Organizational Leadership – Study From Tests – Flashcards

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Which of the following is true about a field study?
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A field study probes individual or group processes in an organizational setting, involving real-life situations. In OB, a field study probes individual or group processes in an organizational setting. Because field studies involve real-life situations, their results often have immediate and practical relevance for managers.
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statistical analysis
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According to W. Edwards Deming, _____ is required to uncover system failures. As Deming observed, the typical manager spends most of her time wrongly blaming and punishing individuals for system failures. Statistical analysis is required to uncover system failures.
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Which of the following is an assumption of McGregor's Theory Y?
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The typical person has imagination and creativity. One of the assumptions of McGregor's Theory Y is that the typical member of the general population has imagination, ingenuity, and creativity. Refer: Table 1-1
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Which of the following did W. Edwards Deming call for, regarding the human side of development?
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Elimination of barriers to good workmanship egarding the human side of quality improvement, one of the things Deming called for was the elimination of barriers to good workmanship.
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Which of the following people-centered practices is carried out to build a "we" feeling?
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Less emphasis on status
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Which of the following is true about organizational ethics?
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Ethical conduct is often ignored.
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A common principle underlying various total quality management (TQM) programs is that one should:
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do it right the first time to eliminate costly rework.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a 21st-century manager?
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Viewing people as a primary resource
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The three basic levels of analysis in organizational behavior are:
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individual, group, and organizational.
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Difficulty in balancing career and family issues
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_____ is a barrier to implementing successful diversity programs that particularly affects women. Women still assume the majority of the responsibilities associated with raising children. This makes it harder for women to work evenings and weekends or to frequently travel once they have children.
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Which of the following responses identified by R Roosevelt Thomas Jr is an outgrowth of affirmative action programs?
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Include/Exclude The action of including/excluding is an outgrowth of affirmative action programs. Its primary goal is to either increase or decrease the number of diverse people at all levels of the organizations.
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Managing diversity
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_____ involves creating organizational changes that enable all people to perform up to their maximum potential. Managing diversity entails enabling people to perform up to their maximum potential. It focuses on changing an organization's culture and infrastructure such that people provide the highest productivity possible.
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Which of the following would reduce a mismatch between educational attainment and occupational requirements?
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Hire college graduates with critical thinking and analytic reasoning. Outsource technical work to other countries with a highly skilled population.
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Which of the following proposes that diverse work groups lead to better task relevant processes and decision making?
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Information/Decision-making theory
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Which of the following is an example of reasonable accommodation of sincerely held religious beliefs? Children in the workplace and mandatory child care
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Flexible scheduling A reasonable religious accommodation is any adjustment to the work environment that will allow the employee to practice his religion. Examples of reasonable accommodation include: flexible scheduling, voluntary substitutions or swaps, job reassignments and lateral transfers, and modification of grooming requirements.
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Which of the following is highlighted by the information/decision-making theory?
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Diverse perspectives help to uncover novel alternatives during problem-solving activities.
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Race
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_____ is an example of an internal dimension of diversity. Refer: Figure 2-1
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Which of the following groups of people have traits such as workaholism, idealism, and work ethics?
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Baby boomers Baby boomers have traits such as workaholism, idealism, and work ethics. Refer: Table 2-1
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Workforce demographics
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_____ are statistical profiles of the characteristics and composition of the adult working population. Workforce demographics, which are statistical profiles of the characteristics and composition of the adult working population, are an invaluable human-resource planning aid.
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Adhocracy
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_____ cultures value flexibility and have an external focus. An adhocracy culture has an external focus and values flexibility. This type of culture fosters the creation of innovative products and services by being adaptable, creative, and fast to respond to changes in the marketplace.
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Which of the following perceptual and social processes occurs during the change and acquisition phase of organizational socialization?
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Internalizing group norms and values The change and acquisition phase requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust to their work group's values and norms. This will only occur when employees have a clear understanding about their roles and they are effectively integrated within the work unit.
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Enacted
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_____ values are values and norms that are exhibited in employees' behavior. Enacted values represent the values and norms that actually are exhibited or converted into employee behavior. They represent the values that employees ascribe to an organization based on their observations of what occurs on a daily basis.
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Which of the following cultures has the strongest correlation with subjective innovation?
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Market culture A meta-analysis based on 93 studies revealed that a market culture within an organization had the strongest correlation with subjective innovation. Refer: Figure 3-4
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Which of the following is true about organizational values?
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Organizations are less likely to accomplish corporate goals when employees perceive an inconsistency between the espoused values of the organization and their own personal characteristics. Employees' satisfaction, performance, and turnover are affected when they feel that their values do not match the organization's enacted values.
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receptive
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A(n) _____ developmental network is composed of a few weak ties from one social system such as an employer or a professional association. The diversity and strength of developmental relationships result in four types of developmental networks: receptive, traditional, entrepreneurial, and opportunistic. A receptive developmental network is composed of a few weak ties from one social system such as an employer or a professional association.
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Amy has recently joined a new research institute. She had initially thought that her job would entail a lot of field work, which would allow her to gain some practical experience, but her manager just gives her a lot of paperwork instead. She is also learning to adjust to the strict dress code that the company enforces on all of its employees. Amy is in the _____ stage of the socialization process.
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encounter Amy is in the encounter phase of the socialization process. During the encounter phase employees come to learn what the organization is really like. It is a time for reconciling unmet expectations and making sense of a new work environment.
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Organizational _____ is defined as "the process by which a person learns the values, norms, and required behaviors which permit him to participate as a member of the organization."
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socialization Organizational socialization is defined as "the process by which a person learns the values, norms, and required behaviors which permit him to participate as a member of the organization." It is a key mechanism used by organizations to embed their organizational cultures.
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In the _____ phase of the socialization process, people gather information from many sources before they join the organization.
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anticipatory socialization The anticipatory socialization phase occurs before an individual actually joins an organization. It is represented by the information people have learned about different careers, occupations, professions, and organizations.
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Which of the following statements about organizational culture is true?
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An organization's culture is not determined by fate. A company's organizational culture is formed and shaped by the combination and integration of the top managers. Organizational culture is clearly related to measures of organizational effectiveness. This reinforces the conclusion that an organization's culture can be a source of competitive advantage.
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Which of the following is the first phase of the organizational socialization process?
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Anticipatory socialization The anticipatory socialization phase is the first phase of the socialization process and it occurs before an individual actually joins an organization. It is represented by the information people have learned about different careers, occupations, professions, and organizations.
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_____ is the most important work-related value for those with no religious preference.
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Professional challenge Religious beliefs and practices can have a profound effect on cross-cultural relations. Professional challenge (Concern with having a job that provides learning opportunities and opportunities to use skills well), is the most important work-related value for people with no religious preferences.
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Based on information gathered in the GLOBE project, _____ reflects how much should leaders encourage and reward loyalty to the social unit, as opposed to the pursuit of individual goals.
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institutional collectivism The nine cultural dimensions from the GLOBE project are power distance, uncertainty avoidance, institutional collectivism, in-group collectivism, gender egalitarianism, assertiveness, future orientation, performance orientation, and humane orientation. Institutional collectivism reflects how much should leaders encourage and reward loyalty to the social unit, as opposed to the pursuit of individual goals.
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People from _____ cultures emphasize personal responsibility for one's affairs. proximal
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individualistic Individualistic cultures, characterized as "I" and "me" cultures, give priority to individual freedom and choice. Accordingly, they emphasize personal responsibility for one's affairs.
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Most cultural lessons are learned:
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by observing and imitating role models.
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Unrealistic expectations regarding foreign assignments can be avoided with ____.
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realistic job previews
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The Germans have a _____ culture where written and spoken words carry the burden of shared meanings.
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low-context Low-context cultures include those found in Germany, Switzerland, Scandinavia, North America, and Great Britain. In these cultures, written and spoken words carry the burden of shared meanings.
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Based on information gathered in the GLOBE project, _____ reflects how much effort should be put into minimizing sex discrimination and role inequalities.
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gender egalitarianism
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_____ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, and behavior are superior to others.
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Ethnocentrism
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According to the leadership lessons from the GLOBE project, _____ was a universally liked leader attribute.
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trustworthiness Refer: Table 4-3
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_____ is defined as a set of beliefs and values about what is desirable and undesirable in a community of people, and a set of formal or informal practices to support the values.
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Culture So culture has both prescriptive (what people should do) and descriptive (what they actually do) elements.
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Based on information gathered in the GLOBE project, which of the following refers to uncertainty avoidance?
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The extent to which people should rely on social norms and rules to limit unpredictability.
