Can Grow Your Brain B. Multiple Intelligence tests C. Six Thinking Hats D. Star Child Program
answer
A. You Can Grow Your Brain
question
This theorist criticizes most theories of moral development and argues that they reflect a gender bias. This theorist proposed an alternate perspective that emphasizes connectedness with others.
answer
Carol Gilligan
question
The belief that one can master a situation and produce favorable outcomes.
answer
Self-Efficacy
question
A structured, teacher-centered approach that is oriented towards the goal of maximizing student learning time.
answer
Direct Instruction Approach
question
85. Carol Dweck defines this as the cognitive view individuals develop for themselves.
answer
Mindset
question
87. Which theorist proposed the "storm-and-stress" view that adolescence is a turbulent time charged with conflict and mood swings? A. Anna Freud B. Jean Piaget C. G. Stanley Hall D. Daniel Offer
answer
C. G. Stanley Hall
question
88. The peak rate of pubertal change occurs at _____ years for girls and _____ years for boys. A. 13; 14.5 B. 12.5; 11.5 C. 11.5 years; 13.5 D. 10.5; 13
answer
C. 11.5 years; 13.5
question
89. The hormone that is associated with breast, uterine, and skeletal development in girls is: A. progesterone. B. estradiol. C. luteinizing hormone. D. gonadotrophin-releasing hormone.
answer
B. estradiol.
question
90. Which of the following is true of the timing and variations in puberty? A. Children in European countries mature up to a year earlier than their American counterparts. B. For girls, menarche is considered within the normal range if it appears between the ages of 9 and 15. C. Genes have little to do with when and how puberty develops. D. Non-Latino white girls develop maturity earlier than African American girls.
answer
B. For girls, menarche is considered within the normal range if it appears between the ages of 9 and 15.
question
91. Precocious puberty is usually diagnosed when the onset of puberty happens before _____ of age in girls and before _____ of age in boys. A. 6 years; 7 years B. 9 years; 10 years C. 11 years; 12 years D. 8 years; 9 years
answer
D. 8 years; 9 years
question
92. Precocious puberty: A. is usually treated by temporarily halting pubertal change through medication. B. is usually not a condition that requires treatment. C. is now considered a normal occurrence. D. is usually treated by medication that stimulates gonadotropic secretions.
answer
A. is usually treated by temporarily halting pubertal change through medication.
question
search has found that early-maturing girls are more likely than late-maturing girls to be: A. satisfied with their figures in high school. B. taller and thinner when they reach high school. C. less popular with males their own age. D. depressed, become alcoholic, and/or have an eating disorder.
answer
D. depressed, become alcoholic, and/or have an eating disorder.
question
94. Among the changes in the brain that occur in adolescence is the thickening of the____, where fibers connect the brain's left and right hemispheres, improving adolescents' ability to process information. A. amygdala B. corpus callosum C. parietal lobe D. temporal lobe
answer
B. corpus callosum
question
95. A recent national study of adolescent sexual behavior from 1991 to 2007 revealed that sexual experience and having multiple sexual partners in adolescence: A. has steadily risen from the 1990s to the present. B. has declined from the early 1990s to the present. C. declined from the early 1990s through the early 2000s, and then increased recently. D. rose steadily through the 1990s and early 2000s, and has seen a decline recently.
answer
C. declined from the early 1990s through the early 2000s, and then increased recently.
question
96. Which of the following risks related to sexual activity can be reduced significantly by the use of contraceptives? A. Sexually transmitted infections B. Lack of emotional preparedness C. Drug use and delinquency D. Promiscuity
answer
A. Sexually transmitted infections
question
97. In a single act of unprotected sex with an infected partner, a teenage girl has a _______ risk of contracting gonorrhea. A. 20 percent B. 30 percent C. 40 percent D. 50 percent
answer
D. 50 percent
question
98. Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest teen birth rate in the U.S.? A. Non-Latina White B. Asian American C. Latina D. African American
answer
C. Latina
question
99. A recent study using data from the National Longitudinal Survey of Youth revealed that daughters of teenage mothers were _____ to become teenage mothers themselves. A. no more likely B. sure C. more likely D. less likely
answer
C. more likely
question
100. Recent research reviews found that abstinence-only programs: A. do not reduce HIV risk behaviors. B. prevent adolescent pregnancies better than sex-education programs emphasizing contraceptive knowledge. C. have a marked effect in delaying the initiation of sexual intercourse. D. are overall better at improving the sexual behaviors of adolescents than sex-education programs that emphasize contraception knowledge.
