Project Management chapters 4-6

Flashcard maker : Lily Taylor
The project charter serves as a formal legal contract between the project team and the project sponsor. (T/F)
The signing of the project charter signals the transition from the high-level project initiating stage into the more detailed project planning stage. (T/F)
The signing of the project portfolio statement signals the transition from the high-level project initiating stage into the more detailed project planning stage. (T/F)
In contrast to the case that exists with a legal contract, the parties to a signed project charter are merely obligated to the spirit of the charter since specific details will certainly change. (T/F)
One purpose of the project charter is to help the project team and sponsor commit to the project. (T/F)
A charter is used to quickly screen potential projects and to eliminate the poor choices. (T/F)
Charters used in different industries and in different companies have somewhat different elements and formats. (T/F)
The scope overview and business case sections of the project charter provide the high-level “what and where” of the project. (T/F)
A well-written business case should persuade decision-makers to support the project. (T/F)
The project business case provides a high-level description of what the project will accomplish and how it will be done. (T/F)
A background statement is often added to a project charter to help stakeholders better understand the background behind the scope overview and business case. (T/F)
A background statement is a mandatory element of the project charter that sets the stage for creation of the scope overview and business case. (T/F)
The project master network is a summary-level schedule that identifies the major schedule milestones or significant points and events in the project. (T/F)
A deliverable is any unique and verifiable product, result or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. (T/F)
A key concept in agile projects is that something of value will be delivered at each iteration. (T/F)
Assumptions identified in the project charter include events that, if they occur, will have either a positive or a negative effect on a project’s objectives (T/F)
Risks, assumptions and constraints are included in the project charter so that key participants will be aware of what could prevent them from successfully completing the project. (T/F)
At the time the project charter is prepared there is typically a very general understanding of the project, so if a budget is included it can only be a rough estimate. (T/F)
Which of the following documents serves as an informal contract between the project team and the project sponsor?

a. team members’ employment contracts
b. project charter
c. project roadmap
d. business case

The project charter grants the project team the right to:
a. begin project execution
b. develop the project mission statement
c. create a detailed project plan
d. write a detailed business case
The project charter serves all of the following purposes EXCEPT:

a. authorizes the project manager to proceed
b. develops a common understanding between the sponsor and the project team
c. quickly screens out obviously poor projects
d. describes skill sets needed for the project

The project charter should help the project team and the project sponsor to develop a common understanding of what the project is all about. All of the following items are elements of that common understanding EXCEPT:

a. understanding how the project aligns with the goals of the organization
b. understanding the detailed project schedule
c. understanding project success measures
d. understanding what is included and excluded

Within the project charter, the scope overview accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. identifies the major schedule milestones for the project
b. describes the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result.
c. distinguishes between what the project will and will not do.
d. describes at a high level what needs to be accomplished and how it will be done.

During iteration planning in an agile project, agreement is reached regarding:
a. the length of the next sprint.
b. detailed stakeholder requirements.
c. the definition of done.
d. positive and negative risks.
Which of the following charter elements defines the project purpose and justifies the necessity of the project?

a. scope control plan
b. acceptance criteria
c. business case
d. scope overview

Which of the following charter elements should inspire team members to develop a passion for the project and to work hard on it?

a. the project vision statement
b. the business case
c. the project motto
d. the team operating principles

The milestone schedule in the project charter:

a. is a schedule that provides detailed data for when each project activity should begin.
b. is a detailed schedule that shows the planned duration for every activity in the project.
c. is a summary-level schedule that identifies significant points or events in the project.
d. is a summary-level schedule that shows how major project tasks are sequenced.

The addition of acceptance criteria factors to the milestones in a project charter helps the team understand who will judge the quality of the deliverable associated with each milestone, and _____:

a. that stakeholder’s role on the team.
b. the risk associated with each milestone.
c. the penalties for not achieving the desired quality.
d. the criteria or standards they will use.

Project charters typically include all of the following elements EXCEPT:

a. positive and negative risks
b. project assumptions
c. detailed resource requirements
d. project constraints

Project managers and teams should consider risks and include them in the project charter for all the following reasons EXCEPT:

a. risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives should be identified and addressed.
b. all project risks should be eliminated before the project charter is signed.
c. risks that may have a positive impact on the project create opportunities and should be capitalized upon.
d. the sponsor and core team should be aware of what could prevent them from successfully completing the project.

