Pharmocology Final – Flashcards
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Which of the following adverse effects is evident with antihistamines?
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xerostomia
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Idiosyncrasy
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unexplained, uncharacteristic response to a drug
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Tolerance
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more of a drug is needed to obtain the same effect
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Teratogenic
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drug-induced damage to the developing fetus
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Adverse effect
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undesirable side effects that develop
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Which of the following units is a measure in the apothecary system
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grain
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Any type of adverse drug reaction should be reported to the
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Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
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The abbreviation "ac" means:
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after meals.
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Taking the "two caps stat" is considered to be a:
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loading dose.
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The abbreviation "prn" means
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as needed.
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Written on a prescription is "Sig: 1 qid pc and hs." This is translated to mean
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take one four times a day after meals and at bedtime.
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Acetaminophen is a:
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generic name.
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According to the prescription, how many capsules are being prescribed? License: 01111111 DEA# AW1234555555 John David, DDS 1111 Main Street Macon, GA 31220(478) 757-0000 Name: Mary Smith Age: 56Amoxicillin 500 mg Disp: #______caps Sig: Take two caps stat, followed by one cap tid for seven days until finished for dental infection. This prescription will be filled generically unless prescriber writes "daw" in the box below label.
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22
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Which of the following ways may help reduce prescription errors?
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Electronic prescribing.
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In which of the following pregnancy categories is systemic tetracycline classified
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D
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Which of the following is an undesirable effect produced by a drug that has a predictable response and is dose related
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adverse effect
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Which part of the prescription is the signature of the prescriber
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closing
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Which of the following terms is used to indicate that medical studies have shown that the drug causes a significant risk of serious or even life-threatening adverse effects
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black box warning
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Which of the following is required to be on a prescription
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age of patient
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C-1
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herion
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C-2
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oxycodone with acetaminophen (Percodan)
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C-3
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acetaminophen (Tylenol) with codeine/ hydrocodone with acetaminophen (Vicodin)
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C-4
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alprazolam (Xanax)
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C-5
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cough syrup with codeine
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Which of the following terms is defined as "an effect that is noxious and unintended, and that occurs at doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy"?
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adverse drug reaction
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A maintenance dose of drug is given to
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keep blood concentration in the therapeutic range
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By which of the following routes of administration is insulin usually taken
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subcutaneous
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dental anesthetic (e.g. lidocaine
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subcutaneous
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hepatitis B vaccine
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intramuscular
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nicotine patch
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transdermal
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Arestin or Atridox
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topical
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:insulin
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subcutaneous
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benzocaine 20%
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topical
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All of the following are disadvantages of orally administered drugs EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
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convenient form to administer
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Oraqix is a local anesthetic applied subgingivally. Which of the following routes of drug administration is used to deliver the anesthetic?
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topical
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Nitroglycerin tablets are taken
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sublingually.
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Which of the following terms describes the actions of a tablet on the body after ingestion and absorption
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pharmacodynamics
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Which of the following routes of administration should a dental patient use for a nicotine patch
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transdermal
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Which of the following routes of drug administration is used for the placement of Arestin (minocycline)?
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topical
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Which of the following terms describes the absorption of lidocaine local anesthetic after it is injected into the tissues
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pharmacokinetics
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Which of the following terms describes how much of a drug will be available in the body to produce a pharmacologic response after it is administered
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bioavailability
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Which of the following terms is used for metabolism
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biotransformation
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Absorption is bypassed if a drug is administered by which route
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intravenous
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When a drug enters the blood, it may bind to molecules such as albumin, which makes the drug inactive. This is termed
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protein binding
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Which of the following drug characteristics will increase the tendency of a drug to cross cell membranes
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nonionized and high lipid solubility
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Which of the following dosage forms describes chlorhexidine gluconate oral rinse
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solution
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bioavailability
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rate and extent to which a drug is absorbed
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half-life
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time taken for the blood concentration of a drug to decrease 50% its concentration
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affinity
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bind of a drug to a receptor
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ceiling effect
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therapeutic response cannot be increased with a higher dose of the drug
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pharmacodynamics
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the effects of drugs on the body and mechanisms of drug action
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pharmacokinetics
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absorption of a drug
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pharmacokinetics
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distribution of a drug through the blood,
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pharmacokinetics
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metabolism of a drug
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Which of the following receptors does epinephrine in low doses primarily stimulate
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beta 2
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All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT which one
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prostatic hypertrophy
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A patient is taking atenolol (Tenormin) for hypertension. Which of the following signs should be monitored?