answer
A. do not reduce HIV risk behaviors.
question
101. A recent national study revealed that _____ U.S. 15-year-olds met the federal government's moderate to vigorous exercise recommendations per day. A. only about a third of B. about half of C. hardly any D. a significant amount of
answer
A. only about a third of
question
102. According to the National Youth Risk Survey, _____ exercised the most and _____ exercised the least among adolescents in the U.S. A. Latino boys; Latina girls B. African American boys; non-Latino white girls C. Latino boys; African American girls D. non-Latino White boys; African American girls
answer
D. non-Latino White boys; African American girls
question
103. Since the 1950s, the adolescent suicide rate has: A. stayed the same. B. decreased. C. doubled. D. tripled.
answer
D. tripled.
question
104. According to the study by Lloyd Johnston and his colleagues at the Institute of Social Research at the University of Michigan monitoring the drug use of America's high school seniors in a wide range of public and private high schools: A. the U.S. now has one of the lowest rates of adolescent drug use of any industrialized nation. B. there has been a marked increase in the use of illicit drugs over the past decade. C. illicit drug use has been at the same level since 1990. D. illicit drug use has declined in recent years.
answer
D. illicit drug use has declined in recent years.
question
105. Cigarette smoking is likely to begin in grades ____. A. 7 through 9 B. 10 through 12 C. 5 through 7 D. 9 through 11
answer
A. 7 through 9
question
106. Nathan has recently taken to abusing prescription painkillers. What is likely to be his main source of the drug? A. Unscrupulous pharmacists B. Drug dealers targeting high school students C. The medicine cabinets of their parents or of friends' parents D. The Internet
answer
C. The medicine cabinets of their parents or of friends' parents
question
107. Anorexia nervosa is about _____ to occur in females than males. A. twice more likely B. 10 times more likely C. half as likely D. three times more likely
answer
B. 10 times more likely
question
108. Most people with anorexia nervosa are from: A. middle- and upper-income families. B. poor and working-class families. C. Asian American and African American families. D. families with low achievement demands.
answer
A. middle- and upper-income families.
question
109. Anorexia and bulimia nervosa affect: A. men and women equally. B. men more than women. C. women more than men. D. women more than older men, but less than younger men.
answer
C. women more than men.
question
110. According to Jean Piaget, around age 11, the fourth and final stage of cognitive development, the _____ stage, begins. A. concrete operational B. formal operational C. postoperational D. passive operational
answer
B. formal operational
question
111. Adolescent _____ is the heightened self-consciousness of adolescents. A. mirror complex B. ethnocentrism C. solipsism D. egocentrism
answer
D. egocentrism
question
112. The _____ is adolescents' belief that others are as interested in them as they themselves are, as well as attention-getting behavior—attempts to be noticed, visible, and "on stage." A. personal fable B. stage fear C. imaginary audience D. collective myth
answer
C. imaginary audience
question
113. Leila, 14, feels that nobody understands her, especially her parents and teachers. Leila's feelings reflect the _____ aspect of an adolescent's egocentrism. A. personal fable B. imaginary audience C. self-fulfilling prophecy D. collective myth
answer
A. personal fable
question
114. Which of the following is a concern related to U.S. high school education? A. High expectations for success B. High standards for learning C. Fostering of passivity in students D. Too much variety in the pathways students can take
answer
C. Fostering of passivity in students
question
115. The highest school drop-out rate in the United States occurs for: A. Latinos. B. Native Americans. C. African Americans. D. Asian Americans.
answer
B. Native Americans.
question
116. Identify a strategy mentioned in the book as being emphasized in the Gates' funding to help students at risk for dropping out of school. A. Community-based education B. Keeping them with the same teachers through their high school years C. Facilitating peer-learning D. Rotating them through teachers in high school
answer
B. Keeping them with the same teachers through their high school years
question
117. _____ is a form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to the community. A. Service learning B. Social learning C. Collaborative learning D. Cooperative learning
answer
A. Service learning
question
118. Service learning is often more effective when two conditions are met: (1) giving students some degree of choice in the service activities in which they participate, and (2) ____. A. fixing certain minimum levels of compliance B. guiding them in their tasks C. providing students opportunities to reflect about their participation D. limiting the amount of time spent volunteering
answer
C. providing students opportunities to reflect about their participation
question
119. In 2003, this researcher suggested that adolescents have difficulty controlling their emotions, because their prefrontal cortex has not yet fully developed.
answer
Charles Nelson
question
120. This theorist suggested that adolescent egocentrism is characterized by "the imaginary audience" and the "personal fable."
answer
David Elkind
question
121. A period of rapid physical maturation involving hormonal and bodily changes that occurs primarily during adolescence.
answer
Puberty
question
122. An eating disorder that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation.
answer
Anorexia Nervosa
question
123. A form of education that promotes social responsibility and service to the community.
answer
Service Learning
question
127. Though controversial, it is indicated that self-esteem: A. increases in adolescence. B. remains constant in adolescence. C. shows no gender difference in adolescents. D. declines in adolescent girls.
answer
D. declines in adolescent girls.
question
128. Results of a New Zealand longitudinal study that assessed the self-esteem of adolescents at 11, 13, and 15 years of age and adjustment and competence of the same individuals when they were 26 years old, indicated: A. no connection between self-esteem in adolescence and competence as adults. B. that well-adjusted, competent adults were just as likely as adults characterized by poorer mental and physical health to have low self-esteem in adolescence. C. individuals with low self-esteem in adolescence showed no negative outcomes in adulthood. D. that adults characterized by poorer mental and physical health were more likely to have low self-esteem in adolescence than well-adjusted, competent adults.
