question

1.Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

answer

an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug

question

The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:

answer

signs and symptoms of a disease

question

3.Which of the following statements is TRUE?

answer

Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.

question

4. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:

answer

a preventative measure

question

5. The term homeostasis refers to:

answer

maintenance of a stable internal environment

question

6. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?

answer

the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases

question

7. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:

answer

participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis

question

The best definition of ischemia is:

answer

a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells, due to circulatory obstruction

question

9. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called:

answer

evidence based research

question

10. During the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during:

answer

the third stage

question

11. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?

answer

to develop preventative measures

question

12. What method do viruses use to replicate?

answer

using a host cell to produce and assemble components

question

13. Fungi reproduce by:

answer

budding, extension of hyphae, production of spores. 1, 2, 4

question

14. Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?

answer

Tinea pedis

question

Opportunistic infection may develop when

answer

a member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body

question

16. The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:

answer

inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium

question

Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?

answer

It is an obligate intracellular parasite, It contains RNA, there are three subtypes - A, B, C. 1, 2, 4

question

Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?

answer

Cells appear relatively normal

question

19. Which factor provides the basis for grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?

answer

Degree of differentiation of the cells

question

A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:

answer

sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea

question

21. What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?

answer

Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine

question

22. Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?

answer

Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed

question

23. Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker:

answer

colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen CEA

question

Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:

answer

reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells

question

Malignant brain tumors:

answer

spread to other parts of CNS

question

26. Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:

answer

bone marrow depression

question

27. Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:

answer

inflammation around the tumor may be reduced

question

28. The warning signs for cancer include:

answer

all the above are warning signs.

question

Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?

answer

persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90

question

30. What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?

answer

The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.

question

31. Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:

answer

All the above are correct.

question

32. Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?

answer

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

question

Edema and congestion normally develop in many tissues during pregnancy due to:

answer

increased blood volume

question

34. Place the following statements regarding Rh incompatibility in the correct sequence. Not all choices are included in each answer.

answer

fetal r h positive cells enter maternal blood. antibodies to r h positive cells form in the maternal blood. maternal r h antibodies enter the fetal circulation. hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes and anemia occur. elevated serum bilirubin levels develop in fetus.3, 5, 6, 1, 4

question

35. Senescence refers to the period of time when:

answer

cell death exceeds cell replacement

question

36. Theories about the causes of aging include:

answer

apoptosis,wear and tear,altered protein (amyloid) accumulation,degenerative changes in collagen or elastic fibers,all the above

question

37. All are physiologic changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:

answer

increased Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)

question

38. With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:

answer

vascular degeneration leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis

question

39. In which of the following disorders is stress NOT considered to be an exacerbating factor?

answer

cystic fibrosis

question

40. In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?

answer

internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident

question

41. A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:

answer

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

question

42. Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?

answer

a, b, c the presence of several stressors at the same time,past experiences,lack of effective coping mechanisms

question

43. In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?

answer

the spinothalamic tract

question

44. A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.

answer

migraine

question

45. Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?

answer

The drug is injected into CSF or the epidural space of the spinal cord.

question

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

answer

Young infants respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.

question

47. Each of the following compares the output of blood from the left and right ventricles with each contraction of a normal heart. Which is correct?

answer

Left ventricular output equals the right ventricular output.

question

48. The normal delay in conduction through the atrioventricular node is essential for:

answer

completing ventricular filling

question

49. Which of the following causes increased heart rate?

answer

stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

question

50. What does the term preload refer to?

answer

volume of venous return

question

51. Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:

answer

promotes platelet adhesion

question

52. Which of the following are typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction?

answer

persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse

question

53. Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?

answer

Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.

question

54. Which of the following drugs improves cardiac efficiency by slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of cardiac contractions?

answer

Digoxin

question

In an infant, which of the following is frequently the initial indication of congestive heart failure?

answer

feeding problems

question

56. Which of the following effects may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug?

answer

decreased sympathetic stimulation of the heart

question

Which of the following is a sign of aortic stenosis?

answer

a heart murmur

question

What would an incompetent mitral valve cause?

answer

decreased output from the left ventricle

question

59. Which of the following represent(s) the pathophysiologic changes in the heart in cases of rheumatic fever?

answer

an abnormal immune response, causing acute inflammation in all layers of the heart

question

60. Which of the following apply to subacute infective endocarditis?

answer

A microbe of low virulence attacks abnormal or damaged heart valves.

question

61. What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?

answer

increased systemic vasoconstriction

question

62. Where is uncontrolled hypertension most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function?

answer

kidneys, brain, and retinas of the eye

question

63. How does a dissecting aortic aneurysm develop?

answer

A tear in the intimal lining allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.

question

Phlebothrombosis is more likely to cause pulmonary emboli than is thrombophlebitis because:

answer

thrombus forms in a vein and is asymptomatic

question

65. When does shock follow myocardial infarction?

answer

A large portion of the myocardium is damaged.