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blood pressure
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The nervous system is divided into the
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central and peripheral nervous system
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Which of the following adverse effects can occur with sympathomimetics
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xerostomia
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Which of the following organs/tissues has/have beta 2-receptors
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lung
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Which of the following organs/tissues has alpha 2-receptors
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presynaptic neurons
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Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of asthma?
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Albuterol
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Drugs that decrease sympathetic activity are called
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sympatholytics.
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In which of the following classifications do drugs for the management of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) belong?
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indirect-acting adrenergic agonists
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Drugs that act as mediators of sympathetic transmission (cause a sympathetic response) are called:
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sympathomimetics.
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Which of the following drugs is should be limited in patients taking Elavil (a tricyclic antidepressant)?
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Epinephrine
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Which of the following receptors is classified as an autoreceptor
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alpha 2
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Which of the following is TRUE about the initial effects of an injection of epinephrine in local anesthetics?
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It increases systolic blood pressure
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Which of the following drugs has an additive effect with anticholinergic drugs
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aspirin
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Cholinergic drugs are primarily used to treat:
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xerostomia and Alzheimer's disease
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Which of the following is/are indication(s) for the use of atropine
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all of the above
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All of the following events occur with an alpha 1-agonist EXCEPT which one?
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vasodilation of skeletal muscle
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Which of the following organs/tissues has/have alpha 1-receptors
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blood vessels
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Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of xerostomia in dental patients
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pilocarpine
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In the patient with which of the following is an anticholinergic contraindicated
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motion sickness
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The dose of epinephrine has to be minimized when patients are taking which of the following drugs
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amitriptyline (Elavil)
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Which of the following drugs is an alpha 1-agonist
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phenylephrine
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Which of the following organs/tissues has beta 1-receptors
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heart
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Which of the following types of drugs is used in the treatment of nasal congestion
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alpha 1-agonist
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Which of the following terms describes the administration of drugs for the purpose of sedation and making the patient unaware of surroundings, amnesia, or analgesia pain threshold without loss of consciousness?
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moderate sedation
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Which of the following drugs is considered to be a nonbarbituate sedative/hypnotic?
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propofol (Diprivan)
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In adults, the maximum safe dose (in mgs) of lidocaine should NOT exceed:
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500
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Which of the following ASA classifications refers to a patient with mild systemic disease (e.g., asthma)?
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I
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Which of the following drugs is used in the dental management of anxious children?
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chloral hydrate (Noctec)
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Which of the following adverse effects is MOST common after nitrous oxide/oxygen?
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nausea
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How much nitrous oxide in oxygen does an average patient require during a dental procedure?
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35%
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A patient is a controlled hypertensive taking a propranolol (Inderal). The patient requires extraction of the maxillary first molar. Which of the following statements pertains to this patient regarding administration of a local anesthetic?
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The maximum amount of lidocaine 2% and 1:100,000 epinephrine is two cartridges
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In healthy adult patients, the maximum safe dose (in mgs) of epinephrine in a local anesthetic is:
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0.20
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Which of the following events can occur if epinephrine is injected in a patient who has just sniffed cocaine the morning of the dental appointment?
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sudden death by cardiac arrest
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Which of the following channels does the local anesthetic molecules block once inside the nerve?
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sodium
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MOST anesthetics are combined with an acid such as hydrochloride (HCl) to form a salt because it is:
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more stable and soluble than the base.
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Which of the following anesthetics is used when prolonged anesthesia is required?
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bupivicaine 0.5%
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How much oxygen should a patient receive once nitrous oxide/oxygen administration is terminated?
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100%
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Which of the following is a reason a combination of drugs is used during general anesthesia?
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minimizes adverse reactions
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Which of the following terms describes the use of a combination of anesthetic drugs to reduce adverse events?
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balanced anesthesia
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Which of the following is a benzodiazepine used for moderate sedation in the dental office?
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midazolam (Versed)
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Which of the following terms replaces "conscious sedation"?
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moderate
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Which of the following medications has a drug interaction with epinephrine?
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tricyclic antidepressants
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Which of the following concentrations of epinephrine are available in injectable lidocaine solution for dental anesthesia?
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1:100,000
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Using Guedel's classification, in which stage are MOST surgeries performed?