answer
D. that adults characterized by poorer mental and physical health were more likely to have low self-esteem in adolescence than well-adjusted, competent adults.
question
129. Erikson's fifth developmental stage, which individuals experience during adolescence, is ___. A. identity versus identity confusion B. autonomy versus shame and doubt C. initiative versus guilt D. intimacy versus isolation
answer
A. identity versus identity confusion
question
130. Adolescents who do not successfully resolve their identity crisis suffer from what Erikson calls ___. A. identity diffusion B. unresolved identity C. identity confusion D. identity moratorium
answer
C. identity confusion
question
131. What determines an individual's identity status? A. the choices and alternatives they have access to B. their socioeconomic and academic profile C. the existence or extent of their crisis or commitment D. the existence or extent of parental and social support
answer
C. the existence or extent of their crisis or commitment
question
132. _____ reflects an individual's personal investment in identity development. A. Commitment B. Collaboration C. Calling D. Conscientiousness
answer
A. Commitment
question
133. Identify the status of individuals who have not yet experienced a crisis or made any commitments. A. Identity crisis B. Identity diffusion C. Identity foreclosure D. Identity achievement
answer
B. Identity diffusion
question
134. Identity _____ is James Marcia's term for the status of adolescents who are in the midst of a crisis, and whose commitment levels are either absent or only vaguely defined. A. confusion B. stagnation C. diffusion D. moratorium
answer
D. moratorium
question
135. Identity _____ is the status of individuals who have undergone a crisis and made a commitment. A. diffusion B. foreclosure C. moratorium D. achievement
answer
D. achievement
question
136. _____ is the enduring aspect of the self that includes a sense of membership in an ethnic group, along with the attitudes and feelings related to that membership. A. Ethnic gloss B. Ethnic awareness C. Ethnic identity D. Ethnic pride
answer
C. Ethnic identity
question
137. Second-generation immigrants are more likely to think of themselves as "American," possibly because: A. their parents gave up ethnic control. B. citizenship is granted at birth. C. they usually speak English D. they disassociate themselves with their ethnic background.
answer
B. citizenship is granted at birth.
question
138. Which of the following statements about religion and adolescents has research shown to be true? A. There has been a resurgence in religious interest among adolescents. B. Religious issues are not important to most adolescents. C. Generally, 18-year olds are more religious than 14-year olds in the U.S. D. Adolescent girls are more religious than are adolescent boys
answer
D. Adolescent girls are more religious than are adolescent boys
question
139. Many of the cognitive changes thought to influence religious development—such as adolescents' increased ability to think more abstractly, idealistically, and logically—involve: A. Piaget's cognitive developmental theory. B. Erikson's psychosocial theory. C. Freud's psychoanalytic theory. D. Lorenz's ethological theory.
answer
A. Piaget's cognitive developmental theory.
question
140. Joseph Allen and his colleagues found that adolescents who were securely attached to their parents at 14 years of age were more likely at 21 years of age to report: A. feeling uncomfortable in other intimate relationships. B. continuing financial dependence on their parents. C. that they were in an exclusive relationship. D. a conflicted relationship with their parents.
answer
C. that they were in an exclusive relationship.
question
141. As opposed to the trend in young children, teenagers typically prefer to have: A. a large group of friends, some of whom are especially intimate. B. several friends, but only one "best" friend. C. very few intense and intimate friendships. D. a smaller number of friendships that are more intense and intimate.
answer
D. a smaller number of friendships that are more intense and intimate.
question
142. Harry Stack Sullivan believes most adolescent friendships are built on a need for ___. A. respect B. compatibility C. intimacy D. similarity
answer
C. intimacy
question
143. At which grade level does conformity to peers peak? A. Sixth and seventh grades B. Eighth and ninth grades C. Tenth and eleventh grades D. Twelfth grade
answer
B. Eighth and ninth grades
question
144. At about which stage do cliques become more heterosexual and include members from both sexes? A. In adulthood B. In elementary school C. In middle school D. In high school
answer
D. In high school
question
145. Crowds are different from cliques in that: A. they are not defined by the activities that members engage in. B. they become more prominent in late adolescence. C. they are larger and less personal. D. the members have nothing in common.
answer
C. they are larger and less personal.
question
146. Adolescents enter into romantic attractions and affiliations at about _____ years of age, where dating, if any, occur in a group setting. A. 8 to 9 B. 11 to 13 C. 14 to 16 D. 17 to 19
answer
B. 11 to 13
question
147. Early bloomers include: A. 15 to 20 percent of 14 to 16 year olds who say that they currently are in a romantic relationship. B. 10 percent of 17 to 19 year olds who say that they have had no experience with romantic relationships. C. 15 to 20 percent of 11 to 13 year olds who say that they currently are in a romantic relationship. D. 15 percent of 17 to 19 year olds who report that they have not engaged in any romantic relationships that lasted more than 4 months.
