Pathophysiology Unit One Study Questions – Flashcards

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which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
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an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
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the manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
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signs and symptoms of a disease
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the best definition of the term prognosis is the
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predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease
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which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
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fever
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etiology is defined as the study of the
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causes of a disease
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hypertrophy of the heart would be related to
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an increase in the size of the individual cells
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a change in tissue marked by cells that very in shape and size and show increased myotic figures would be called
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dysplasia
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when a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
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necrosis
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lack of exercise during an illness may cause skeletal muscle to undergo
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atrophy
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the term cancer refers to
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malignant neoplasm
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to which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
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per-programmed cell self-destruction
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which of the following statements is true?
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damaged cells may be able to repair themselves
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caseation necrosis refers to an area where
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dead cells form a thick cheesy substance
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routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
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a preventative measure
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a circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
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precipitating factor
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what is an acute episode of a chronic disease called
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an exacerbation
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the term homeostasis refers to
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maintenance of a stable internal environment
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which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease is established?
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complication
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pathophysiology involves the study of
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functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes
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which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology
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the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
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which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
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hypoxia, exposure to excessive cold, excessive pressure on tissue, chemical toxins. 1, 2, 3, 4!
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all of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health except:
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participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis
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the term disease refers to
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a deviation from the normal state of health and function
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the best definition of an ischemia is
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a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction
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all of the following statements are correct about cell damage except
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initially cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function
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which of the following conditions distinguishes double-blind studies used in health research?
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neither the members of the control group or the experimental group, nor the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy
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if the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called
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evidence based research
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a short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called
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acute
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the term prognosis refers to the
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expected outcome of a disease
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when prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
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infarction
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during the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double-blind study may be conducted during
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the third stage
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why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
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to develop preventative measures
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cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
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certain food additives
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which of the following is usually included in medical history?
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past illnesses or surgeries, current illnesses, acute and chronic, prescribed medication or other treatments, nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies, current allergies.
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Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called
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staphylococci
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An anaerobe requires which specific environment?
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The absence of oxygen
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A bacterial endospore can
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survive high temperatures and dry environment
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The structure of a virus includes
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a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
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What method do viruses use to replicate?
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Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
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A retrovirus such as HIV contains
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RNA and enzymes for its conversion
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How do antiviral drugs act?
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Reducing the rate of viral replication
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Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
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may cause opportunistic infections in the body
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Fungi reproduce by
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budding, extension of hyphae, production of spores. 1, 2, 4
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Which of the following is not classified as a protozoan agent of disease?
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Tinea pedis
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Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by
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cysts in feces
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Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?
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Different species inhabit various areas of the body
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Which area of the body is considered sterile?
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Stomach
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The term nosocomial infection means
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acquired in a hospital or medical facility
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Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes
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sexual intercourse
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Opportunistic infection may develop when
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a member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body
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What does a vaccine contain?
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Attenuated or dead pathogens or their toxins
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When do clinical signs of infection appear?
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When the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host
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The principle of Universal Precautions is based on
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assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection
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The incubation period refers to the time period between
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entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease
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Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
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Pain erythema, and swelling
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What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
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To identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it.
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How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
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Interfering with cell-wall synthesis
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The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is
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inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium
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What does leukocytosis frequently indicate
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presence of bacterial infection
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When an infection or inflammation is suspected, what does leucopenia often indicate?
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Viral infection
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Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
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It causes a common STD
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Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
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It is an obligate intracellular parasite, It contains RNA, there are three subtypes - A, B, C. 1, 2, 4
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Which of the following manifestations is usually present with influenza but not with the common cold?
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generalized skeletal muscle aching, headache, marked fatigue
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Prions are transmitted by blood and
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ingestion of contaminated meat
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Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?
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It contains genetic material from avian, swine, and human viruses
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Which of the following does not directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
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Capacity for opportunism
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Which of the following is a function of interferons? They:
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increase host cell resistance to viral invasion
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Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because
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capillaries are less permeable in the affected area.
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When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a
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pandemic
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What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
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Lipoma
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What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
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Sarcomas
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
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Cells appear relatively normal
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Which factor provides the basis for grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
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Degree of differentiation of the cells
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A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
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sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
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The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include
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obstruction of a tube or duct; cell necrosis and ulceration 1, 3
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Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
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The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
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Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
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Metastasis
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One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to
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determine the best treatment and prognosis
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The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with
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an irreversible change in the cell DNA
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What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
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Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
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Radiation therapy destroys
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primarily rapidly dividing cells
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The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are
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thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
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Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
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reduce the adverse effects, be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 1, 3
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Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
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Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed
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Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker
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colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen CEA
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Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by
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reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells
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The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means
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the patient is at high risk for infection
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Malignant brain tumors
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Spread to other parts of CNS
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Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy
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bone marrow depression
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Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because
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inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
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Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because
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the gastrointestinal tract is irritated and the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. A, b
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What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
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Epithelial cells
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Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which
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signs and symptoms are absent
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All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers except
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they are difficult to diagnose and treat. Not true!
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High risk factors for cancer include
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all of the above. E.
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The term apoptosis refers to
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preprogrammed cell death
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The warning signs for cancer include
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all of the above are warning signs
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A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called:
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staging
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Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors:
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are encapsulated and slow-growing
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Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they
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create excessive pressure within the skull
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