Patho Midterm Quizzes 1-8 ** Exam2 – Flashcards
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In compensatory hyperplasia, growth factors stimulate cell division in response to: A) tissue loss. B) decreased hormonal stimulation. C) ischemia. D) puberty.
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A
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Pathologic hyperplasia can lead to: A) neoplasia (cancer). B) dysplasia. C) metaplasia. D) all of the above.
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D
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Metaplasia involves the replacement of normal cells by: A) another type of cell. B) abnormal cells of the same tissue type. C) scar tissue. D) cancer cells.
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A
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Cytotoxic T (Tc) cells can destroy infected or cancer cells by which of the following mechanisms? A) Producing toxins B) Stimulating apoptosis C) Producing antibodies D) Both A and B
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D
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How do natural killer (NK) cells differ from cytotoxic T (Tc) cells? A) NK cells lack antigen-specificity and can target any infected or malignant cell. B) NK cells are phagocytic. C) NK cells can opsonize bacteria and viruses. D) NK cells release toxins that kill the target cell.
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A
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Which of the following is a typical characteristic of benign tumors? A) Cells in the tumor are undifferentiated. B) Benign tumors are surrounded by a capsule. C) Benign tumors have a tendency to invade surrounding tissue. D) Cells in the tumor occasionally metastasize to lymph nodes.
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B
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Malignant tumors have a tendency to: A) grow rapidly. B) metastasize to distant tissues. C) invade surrounding tissues. D) all of the above.
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D
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Sarcomas are cancers that arise from: A) connective tissues. B) glandular tissues. C) epithelial tissues. D) germ cells.
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A
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Which of the following cancers always arises from an initial mutation in the blood-forming cells of the bone marrow? A) Lymphoma B) Carcinoma C) Leukemia D) Sarcoma
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C
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Cervical carcinoma in situ: A) usually progresses to cervical cancer even after treatment. B) contains cancer cells that have not invaded the surrounding tissue. C) refers to cervical cancer that has metastasized to the liver. D) cannot be detected using available medical tests.
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B
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Referring to cancer, the term anaplasia means: A) loss of cellular differentiation. B) rapid growth of cells. C) independence from normal cellular controls. D) ectopic production of hormones.
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A
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Tumor cell markers can be used to: A) screen individuals for cancer. B) diagnose tumor type. C) follow the clinical course of tumor development. D) all of the above.
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D
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The term used to describe an aggregation of cancer cells that accumulates faster than its non-mutant neighbors is clonal: A) selection. B) stimulation. C) expansion. D) reunification.
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C
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Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of cancer cells? A) Loss of cellular self-destruct mechanisms B) Unlimited replication C) Autocrine stimulation D) Decreased responsiveness to growth signals
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D
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Cancer cells ensure adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients by releasing: A) autocrine growth factors. B) lysosomal enzymes. C) telomerase. D) angiogenic factors.
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D
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Cancer-causing mutations of a proto-oncogene result in: A) apoptosis. B) increased cell division. C) production of monoclonal antibodies. D) decreased cell responsiveness to growth factors.
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B
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The normal function of tumor suppressor genes in an individual without cancer is to: A) prevent apoptosis. B) control production of anti-growth signals. C) stimulate cell replication. D) prevent cancer-causing mutations.
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B
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Which of the following mutational routes is necessary to cause cancer with a tumor suppressor gene mutation? A) Point deletion on one chromosome B) Chromosomal translocation C) Gene amplification D) Deletion of both copies of a tumor suppressor gene
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D
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Which of the following genetic events is capable of activating oncogenes? A) Deletion B) Loss of heterozygosity C) Amplification D) All of the above
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C
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Viruses are associated with all of the following cancers except: A) lung cancer. B) Kaposi sarcoma. C) lymphoma. D) liver cancer.
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A
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Chronic active hepatitis B infection is a risk factor for developing which of the following types of cancer? A) Lung B) Leukemia C) Pancreas D) Liver
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D
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Which of the following viruses has been implicated in the development of cervical cancer? A) Herpes virus B) HIV C) Epstein-Barr virus D) Human papilloma virus
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D
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Helicobacter pylori infection is a bacterial cause of: A) lymphoma. B) colon cancer. C) gastric cancer. D) bladder cancer.
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C
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Which of the following risk factors is associated with the development of lung, bladder, pancreatic, renal, laryngeal, pharyngeal, and esophageal cancer? A) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation B) Radon C) Tobacco use D) Asbestos
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C
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Exposure to ionizing radiation is linked to all of the following cancers except: A) leukemia. B) thyroid cancer. C) breast cancer. D) skin cancer.
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D
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Which of the following statements about alcohol intake and cancer risk is true? A) Alcohol intake is linked to the development of liver cancer only. B) Alcohol intake increases the development of smoking-related cancers. C) Moderate amounts of alcohol intake protect against breast and colon cancer. D) Alcohol acts as an antioxidant, resulting in liver cancer.