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III
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In adults, the maximum safe dose (in mgs) of mepivicaine is:
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400
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Which of the following measurements is used to measure and compare the potency of inhalational anesthetic agents?
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MAC
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Which of the following anesthetics has the longest duration of action after an infiltration?
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articaine
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The MOST common method for achieving anxiety control in dental patients is with a combination of:
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benzodiazepines and narcotics.
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What management should be taken when selecting a local anesthetic in a patient that is stable on levothyroxine (Synthroid)?
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No precautions are necessary
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The duration of action of an anesthetic depends on the:
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time it stays in the nerve
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For which of the following reasons is midazolam (Versed) used for moderate sedation?
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reduce apprehension and anxiety
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A 45-year-old patient is taking the antidepressant amitriptyline (Elavil). He is scheduled for periodontal surgery. Which of the following local anesthetic regimens is safe for this patient?
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maximum of two cartridges of lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 EPI
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All of the following are indications for narcotics in moderate sedation EXCEPT
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alleviation of anxiety
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All of the following are characteristics of nitrous oxide EXCEPT
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respiratory depression
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All of the following are adverse effects of narcotics EXCEPT
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increased appetite.
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Which of the following drug interactions with an NSAID is significant?
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antihypertensives
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Celecoxib (Celebrex) is contraindicated in patients allergic to:
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sulfa
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Which of the following substances causes pain?
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prostaglandins
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Which of the following drugs should be used with some caution in a patient that is taking enalapril (Vasotec)?
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Ibuprofen
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Most of the COX-1/COX-2 inhibitors NSAIDS have a black box warning of increased risk of:
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thrombotic cardiovascular events
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Chronic pain is usually more difficult to treat than acute pain because it
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has an undetermined time course.
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Which of the following drugs has a ceiling effect
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Aspirin
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Which of the following substances has the opposite effect of thromboxane A2?
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prostacyclin
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Which of the following is a mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
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inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
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All of the following are examples of nociceptive orofacial pain EXCEPT
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broken bone
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Which of the following is an example of neuropathic pain?
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trigeminal neuralgia
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Neuropathic pain differs from nociceptive pain in that neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the:
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nerve tissue
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Which of the following drug regimens is prophylactic for strokes and heart attacks
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81 mg aspirin
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According to current thought (Ardekian, Gaspar, et al., JADA, 2000), which of the following actions should be taken before doing an extraction on a patient taking one 81 mg aspirin per day
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Don't stop the aspirin
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Which of the following narcotics is often combined with acetaminophen or an NSAID
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codeine
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Which of the following substances causes blood to clot
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thromboxane A2
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Which of the following is another name for aspirin?
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acetylsalicylic acid
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The product Vicoprofen contains
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ibuprofen + oxycodone
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Which of the following drugs is combined with acetaminophen in the product Vicodin
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codeine
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Which substance is responsible for platelet aggregation
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Thromboxane A2
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Aspirin and NSAIDs should be used with caution in patients with:
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heart problems
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Which of the following enzymes breaks down arachidonic acid into prostaglandins?
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cyclo-oxygenase
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Which of the following classifications of drugs is used to treat nociceptive pain
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nonnarcotics
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Which of the following opioids is used for heroin addiction
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Buprenorphine
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MOST of aspirin's adverse effects are due to inhibition of:
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COX-1.
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The initial phase of active TB treatment lasts for:
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2 months
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Which term describes the ability to kill bacteria?
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bactericidal
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An antibiotic-associated severe gastrointestinal problem is referred to as
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pseudomembranous colitis.
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Which of the following antibiotics has nonantibacterial properties?
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tetracycline
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Which of the following pathogens is primarily implicated in oral fungal infections
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Candida albicans
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Which of the following conditions may occur if aspirin is adminstered to children with viral infections?
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Reye's syndrome
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Which of the following antibiotics is combined with amoxicillin in the treatment of localized aggressive periodontitis
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metronidazole
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Which of the following medications is recommended in nonimmunocompromised individuals with herpes labialis?
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acyclovir cream
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Which of the following substances is combined with amoxicillin to prevent its breakdown by enzymes?
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clavulanic acid
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Which of the following antibiotics may cause muscle pain and weakness?
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ciprofloxacin
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Which of the following terms describes an antibiotic that affects a wide range of bacteria
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broad-spectrum
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Which of the following terms describes when a broad-spectrum antibiotic causes the eradication of microorganisms that are part of the normal flora?