answer
C. 15 to 20 percent of 11 to 13 year olds who say that they currently are in a romantic relationship.
question
148. Late bloomers comprise approximately 10 percent of _____ who say that they have had no experience with romantic relationships. A. 14 to 16 year olds B. 17 to 19 year olds C. 12 to 13 year olds D. 15 to 16 year olds
answer
B. 17 to 19 year olds
question
149. Research linking dating and romantic relationships with various measures of adolescent adjustment indicates that: A. the number of romantic experiences reported had no link with levels of social acceptance experienced by adolescents. B. having more romantic experience was linked to a higher level of substance use and delinquency. C. together, co-rumination and romantic involvement predicted a decrease in depressive symptoms. D. having no experience of romantic relationships is a consistent predictor of depression and deviant behavior.
answer
B. having more romantic experience was linked to a higher level of substance use and delinquency.
question
150. The amount of daily discretionary time that American adolescents have is _____ what adolescents have in East Asia. A. significantly less than B. significantly more than C. equal to D. declining compared with
answer
B. significantly more than
question
151. What distinguishes the locations where rites of passage are prevalent in sub-Saharan Africa? A. Marked distinctions in status of age groups B. Resistance to Western culture C. Rigid social structure D. Low access to formal education
answer
D. Low access to formal education
question
152. Television viewing and video-game playing often peak in: A. early childhood. B. early adolescence. C. late adolescence. D. mid-childhood.
answer
B. early adolescence.
question
153. The number of juvenile court delinquency caseloads in the United States: A. has increased dramatically since 1996. B. has increased slightly since 1960. C. has decreased dramatically since 1996. D. has decreased slightly since 1996.
answer
D. has decreased slightly since 1996.
question
154. Early-onset antisocial behavior is defined as antisocial behavior before the age of ___. A. 13 B. 9 C. 15 D. 11
answer
D. 11
question
155. Why do females have higher rates of depression than do males? A. Females have more negative self-images than do males. B. Society discourages females from talking about their problems. C. Females have lower amounts of serotonin in their brain than do males. D. They do not; they just seek help more frequently than do males.
answer
A. Females have more negative self-images than do males.
question
156. The best way to treat adolescent depression is: A. through antidepressant medication like Prozac. B. not with medication, but through cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). C. a combination of antidepressant medication and psychoanalysis, without medication. D. a combination of antidepressant medication and CBT.
answer
D. a combination of antidepressant medication and CBT.
question
157. Suicide is the _____ leading cause of death in 10- to 19-year-olds in the United States today. A. second B. third C. fourth D. fifth
answer
B. third
question
158. As many as _____ of adolescents in the United States have been estimated to engage in all four of the problem behaviors common in adolescents such as drug abuse, juvenile delinquency, sexual problems, and school-related problems. A. 10 percent B. 20 percent C. 25 percent D. 30 percent
answer
A. 10 percent
question
159. How early should intervention occur to prevent juvenile delinquency? A. Preschool B. Elementary school C. Junior high school D. High school
answer
A. Preschool
question
160. Fast Track is an intervention program that attempts to lower the risk of: A. teen pregnancy. B. juvenile delinquency. C. teen suicide. D. dropping out of school.
answer
B. juvenile delinquency.
question
161. This Eriksonian researcher proposes that Erikson's theory of identity development contains four statuses of identity, or ways of resolving the identity crisis.
answer
James Marcia
question
162. A personal investment in identity.
answer
Commitment
question
163. This person is considered to be the most influential theorist to discuss the importance of adolescent friendships. He argued that friends help adolescents meet basic social needs such as the need for social acceptance and intimacy.
answer
Harry Stack Sullivan
question
164. An adolescent group structure that is usually formed based on reputation. Members may or may not spend time together.
answer
Crowd
question
167. All of the following are key features identified by Jeffrey Arnett as characterizing emerging adulthood, EXCEPT: A. stability. B. identity exploration. C. being self-focused. D. feeling "in-between."
answer
A. stability.
question
168. The three characteristics shared by these "late-bloomers"—individuals who were still showing maladaptive patterns in emerging adulthood but had gotten their lives together by the time they were in the late twenties and early thirties—were being planful, showing positive aspects of autonomy, and ___. A. peer pressure B. support by adults C. increased spiritualism D. professional counseling
answer
B. support by adults
question
169. A longitudinal study found that at age 25 _____ of the participants were fully financially independent of their family of origin. A. very few B. a little more than half C. most D. all
answer
B. a little more than half
question
170. In developing countries, the most widely recognized marker of entry into adulthood is: A. holding a permanent, full-time job. B. moving into one's own home. C. getting married. D. having a child.