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_____ represents a broad and stable characteristic responsible for a person's maximum—as opposed to typical—performance on mental and physical tasks.
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Ability Ability represents a broad and stable characteristic responsible for a person's maximum—as opposed to typical—performance on mental and physical tasks. Successful performance depends on the right combination of effort, ability, and skill.
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Some employees at Harley-Davidson factories have had the company logo tattooed on their bodies. This example is an indication of _____.
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strong organizational identification
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_____ is the view the individual has of himself or herself as a physical, social, and spiritual or moral being.
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Self-concept Sociologist Viktor Gecas defines self-concept as "the concept the individual has of himself as a physical, social, and spiritual or moral being." A self-concept would be impossible without the capacity to think about complex things and processes.
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According to the theory of emotional intelligence, _____ is a component of social competence.
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relationship management Emotional intelligence is said to have four key components: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and relationship management. The first two constitute personal competence; the second two feed into social competence. Refer: Table 5-5
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_____ is a goal congruent emotion.
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Relief According to Richard Lazarus, the distinction between positive and negative emotions is goal oriented. Relief, which is a positive emotion, is considered to be goal congruent. Refer: Figure 5-4
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According to the Big Five personality dimensions, a person scoring high on _____ is dependable, responsible, achievement oriented, and persistent.
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Conscientiousness Refer: Table 5-2
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A(n) _____ personality is defined as someone who identifies opportunities, is action-oriented, shows initiative, and perseveres to change things.
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proactive
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_____ intelligence is the potential to understand and regulate oneself.
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Intrapersonal
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According to research on emotional intelligence, empathy, organizational awareness and service are all elements of _____.
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social awareness Refer: Table 5-5
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_____ is a belief about one's own self-worth based on an overall self-evaluation.
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Self-esteem
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People with an external locus of control tend to ____.
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attribute outcomes to environmental causes
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Kim lives and works in a small town, even though she prefers life in a bigger city. She is quite dissatisfied with her current job and is thinking of leaving the organization. She is worried, however, about her ability to find other employment that pays as well as her current job. Additionally, she is concerned about finding another organization that offers medical benefits. Based on this information, Kim is experiencing _____.
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withdrawal cognitions
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_____ conflict is experienced when personal values conflict with each other.
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Intrapersonal value Schwartz's theory of values revealed that people are likely to experience inner conflict and stress when personal values conflict with each other.
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According to Schwartz's Value Theory, _____ refers to the preservation and enhancement of the welfare of people with whom one is in frequent personal contact.
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Benevolence Refer: Table 6-1
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_____ is an affective or emotional response toward various facets of one's job.
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Job satisfaction Job satisfaction essentially reflects the extent to which an individual likes his or her job.
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In which of the following stages of life is a person least likely to change his or her general attitudes?
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Middle adulthood
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Which of the following is influenced by psychological contracts?
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Normative commitment
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_____ conflict occurs when two individuals disagree.
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Interpersonal value This type of value conflict often is at the core of personality conflicts, and such conflicts can negatively affect one's career.
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_____ reflects a feeling of obligation to continue employment.
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Normative commitment Employees with a high level of normative commitment feel that they ought to remain with the organization.
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According to Ajzen's theory of planned behavior, an individual's _____ is the best predictor of behavior.
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intention
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A(n) _____ is defined as a learned predisposition to respond in a consistently favorable or unfavorable manner with respect to a given object.
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attitude
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According to Ajzen's theory of planned behavior, _____ refers to the perceived social pressure to perform or not to perform the behavior. intention
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subjective norm
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Which of the following behaviors would help managers to harness the Pygmalion effect?
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Reinforce positive performance expectations throughout the organization Largely owing to the Pygmalion effect, managerial expectations powerfully influence employee behavior and performance. Consequently, managers need to harness the Pygmalion effect by building a hierarchical framework that reinforces positive performance expectations throughout the organization.
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_____, that tend to be self-serving and often invalid, are suspected or inferred causes of behavior.
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Causal attributions Causal attributions are suspected or inferred causes of behavior. Even though our causal attributions tend to be self-serving and are often invalid, it is important to understand how people formulate attributions because they profoundly affect organizational behavior.
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_____ is a perceptual error that represents the tendency to evaluate people or objects by comparing them with characteristics of recently observed people or objects.
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Contrast effect
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High supervisory expectancy produces better leadership, which subsequently leads employees to develop higher self-expectations. Higher expectations motivate workers to exert more effort, ultimately increasing performance and supervisory expectancies. Successful performance also improves an employee's self-expectancy for achievement. This series of steps reflects the _____.
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self-fulfilling prophecy
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The _____ reflects a loss in performance resulting from low leader expectations.
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Golem effect
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As employees age, they typically experience _____.
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higher job satisfaction
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_____ is a perceptual error that represents the tendency to avoid all extreme judgments and rate people and objects as average or neutral.
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Central tendency For example, rating a professor average on all dimensions of performance regardless of his or her actual performance. Refer: Table 7-2
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_____ is a cognitive process that enables us to interpret and understand our surroundings.
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Perception
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The study of how people perceive one another is called _____.
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social cognition
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According to Kelley's attribution model, consensus involves _____.
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comparing an individual's behavior with that of his or her peers There is high consensus when one acts like the rest of the group and low consensus when one acts differently.
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According to Alderfer's ERG theory, the _____ needs reflect the desire to use one's abilities to their fullest potential.
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growth
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Which of the following is an organizational implication of expectancy theory?
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Design challenging jobs Refer: Table 8-2
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_____ is defined as the perceived fairness of the decision maker's behavior in the process of decision making.
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Interactional justice
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According to Alderfer's ERG theory:
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frustration of higher-order needs can influence the desire for lower-order needs. ERG theory contains a frustration-regression component. That is, frustration of higher-order needs can influence the desire for lower-order needs.
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Which of the following is a true about cognitive crafting?
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It encompasses a change in how you perceive or think about the tasks and relationships associated with your job.
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In Maslow's need hierarchy, the _____ need is the desire for reputation, prestige, and recognition from others.
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esteem
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Pam is attempting to reduce her inequity at work by attending night school for further job training. In other words, she is trying to ____.
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increase her inputs
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Which of the following is the most basic need according to Maslow's need hierarchy?
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Physiological It entails having enough food, air, and water to survive.
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According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene model, which of the following is a hygiene factor?
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Supervisor relations Herzberg found job dissatisfaction to be associated primarily with factors in the work context or environment. Specifically, company policy and administration, technical supervision, salary, interpersonal relations with one's supervisor, and working conditions were most frequently mentioned by employees expressing job dissatisfaction.
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_____ is defined as the perceived fairness of the process used to make decisions regarding the allocation of rewards and resources.
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Procedural justice
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Which of the following is high when a person works on a product or project from beginning to end and sees a tangible result?
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Task identity
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The _____ criterion for reward distribution focuses on factors such as teamwork, risk-taking, and creativity.
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performance: actions and behaviors
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Barbara is training her new puppy to sit on command. Every time the puppy responds correctly, it receives a treat. Barbara is using a _____ reinforcement schedule.
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continuous Barbara is using a continuous reinforcement schedule with her puppy. Every instance of a target behavior is reinforced when a continuous reinforcement (CRF) schedule is in effect.
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Philip got a mail from his supervisor with compliments and praises for his work over the past few months. This instance is an example of _____ schedule of reinforcement.
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variable interval
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According to the concept of building blocks, leading for choice involves:
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empowering employees and delegating meaningful assignments and tasks.
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Jill is a sales representative for a large pharmaceutical corporation. According to the current compensation system, if Jill meets her target for the quarterly sales projections, she will receive a bonus equivalent to 7% of her annual salary. Jill is working hard to meet the sales goal so that she can use the bonus money as a down payment on a new car for herself. Which of the following is true regarding Jill's motivation?
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It is extrinsically motivated.
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The _____ criterion for reward distribution focuses on tenure or level in the organizational hierarchy.
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nonperformance considerations Nonperformance considerations are customary or contractual, including situations where the type of job, nature of the work, equity, tenure, level in hierarchy, and so forth are rewarded.
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Employees with a clear _____ understand the organization's strategic goals and know what actions they need to take, both individually and as team members.
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line of sight
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Paying an employee $10 for every 20 units he or she produces is an example of a _____ schedule of reinforcement.
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fixed ratio
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The sales department of a mutual fund firm set a few goals for the New Year. The firm set targets to sell a certain number of mutual funds within each month. The firm was only bothered about meeting the target and not about how to meet the target. This implies that the firm had made a(n) _____ goal.
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performance outcome
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_____ is defined as the process of reinforcing closer and closer approximations to a target behavior.