question

66. What indicates compensation for shock?

answer

increased heart rate and oliguria

question

67. Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?

answer

Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow.

question

68. For which of the following would a cardiac pacemaker likely be inserted?

answer

heart block

question

What is the most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins?

answer

congenital valve defect in the abdominal veins

question

70. In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from:

answer

onset of circulatory shock

question

71. A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:

answer

ventricular filling is reduced.

question

72. The right side of the heart would fail first in the case of:

answer

3, 43. large infarction in the right ventricle4. advanced COPD

question

73. In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they:

answer

reduce renin and aldosterone secretion

question

In a child with acute rheumatic fever, arrhythmias may develop due to the presence of:

answer

myocarditis

question

What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm relaxes?

answer

Air is forced out of the lungs.

question

76. The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the:

answer

1, 2, 3, 41. upper and lower respiratory tracts2. nasal cavities and the sinuses3. nasopharynx and oropharynx4. middle ear cavity and auditory tube

question

77. The central chemoreceptors are normally most sensitive to:

answer

elevated carbon dioxide level

question

Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood:

answer

as bicarbonate ion

question

Which of the following would result from hyperventilation?

answer

respiratory alkalosis

question

What is the acid-base status of a patient with the following values for arterial blood gases?

answer

decompensated respiratory acidosis

question

How is oxygen toxicity manifested?

answer

decreased pulmonary compliance with diffuse atelectasis

question

How is respiratory failure defined?

answer

PaO2 less than 50 mm Hg or PaCO2 greater than 50 mm Hg

question

83. Orthopnea is:

answer

difficulty breathing in a recumbent position

question

Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:

answer

viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years

question

85. How is primary tuberculosis identified?

answer

caseation necrosis and formation of a tubercle in the lungs

question

86. What is an early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma?

answer

chronic cough

question

87. Why does hypercalcemia occur with bronchogenic carcinoma?

answer

secretion of parathyroid or like hormone by the tumor

question

88. During an acute asthma attack, how does respiratory obstruction occur?

answer

2, 32. edema of the mucosa3. increased secretion of thick, tenacious mucus

question

Which statement does NOT apply to emphysema?

answer

The ventilation/perfusion ratio remains constant.

question

Which of the following is a manifestation of a simple closed pneumothorax?

answer

asymmetrical chest movements

question

Which of the following statements describe the pathophysiology of adult respiratory distress syndrome?

answer

1, 31. damage leading to increased permeability of the alveolar walls3. excessive fluid and protein interstitially and in the alveoli

question

92. Laryngotracheobronchitis is typically manifested by:

answer

hoarse voice and barking cough

question

93. Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:

answer

Streptococcus pneumonia

question

94. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:

answer

Coronavirus

question

95. Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?

answer

hemoptysis and weight loss

question

96. Which of the following drugs in an inhaler would likely be carried by individuals to provide immediate control of acute asthma attacks?

answer

a beta-2-adrenergic agent

question

Which factor usually causes metabolic acidosis to develop in association with hypoxia?

answer

anaerobic metabolism

question

Which of the following individuals is NOT considered to be at high risk for developing active tuberculosis?

answer

persons who experience acute asthma attacks

question

99. The use of a continuous positive airway pump in the treatment of sleep apnea will:

answer

prevent collapse of pharyngeal tissues

question

100. Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?

answer

parietal cells

question

101. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

answer

ileum

question

When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?

answer

secretin

question

Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?

answer

They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.

question

104. What is the first change in arterial blood gases with diarrhea?

answer

decreased bicarbonate ion

question

105. Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?

answer

requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII

question

106. What does esophageal atresia cause?

answer

no fluid or food entering the stomach

question

107. Oral candidiasis is considered to:

answer

be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth

question

108. Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?

answer

The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia.

question

What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include?

answer

atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions

question

110. Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?

answer

an individual with an allergy to shellfish

question

111. Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?

answer

chemical peritonitis

question

112. Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?

answer

Small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum.

question

Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?

answer

long-term exposure to certain chemicals

question

114. How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?

answer

chronic blood loss in stools

question

What usually initiates acute appendicitis?

answer

obstruction of the lumen of the appendix

question

116. With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results from:

answer

local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum

question

117. To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

answer

liver

question

118. Partial obstruction of the sigmoid colon resulting from diverticular disease would likely:

answer

result in a small, hard stool

question

What causes hypovolemic shock to develop with intestinal obstruction?

answer

continued vomiting and fluid shift into the intestine

question

120. When dehydration reduces the compensation possible for acidosis resulting from prolonged diarrhea, what significant change in arterial blood gases indicates this?

answer

serum bicarbonate levels would decrease, serum pH would drop below 7.35

question

Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?

answer

proximal duodenum

question

An individual with peptic ulcer disease exhibits hematemesis. What does this probably indicate?

answer

erosion of a large blood vessel

question

Which of the following is NOT a common predisposing factor to gastric carcinoma?

answer

anti-inflammatory medications such as ASA

question

124. Which term refers to obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones?

answer

d. choledocholithiasis

question

Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?