Team operating principles are sometimes included in a project charter to enhance team performance. Which of the following statements accurately describes the value of establishing team operating principles?

a. Operating principles that address the conduct of meetings and how decisions are made are especially useful in helping the team get off to a good start.
b. Operating principles typically detail the specific work that each team member will perform and ensure a more complete understanding of the project.
c. Operating principles identify the rules along with the punishments to be administered when the rules are broken.
d. Operating principles are especially helpful for a routine project where participants have worked together before

A project sponsor is wise not to sign a project charter authorizing work until the project manager and team show that they have ____:
a. learned to work together well.
b. gathered requirements from key stakeholders.
c. reviewed lessons learned from previous projects in order to avoid similar mistakes.
d. prepared a comprehensive schedule and budget.
Which section of the project charter publicly acknowledges the commitment of the sponsor, managers and team members to the project?
a. business case
b. signatures and commitment
c. decisions and findings
d. contract section
Which of the following statements most accurately identifies the typical contents of the project charter?

a. requirements, specifications, test protocols and test results
b. statement of work, terms and conditions, clauses and delivery instructions
c. business case, milestone schedule, resource estimates and team operating principles
d. purpose, literature review, methodology, results and conclusions

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibilities typically associated with the development of the project charter?

a. the project sponsor typically prepares the detailed first draft of the charter
b. the project manager typically prepares the business case and scope overview
c. the customer typically prepares and signs the charter
d. the project manager and team typically prepare the majority of the rough draft for the project charter

On agile projects the first iteration is planned as a milestone with acceptance criteria. However, subsequent milestones and acceptance criteria are determined on a ___:
a. need-to-know basis
b. first in first out (FIFO) basis
c. just in time (JIT) basis
d. first come first served basis
A project management plan is a formal document that defines how the project will be initiated and planned. (T/F)
Plan Communications is the process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders’ information needs and requirements and available organizational assets. (T/F)
Stakeholders include both those who will use the result of a project as well as those who will be affected by the result of a project. (T/F)
Stakeholders include those affected by the result of the project, but not those affected by the process of performing the project. (T/F)
Stakeholders include people who have their routines disrupted by the project. (T/F)
Authority and urgency are among the aspects that project managers should consider in prioritizing stakeholders. (T/F)
Project managers should purposefully plan and carry out relationship building activities that lead to respect and trust. (T/F)
Project relationship building activities include encouraging open communications and using shared learning. (T/F)
Establishing a positive relationship with all key stakeholders early in the project helps to create a desire among those stakeholders to support the project, and builds the communications foundation for the project. (T/F)
The communications management plan is finalized during project planning, and should only be changed through a formal change control process. (T/F)
Common purposes for project communications include status reporting and efforts to obtain approval of project outputs. (T/F)
The primary output of the “Identify Stakeholders” process is the project communications plan. (T/F)
Contemporary project communications typically include both push methods such as blogs, and pull methods such as voice mail. (T/F)
One common feature of agile projects is the “stand-up meeting”. (T/F)
A stakeholder engagement matrix is a tool that classifies the engagement levels of project stakeholders, including whether they are unaware, resistant, or supportive. (T/F)
The plan-do-check-act model used to improve processes is also an effective model that project managers can use to improve project meetings. (T/F)
In order to be sure a project meeting runs according to plan, the project manager should develop an agenda in advance and deliver it to participants as they arrive at the meeting. (T/F)
An issue log is a document that identifies the specific issues that must be resolved before a particular project management meeting adjourns. (T/F)
A virtual team is a group of persons with a shared goal, who fulfill their roles largely through face-to-face communications. (T/F)
While expensive, it is often advisable for virtual team members who live across the globe to meet face-to-face at least once, especially early in the project. (T/F)
Project team member preferences related to the type and frequency of communication may vary depending upon their country and cultural differences. (T/F)
Which of the following statements accurately describes a project management plan?

a. a formal document that describes how the project will be initiated and planned
b. a formal document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled
c. a formal document that defines how the project will be terminated and closed
d. a formal document that focuses on how the project’s financial results will be tracked

All of the following statements accurately describe a project management plan EXCEPT:

a. It serves as an informal contract between the project team and the sponsor
b. It may be a general, summary document or quite detailed.
c. It may be composed of one or more subsidiary plans.
d. It is developed iteratively, starting at a high level and becoming progressively more detailed as information becomes available.

A project communications management plan generally includes all of the following information EXCEPT:

a. communication methods
b. communication timing
c. communication cost
d. communication purpose

Project management plans generally include all of the following elements EXCEPT:

a. schedules and budgets
b. business case and recommendations
c. risks and quality considerations
d. communications and stakeholders

Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT:

a. those who work on the project
b. those who provide people or resources for the project
c. those whose routines may be disrupted by the project
d. those who will not be impacted by the project

The process of “systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project” is called:
a. develop project management plan
b. stakeholder analysis
c. communications management
d. i.d. stakeholders
Project stakeholders can be prioritized based on a number of factors, including one of the following:
a. fame
b. impact
c. tenure
d. personality
By identifying stakeholders and their needs, project managers can be more effective in all the following ways EXCEPT:

a. prioritize among competing objectives.
b. derive the final budget
c. serve as good stewards of the organization’s resources.
d. develop a shared sense of risk.