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Shaping
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Which of the following should managers keep in mind while giving feedback?
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Base feedback on accurate and credible information. Managers need to keep the following tips in mind when giving feedback as part of a comprehensive performance management program: focus on performance, not personalities, give specific feedback linked to learning goals and performance outcome goals, channel feedback toward key result areas for the organization, give feedback as soon as possible, give feedback to coach improvement, not just for final results, base feedback on accurate and credible information, and pair feedback with clear expectations for improvement.
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_____ is the process of weakening behavior through the contingent presentation of something displeasing.
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Punishment
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_____ is an attitude, opinion, feeling, or action that is shared by two or more people and guides their behavior.
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A norm According to one respected team of management consultants: "A norm is an attitude, opinion, feeling, or action—shared by two or more people—that guides their behavior." Although norms are typically unwritten and seldom discussed openly, they have a powerful influence on group and organizational behavior.
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As a group proceeds through the development process:
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the credibility of peer feedback typically increases.
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Assigning someone the role of devil's advocate when discussing major alternatives is a way to:
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prevent groupthink.
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According to the group decay process, the _____ stage occurs when an undercurrent of discontent slowly comes to the surface and individual resistance increases while cohesiveness declines.
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de-storming
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According to the group decay process, during the _____ stage the work group falls apart as subgroups battle for control.
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de-forming
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According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group development, members tend to be uncertain and anxious about their roles, who is in charge and the group's goals in the _____ stage.
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forming
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The maintenance role of gatekeeper involves _____.
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encouraging all group members to participate
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Which of the following is an example of an organizational function of a formal group?
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Socialize and train newcomers Refer: Table 10-2
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_____, defined as the "we feeling" that binds members of a group together, is the principal by-product of the "norming" stage of group development.
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Group cohesiveness
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According to research, which of the following statements about group processes is true?
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Uncertainty about group deadlines tends to disrupt group development.
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Which of the following statements regarding sexual harassment is true?
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Women typically perceive a broader range of behaviors as sexual harassment than what men perceive.
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According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group development, in the _____ stage, questions about authority and power are resolved through unemotional, matter-of-fact group discussion.
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norming
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Which of the following steps can managers take to enhance instrumental cohesiveness?
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Equitably reinforce every member's contributions. Refer: Table 11-5
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Which of the following is true about self-managed teams?
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They have no significant effect on absenteeism or turnover.
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Some of the typical outputs of _____ teams are retail sales and customer service.
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production Refer: Table 11-2
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Which of the following attributes of high-performance teams refers to having a sense of common aim about why the team exists and the purpose it serves?
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Aligned on purpose
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Which of the following statements about virtual teams is true?
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Internet chat rooms yield poorer decisions than face-to-face group meetings.
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Managers can enhance instrumental cohesiveness by:
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regularly updating and clarifying the group's goals. Refer: Table 11-5
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Which of the following attributes of high-performance teams refers to creating interdependency by empowering and serving others?
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Participative leadership
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_____ teams are defined as groups of workers who are given administrative oversight for their task domains.
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Self-managed teams
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A quality circle is an example of a(n) _____ team.
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advice Refer: Table 11-2
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Which of the following statements is true about a team?
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A team consists of people committed to a common purpose.
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Which of the following team competencies models desirable team member behavior?
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Promoting a positive team environment
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_____ reflects the extent to which an individual focuses on either task and technical concerns or people and social concerns when making decisions.
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Value orientation
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_____ represents a process of conscientiously using the best available data and proof when making managerial decisions.
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Evidence-based decision making
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_____ reflects a decision maker's estimate of the probability of an event occurring, reflecting the tendency to assess the likelihood of an event occurring based on one's impressions about similar occurrences.
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Representativeness heuristic
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Which of the following is proposed by the garbage can model?
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Decision making is a sloppy and haphazard process. The garbage can model assumes that organizational decision making is a sloppy and haphazard process. According to the garbage can model, decisions result from a complex interaction between four independent streams of events: problems, solutions, participants, and choice opportunities.
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Which of the following is true about creativity?
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Creativity is highest when workers are under moderate stress. Creativity is associated with time pressure and the level of stress in the work environment. Contrary to the belief that people are more creative under a crisis or severe time pressure, time pressure stifles creativity. So does stress. Creativity is highest when workers are under moderate stress.
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Which of the following is true about the garbage can model?
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Many decisions are made by oversight or by the presence of a salient opportunity.
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_____ represent(s) rules of thumb or shortcuts that people use to reduce information processing demands.
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Judgmental heuristics
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_____ consists of choosing a solution that meets some minimum qualifications, one that is good enough.
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Satisficing
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Oliver was known for his innovative promotional ideas. His boss loved listening to his presentations and trusted his ideas. Though Oliver's ideas started to get monotonous after a while, his boss took only his ideas and did not accept ideas from others. Which of the following biases was Oliver's boss engaging in?
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Availability heuristic
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Associations generated in the incubation stage come to life in the _____ stage.
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illumination
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George has a habit of disrupting meetings by asking irrelevant questions and daydreaming. He does not listen to his colleagues' ideas and presentations during meetings. His colleagues are getting irritated with his behavior. This implies that George is stimulating:
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workplace incivility.
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_____ represents judgments, insights, or decisions that "come to mind on their own, without explicit awareness of the evoking cues and of course without explicit evaluation of the validity of these cues."
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Intuition
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A(n) _____ occurs when two people are having a problem and, instead of addressing the problem directly with each other, one of them gets a third person involved.
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conflict triangle
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Which of the following is true about conflict?
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Conflicts have both participants and observers. Personality traits affect how people handle conflict.
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The _____ style of handling conflicts has high concern for self and low concern for others, and speed is its primary strength
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dominating
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Laura is head of Ryan Systems. She needs to allocate a fixed amount of funds into various projects. There are two top projects that Laura believes hold the most promise. She decides to arrange a structured debate for the two top proposals. Importantly, the assumptions of each proposal are identified, and a conflicting counterproposal is generated based on a different set of assumptions. Advocates of each position present and debate the merits of their proposal before Laura makes her decision. Which technique is Laura using to help her make a better decision?
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Dialectic method
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Which of the following tips should be used by managers to reduce personality conflict?
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Investigate and document conflict.
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_____ usually involves a single issue in which one person gains at the expense of the other.
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Distributive negotiation
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The _____ conflict-handling style is appropriate when parties have opposite goals or possess equal power. It is inappropriate when overuse would lead to inconclusive action.
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compromising
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The _____ conflict-handling style is appropriate when an unpopular solution must be implemented, the issue is minor, or a deadline is looming. It is inappropriate in an open and participative climate.
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dominating
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_____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where the disputing parties agree ahead of time to accept the decision of a neutral third party in a formal court-like setting, often complete with evidence and witnesses.
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Arbitration
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Which of the following is true regarding touch as a source of nonverbal communication?
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People tend to touch those they like.
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_____ is a give-and-take decision-making process involving interdependent parties with different preferences.
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Negotiation
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_____ is a work practice in which an employee does his or her job in a remote location using a variety of information technologies.
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Teleworking
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Which of the following is a characteristic of people with an assertive communication style?
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The use of "I" and cooperative "we" statements Refer: Table 14-2
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_____ entails translating thoughts into a code or language that can be understood by others.
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Encoding
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_____ consists of translating verbal, oral, or visual aspects of a message into a form that can be interpreted.
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Decoding
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Speech impairments, poor telephone connections, and poor hearing and eyesight are examples of _____.
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noise
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According to the perceptual model of communication, _____ is anything that interferes with the transmission and understanding of a message.
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noise
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Sender barriers, encoding barriers, and decoding barriers are examples of a _____ barrier.
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personal
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A _____ listener makes sense of a message by first organizing specific thoughts and actions and then integrates this information by focusing on relationships among ideas.
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comprehensive
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Which of the following statements about the grapevine is true?
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It encompasses all types of communication media.
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Dana is trying to talk to a client from Russia. But his Russian accent is so thick that she can hardly understand what he is saying. In this situation, Dana's communication with her client is hampered due to _____.
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noise
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_____ is recognizing and releasing into the organization the power that people already have in their wealth of useful knowledge, experience, and internal motivation.
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Empowerment
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Which of the following verbal patterns is characteristic of an aggressive communicator?
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Sexist or racist terms
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Delegation amounts to:
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power distribution.
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Delegation is highly successful when:
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employees are competent. Greater delegation is associated with the following factors: (1) employees are competent, (2) employees share manager's task objectives, (3) managers have a long-standing and positive relationship with employees, and (4) the lower-level person also is a supervisor.