answer
C. getting married.
question
171. In developing countries, marriage, the marker for entry into adulthood usually occurs _____ the adulthood markers in the United States A. much earlier than B. much later than C. around the same time as D. soon after
answer
A. much earlier than
question
172. Muscle tone and strength usually begin to show signs of decline around the age of ___. A. 25 B. 30 C. 40 D. 20
answer
B. 30
question
173. Emerging adults have _____ chronic health problems, and they have _____ colds and respiratory problems than when they were children. A. few; fewer B. several; far more C. many; fewer D. hardly any; significantly higher
answer
A. few; fewer
question
174. College students' failure to develop health-promoting habits is due to their: A. belief that good genes will override any unhealthy behaviors. B. lack of knowledge about which behaviors are healthy and unhealthy. C. reluctance to be seen as health-conscious. D. failure to think about how their lifestyle will affect them later in life.
answer
D. failure to think about how their lifestyle will affect them later in life.
question
175. The prevalence of obesity in U.S. adults 20 years of age and older was _____ in 2006. A. 19 percent B. 45 percent C. 33 percent D. 10 percent
answer
C. 33 percent
question
176. Leptin acts as a(n): A. fatty acid. B. fat-dissolving protein. C. anti-aging oxidant. D. antiobesity hormone.
answer
D. antiobesity hormone.
question
177. The weight you maintain when you make no effort to gain or lose weight is called your: A. ideal weight. B. basal weight. C. set point weight. D. metabolic weight.
answer
C. set point weight.
question
178. The obesity rate has _____ in the United States since 1900. A. halved B. doubled C. increased five-fold D. marginally increased
answer
B. doubled
question
179. Obesity is _____ prevalent among women with low incomes than among women with high incomes. A. far less B. marginally less C. several times more D. marginally more
answer
C. several times more
question
180. Which of the following statements about the benefits of exercise is true? A. About 50 percent of adults get the recommended levels of physical activity. B. Exercise can be as effective in reducing depression as psychotherapy. C. Only intense physical activities will produce important physical gains. D. Exercise has little impact on self-concept and in reducing anxiety
answer
B. Exercise can be as effective in reducing depression as psychotherapy.
question
181. According to a longitudinal study by Jerald Bachman and his colleagues, by the time individuals reach their mid-twenties, _____ their use of alcohol and drugs. A. many would have reduced B. most would have increased C. almost all would have ceased D. most would have been addicted to
answer
A. many would have reduced
question
182. Binge drinking peaks at about: A. 16 to 18 years of age. B. 21 to 22 years of age. C. 17 to 19 years of age. D. 24 to 26 years of age.
answer
B. 21 to 22 years of age.
question
183. An estimated _____ percent of individuals who become alcoholics are believed to have a genetic predisposition for it. A. 10 to 20 B. 50 to 60 C. 30 to 40 D. 70 to 80
answer
B. 50 to 60
question
184. There is a "one-third rule'' for alcoholism: by age 65, one-third are dead or in terrible shape, one-third are abstinent or drinking socially, and one-third are ___. A. holding out against treatment B. still trying to beat their addiction C. resigned to alcoholism D. hopeless about recovery
answer
B. still trying to beat their addiction
question
185. Nicotine is a(n) ___. A. depressant B. stimulant C. narcotic D. sedative
answer
B. stimulant
question
186. Emerging adulthood is a time frame during which most individuals are: A. in exclusive relationships and married. B. abstaining from sex and unmarried C. sexually active and unmarried. D. sexually active and married.
answer
C. sexually active and unmarried.
question
187. In 1994, Robert Michael and his colleagues conducted a comprehensive survey of American sexual patterns. Results from this "Sex in America" survey suggested that Americans' sexual lives are _____ than previously believed. A. more conservative B. less conservative C. more active D. less active
answer
A. more conservative
question
188. Today, it is more accepted to view sexual orientation as: A. an either/or proposition. B. heterosexual or homosexual. C. a continuum from exclusive male-female relations to exclusive same-sex relations. D. having different physiological responses during sexual arousal.
answer
C. a continuum from exclusive male-female relations to exclusive same-sex relations.
question
189. According to psychologist Laura Brown, how can lesbians and gay males adapt to a world in which they are a minority? A. By isolating themselves from the majority heterosexual culture. B. By balancing the demands of the minority lesbian/gay male culture and the majority heterosexual culture. C. By accepting the dictates and bias of the majority heterosexual culture. D. By maintaining a distance from both the majority heterosexual culture and the minority lesbian/gay male culture.
answer
B. By balancing the demands of the minority lesbian/gay male culture and the majority heterosexual culture.
question
190. Which of the following is true of rape? A. Men in prisons are vulnerable to rape, usually by homosexual males. B. Men and women are equally likely to be victims of rape. C. A lower level of men's sexual narcissism was linked to a greater likelihood that they would engage in sexual aggression. D. Rapes are underreported.
answer
D. Rapes are underreported.
question
191. About _____ college men admit to forcing sexual activity. A. a quarter of B. 3 in 4 C. 1 in 10 D. half
answer
D. half
question
192. Sexual harassment is a manifestation of: A. genuine attraction toward the victim. B. a lack of empathy that the behavior is offensive and unwelcome. C. power of one person over another. D. contempt for the victim.