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superinfection
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Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for mild to moderate endodontic/odontogenic infections (e.g., absecesses
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penicillin VK
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Which of the following terms describes when antibiotics are NOT effective against some bacteria
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resistance
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Which of the following macrolides has specific features that makes it useful in the treatment of periodontal disease
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azithromycin
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Which of the following antivirals is available OTC?
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docosanol
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Which of the following diagnostic techniques is used for oral candidiasis?
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When the lesions are wiped with gauze, the plaques do come off
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To help reduce the incidence of fungal infections the patient may be advised to take which one of the following with the antibiotic
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yogurt
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Which of the following is the brand name of docosanol
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Abreva
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Which of the following anti-TB drugs causes an impairment in green/red color vision
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ethambutol
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Which of the following substances should be avoided while taking metronidzole
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alcohol
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Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics may cause an overgrowth of
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fungi
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Which of the following enzymes should be monitored in patients taking INH?
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liver
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Which of the following drugs should NOT be administered together with erythromycin or clarithromycin
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simvastatin
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Which of the following products is an OTC topical anesthetic that can be applied to herpes lesions?
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Orabase with benzocaine
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All of the following are regions where recurrent herpes lesions appear EXCEPT one.
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alveolar mucosa
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All of the following are treatment options for oropharyngeal candidiasis EXCEPT one
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acyclovir tablets
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Which of the following anti-TB drugs causes red/orange saliva
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rifampin
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Which of the following medications is recommended in immunocompromised individuals with herpes labialis
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acyclovir tablets
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In dentistry, all of the following are indications for the use of antibiotics EXCEPT which one?
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chronic gingivitis
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All of the following are factors involved in the development of superficial fungal infections of the oral mucosa EXCEPT:
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open margin on a crown
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For which of the following periodontal patients are systemic antibiotics indicated? The patient with:
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localized aggressive periodontitis
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Which of the following anti-TB drugs is an inducer of CYP450 (CYP3A4) enzymes
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rifampin
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Which of the following fluorides is primarily found in toothpastes?
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sodium fluoride
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Which of the following structures does fluoride get distributed to and retained in
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enamel
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Which of the following antibiotics should NOT be given to patients taking cyclosporine?
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erythromycin
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Which of the following events occurs when there is damage to the salivary glands during cancer therapy?
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xerotomia
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Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of vesicular bullous diseases?
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azathioprine (Imuran)
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Periodontal surgery, such as gingivectomy/gingivoplasty, may be performed on patients taking which of the following drugs?
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cyclosporine
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Which of the following agents kills cancer cells by changing the structure of DNA in the cancer cells?
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alkylating agents
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When taken orally, fluoride is absorbed and initially taken up into the:
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plasma of the bloodstream
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Which of the following units represents the addition of fluoride in drinking water?
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ppm
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At which of the following ages is supplemental fluoride discontinued in an area that does NOT have fluoridated water
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16
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What is the dosage of fluoride for a six-month-old infant who lives in a community where the fluoride level in the drinking water is 0.3-0.6 ppm
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none
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Oral candidiasis occurs in patients taking anticancer drugs due to a decrease in:
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white blood cells
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Which of the following agents is helpful in reducing bacterial levels?
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chlorhexidine
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Which of the following are signs of acute fluoride toxicity?
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nausea
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Which of the following indications is for stannous fluoride
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dentinal hypersensitivity
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Which of the following agents is recommended to cancer patients with xerostomia
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fluoride rinse
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Which of the following antineoplastic agents is used in the treatment of prostate cancer
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hormone/hormone antagonists
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Which of the following statements is TRUE about antineoplastic agents
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used to treat cancers
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All of the following are sources of natural fluoride EXCEPT
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oranges.
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Which of the following mechanisms explains how fluoride works on enamel
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Fluoride ions will displace the hydroxide ions in hydroxyapatite, creating fluoroapatite
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Which of the following organs is responsible for the excretion of fluoride?
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kidneys
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What is the correct fluoride dosage for a 12-year-old who does NOT live in a community with fluoridated water?
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1.0 mg/day
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A child is seven-years-old and does NOT live in a community with fluoridated water. Which of the following dosage should this child have?
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1.0 mg/day
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Which of the following is treatment for fluoride overdose if the individual ingested > 2.3 mg fluoride/lbs body weight?
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vomiting
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Which of the following drugs will MOST likely be used by a patient who is taking cyclosporine
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antihypertensive
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Which of the following medical conditions can fluoride be effective in treating?