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Legitimate power is anchored to one's:
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formal position.
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Role models most likely have _____ power over those who identify closely with them.
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referent
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Which of the following is considered to be a soft influence tactic?
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Personal appeal
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"He will do it because I am the CEO and I say so!" This statement reflects a reliance on _____ power. referent
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negative legitimate
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_____ occurs when an individual takes an active and self-starting approach to work and goes beyond what is formally required in a given job.
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Personal initiative
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_____ is the process whereby employees play a direct role in setting goals, making decisions, solving problems, and making changes in the organization.
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Participative management
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A sales manager who threatens to fire any salesperson who uses a company car for personal purposes is relying on _____ power.
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coercive
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You own your own management consulting firm. At a recent seminar, the owner of a local supermarket chain asks you to help him differentiate between a coalition and a network. Which of the following would be a correct response?
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Networks are people oriented.
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_____ encompasses the fundamental managerial activities of setting goals, monitoring progress toward goal achievement, and rewarding and punishing people for their level of goal accomplishment.
answer
Transactional leadership
question
Which of the following is true about the Leader-Member Exchange (LMX) model of leadership?
answer
It focuses on the quality of relationships between managers and subordinates as opposed to the behaviors or traits of either leaders or followers.
question
According to the path-goal leadership theory:
answer
effective leaders possess and use more than one style of leadership.
question
According to the leader-member exchange model of leadership, in-group exchanges are characterized by mutual _____.
answer
trust
question
Which of the following environmental factors is a contingency factor that describes leadership effectiveness?
answer
Work group dynamics
question
According to Fiedler's contingency model, _____ is the most important component of situational control.
answer
leader-member relations
question
Which of the following is true about employees with an internal locus of control?
answer
They are more likely to prefer participative or achievement-oriented leadership.
question
Consideration involves leader behavior associated with:
answer
creating mutual trust and respect within group members.
question
According to _____, leader behavior is acceptable when employees view it as a source of satisfaction.
answer
House's path-goal theory
question
Jim is the daytime supervisor for an automobile assembly line. He supervises forty-five workers who perform routine jobs that require minimal training. Which of the following suggests that Jim follows the transactional model of leadership?
answer
Jim sets goals, monitors progress toward goal achievement, and rewards and punishes people for their level of goal accomplishment.
question
According to Fiedler's Contingency Model, _____ refers to the degree of pre-arrangement contained within duties performed by the work group.
answer
task structure
question
According to the path-goal theory, when a manager presents the work group in a positive light to others and maintains positive relationships with influential others, he or she exemplifies _____ behavior.
answer
representation and networking
question
According to Fiedler's Contingency Model, _____ refers to the extent to which the leader has the support, loyalty, and trust of the work group.
answer
leader-member relations
question
Jim is the daytime supervisor for an automobile assembly line. He supervises forty-five workers who perform routine jobs that require minimal training. Which of the following suggests that Jim follows the servant-leadership model of leadership?
answer
Jim refrains from engaging in self-serving behaviors that hurt others and focuses on increased service to others rather than to himself.
question
A hollow organization results from strategic application of the trend toward:
answer
outsourcing.
question
Which of the following is true of spans of control?
answer
Wider spans of control complement today's trend toward greater worker autonomy. Generally, the narrower the span of control, the closer the supervision and the higher the administrative costs as a result of a higher manager-to-worker ratio. Wider spans complement the trend toward greater worker autonomy and participation. Despite years of debate, organization theorists and senior executives have not arrived at a consensus regarding the ideal span of control.
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of virtual organizations?
answer
Members of virtual organizations rely heavily on face-to-face meetings.
question
Instead of relying heavily on face-to-face meetings, members of _____ organizations send e-mail and voice-mail messages, exchange project information over the Internet, and convene videoconferences among dispersed participants.
answer
virtual
question
Learning organizations strive to:
answer
learn from successes and failures.
question
Which of the following approaches to organization design says that, organizations tend to be more effective when they are structured to fit the demands of the situation?
answer
Contingency approach
question
A(n) ______ actively attempts to infuse the organization with new ideas and information by scanning the external environment and hiring new talent.
answer
learning organization
question
Which of the following is true of centralized organizations?
answer
They are more tightly controlled.
question
Johnson & Co. has divided its employees according to the locations of the customers that they tend to. Thus, it has teams that cater to the urban areas, semi-urban areas, etc. Johnson & Co. is said to have a _____ structure.
answer
divisional
question
When measuring organizational effectiveness, the _____ approach is appropriate when inputs have a traceable impact on results or output.
answer
resource acquisition
question
According to the criterion of _____, effectiveness is gauged by how well the organization meets the demands and expectations of key interest groups.
answer
strategic constituencies satisfaction
question
Religuard is a pharmaceutical company that has factories in Taiwan. Due to strict environmental regulations in the country, Religuard has had to shut operations at three of its five manufacturing units. Which of the following external forces of change had a role to play in the shutting down of these units?
answer
Social and political pressures
question
Janis Parker is in charge of marketing for a department store sale. During previous sales, she has had success using only radio advertisements to draw customers into the store for a sale. A colleague suggests TV commercials as another approach to marketing. Janis is resistant to change because she knows that the radio advertisements have worked. What form of resistance to change is Janis exhibiting?
answer
Past success
question
Which of the following is an assumption of Lewin's change model?
answer
Effective change requires proper reinforcement of new behaviors and attitudes.
question
According to Lewin's change model, the _____ stage involves providing employees with new information, new behavioral models, or new ways of looking at things.
answer
changing
question
According to the systems model of change, organization culture and group processes are examples of _____, which are target elements of change.
answer
social factors
question
The four components of organizational development are:
answer
diagnosis, intervention, evaluation, feedback.
question
_____ is an emotional/behavioral response to real or imagined threats to an established work routine.
answer
Resistance to change
question
Which of the following is true of organization development (OD)?
answer
It possesses the same diagnostic focus associated with the systems model of change.
question
Stressors are _____ factors that produce stress.
answer
Environmental demands, referred to as stressors, produce an adaptive response that is influenced by individual differences.
question
According to the systems model of change, all organizational changes should be consistent with an organization's:
answer
mission statement.
question
Which of the following is an advantage of education + communication as a strategy for overcoming resistance to change?
answer
Once persuaded, people will often help with the implementation of the change.
question
_____ changes fall midway on the continuum of complexity, cost, and uncertainty.
answer
Innovative
question
_____ is based on pessimistic and negative assumptions about human nature.
answer
Theory X
question
_____ capital represents the productive potential of an individual's knowledge and actions.
answer
Human
question
_____ refers to using the Internet to facilitate every aspect of running a business.
answer
E-business
question
According to W. Edwards Deming, when things go wrong, there is roughly a(n) ______ % chance the system (e.g., management, machinery, or rules) is at fault and about a(n) _____ % chance the individual employee is at fault.
answer
85, 15
question
In Carroll's global corporate social responsibility pyramid, _____ responsibility states that one should do what is required by stakeholders.
answer
legal
question
People-centered management practices are associated with:
answer
higher profits.
question
Intel spends millions of dollars each year to encourage education in math and science by holding tough contests with scholarships. This policy:
answer
builds human capital.
question
Which of the following is an assumption of McGregor's Theory X?
answer
Most people dislike work and they avoid it when they can.
question
Which of the following is true about organizational behavior (OB)?
answer
OB is both research and application oriented.
question
_____ capital represents the productive potential resulting from strong relationships, goodwill, trust, and cooperative effort.
answer
Social
question
Which of the following is defined as, "continuous, customer-centered, employee-driven improvement?"
answer
Total quality management
question
Which of the following moral principles of Hodgson states that all have the right be treated equitably, and the right to the necessities of life, especially those in deep need and the helpless?
answer
Fairness
question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a 21st century manager?
answer
Multicultural orientation Refer: Table 1-2
question
A _____ is a statistical pooling technique that allows behavioral scientists to draw conclusions about certain variables from many different studies.
answer
meta-analysis
question
The book, The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization, that advised managers to attend to employees' emotional needs, was written by _____.
answer
Elton Mayo
question
Which of the following calls for using management techniques in a situationally appropriate manner instead of relying on "one best way"?
answer
Contingency approach
question
According to the information/decision-making theory:
answer
heterogeneous work groups will outperform homogeneous work groups.
question
_____ is a barrier to implementing successful diversity programs that particularly affects women.
answer
Difficulty in balancing career and family issues
question
Which of the following statements affirmative action is true?
answer
It is not supported by people who possess racist or sexist attitudes.
question
According to the social categorization theory:
answer
homogeneous work groups will outperform heterogeneous work groups.