answer
C. power of one person over another.
question
193. Gisela Labouvie-Vief recently proposed that: A. adult thought today needs to be more reflective and complex than in the past. B. hardly any individual variation exists in the thinking of emerging adults. C. the highest level of thinking is attained by most adults today. D. adults will achieve the maximum cognitive potential with or without an education.
answer
A. adult thought today needs to be more reflective and complex than in the past.
question
194. The main cognitive change between the fourth and fifth stages of cognitive development is _____ thinking. A. abstract B. concrete C. reflective D. dualist
answer
C. reflective
question
195. Csikszentmihalyi points out that _____ capable of achieving flow. A. only a few geniuses are B. about one-third of us are C. only those in the arts are D. everyone is
answer
D. everyone is
question
196. According to the U.S. government's Occupational Outlook Handbook, 2008-2009, which of the following areas of work are expected to account for the most new jobs in the next decade? A. Agriculture B. Manufacturing C. Service industries D. Primary industries
answer
C. Service industries
question
197. According to a recent survey, _____ of all full-time college students and _____ of part-time college students are employed. A. a small percentage; about half B. the vast majority of; all C. a few; about two-thirds D. almost half; the vast majority
answer
D. almost half; the vast majority
question
198. More than 1,000 colleges in the United States offer cooperative (co-op) programs, which are: A. service jobs on campus. B. paid apprenticeships in a field that you are interested in pursuing. C. community service programs. D. internships with local companies.
answer
B. paid apprenticeships in a field that you are interested in pursuing.
question
199. Which of the following is a way in which the division of responsibility for work and family changed with the emergence of dual-earning couples? A. Gender inequalities at home have been wiped out. B. Dual-earner career decisions often are made in favor of men spending more time than women in homemaking and caring for children. C. Most dual-earner couples bring in about the same amount of money individually. D. U.S. men are showing greater interest in their families and parenting.
answer
D. U.S. men are showing greater interest in their families and parenting.
question
200. Carol, a mid-level manager at Pegasus Incorporated, has not received a promotion in the last three years despite good performance and good ratings at performance appraisals. If she were to be promoted, she would be the only female employee at top management level. Carol seems to have hit: A. the brick wall. B. the glass wall. C. the glass ceiling. D. the invisible ceiling.
answer
C. the glass ceiling.
question
201. The term given recently to refer to the transition from adolescence to adulthood that occurs from approximately 18 to 25 years of age.
answer
Emerging Adulthood
question
202. Sustained exercise (e.g., jogging, swimming) that stimulates heart and lung activity.
answer
Aerobic Exercise
question
203. Coercive sexual activity directed at someone with whom the perpetrator is at least casually acquainted.
answer
Date or Acquaintance Rape
question
204. This theorist suggested that adults are more likely to engage in reflective, relativistic thinking, whereas adolescents are more likely to use absolute, dualistic thinking.
answer
William Perry
question
205. This theorist studied creative people and coined the term "flow" to describe a heightened state of pleasure experienced when we are engaged in mental and physical challenges that absorb us
answer
Mihahi Csikszentmihalyi
question
206. College programs that offer paid apprenticeships in the area of the student's academic field.
answer
Cooperative (co-op) Programs
question
207. What is the best way to lose weight and keep it off?
answer
Combine diet and exercise.
question
211. _____ is an individual's behavioral style and characteristic emotional responses. A. Attitude B. Temper C. Disposition D. Temperament
answer
D. Temperament
question
212. Individuals who had an inhibited temperament in childhood: A. will be more aggressive as adults. B. are more likely to delay entering a stable job track. C. experience more social support as adults. D. enter into stable partnerships early in adulthood.
answer
B. are more likely to delay entering a stable job track.
question
213. Research indicates that links between early attachment styles and later attachment styles were _____ by stressful and disruptive experiences. A. not impacted by B. lessened C. facilitated D. enhanced
answer
B. lessened
question
214. Securely attached adults: A. are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships, but are committed once they are in one. B. demand closeness in relationships and are more emotional. C. are less likely than others to have one-night stands. D. tend to distance themselves from their partner.
answer
C. are less likely than others to have one-night stands.
question
215. Individuals with an anxious attachment style: A. are hesitant about getting involved in romantic relationships, but are committed once they are in one. B. demand closeness in relationships and are more emotional. C. are less likely than others to have one-night stands. D. tend to distance themselves from their partner.
answer
B. demand closeness in relationships and are more emotional.
question
216. Which of the following is true of the preferences of adults regarding the attachment styles of their partners? A. Securely attached adults show a preference for individuals with an anxious attachment style. B. Individuals with an anxious attachment style mostly seem to prefer a partner with an anxious attachment style. C. Avoidant adults prefer to have an avoidant adult as partner. D. Adults prefer having a securely attached partner.
answer
D. Adults prefer having a securely attached partner.
question
217. "Amelia's all excited about this new guy she met," says Julie. "I guess it makes sense because he's really a geek." Based on the concept of consensual validation, we can expect that Julie: A. thinks that Amelia is also a geek. B. is an intellectual and charitable person. C. believes that Amelia is not influenced by her friend's opinions. D. is providing consensual validation for Amelia's taste in men.
