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Patho Exam 5

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Which of the following cancers of the female genitourinary tract can be detected by routine screening methods and has a nearly 100% survival rate with treatment?
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B. Cancer of the cervix
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Which of the following statements is true as it relates to ovarian cancer?
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A. Is often asymptomatic until the disease is far advanced
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Which patient is most likely to have erectile dysfunction?
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B. Middle-aged man who has had DM for 25 years.
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The reason that antibiotic therapy predisposes women to vulvovaginal candidiasis is that it:
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B. Suppresses the normal protective flora.
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Which one of the following types of vaginal discharge is characteristic of a trichomonas infection?
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C. Copious frothy green or yellow and foul smelling excretion
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Without treatment, which infection may progress to damage the aorta, liver, and CNS?
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A. Syphilis
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The nurse, collecting data on the reproductive system from a female patient, is told that the patient has a vaginal discharge that is cottage cheese like in appearance. The nurse recognizes this as:
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C. Candida albicans infection
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Following an accident at a track meet, a young male is brought to the emergency department by his father. As the patient is being assessed he cries out and says that he is having intense pain in his genitalia and begins to vomit. Based on these initial finds, the nurse suspects:
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D. Testicular torsion
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Uterine prolapse, cystocele, and rectocele may all be the result of:
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D. Pregnancy and childbirth
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For which problem are Kegel exercises recommended?
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C. Cystocele
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The nurse working in the hospital emergency department is assigned to care for these four patients, which patient will the nurse attend to first?
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D. A 19-year-old who has had an erection for “10 or 11 hours” and is complaining of severe pain
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The patient with Pelvic Inflammatory Disorder from gonorrhea asked how this can cause sterility. Which is the nurse’s response?
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C. If the infection is present in the fallopian tubes, it can cause scarring to block the tubes permanently.
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Which term describes a fluid accumulation that forms around the testis?
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B. Hydrocele
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Which of the following infections can lead to the development of reproductive and anal cancers?
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D. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
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Teaching for the patient with endometriosis should include the signs and symptoms of common complications which include:
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D. Infertility
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Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hyperplasia?
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C. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency.
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Which of the following symptoms are associated with prostatitis?
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C. Dysuria, nocturia, and recurrent UTIs.
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Which assessment finding in the patient indicates the highest risk of a malignant breast lesion?
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D. Nipple discharge and dimpling
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Which STD are bacterial infections that are treatable with antibiotics? (Select all that apply)
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A. Chlamydia C. Gonorrhea D. Syphilis
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Which of the following statements regarding stomach cancer is true?
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C. Gastric cancer is associated with salted, pickled, preserved, and charcoaled foods.
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Which of the following is the most common cause of gastritis?
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D. H. pylori
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Which of the following is a common complication of Crohn’s disease?
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B. Fistula formation
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What is the underlying pathology experienced by people with irritable bowel syndrome?
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D. Increased response to stretching and discomfort resulting in intestinal motility
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Which of the following is a risk factor for developing diverticular disease?
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C. Chronic constipation
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Crohn’s disease is characterized by:
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A. Patchy areas and ulcerations or skip lesions of the intestinal wall.
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Which of the following patients is more likely to develop pancreatitis?
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B. A patient with a stone lodged in the pancreatic duct.
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Which of the following patients is most at risk for developing Hepatitis B?
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B. 24 year-old college student who has had several sexual partners.
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Which of the following patients would be most at risk for an intestinal obstruction?
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A. An elderly patient who is on bed rest because of post-operative abdominal surgery.
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Which of the following statements regarding diverticulosis of the colon would indicate a need for further teaching?
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B. A high-fiber diet can lead to the formation of diverticular disease.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with renal failure and chronic gastritis. The patient tells the nurse that he takes 2 teaspoons of sodium bicarbonate every night before bed to prevent heartburn. What is the nurse’s best response?
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B. “I will let your doctor know so that a safer antacid can be prescribed for you.”
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The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged following surgery for oral cancer. Which sign will the patient be instructed to watch for that indicates possible metastasis of the cancer?
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D. Small hard lumps on the side of the neck or under the chin.
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The nurse is caring for male patient with peptic ulcer disease. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the patient most likely has an ulcer in the stomach rather than the duodenum?
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A. The patient is underweight.
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Which teaching is a priority for the patient with gastroesophageal reflux?
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D. Eat four to six small meals a day.
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A patient is admitted with progressive dysphagia. Which assessment finding does the nurse expect in this patient?
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D. Weight loss
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Which of the following patients would be most at risk for the development of carcinoma of the liver?
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C. A 65 year old patient with a history of cirrhosis
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The nurse conducts a physical assessment for a patient with nausea, vomiting, and severe abdominal pain. The nurse notes that the abdomen is rigid and the patient’s temperature is 101.1 F (38.4 C). Which condition does the nurse suspect based on this info?
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D. Perforated gastric ulcer with peritonitis.
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The nurse monitors for which complication in the patient with end-stage cirrhosis who develops severe vomiting with blood?
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B. Esophageal varices
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Decreased synthesis of which substance in the patient diagnosed with liver failure would be responsible for development of ascites?