question
_____ is the feeling that one's cultural rules and norms are superior or more appropriate than the rules and norms of another culture.
answer
Ethnocentrism
question
_____ involves creating organizational changes that enable all people to perform up to their maximum potential.
answer
Managing diversity
question
_____ is an example of an internal dimension of diversity.
answer
Sexual orientation Refer: Figure 2-1
question
Differences are squelched or discouraged when using the approach of _____.
answer
suppression
question
Affirmative action programs often have _____ effects on the job satisfaction of women and minority employees who supposedly benefited from them.
answer
negative
question
_____ is an artificial intervention aimed at giving management a chance to correct an imbalance, an injustice, a mistake, and/or outright discrimination.
answer
Affirmative action
question
Which of the following is true about an affirmative action?
answer
It is viewed more positively by people who are liberals and Democrats than conservatives and Republicans.
question
The basic premise behind _____ is that all diverse people will learn to fit in or become like the dominant group.
answer
assimilation
question
Which of the following is an example of an external dimension of diversity?
answer
Income
question
Which of the following is an example of reasonable accommodation of sincerely held religious beliefs?
answer
Flexible scheduling A reasonable religious accommodation is any adjustment to the work environment that will allow the employee to practice his religion. Examples of reasonable accommodation include: flexible scheduling, voluntary substitutions or swaps, job reassignments and lateral transfers, and modification of grooming requirements.
question
Which of the following is true with respect to educational attainment and occupational requirements?
answer
American companies are more likely to hire more immigrants to fill entry-level positions. The mismatch between educational attainment and occupational requirements has both short- and long-term implications for organizations and countries alike. American companies are more likely to outsource technical work to countries like India and China, to hire more immigrants to fill entry-level positions, to spend more money on employee training, and to use phased retirement programs that encourage skilled employees to work beyond retirement age.
question
_____ is the core layer of diversity.
answer
Personality Refer: Figure 2-1
question
Which of the following organizational cultures values stability, and focuses on achieving effectiveness with measures of timeliness, efficiency, and safety?
answer
Hierarchy culture The hierarchy culture has an internal focus, which produces a more formalized and structured work environment, and values stability and control over flexibility. Effectiveness in a company with this type of culture is likely to be assessed with measures of efficiency, timeliness, quality, safety, and reliability of producing and delivering products and services.
question
Organizational commitment has the strongest positive correlation with _____ cultures.
answer
adhocracy Refer: Figure 3-4
question
In the _____ phase of the socialization process, the employee tries to reconcile unmet expectations and make sense of the new work environment.
answer
encounter
question
_____ socialization is the practice of segregating a newcomer from regular organization members during a defined socialization period versus not clearly distinguishing a newcomer from more experienced members.
answer
Formal Refer: Table 3-1
question
Southstar, Inc. manufactures high-quality widgets. The widgets have to be built exactly according to the specifications provided. This requires the use of controlled processes and precise measurements. The company also needs to maintain high efficiency in its production process in order to meet the market demand. For this company, stability is more important than flexibility. Which of the organizational cultures is best suited for Southstar?
answer
Hierarchy culture
question
_____ is a psychosocial function of mentoring.
answer
Role modeling
question
_____ is (are) the set of shared, taken-for-granted implicit assumptions that a group holds that determines how it perceives, thinks about, and reacts to its environment.
answer
Organizational culture
question
_____ are enduring beliefs in a mode of conduct or end-state that transcend situations and are ordered by relative importance.
answer
Values
question
Realistic job previews _____.
answer
alter unrealistic expectations
question
Frequent interactions, reciprocity, and positive feelings between a protégé and developer indicate a _____.
answer
strong developmental relationship Developmental relationship strength reflects the quality of relationships among the individual and those involved in his or her developmental network. For example, strong ties are reflective of relationships based on frequent interactions, reciprocity, and positive affect. Weak ties, in contrast, are based more on superficial relationships.
question
Troy had received a job offer straight out of college and had moved to Omaha a year ago. He has been introduced to numerous people in his workplace, his community, and his church. Although it's nice to see a familiar face, he doesn't see them too often and feels like he doesn't know them very well. Which type of developmental network best describes Troy's situation?
answer
Opportunistic The diversity and strength of developmental relationships result in four types of developmental networks: receptive, traditional, entrepreneurial, and opportunistic. An opportunistic network is associated with having weak ties with multiple developers from different social systems, as in this scenario.
question
A(n) _____ culture leads to the development of reliable internal processes, extensive measurement, and the implementation of a variety of control.
answer
hierarchy The hierarchy culture has an internal focus, which produces a more formalized and structured work environment, and values stability and control over flexibility. This orientation leads to the development of reliable internal processes, extensive measurement, and the implementation of a variety of control mechanisms.
question
Expatriate refers to:
answer
anyone living and/or working outside their home country.
question
Culture generally remains below the threshold of conscious awareness because it involves _____ assumptions.
answer
taken-for-granted
question
Continuity is the most important work-related value for ____.
answer
Muslims
question
People from _____ cultures rely heavily on situational cues for meaning.
answer
high-context People from high-context cultures—including China, Korea, Japan, Vietnam, Mexico, and Arab cultures—rely heavily on situational cues for meaning when perceiving and communicating with others. Nonverbal cues such as one's official position, status, or family connections convey messages more powerfully than do spoken words.
question
The majority of people from high-context cultures prefer:
answer
negotiations to be slow and ritualistic. Refer: Figure 4-2
question
The most important work-related value for Catholics is:
answer
treating employees in a considerate fashion.
question
People from _____ cultures tend to place greater emphasis on community goals and subordinate their own wishes and goals.
answer
collectivist Collectivist cultures rank shared goals higher than individual desires and goals. People in collectivist cultures are expected to subordinate their own wishes and goals to those of the relevant social unit.
question
People from low-context cultures most value:
answer
expertise and performance. Refer: Figure 4-2
question
_____ refers to the idea that there are always exceptions to the rule; individuals who do not fit the expected cultural pattern.
answer
Cultural paradox
question
Andrew belongs to a culture in which most people including Andrew have freedom in their economic and political pursuits. Further, this culture gives priority to Andrew's interests over the interests of the relevant social unit. Which of the following cultural dimensions is Andrew a part of?
answer
Individualism
question
People from high-context cultures prefer:
answer
to come to agreement by general trust.
question
Based on Hofstede's research, _____ reflects how loosely or closely a person is socially bonded.
answer
individualism-collectivism
question
_____ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, and behavior are superior to others.
answer
Ethnocentrism
question
As defined by the GLOBE project, _____ reflects the extent to which society should encourage and reward people for being kind, fair, friendly, and generous.
answer
humane orientation
question
People in polychronic cultures view time as _____.
answer
multidimensional
question
Based on information gathered in the GLOBE project, _____ reflects how confrontational and dominant should individuals be in social relationships.
answer
assertiveness
question
_____ represent(s) complex, patterned, organismic reactions to how we think we are doing in our lifelong efforts to survive and flourish and to achieve what we wish for ourselves.
answer
Emotions Richard S Lazarus, a leading authority on the subject of emotions, defines emotions as "complex, patterned, organismic reactions to how we think we are doing in our lifelong efforts to survive and flourish and to achieve what we wish for ourselves."
question
According to the Big Five personality dimensions, a person scoring high on _____ is intellectual, imaginative, curious, and broad-minded.
answer
openness to experience Refer: table 5-2
question
Self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and relationship management are all components of _____.
answer
emotional intelligence Emotional intelligence is the ability to manage oneself and one's relationships in mature and constructive ways. Referred to by some as EI and others as EQ, emotional intelligence is said to have four key components: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and relationship management.
question
People with an internal locus of control tend to _____.
answer
believe that they control the events that affect their lives
question
Which of the following mental abilities was found to be a valid predictor of job performance for both minority and majority applicants?
answer
Spatial ability Personnel selection researchers have found verbal ability, numerical ability, spatial ability, and inductive reasoning to be valid predictors of job performance for both minority and majority applicants.
question
_____ is defined as the extent to which a person observes his or her own self-expressive behavior and adapts it to the demands of the situation.
answer
Self-monitoring
question
_____ is a belief about one's own self-worth based on an overall self-evaluation.
answer
Self-esteem
question
Based on research on the Big Five personality dimensions, which of the following is true?
answer
The Big Five personality structure is valid across different cultures.
question
_____ represent(s) an individual's capacity for constructive thinking, reasoning, and problem solving.
answer
Intelligence
question
_____ represents the specific capacity to physically manipulate objects.
answer
Skill
question
Debra hates veal, but at a party at her friend's house, she is served veal for dinner. She hides her revulsion, does not let anyone realize that she hates veal, and eats the other items on the menu. Which of the following can be ascertained from Debra's behavior at the party?