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osteoporosis
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A patient with metastasis into bone may be taking which of the following drugs to reduce the pain
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bisphosphonates
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Which of the following white blood levels is the minimum for dental treatment
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> 1000/mm3
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Which of the following antibiotics is used in head and neck cancer
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bleomycin (Blenoxane)
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Which of the following liver isoenzymes metabolizes cyclosporine
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CYP3A4
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Which of following is/are systemic routes of ingestion of fluoride
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all of the above
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Which of the following terms describes excessive fluoride causing staining of the enamel
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fluorosis
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When should an antiemtic drug be given to a patient receiving antineoplastic drugs?
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Before tx
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H2-receptor blockers:
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slow acid secretion
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Which of the following drugs should NOT be taken together with antacids?
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tetracycline
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famotidine (Pepcid)
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H2-receptor antagonist
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esomeprazole (Nexium)
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proton pump inhibitor
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bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)
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neutralizes acids
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clindamycin
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avoid in ulcerative colitis
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clarithromycin
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regimen to eradicate Helicobactor pylori
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Which of the following drugs can cause constipation
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All of the above
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Which of the following conditions is characterized by symptoms lasting at least 12 weeks consisting of diarrhea, constipation, and abdominal pain
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irritable bowel disease
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Which of the following bacterium is associated with antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
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Clostridium difficle
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Which of the following treatments is considered to be first-line therapy for patients with GERD?
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lifestyle changes and antacids
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To which of the following drug classifications does esomeperazole (Nexium) belong
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PPI
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Which of the following substances is responsible for stimulating the production of gastric acids in the stomach
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histamine
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All of the following are PPIs EXCEPT which one?
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nizatidine (Axid)
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Which of the following is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors?
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noncompetitively inhibits the proton pump in the membrane of the parietal cells
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Which of the following terms describes a group of acid-peptic disorders of the upper GI tract?
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PUD
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Which of the following antacids is systemically absorbed in the body?
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sodium bicarbonate
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Which of the following antibiotics is recommended in the treatment of ulcers?
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any of the above
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Which of the following drugs can cause diarrhea
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Amoxcillin
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The two MOST frequent causes of ulcers are:
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Helicobacter pylori and NSAIDs.
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Which of the following is an indication for using antihistamines in the treatment of PUD
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inhibit the release of gastric acid by blocking receptors on parietal cells
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Antibiotic combination treatment is continued for
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2 weeks
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Which of the following ingredients is in Pepto-Bismol?
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bismuth subsalicylate
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Which of the following medications is a H2-receptor antagonist?
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cimetidine (Tagamet)
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Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of acute diarrhea?
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loperamide (Imodium)
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Which of the following combination antacids is commonly used in the management of PUD?
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Maalox
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Which of the following is an indication for the use of antacids
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symptomatic relief of gastric pain
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Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with ulcerative colitis?
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clindamycin
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Which of the following bacteria has been associated with the development of PUD
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Helicobacter pylori
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theophyline
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related to caffeine
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beclomethasone (Beclovent, Vanceril)
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anti-inflammatory
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leukotriene modifiers
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block arachidonic acid derivatives
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Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
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first generation antihistamine
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Certizine (Zyrtec)
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second generation antihistamine
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beta2-adrenergic agonists
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bronchodilator
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Which of the following drugs is a long-acting selective beta 2-receptor agonist?
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salmeterol (Serevent
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Airway inflammation occurs due to the release of:
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inflammatory mediators
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Which of the following doses of corticosteroids may alter a patient's immunity?
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> 20 mg/day for at least 14 days
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Which of the following drugs is a short-acting selective beta 2-receptor agonist?
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albuterol (Ventolin)
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Which of the following events happen once the airways become obstructed with mucus?
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bronchospasm
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Which of the following receptors, when stimulated, relieves bronchospasm?
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beta 2
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In which of the following formulations is codeine available for the management of coughs?
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syrup
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Which of the following drugs is an inhaled corticosteroid?
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beclomethasone (QVAR)
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Which of the following drugs is a second-generation antihistamine?
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fexofenadine (Allegra)
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Which of the following drugs is used in the control of moderate to severe persistent asthma?
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high-dose inhaled corticosteroid plus long-acting beta 2-agonist
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Which of the following definitions describes asthma?
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inflammation of the airways
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Which of the following drugs is an expectorant?