Which of the following activities can be used to build relationships within the core project team?

a. emphasize individual learning opportunities
b. establish independent agendas
c. regularly celebrate small successes
d. use conflict resolution techniques

The final item to be recorded on the project meeting minutes is an evaluation of both good and poor points from the meeting. On agile projects, this evaluation is called the ____:
a. stakeholder analysis
b. lessons learned
c. plus-delta process
d. retrospective
Which of these is not one of the primary types of information captured in a project meeting?
a. action items agreed to.
b. evaluation of the meeting.
c. new issues raised and old issues closed.
d. assumptions and constraints.
Project managers can encourage open communication by employing all of the following tactics EXCEPT:

a. demonstrating that the inputs from others are valued
b. using group decision making techniques in every case
c. keeping people informed
d. respecting confidentiality

Several factors can contribute to building relationships among project team members. Which of the following is NOT a contributor to relationship building within the core team?

a. Ensure team members understand what is expected of them.
b. Foster a closed environment of secrecy.
c. Ensure team member’s opinions are considered.
d. Provide opportunities to grow and develop.

A principal idea in agile is that relationships with stakeholders need to be based on collaboration, communications and ____.

a. trust
b. power
c. confidentiality
d. urgency

The sponsor, project manager and team can establish powerful relationships with key stakeholders. This starts with an understanding of what motivates each stakeholder, which can be summarized by the old saying ______:

a. the early bird catches the worm.
b. what gets planned gets done.
c. you get what you pay for.
d. what’s in it for me?

Communications to stakeholders are necessary for which of the following reasons?

a. to help them take ownership of the project and make timely decisions
b. to keep them at arms length so progress can continue
c. to shift the burden of risk from the project team to the stakeholders
d. to provide input to team performance reviews

A project communications matrix includes all of the following information EXCEPT:

a. Who
b. Why
c. What
d. When

In the project communications matrix, all of the following “who” items are typically included EXCEPT:

a. Who does the project team need to learn from?
b. Who does the project team need to share with?
c. Who take the minutes at the next status meeting?
d. Who on the project team is responsible for a communication?

In order to plan for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. All of the following statements accurately describe the development and use of a project meeting agenda EXCEPT:

a. the agenda should only be shared with senior management
b. the agenda should provide time to summarize decisions made
c. the agenda should provide time to evaluate the meeting
d. the agenda should state the purpose of the meeting

A point or matter in question or in dispute, not settled or over which there are opposing views or disagreements is called a(n) _____:

a. constraint
b. issue
c. risk
d. assumption

Virtual project teams often encounter increased challenges. All of the following items are among these increased challenges EXCEPT:

a. it is more difficult to understand the stakeholders
b. it takes more time to build relationships
c. differences in time zones are an advantage
d. change control must rely more upon facilitating than directing

Plan scope management is the process of creating a project scope statement. (T/F)
The project scope refers to the features and functions that characterize a product, service or result. (T/F)
The project scope is the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result with the specified features and functions. (T/F)
A thorough scope definition process will often yield multiple project deliverables including intermediate project deliverables due before the project is complete. (T/F)
The project scope statement will frequently state what features and work elements are excluded from the project in addition to stating which are included. (T/F)
The best project scope statements are brief, succinct and limit their focus specifically to the work to be performed. (T/F)
The Work Breakdown Structure is normally developed by listing major deliverables and then progressively smaller ones, until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified. (T/F)
By using a systematic process of creating a Work Breakdown Structure, project team members can ensure that they remember all deliverables that need to be created. (T/F)
If a problem occurs during project execution, the Work Breakdown Structure can be used to understand exactly where and why the problem occurred. (T/F)
A Work Breakdown Structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective. (T/F)
Since work packages provide the basis for future project planning activities, they should be as detailed as possible. (T/F)
A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) component is a term that simply refers to an entry in the WBS that can be at any level. (T/F)
A WBS dictionary is a document that defines each of the terms used in the project scope statement. (T/F)
In order to construct a project Work Breakdown Structure, a project team needs to enlist support from subject matter experts who understand how each portion of the work will be accomplished. (T/F)
The most conventional approach to create a Work Breakdown Structure is to adopt a “top-down” approach, which can be used when the project work is familiar to the team. (T/F)
Almost all projects have deliverables dealing with documentation and customer enablement in addition to the primary deliverable. (T/F)
Baselining is defined as a technique for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. (T/F)
Organizing the second level of the Work Breakdown Structure by major design components facilitates rolling wave planning. (T/F)
It is important to assign a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure. (T/F)
Failure to include project management in the Work Breakdown Structure will increase the likelihood that the project will finish late or over budget. (T/F)
Once the project is underway, each potential change to a project is normally documented by some sort of change request. (T/F)
The project scope planning processes include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. how the project scope will be defined
b. how the requirements will be collected
c. how the work breakdown structure will be created
d. how the business case will be created