answer
She is a high self-monitor.
question
_____ is defined as the ability to manage oneself and interact with others in mature and constructive ways.
answer
Emotional intelligence Emotional intelligence is the ability to manage oneself and one's relationships in mature and constructive ways. Referred to by some as EI and others as EQ, emotional intelligence is said to have four key components: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and relationship management.
question
According to Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, _____ intelligence is the potential to live in harmony with one's environment.
answer
naturalist
question
Inspirational leadership, influence, conflict management and teamwork/collaboration are all elements of _____.
answer
relationship management Emotional intelligence is said to have four key components: self-awareness, self-management, social awareness, and relationship management. According to research, inspirational leadership, influence, conflict management and teamwork/collaboration are all elements of relationship management. Refer: Table 5-5
question
According to the Big Five personality dimensions, a person scoring high on _____ is trusting, good natured, cooperative, and soft-hearted.
answer
agreeableness Refer: Table 5-2
question
The _____ component of an attitude reflects the beliefs or ideas one has about an object or situation.
answer
cognitive
question
According to Schwartz's value theory, _____ is associated with understanding, appreciation, tolerance, and protection of the welfare of all people and of nature.
answer
Universalism Refer: Table 6-1
question
_____ represent an individual's overall thoughts and feelings about quitting his or her job.
answer
Withdrawal cognitions Although some people quit their jobs impulsively or in a fit of anger, most go through a process of thinking about whether or not they should quit. Withdrawal cognitions encapsulate this thought process by representing an individual's overall thoughts and feelings about quitting.
question
According to Schwartz's value theory, _____ includes pleasure and sensuous gratification for oneself?
answer
Hedonism Hedonism includes pleasure and sensuous gratification for oneself. Refer: Table 6-1
question
_____ consists of employee behaviors that are beyond the call of duty and exceed work-role expectations.
answer
Organizational citizenship behaviors Organizational citizenship behaviors consist of employee behaviors that are beyond the call of duty. Examples include "such gestures as constructive statements about the department, expression of personal interest in the work of others, suggestions for improvement, training new people, respect for the spirit as well as the letter of housekeeping rules, care for organizational property, and punctuality and attendance well beyond standard or enforceable levels."
question
According to Ajzen's theory of planned behavior, _____ is assumed to reflect past experience as well as anticipated impediments and obstacles.
answer
perceived behavioral control Perceived behavior control refers to the perceived ease or difficulty of performing the behavior and is assumed to reflect past experience as well as anticipated impediments and obstacles.
question
According to Schwartz's value theory, _____ is associated with personal success through demonstrating competence according to social standards.
answer
Achievement Refer: Table 6-1
question
_____ relate only to behavior directed toward specific objects, persons, or situations.
answer
Attitudes
question
According to Schwartz's value theory, _____ is associated with restraint of actions, inclinations, and impulses likely to upset or harm others and violate social expectations or norms.
answer
Conformity Refer: Table 6-1
question
_____ reflects the extent to which an individual identifies with an organization and works to achieve its goals.
answer
Organizational commitment
question
According to Ajzen's theory of planned behavior, _____ refers to the perceived social pressure to perform or not to perform the behavior.
answer
subjective norm
question
Which of the following is a personal characteristic that influences employee engagement?
answer
PE fit
question
Oliver stole three laptops from his workplace and sold them through an online buying and selling website. Oliver's stealing action is classified as a(n):
answer
counterproductive behavior. Counterproductive work behaviors (CWBs) are types of behavior that harm employees and the organization as a whole. Stealing is an example of a counterproductive work behavior.
question
_____ represents the psychological discomfort a person experiences when his or her attitudes or beliefs are incompatible with his
answer
cognitive dissonance
question
_____ have affective, cognitive, and behavioral components.
answer
Attitudes The difference between attitudes and values is clarified by considering the three components of attitudes: affective, cognitive, and behavioral.
question
Employees' identification with a particular organization tends to increase their:
answer
affective commitment. Affective commitment refers to the employee's emotional attachment to, identification with and involvement in the organization. Employees with a strong affective commitment continue employment with an organization because they want to do so.
question
The _____ component of an attitude contains the feelings or emotions one has about a given object or situation.
answer
affective The affective component of an attitude contains the feelings or emotions one has about a given object or situation.
question
Which of the following is true?
answer
Older employees quit less often than do younger employees. One meta-analysis showed that age and turnover were negatively related. That is, older employees quit less often than did younger employees. Similarly, a second meta-analysis indicated that age was inversely related to both voluntary (a day at the beach) and involuntary (sick day) absenteeism. Results from these two meta-analyses suggest managers should focus more attention on the turnover and absenteeism among younger workers than among older workers.
question
_____ involves interpreting and translating raw information into mental representations or categories.
answer
Encoding and simplification Observed information is not stored in memory in its original form. Encoding is required; raw information is interpreted or translated into mental representations.
question
_____ consists of three compartments containing categories of information about events, semantic materials, and people.
answer
Long-term memory
question
David's boss has observed that David took about 12 hours to perform task A, B, and C. However, he took 24 hours to complete task D. David's boss concluded that task D must have been tougher than the other tasks. Which of the following attributional information led David's boss to this conclusion?
answer
High distinctiveness Distinctiveness is determined by comparing a person's behavior on one task with his or her behavior on other tasks. High distinctiveness means the individual has performed the task in question in a significantly different manner than he or she has performed other tasks.
question
According to Kelley's attribution model, consensus involves _____.
answer
comparing an individual's behavior with that of his or her peers There is high consensus when one acts like the rest of the group and low consensus when one acts differently.
question
Another name for the Pygmalion effect is _____.
answer
self-fulfilling prophecy
question
_____ reflects one's tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics, as opposed to situational factors.
answer
Fundamental attribution bias The fundamental attribution bias reflects one's tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics, as opposed to situational factors. This bias causes perceivers to ignore important environmental forces that often significantly affect behavior.
question
A _____ represents a person's mental picture or summary of a particular event or type of stimulus.
answer
schema Cognitive-category labels are needed to make schemata meaningful.
question
Tommy always knew he was meant to be an achiever. He started a small business in his home town but believed that he would make it big one day. Slowly, through years of hard work and perseverance, his business grew into a multi-million dollar company. Which of the following best explains this situation?
answer
The Galatea effect Galatea effect occurs when an individual's high self-expectations for him- or herself lead to high performance. The key process underlying both the Pygmalion and Galatea effects is the idea that people's expectations or beliefs determine their behavior and performance, thus serving to make their expectations come true. In this case, Tommy had high self-expectations that led to hi high performance.
question
_____ is a perceptual error that refers to a personal characteristic that leads a person to consistently evaluate other people or objects in an extremely positive fashion.
answer
Leniency Leniency is a perceptual error that refers to a personal characteristic that leads a person to consistently evaluate other people or objects in an extremely positive fashion. Rating a professor high on all dimensions of performance regardless of his or her actual performance is an example of such an error. Refer: Table 7-2
question
The _____ represents one's tendency to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure.
answer
self-serving bias The self-serving bias represents one's tendency to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure. The self-serving bias suggests employees will attribute their success to internal factors and their failures to uncontrollable external factors.
question
If managers use _____, inaccurate evaluations of job applicants and employees may result.
answer
faulty schemata Faulty schemata about what constitutes good versus poor performance can lead to inaccurate performance appraisals, which erode work motivation, commitment, and loyalty. Therefore, it is important for managers to accurately identify the behavioral characteristics and results indicative of good performance at the beginning of a performance review cycle.
question
According to Kelley's attribution model, consistency involves _____.
answer
judging if the individual's performance on a given task is constant over time contrasting a person's behavior on one task with his or her behavior on other tasks Consistency is determined by judging if the individual's performance on a given task is consistent over time. High consistency implies that a person performs a certain task the same, time after time. Unstable performance of a given task over time would mean low consistency.
question
Susan believes that Mr. Ryan, who supervises her employees, definitely has room for improvement in the way he communicates with the employees. However, she feels uncomfortable saying anything bad about anybody, so she rates Mr. Ryan's performance higher than his performance actually deserves. Which type of perceptual error is Susan communicating?
answer
Leniency Leniency is a perceptual error that refers to a personal characteristic that leads a person to consistently evaluate other people or objects in an extremely positive fashion. Rating a supervisor high on all dimensions of performance regardless of his or her actual performance is an example of such an error. Refer: Table 7-2
question
_____ is a perceptual error that occurs when a rater forms an overall impression about an object and then uses that impression to bias ratings about the object.