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B
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Radon exposure increases an individual's risk for which of the following cancers? A) Pancreatic B) Esophageal C) Lung D) Skin
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C
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Local tissue invasion by a tumor is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms? A) Release of cytokines by the tumor cells, which kills surrounding cells B) Release of lytic enzymes by the tumor cells, which causes tissue degradation C) Release of antibodies by the tumor cells, which enhances phagocytosis of surrounding tissue D) Release of free radicals by the tumor cells, which damages surrounding tissue
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B
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The wasting syndrome associated with cancer and cancer treatment is called: A) cachexia. B) anemia. C) Cushing syndrome. D) anabolism.
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A
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Which of the following is an effective treatment for cancer-related or chemotherapy-related anemia? A) Exercise B) Chemotherapy C) Erythropoietin D) Calcium and magnesium supplements
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C
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A concussion is defined as temporary axonal disturbance with loss of consciousness lasting less than: A) a few minutes. B) 1 hour. C) 6 hours. D) 24 hours.
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C
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Spinal shock involves loss of: A) skeletal motor function. B) peripheral sensory function. C) autonomic function. D) All of the above
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D
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In individuals with spinal cord injuries, autonomic hyperreflexia occurs: A) before spinal shock. B) during spinal shock. C) after spinal shock is resolved. D) in individuals who did not develop spinal shock.
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C
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The most common cause of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) is obstruction of a cerebral artery by: A) atherosclerotic plaque. B) a fat embolus. C) vasospasm. D) a thrombus.
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D
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In the pathophysiology of cerebral infarction, the release of which substance is associated with neuron hyperpolarization and seizure activity? A) Neurotransmitter B) Endotoxin C) Excitotoxins D) Calcium
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C
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In subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), blood accumulates: A) in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) between the brain and skull. B) around neurons and neuroglia in the brain tissue. C) in the ventricles. D) All the above
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A
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The most common source of life-threatening meningitis is: A) streptococcus pneumoniae. B) fungal infection. C) haemophilus influenzae. D) human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
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A
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Symptoms of bacterial meningitis can include all of the following except: A) mild frontal headache. B) skin rash. C) nuchal rigidity. D) vomiting.
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A
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Encephalitis is usually caused by: A) viral infection. B) bacterial infection. C) parasitic infection. D) fungal infection.
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A
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The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by: A) degeneration of sensory and motor neurons in the peripheral nervous system. B) loss of neurotransmitter function in the spinal cord. C) immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons. D) receptor abnormalities at the neuromuscular junction and in the skin.
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C
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The tonic phase of an epileptic seizure is characterized by: A) involuntary muscle contraction and loss of consciousness. B) cessation of seizure activity. C) aura and prodromal signs. D) alternating muscle contraction and relaxation.
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A
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Which of the following vertebral disorders involves a structural defect (often hereditary) that causes forward displacement of affected vertebra? A) Spinal stenosis B) Spondylosis C) Degenerative disk disease D) Herniated nucleus pulposus
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B
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Which of the following problems are likely to occur following a severe focal brain injury? A) Cerebral edema B) Subdural hematoma C) Contrecoup injury D) All of the above
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D
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Excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulation in the ventricles or subarachnoid space is a condition called: A) cerebral edema. B) CSF shunting. C) Cheyne-Stokes condition. D) hydrocephalus.
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D
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An individual with paralysis of the lower extremities has: A) paraplegia. B) hemiparesis. C) paratonia. D) quadriplegia.
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A
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The main source of bleeding in subdural hematomas is: A) arterial. B) venous. C) capillary. D) sinus.
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B
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Which intervertebral disks are most likely to be herniated? A) C5-C7 B) T6-T8 C) T12-L3 D) L4-S1
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D
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Risk factors for stroke syndromes include all of the following except: A) primary hypertension. B) anticoagulant medications. C) atrial fibrillation. D) diabetes mellitus.
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B
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The most common neurologic disorder observed in individuals with AIDS is: A) peripheral neuropathies. B) stroke. C) encephalopathy. D) central nervous system (CNS) tumors.
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C
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Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is caused by the degeneration of: A) motor neurons in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. B) skeletal muscle tissue. C) myelin in the peripheral nervous system. D) myelin in the central nervous system.
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A
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Intracerebral hemorrhages most frequently occur in the: A) frontal and temporal lobes. B) occipital and parietal lobes. C) diencephalon and midbrain. D) cerebral cortex.
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A
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A 32-year-old female suffers from severe brain damage following a motor vehicle accident. After rehabilitation she notices that her thought processes and goal-oriented behavior are impaired. The area most likely responsible is the: A) thalamus. B) limbic. C) prefrontal. D) occipital.
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C
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A 45-year-old male was previously diagnosed with Parkinson disease. He has impaired fine repetitive motor movements. Which of the following areas is most likely damaged? A) Basal ganglia B) Prefrontal area C) Hippocampus D) Temporal lobe
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A
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A 12-year-old female presents with hydrocephalus. Blockage of which of the following would cause this condition? A) Cerebral aqueduct B) Inferior colliculi C) Red nucleus D) Tegmentum
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A
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The most common type of cerebral palsy is: A) ataxic. B) dyskinetic. C) spastic. D) mixed.
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C