answer

esophageal varices

question

126. Which of the following are related to post-hepatic jaundice?

answer

pruritic skin and light-colored stools

question

127. What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?

answer

accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly

question

128. When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:

answer

sliding hernia

question

Which of the following applies to gastric cancer?

answer

Most cases involve an adenocarcinoma of the mucous glands.

question

130. The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:

answer

intussusceptions

question

131. Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?

answer

loop of Henle

question

132. Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?

answer

Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.

question

From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed.

answer

albumin

question

Which of the following functions would be impaired when tubular epithelial cells have been damaged?

answer

reabsorbing the plasma proteins

question

135. Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?

answer

cystitis

question

Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:

answer

congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin

question

137. What is the common initial sign of adenocarcinoma of the kidney?

answer

microscopic hematuria

question

138. Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis?

answer

nephrosclerosis

question

139. When acidosis becomes decompensated in renal failure, a key indicator is:

answer

serum pH dropping below 7.35

question

140. Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

congestive heart failure

question

141. Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.

answer

failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D

question

142. Agenesis is often not diagnosed because:

answer

one kidney provides more than adequate function

question

Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?

answer

left hemisphere

question

What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?

answer

inability to understand what is heard

question

145. Where are beta-1 adrenergic receptors located?

answer

cardiac muscle

question

146. What does a vegetative state refer to?

answer

loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function

question

What is the rationale for vomiting with increased intracranial pressure?

answer

pressure on the emetic center in the medulla

question

148. What is the typical change in blood pressure with increased intracranial pressure?

answer

increasing pulse pressure

question

A brain tumor causes headache because the tumor:

answer

stretches the meninges and blood vessel walls

question

150. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal?

answer

clear and colorless fluid

question

151. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurologic function return?

answer

1, 2, 3, 41. presence of collateral circulation2. immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion3. reduced inflammation in the area4. development of alternative neuronal pathways

question

152. How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage?

answer

A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain.

question

153. Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome?

answer

progressive fatigue and weakness

question

An accurate assessment of the extent of permanent spinal cord damage can usually be completed:

answer

approximately 10 days to 2 weeks following injury if no complications arise

question

Common manifestations of rabies infection include:

answer

headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing

question

Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?

answer

Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds.

question

157. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?

answer

prenatally by ultrasound or detection of AFP in maternal blood or amniotic fluid

question

Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?

answer

tremors, weakness in the legs, visual problems

question

Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain?

answer

schizophrenia

question

Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus?

answer

This condition occurs only in idiopathic seizures.

question

161. Which type of seizure commonly occurs in children?

answer

generalized absence

question

162. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced Parkinson's disease?

answer

loss of vision

question

What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?

answer

serious infection

question

164. What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?

answer

acidosis and hypovolemia

question

165. Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography?

answer

2, 32. It is related to elevated serum lipids.3. It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease.

question

166. Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?

answer

Type I diabetics

question

167. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema?

answer

deficit of T3 and T4

question

What is caused by hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism?

answer

1, 21. skeletal muscle twitching or spasm2. weak cardiac contraction

question

169. Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?

answer

exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness

question

Characteristics of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

staring eyes with infrequent blinking

question

171. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?

answer

Cushing's disease

question

172. Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock?

answer

1, 21. if conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar2. if unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%)

question

173. All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT:

answer

liver

question

174. Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma?

answer

headache and seizures

question

175. Which of the following cells produce new bone?

answer

osteoblasts

question

176. What is a sign of a dislocation?

answer

deformity at a joint

question

Which of the following best describes the typical bone pain caused by osteogenic sarcoma?

answer

steady, severe, and persisting with rest

question

What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?

answer

the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface

question

What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?

answer

a systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction

question

What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?

answer

rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis

question

What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?

answer

pulmonary inflammation and obstruction

question

Which statement defines a sprain? A tear in a ___________:

answer

ligament

question

183. Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:

answer

dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D

question

184. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?

answer

urticaria

question

Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?

answer

silvery plaques on an erythematous base

question

186. How are antiviral drugs effective in treating infection?

answer

limiting the acute stage and viral shedding

question

Tinea capitis is an infection involving the:

answer

scalp

question

What condition does human papillomavirus cause?

answer

plantar warts

question

Which of the following apply to actinic keratosis?

answer

They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation.

question

190. The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by:

answer

noting the location and size of the lesion

question

191. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?

answer

both a and binfertilitytesticular cancer

question

Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?

answer

inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue

question

193. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?

answer

abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia

question

Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?

answer

non invasive severe dysplasia

question

What is the cause of syphilis?

answer

an anaerobic spirochete

question

196. How do testicular tumors usually present?

answer

small, fluid-filled cyst

question

Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:

answer

pelvic lymph nodes

question

Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to:

answer

prevent the removal of any lymph nodes

question

199. Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:

answer

vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis

question

200. In which cancers has there been a recent significant increase in incidence?

answer

cervical cancer in situ

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