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guaifesnesin
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Which of the following drugs is an antitussive?
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codeine
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Which of the following medications should NOT be given to a patient who has asthma and nasal polyps?
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all of the above
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Which of the following drugs is used in the control of mild persistent asthma?
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low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
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Which of the following adverse effects is commonly seen with diphenhydramine?
answer
xerostomia
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Which of the following drugs is a leukotriene receptor antagonist?
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montelukast (Singulair)
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Which of the following substances is found in the OTC product Primatene Mist?
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epinephrine
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Which of the following drugs is used for the control of mild intermittent asthma?
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no meds needed
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Asthma is classified according to:
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severity of disease
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Which of the following events occurs FIRST in the pathogenesis of asthma?
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airway inflammation
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Which of the following starting doses is recommended for amitriptyline (Elavil) in the management of noctural bruxism?
answer
10mg
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Tricyclic antidepressants block which of the following neurotransmitters from reuptake into the neuron?
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NE and serotonin
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Which of the following antipsychotics is recommended for mild manic episodes?
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lithium or valproate or olanzapine
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fluoxetine (Prozac
answer
block serotonin re-uptake pump
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amitriptyline (Elavil):
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block noradrenergic re-uptake pump
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lithium
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bipolar
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risperidone (Risperdal
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anti-psychotic medicine
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alprazolam (Xanax):
answer
anti-anxiety drug
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attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder
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methylphenidate (Concerta, Ritalin)
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Depression is thought to be caused by
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decreased levels of NE and/or serotonin.
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Which of the following drug classes is indicated for the management of nocturnal bruxism?
answer
antidepressants
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Which of the following drug classes is indicated for the management of schizophrenia?
answer
antipsychotics
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Which of the following terms describes the repetitive involuntary movement of the tongue and mouth in a patient taking risperidone?
answer
tardive dyskinesia
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Which of the following drugs is used for sedation in children but has caused many deaths?
answer
chloral hydrate
question
Which of the following adverse effects is seen when dopamine receptors are blocked by antipsychotics?
answer
oral dyskinesia
question
Which of the following drugs is an SSRI?
answer
sertraline (Zoloft)
question
With which of the following drugs should platelet counts be monitored?
answer
divalproex sodium (Depakote)
question
Which of the following are indications for benzodiazepines?
answer
All of above
question
Which of the following drugs is a tricyclic antidepressant?
answer
imipramine (Tofranil)
question
Which of the following drug classes is primarily indicated for the management of anxiety?
answer
anxiolytics
question
Which of the following drugs should NOT be prescribed when a patient is taking lithium?
answer
ibuprofen
question
Which of the following neurotransmitters may be involved in the etiology of schizophrenia?
answer
dopamine
question
Which of the following adverse effects is seen when muscarinic receptors are blocked by antipsychotics?
answer
tardive dyskinesia
question
Which of the following neurotransmitters has been found to be blocked by the "newer" atypical antipsychotic agents?
answer
serotonin
question
Which of the following antipsychotics treat the positive symptoms but NOT the negative symptoms?
answer
haloperidol
question
ideal tx for type 1 diabetes
answer
insulin
question
which human insulin preparation is used to mimic endogenous basal insulin secretion during the day?
answer
Isophone insulin suspension (neutral protamine Hasedorn)
question
What is the difference between human insulin preparations and insulin analog prep?
answer
insulin analog synthetic insulin
question
Which insulin formation is being used more freguently than regular insulin?
answer
rapid acting insulin analog preperations (lispro, aspart, slulisine)
question
Which drug is used in the tx of pt with hyperthyroidism?
answer
thioamide drugs: radioactive iodine, iodine, beta blockers
question
Which thyroid disorder is epinephrine contraindicated for?
answer
hyperthyroid
question
precautions when performing an oral prophy on pt taking high dose systemic corticosteroids for systemic lupus erthematosis for many years?
answer
NO
question
Which ingredient is found in dental paste (orabase)?
answer
carboxymethylcellulose
question
which systemic corticosteroids is intermediate acting?
answer
prednisone
question
What is usually combined with estrogen in women with a uterus?
answer
progesterone
question
Estrogen inhibits the metabolism of ???
answer
benzodiazepines
question
Pt taking warfin should not take??
answer
St Johns Wort
question
Kava kava causes??
answer
oral dyskinesia
question
Why do most use herbal therapies?