Define Scope is the process of developing:

a. a project scope management plan.
b. a detailed description of the project and product.
c. a project work breakdown structure.
d. a project scope network diagram

All of the following elements should be included in a project scope statement EXCEPT:

a. project boundaries or exclusions
b. names of the project team members
c. assumptions and constraints that may limit or influence project work
d. key deliverables with acceptance criteria

On agile projects, the scope definition begins with :

a. brainstorming
b. joint application development (JAD) sessions
c. creation of the WBS
d. user stories

It is helpful to list requirements and supporting information in a requirements traceability matrix. When requirements are complete, they should meet all of these criteria EXCEPT:

a. identified with the stakeholder who needs it
b. assigned to a team member who will be the requirement owner
c. measurable, so that the value and completion can be verified
d. prioritized so tradeoff decisions can be made if necessary

Which of the following items best describes a project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

a. an organizational chart depicting who will perform project work
b. a schedule depicting when project work will be performed
c. a tool that the team uses to progressively divide deliverables into smaller pieces
d. a list of activities to complete the project work packages

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a framework that will be used as a basis for further planning activities including all the following EXCEPT:

a. developing the project schedule
b. developing the project cost estimate
c. identifying key stakeholders
d. identifying project risks

Work Breakdown Structures typically include one or more intermediate levels. Which of the following statements correctly describe the nature of these intermediate levels?

a. They generally represent items that need to be created in order to create the final deliverables.
b. They generally represent the raw materials required to create the final deliverables.
c. They generally represent the resource assignments to create the final deliverables.
d. They generally represent the sequence and timing of work packages

Work Breakdown Structures can be displayed in a variety of formats including which of the following?

a. a sequential process diagram
b. an inverted pyramid
c. an indented outline format
d. fishbone or cause and effect diagram

The technique for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts is called:

a. rolling wave planning
b. decomposition
c. parent child relationship
d. requirements traceability

The approved version of a work product that can be changed only through formal change control procedures is called a ____:

a. requirement.
b. baseline.
c. benchmark.
d. component.

Which of the following is not a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure?

a. Hierarchical
b. Indented outline
c. Requirements Traceability Matrix
d. Free Format

All of the following statements correctly describe a contemporary approach to create the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) for a project EXCEPT:

a. Project teams may adopt a top-down approach to construct the WBS.
b. Project teams may rely upon a WBS from a previous project as a starting point.
c. Project teams may rely upon the project manager to create the entire WBS
d. Project teams may jump start the effort with a brainstorming session.

All of the following conventions are widely adopted when project teams create the second level of the project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) EXCEPT:

a. The second level may be organized by project phase.
b. The second level may be organized by major design components.
c. The second level may be organized by work function.
d. The second level may be organized by activities and tasks

Which of the following statements is true concerning the adoption of rolling wave planning in project management?

a. It is facilitated when the second level of the work breakdown structure is organized by phase or design components.
b. It is initially cumbersome, often delaying a prompt and timely project start.
c. It often creates a situation known as “analysis paralysis.”
d. It requires detailed bottom-up estimating for every WBS component

A deliverable at the lowest level of each branch of a work breakdown structure is known as:

a. a work element.
b. a work package.
c. a work unit.
d. a control account

Which of the following statements concerning work packages is NOT correct?

a. Work packages are the basis for subsequent project planning activities.
b. Work packages are the basis for subsequent project control activities.
c. Work packages are activity elements with detailed descriptions of tasks and dependencies
d. Work packages are the elements at the lowest level of the WBS.

For each component in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), the WBS dictionary includes all the following fields that will be progressively elaborated EXCEPT:

a. a brief description of the work
b. names of team member(s) responsible for creating the deliverables
c. a list of associated deliverables
d. type of resources needed

The approved set of procedures that describe how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation will be managed and controlled are collectively known by which of the following terms?

a. scope statement
b. change control system
c. configuration management plan
d. scope management plan

A typical change request form will include which of the following content items?

a. a description of the change along with the impact of making the change
b. a summary of previous changes to the project
c. an issues log
d. a change control process flow diagram


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