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C. Albumin
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For the patient diagnosed with Hepatitis A, asking how the infection may have been contracted, which response by the nurse is correct?
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B. “You may have been exposed through contaminated shellfish.”
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Acute lower right quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of:
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C. Appendicitis
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A patient is admitted to the health care facility with a diagnosis of a bleeding gastric ulcer. Nurse expects the patient’s stools to be:
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C. Black and tarry
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Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of:
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D. Duodenal ulcer
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The nurse is caring for a female patient with cholelithiasis. Which assessment findings from the patient’s history and physical examination may have contributed to the development of this condition?
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A. BMI is 46
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When taking the blood pressure of a patient after a parathyroidectomy to treat hyperparathyroidism, the nurse notes that the patient’s hand has gone into flexion contractions. Which does the nurse determine may be the cause of this symptom?
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C. Hypocalcemia
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Which alteration in vital signs is the most indicative of hypothyroidism?
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D. Apical pulse of 50 beat per minute
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The nurse correlates the polyuria seen in patients with diabetes mellitus with which physiologic response?
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C. Osmotic effects of glucosuria
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The nurse assesses for which clinical manifestation in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis?
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C. Increased rate and depth of respiration
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A patient with diabetes has retinopathy, nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy. What should the nurse teach this patine about exercise?
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D. Swimming or water aerobics 30 minutes each day would be the safest exercise routine for you.
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The nurse determines that which arterial blood gas values are consistent with ketoacidosis in a patient with diabetes?
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B. pH 7.28, HCO3 18 mEq/L, PCO2 34 mmHg
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When performing an assessment, the nurse detects a fruity odor on the patient’s breath. Which will the nurse do next?
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A. Assess blood sugar level
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Which dietary modification will the nurse provide for the patient with hyperthyroidism?
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C. Increased calories, proteins, and carbohydrates
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Which of the following does NOT occur in Addison’s disease?
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A. Exophthalmos
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Signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus includes all except:
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D. Swollen ankles
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The patient on an intensified insulin regimen consistently has a fasting blood glucose level between 70 and 80 mg/dL, a postprandial blood glucose level below 180 mg/dL, and a hemoglobin A1C level of 5.5%. What is the nurse’s interpretation of these findings?
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B. Good control of blood glucose
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What test provides a good measure of blood glucose levels over the previous 2-3 months?
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C. Glycosated hemoglobin test (HgbA1C)
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What is the primary cause of type 1 diabetes?
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D. Destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction.
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Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression resulting in delayed wound healing?
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C. Cushing’s disease
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Your patient has acromegaly. You would expect:
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A. Your patient to have an overactive pituitary gland.
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The nurse assesses the patient with a diagnosis of thyroid storm. Which classic signs and symptoms associated with thyroid storm indicate the priority need for immediate nursing intervention?
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C. Fever, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias
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An incoherent female patient with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial edema. Knowing that these findings suggest severe hypothyroidism, the nurse prepares to take emergency action to treat this potential complication of:
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C. Myxedema Coma
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Which of the following meals is most likely to exacerbate an individual’s celiac disease?
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C. Spaghetti with meatballs and garlic bread.
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Antibody testing has confirmed that a man is positive for Hepatitis A virus (HAV). Which of the patient’s statements suggests that he understands his new diagnosis?
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A. “I don’t know why I didn’t bother to get vaccinated against this.”
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A clinical manifestation of IBS is abdominal pain that is:
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B. Relieved by defecation
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Which of the following patients should the nurse observe most closely for the signs and symptoms of paralytic ileus?
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B. A patient who is postoperative day 1 following gall bladder surgery.
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Which of the following patients likely faces the greatest risk of a gastrointestinal bleed?
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B. A man who takes NSAIDS with each meal to control symptoms of osteoarthritis.
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Which of the following statements is true of colorectal cancer?
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D. Most cases are quite advanced before symptoms become apparent.
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A hospital patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes has been administered a scheduled dose of regular insulin. Which of the following effects will result from the action of insulin?
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A. Promotion of glucose uptake by target cells.
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As part of maintaining homeostasis, hormones secreted by endocrine cells are metabolize by the liver to:
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D. Prevent accumulation.
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The iatrogenic form of Cushing’s syndrome is caused by:
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B. Long-term cortisone therapy
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Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more commonly occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes, when the lack of insulin leads to the break down of ________ that causes excess ketone production by the liver.
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D. Fat
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Which of the following assessment questions is most likely to address the causation of a woman’s new case of candidiasis?
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C. “Have you been on antibiotics recently?”
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Which of the following signs and symptoms is most clearly suggestive of primary genital herpes in a male patient?
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A. Tingling and burning sensation followed by eruption of vesicles on the penis
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A 22-year-old patient had a Papanicolaou smear performed during her most recent visit to her primary care provider. This diagnostic procedure aims to identify:
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B. Dysplastic cervical cells
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In the lactating woman, mastitis is usually the result of:
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A. Ascending bacterial infection.
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Which of the following assessment findings of a male patient constitutes a criterion for the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply)
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A. The patient’s blood pressure is consistently in the range of 140/90 B. The patient has a total cholesterol level of 350 D. The patient has a waist circumference of 48 inches