answer
holistic tx for wellness
question
What is the main indication for melatonin
answer
jet lag, insomnia, anticancer
question
What act was placed in 1994 to regulate dietary supplements?
answer
Dietary supplement and health educated act (DSHEA)
question
Which of the following branches of medication deals with "like cures like"
answer
homeopathy
question
Echinacea causes
answer
liver toxicity
question
ginger shoul NOT be taken with
answer
ibuprofen
question
Herb that increases blood pressure
answer
licorice
question
herb that originates from ripe fruit/berries?
answer
saw palmetto
question
What herb should be discontinued 7 to 10 days before periodontal surgery?
answer
garlic
question
Herb derived from a bulb
answer
garlic
question
alternative tx for arthritis
answer
Dong quai
question
herb that interferes with insulin
answer
garlic
question
which herb is used in the management of oral mucositis
answer
chamomile
question
herbal supplements can worsen Parkinson symptoms
answer
kava kava
question
products that are contraindicated formulation of fluids and solids
answer
extracts
question
what herb should not be taken with digoxin for heart failure
answer
ginseng
question
herb helps prevent colds
answer
echinacea
question
herb for prevention of cavities
answer
licorice root
question
herb for motion sickness
answer
ginger
question
predrisone
answer
glucocartioids, 1st drug of choice
question
humulin
answer
rapid acting insulin and short duration , tx for type 1 and 2 diabetes
question
metformin
answer
biguanides , decrease glucose production and release by liver and stimulate glucose uptake into tissue
question
florinet
answer
mineral corticoid
question
Ginseng
answer
increases vitality elevates energy level
question
garlic
answer
decrease cholesterol level, lower blood pressure, anticoagulent
question
gingko
answer
improvement of Alzeihmers used for sexual dysfunction caused by SSRI
question
Echinacea
answer
strengthens immune system prevents cold and flu
question
licorice
answer
stomach ulcers
question
carbidopa-levodopa (sinemet)
answer
gingival enlargement
question
donepezil (Aricept)
answer
Alzheimers disease
question
During which of the following seizures can tongue biting occur?
answer
tonic clonic
question
For which of the following conditions was carbamazepine originally indicated?
answer
trigeminal neuralgia
question
gabapentin (neutonin)
answer
dopaminergic agent
question
Gabapentin is not associated with many drug interactions because it is
answer
not metabolized by the liver
question
the pt complains of "walking alower" which of the following conditions is associated with this complaint?
answer
bradykinesia
question
phenytoin (dilatin)
answer
seizures or chronic orofacial paint
question
Phenytoin is primarily used in the treatment of
answer
tonic clonic seizures
question
triptans
answer
migraine
question
which of the following adverse effects is seen with carbamazepine?
answer
aplastic anemia
question
which of the following agents is preferred for the tx of absence seizures?
answer
ethosuximide
question
which of the following are classifications of seizures?
answer
all of the above
question
which of the following drugs commonly causes gingival enlargement ?
answer
phenytoin
question
Which of the following drugs is a dopamine agonist?
answer
bromocriptine (parlodel)
question
which of the following drugs is added to L-dopa to minimize systemic side effects and maximize L-dopa in the brain?
answer
carbidopa
question
which of the following drugs is used in the control of status epilepticus
answer
intravenous diazepam
question
which of the following drugs may increase serum levels of valproic acid?
answer
aspirin
question
which of the following drugs should NOT be co-administered with carbamazepine?
answer
clarithromycin
question
which of the following drugs was the FIRST antiepileptic?
answer
phenobarbital
question
Which of the following drugs was the FIRST nonsedating antiepileptic?
answer
phenytoin
question
Which of the following drugs when taken with bromocriptine may decrease its metabolism and elevate serum levels ?
answer
erythromycin
question
which of the following is an objective of using med in the treatment of Parkinsons disease?
answer
dopamine (DA) and decrease the activity of acetylcholine (ACh)
question
which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in epilepsy?
answer
gamma-aminobutyric acid
question
which of the following second generation agents is also approved for postherpetic neuralgia
answer
gabapentin (Neurontin)
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE about dopamine redplacement in the tx of Parkinsons disease?
answer
administer oral levodopa
question
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of local anesthetics containing epinephrine in ot with epilepsy and Parkinsons disease?
answer
no precautions
question
which of the following terms describes an increase in involuntary muscle movement of the orofacial and limb muscles
answer
on-off effect