answer
A. thinks that Amelia is also a geek.
question
218. Physical attractiveness in a relationship is MOST important to: A. teenagers. B. men. C. women. D. adults in their 20s and 30s.
answer
B. men.
question
219. Latrell is very intelligent but only of average physical attractiveness. The matching hypothesis states that he will choose a partner who: A. is also intelligent but very attractive. B. is bright but unattractive. C. is of average physical attraction and intelligence. D. is very attractive but not very intelligent.
answer
C. is of average physical attraction and intelligence.
question
220. Which aspect of love becomes increasingly important to the adolescent? A. altruism B. friendship C. intimacy D. dependency
answer
C. intimacy
question
221. According to Erik Erikson, achieving intimacy means to be able to: A. have a sexual relationship with someone. B. detach your thoughts from your emotions. C. comfortably live in close proximity to someone. D. comfortably lose oneself in another person.
answer
D. comfortably lose oneself in another person.
question
222. According to Erik Erikson, what must individuals achieve before they can develop intimacy? A. an identity B. secure attachment C. self-appraisal D. commitment
answer
A. an identity
question
223. According to the author of your text, relationships in early adulthood strive to balance: A. intimacy, individuality, and compromise. B. passion, intimacy, and commitment. C. interconnection, independence, and negotiation. D. independence and intimacy.
answer
B. passion, intimacy, and commitment.
question
224. Female friendships are more _____ than male friendships, whereas male friendships are more _____ than female friendships. A. competitive; companionate B. nurturing; aloof C. intimate; competitive D. long-lasting; temporary
answer
C. intimate; competitive
question
225. According to Ellen Berscheid, the most important ingredient of romantic love is: A. friendship. B. sexual desire. C. long-term commitment. D. spontaneity in behavior.
answer
B. sexual desire.
question
226. What explains the fact that a couple can remain happy together even after romantic love fades? A. Research indicates that it is not possible for a couple to remain truly happy after romantic love fades. B. Romantic love involves making a strong and long-lasting commitment to the partner which remains once the romantic love fades. C. Romantic love is replaced by affectionate love which is based on a realistic knowledge and acceptance of the other's strengths and faults. D. Romantic love is replaced by a sense of sexual attraction in which the partners become interested in getting to know one another better.
answer
C. Romantic love is replaced by affectionate love which is based on a realistic knowledge and acceptance of the other's strengths and faults.
question
227. Julie describes how she feels about Mark: "I'm very physically attracted to him, but we aren't what you would call emotionally close. I love being with him, but I don't know that this will be a long-lasting relationship." According to Robert Sternberg's theory of love, which type of love is Julie experiencing? A. romantic love B. passionate love C. sexual love D. companionate love
answer
A. romantic love
question
228. Brenda and Jonathan have been married for 15 years. When Brenda develops a potentially fatal lung disease, Jonathan retires in order to care for Brenda. This relationship appears to be high in _____. A. intimacy B. commitment C. passion D. attraction
answer
B. commitment
question
229. When all three parts of Sternberg's triarchic theory of love are present in a relationship, what type of love are people experiencing? A. affectionate love B. consummate love C. fatuous love D. passionate love
answer
B. consummate love
question
230. Bob worships his colleague, Anne, but there is no intimacy or sharing between them. Sternberg would call this type of love _____. A. consummate B. fatuous C. affectionate D. passionate
answer
B. fatuous
question
231. According to 2009 data, _____ of U.S. couples reported that they had cohabitated before getting married. A. more than 75 percent B. about 45 percent C. less than 55 percent D. less 60 percent
answer
A. more than 75 percent
question
232. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of being a single adult? A. having time to make decisions about one's life course B. time to develop personal resources to meet goals C. forming intimate relationships with other adults D. explore new places and try out new things
answer
C. forming intimate relationships with other adults
question
233. Rob and Alise have just moved in together, so that they can spend more time with each other and get to know each other better. Research indicates that: A. within 1 year Rob and Alise will no longer be living together. B. within 1 year Rob and Alise will be married. C. there is a very slim chance that Rob and Alise will be together for 5 years. D. Rob and Alise will have a child within a year but not marry.
answer
C. there is a very slim chance that Rob and Alise will be together for 5 years.
question
234. Which of the following statements about cohabitation is TRUE? A. People who cohabitate with another person after a divorce have a higher rate of remarital happiness than people who live alone after a divorce. B. Couples who cohabitate before getting engaged have a better chance of a successful marriage than couples who wait until they are engaged to cohabitate. C. Couples who wait until they are engaged to cohabitate have a better chance of a successful marriage than couples who cohabitate before becoming engaged. D. Couples who cohabitate after getting engaged experience marital dissatisfaction earlier than the couples who cohabitate earlier.
answer
C. Couples who wait until they are engaged to cohabitate have a better chance of a successful marriage than couples who cohabitate before becoming engaged.