answer
Halo Halo is a perceptual error that occurs when a rater forms an overall impression about an object and then uses that impression to bias ratings about the object. Refer: Table 7-2
question
_____ are physiological or psychological deficiencies that arouse behavior.
answer
Needs
question
The _____ is defined as the desire to influence, coach, teach, or encourage others to achieve.
answer
need for power
question
_____ is defined as the perceived fairness of how resources and rewards are allocated.
answer
Distributive justice
question
Which of the following is a bottom-up approach to job design?
answer
Job crafting
question
_____ refers to any set of activities that involve the alteration of specific jobs or interdependent systems of jobs with the intent of improving the quality of employee job experience and their on the-job productivity.
answer
Job design
question
According to equity theory, _____ is an input in the employee-employer exchange.
answer
skill An employee's inputs, for which he or she expects a just return, include education/training, skills, creativity, seniority, age, personality traits, effort expended, and personal appearance.
question
As the mother of two small children, Jen struggles to make ends meet on her minimum wage job. After paying rent and child-care expenses, there is sometimes not enough money left at the end of the month to pay the heating bill. More than once the family has gone without warmth on cold nights, and she and the kids have gone to bed hungry. Which of the five basic needs is Jen struggling to meet?
answer
Physiological Physiological needs are the most basic needs. They entail having enough food, air, and water to survive. Jen is struggling to meet these needs for her family.
question
_____ lets people know if they are headed toward their goals or if they are off course and need to redirect their efforts.
answer
Feedback
question
According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene model, which of the following is a hygiene factor?
answer
Supervisor relations Herzberg found job dissatisfaction to be associated primarily with factors in the work context or environment. Specifically, company policy and administration, technical supervision, salary, interpersonal relations with one's supervisor, and working conditions were most frequently mentioned by employees expressing job dissatisfaction.
question
According to the job characteristics model, growth need strength is an example of a _____.
answer
moderator According to the job characteristics model, growth need strength is an example of a moderator. Refer: Figure 8-4
question
_____ entails modifying a job such that an employee has the opportunity to experience achievement, recognition, stimulating work, responsibility, and advancement.
answer
Job enrichment
question
Which of the following is a managerial implication of expectancy theory?
answer
Determine the outcomes that employees value Refer: Table 8-2
question
_____ holds that people are motivated to behave in ways that produce desired combinations of expected outcomes.
answer
Expectancy theory Generally, expectancy theory can be used to predict motivation and behavior in any situation in which a choice between two or more alternatives must be made.
question
_____ represents the extent to which the job requires an individual to perform a variety of tasks that require him or her to use different skills and abilities.
answer
Skill variety
question
According to Vroom's expectancy theory, _____ represents an individual's belief that a particular degree of effort will be followed by a particular level of performance.
answer
expectancy
question
_____ is defined as what an individual is trying to accomplish; the object or aim of an action.
answer
Goal
question
In Maslow's need hierarchy theory, the _____ need contains the needs for affection and belonging.
answer
love
question
According to the concept of building blocks, leading for competence involves:
answer
supporting and coaching employees. Leading for competence involves supporting and coaching employees. Managers first need to make sure employees have the knowledge needed to successfully perform their jobs. Deficiencies can be handled through training and mentoring.
question
Which of the following is an example of objective feedback?
answer
"You saved the company $2,000 by altering that delivery schedule." Feedback is objective information about individual or collective performance. Subjective assessments do not qualify as objective feedback. But hard data such as units sold, days absent, dollars saved, projects completed, customers satisfied, and quality rejects are all candidates for objective feedback programs.
question
_____ is an example of a pay for performance system.
answer
Piece-rate pay Pay for performance is the popular term for monetary incentives linking at least some portion of the paycheck directly to results or accomplishments. The most basic form of pay for performance is the traditional piece-rate plan, whereby the employee is paid a specified amount of money for each unit of work.
question
Which of the following is an individual situational factor?
answer
Job knowledge Refer: Figure 9-1
question
Which of the following is a desired outcome of the performance improvement cycle?
answer
Persistent effort Refer: Figure 9-1
question
Which of the following is a situational factor that influences the performance improvement cycle?
answer
Organizational culture Refer: Figure 9-1
question
Matt completed his assignments on time as his teacher had said that she would allow extra play time to children who submit their assignments on or before time. Which of the following made Matt complete his assignments on time?
answer
Positive reinforcement
question
According to Thorndike's law of effect, behavior with unfavorable consequences tends to _____.
answer
disappear Thorndike formulated his famous law of effect, which says behavior with favorable consequences tends to be repeated, while behavior with unfavorable consequences tends to disappear.
question
A(n) _____ goal targets specific end result.
answer
performance outcome
question
According to the concept of building blocks, leading for progress involves:
answer
monitoring and rewarding employees.
question
Social rewards are a type of _____ reward.
answer
extrinsic
question
Personal feelings of self-satisfaction and accomplishment are examples of _____ rewards.
answer
intrinsic
question
Which of the following statements about feedback is usually true?
answer
The acceptance of feedback should not be treated as a given.
question
The final step in establishing a goal-setting program is to:
answer
provide employees with support and feedback.
question
_____ feedback involves letting individuals compare their own perceived performance with behaviorally specific performance information from their manager, subordinates, and peers.
answer
360-degree
question
Barney was late to work one morning. So he drove over the speed limit through a school zone. As a result, he got pulled over by a police officer and received a ticket. This scenario is an instance of _____.
answer
punishment
question
The _____ criterion for reward distribution focuses on tangible outcomes such as individual, group, or organization performance, or quantity and quality of performance.
answer
performance: results
question
The tendency for individual effort to decline as group size increases is referred to as _____.
answer
social loafing The tendency for individual effort to decline as group size increases has come to be called social loafing. Management can curb this threat to group effectiveness by making sure the task is challenging and perceived as important.
question
_____ occurs when a cohesive group is unwilling to realistically view alternatives.
answer
Groupthink
question
The task role of _____ involves suggesting new goals or ideas.
answer
initiator Refer: Table 10-4
question
Role _____ occurs when the role sender's expectations exceed the abilities of the focal person.
answer
overload According to organizational psychologist Edgar Schein, role overload occurs when "the sum total of what role senders expect of the focal person far exceeds what he or she is able to do." As the individual tries to do more and more in less and less time, stress mounts, personal effectiveness slips, and health may deteriorate.
question
Sex-stereotyped jokes are examples of _____.
answer
derogatory attitudes Sex-stereotyped jokes are examples of impersonal derogatory attitudes. These are sexual harassment behaviors that reflect derogatory attitudes about men or women in general. Refer: Table 10-5
question
The task role of coordinator serves to _____.
answer
pull together ideas and suggestions Task roles enable the work group to define, clarify, and pursue a common purpose. The coordinator task role serves to pull together ideas and suggestions. Refer: Table 10-4
question
Assigning someone the role of devil's advocate when discussing major alternatives is a way to:
answer
prevent groupthink.
question
The maintenance role of the _____ involves helping resolve conflict by meeting others half way.
answer
compromiser Maintenance roles foster supportive and constructive interpersonal relationships. The maintenance role of the coordinator involves helping resolve conflict by meeting others half way. Refer: Table 10-4
question
According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group development, members tend to be uncertain and anxious about their roles, who is in charge and the group's goals in the _____ stage.
answer
forming During this ice-breaking stage, group members tend to be uncertain and anxious about such things as their roles, who is in charge, and the group's goals. Mutual trust is low, and there is a good deal of holding back to see who takes charge and how.
question
According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group development, the _____ stage is when activity is focused on solving task problems.
answer
performing According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group development, the "performing" stage is when activity is focused on solving task problems. As members of a mature group, contributors get their work done without hampering others.
question
A _____ leadership style is most beneficial in a group's early history.
answer
directive and structured Experts in the area of leadership contend that different leadership styles are needed as work groups develop. In general, it has been documented that leadership behavior that is active, aggressive, directive, structured, and task-oriented seems to have favorable results early in the group's history.
question
Which of the following is an example of an individual function of a formal group?
answer
Give individuals an opportunity to test and share their perceptions of social reality Researchers point out that formal groups fulfill two basic functions: organizational and individual. One of them is to give individuals the opportunity to test and share their perceptions of social reality is an individual function of a formal group. Refer: Table 10-2
question
Which of the following is a symptom of groupthink?
answer
Inherent morality Janis defines groupthink as "a mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group, when members' strivings for unanimity override their motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action." Inherent morality is a belief that encourages the group to ignore ethical implications. It is one of the symptoms of groupthink. Refer: Figure 10-5
question
One way to prevent groupthink is to _____.