question
235. In the last 60 years, which of the following is the prominent goal that competes with the goal of marital stability? A. personal fulfillment both inside and outside marriage B. personal dignity within and outside marriage C. efficient life choices for maximum enjoyment D. long-term financial stability and security
answer
A. personal fulfillment both inside and outside marriage
question
236. If American men and women are going to get married at some point in their life, most do so by the time they are _____ years old. A. 35 B. 40 C. 45 D. 50
answer
C. 45
question
237. According to Census Bureau statistics, compared to 1980s, in 2007 the average age for marriage: A. climbed high for men and declined for women. B. climbed high for both men and women. C. declined by an average of 2 years for both men and women. D. climbed high for women but declined for men.
answer
B. climbed high for both men and women.
question
238. In India, _____ of marriages continue to be arranged. A. 20 percent B. 30 percent C. 50 percent D. 70 percent
answer
D. 70 percent
question
239. A recent survey of more than 3,000 adults revealed that premarital education was linked to all of the following EXCEPT: A. lower level of marital satisfaction. B. higher level of commitment to a spouse. C. lower level of destructive marital conflict. D. lower likelihood of divorce.
answer
A. lower level of marital satisfaction.
question
240. One of the benefits of marriage is: A. increased longevity. B. more financial security. C. an improved gender identity. D. improved social relations.
answer
A. increased longevity.
question
241. When couples divorce in the United States, they do so during which years of marriage? A. first through third B. second through fifth C. fifth through tenth D. tenth through twelfth
answer
C. fifth through tenth
question
242. On average, divorced adults remarry within _____ years after their divorce. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
answer
C. 3
question
243. All of the following are myths about gay and lesbian couples EXCEPT: A. they have a large number of sexual partners. B. they do not have long-term relationships. C. one partner assumes a masculine role, and one partner assumes a feminine role. D. half of committed gay male couples have open relationships that allows the possibility of sex.
answer
D. half of committed gay male couples have open relationships that allows the possibility of sex.
question
244. Kelly has just given birth to her first baby at age 37; her best friend, Olivia, age 26, just gave birth to her first child. Which of the following is likely to be TRUE for these new mothers? A. Kelly will have more energy to care for her child than will Olivia. B. Olivia will probably have had an easier pregnancy and birth than Kelly. C. Olivia will be a more competent parent than Kelly. D. Olivia will not probably have a second child.
answer
B. Olivia will probably have had an easier pregnancy and birth than Kelly.
question
245. Which one of the following is an advantage of having children later? A. fewer medical problems with childbirth B. parents have more physical energy C. parents have a better idea of what they want from their family roles D. fewer expectations of how children should behave
answer
C. parents have a better idea of what they want from their family roles
question
246. According to E. Mavis Hetherington's research, the largest group of divorced people falls into the category of: A. the good enoughs. B. the enhancers. C. the seekers. D. the defeated.
answer
A. the good enoughs.
question
247. After Mildred's divorce, she went back to college, renewed old acquaintanceships, and took up ballroom dancing. She chose the pathway of: A. the good enough. B. the positive attitude. C. the seeker. D. the enhancer.
answer
D. the enhancer.
question
248. Sandra and Tom divorced after an 18-year marriage when Tom left Sandra for his colleague. Since the divorce 2 years ago, Sandra has been promoted in her job, has an active social life with her friends, and has taken up golf. When her friends suggest that she meet a man, however, Sandra tells them that she has no interest in men and that she is really quite content with her life. Sandra is a(n): A. defeated divorcee. B. competent loner. C. enhancer. D. libertine.
answer
B. competent loner.
question
249. Deborah Tannen analyzed the talk of men and women and found that compared with women, men more commonly engage in _____ talk, because for men, talk is for _____. A. rapport; information B. report; information C. rapport; interaction D. report; interaction
answer
B. report; information
question
250. Which of the following differences in communication of men and women has research shown to be TRUE? A. Women use words more for discussing external events such as occupations and money. B. Men and women cannot be distinguished from one another in their references to anger and sexuality. C. Overall gender differences in communication are fairly large for both children and adults. D. Men use words more for discussing people and what they were doing.
answer
B. Men and women cannot be distinguished from one another in their references to anger and sexuality.
question
251. According to Ron Levant (2002), which of the following is NOT a way in which men can reconstruct their masculinity? A. reexamine their beliefs about manhood B. reject the negative aspects of masculinity C. adopt more feminine traits D. accept the valuable aspects of masculinity
answer
C. adopt more feminine traits
question
252. Similar people are attracted to each other because the other person provides support for each person's attitudes and behaviors.
answer
consensual validation
question
253. According to the triarchic theory of love, this type of love includes passion and commitment, but does not include (or is low on) intimacy.
answer
Fatuous Love
question
254. The group of divorced people who grew more competent, well-adjusted, and self-fulfilled following their divorce.
answer
The enhancers
question
255. This theorist distinguished two ways of communication: rapport talk and report talk.
answer
Deborah Tannen
question
256. The view that states that males' roles are contradictory and inconsistent.
answer
Joseph Peck's role-strain view
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New