answer
assign each member of the group the role of critical evaluator Janis believes prevention is better than cure when dealing with groupthink. One of his recommendations is that each member of the group should be assigned the role of critical evaluator.
question
According to Tuckman's five-stage theory of group development, the _____ stage is a time of testing when group members test the leader's policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure.
answer
storming The "storming" stage of group development, is a time of testing, when individuals test the leader's policies and assumptions as they try to determine how they fit into the power structure. Subgroups take shape, and subtle forms of rebellion, such as procrastination, occur.
question
Which of the following steps can managers take to enhance socio-emotional cohesiveness?
answer
Encourage interaction and cooperation. Refer: Table 11-5
question
Managers can enhance socio-emotional cohesiveness by:
answer
keeping the group relatively small. Refer: Table 11-5
question
Maintree Systems encourages its employees to meet each other frequently, and systematically integrates their efforts to achieve a collective objective. Which of the following is Maintree Systems trying to achieve?
answer
Cooperation
question
Some of the typical outputs of _____ teams are decisions, selections, proposals, and recommendations.
answer
advice Refer: Table 11-2
question
Which of the following team competencies monitors, evaluates, and provides feedback on team performance?
answer
Organizing and managing team performance Refer: Table 11-3
question
The most common administrative task delegated to self-managed teams is _____.
answer
setting work schedules
question
_____ is a sense of togetherness that develops when individuals derive emotional satisfaction from group participation.
answer
Socio-emotional cohesiveness
question
Some of the typical outputs of _____ teams include surgical operations and disaster assistance.
answer
action Refer: Table 11-2
question
Which of the following statements about cooperation is true?
answer
Individuals are said to be cooperating when their efforts are systematically integrated to achieve a collective objective.
question
Which of the following is a typical mistake made by management that leads to team failure?
answer
Vague or conflicting team assignments Refer: Figure 11-2
question
_____ teams are created to broaden the information base for managerial decisions.
answer
Advice
question
_____ is a sense of "we-ness" that helps groups stay together.
answer
Cohesiveness Cohesiveness is a process whereby a sense of 'we-ness' emerges to transcend individual differences and motives. Members of a cohesive group stick together. They are reluctant to leave the group.
question
Which of the following statements is true about production teams?
answer
They require minimal training for routine tasks.
question
Which of the following is an internal constraint of bounded rationality that reduces rational decision making?
answer
Human capital of the organization Examples of internal resources that reduce rational decision making are the organization's human and social capital, financial resources, technology, plant and equipment, and internal processes and systems. External resources include things the organization cannot directly control such as employment levels in the community, capital availability, and government policies.
question
People with a _____ style tend to be autocratic, exercise power and control, and focus on the short run.
answer
directive People with a directive style have a low tolerance for ambiguity and are oriented toward task and technical concerns when making decisions. They are efficient, logical, practical, and systematic in their approach to solving problems. In their pursuit of speed and results, however, these individuals tend to be autocratic, exercise power and control, and focus on the short run.
question
_____ indicates the extent to which a person has a high need for structure or control in his or her life.
answer
Tolerance for ambiguity
question
Chauffer driven and group driven systems are used in _____.
answer
computer-aided decision making
question
_____ is defined as the extent to which group members feel comfortable disagreeing with other group members.
answer
Minority dissent A team of researchers conducted two studies to determine whether a group's innovativeness was related to minority dissent, defined as the extent to which group members feel comfortable disagreeing with other group members, and a group's level of participation in decision making. Results showed that the most innovative groups possessed high levels of both minority dissent and participation in decision making.
question
Which of the following is a feature of people with a conceptual style?
answer
They are willing to take risks and are good at finding creative solutions to problems. People with a conceptual style have a high tolerance for ambiguity and tend to focus on the people or social aspects of a work situation. Conceptual types adopt a long-term perspective and rely on intuition and discussions with others to acquire information. They also are willing to take risks and are good at finding creative solutions to problems.
question
Which of the following is true about the expertise component of intuition?
answer
This source of intuition increases with age and experience. Expertise represents an individual's combined explicit knowledge (i.e., information that can easily be put into words) and tacit knowledge (i.e., information gained through experience that is difficult to express and formalize) regarding an object, person, situation, or decision opportunity. This source of intuition increases with age and experience.
question
The _____ technique is used to help groups generate multiple ideas and alternatives for solving problems, to increase creativity using silent idea generation.
answer
brainstorming
question
Which of the following actions should be adopted to reduce escalation of commitment?
answer
Make decision makers aware of the costs of persistence
question
Which of the following is true about consensus?
answer
Voting is not encouraged because it can split the group into winners and losers.
question
_____ individuals are careful decision makers who take longer to make decisions but who also respond well to new or uncertain situations.
answer
Analytic Analytical style has a much higher tolerance for ambiguity and is characterized by the tendency to overanalyze a situation. People with this style like to consider more information and alternatives than do directives. Analytic individuals are careful decision makers who take longer to make decisions but who also respond well to new or uncertain situations.
question
Which of the following is true regarding judgmental heuristics?
answer
They are used by people without conscious awareness.
question
Creative ideas at work are often triggered by work-related problems, incongruities, or failures. Which of the following stages focuses on the problem on hand?
answer
Concentration
question
A manager of an advertising firm appointed two employees to strike an advertising deal with one of their big clients. They were chosen as they had made a similar agreement previously with another client. Which of the following biases was the manager engaging in?
answer
Representativeness heuristic The representativeness heuristic is used when people estimate the probability of an event occurring. It reflects the tendency to assess the likelihood of an event occurring based on one's impressions about similar occurrences. This example shows how the manager appointed two employees for striking a deal with their clients as they had previously made a similar agreement with another client.
question
_____ represents a decision maker's tendency to base decisions on information that is readily accessible in his or her memory.
answer
Availability heuristic The availability heuristic represents a decision maker's tendency to base decisions on information that is readily available in memory. Information is more accessible in memory when it involves an event that recently occurred, when it is salient, and when it evokes strong emotions.
question
_____ entails identifying and choosing alternative solutions that lead to a desired state of affairs.
answer
Decision making
question
The _____ technique is a group process that anonymously generates ideas or judgments from physically dispersed experts.
answer
Delphi
question
_____ is appropriate for trivial issues or when the costs of confrontation outweigh the benefits of resolving the conflict.
answer
Avoiding
question
Gerard had come up with a new promotional idea for the latest product that his firm had created. However, his colleague Karl stole the idea and took the credit for it. This led to significant conflict between them. Karl later felt guilty for his wrong action and approached Jerry, a mutual friend, to help to settle the situation. This scenario is an example of a(n) _____.
answer
conflict triangle A conflict triangle occurs when two people are having a problem and, instead of addressing the problem directly with each other, one of them gets a third person involved. In this scenario, Gerard and Karl were having a conflict and when Karl felt guilty, he involved a third person, Jerry, to solve the situation.
question
Jim is head of the marketing department and must decide how to allocate a fixed amount of funds. There are two top projects that Jim believes hold the most promise. Recently, the majority of funds have been allocated to Project A, but Jim wonders if it is time to provide Project B with a larger share of the money. Jim decides to assign a particular individual, Clara, to thoroughly criticize the proposal for Project B, looking for every possible flaw. Which technique is Jim using to help him make a better decision?
answer
Devil's advocacy
question
Two supervisors, Justin and Shawn, had been given instructions to trim their group size by two people. Justin's personality tended to favor people. He was generally more sensitive to people, and was a thoughtful supervisor. Shawn was just the opposite. He was more concerned with group production, and considered people's feelings secondary to the work. Hence their approaches in trimming their teams were different. They could not see the other's point of view and hence they left the discussion thinking ill of each other. Which of the following types of conflict did Justin and Shawn experience?
answer
Personality conflict
question
_____ conflict is defined as interpersonal opposition based on individual dislike or disagreement.
answer
Personality
question
_____ is an alternative dispute resolution technique where a third party urges disputing parties to deal directly with each other in a positive and constructive manner.
answer
Facilitation
question
A(n) _____ is defined as a paid day off where an employee showing lack of dedication to the job is granted the opportunity to rethink his commitment to working at your company.
answer
day of contemplation A promising tool for nipping workplace incivility in the bud is a day of contemplation, defined as a paid day off where an employee showing lack of dedication to the job is granted the opportunity to rethink his commitment to working at your company.
question
Which of the following is true about in-group thinking?
answer
In-group members exaggerate the differences between their group and other groups In-group members exaggerate the differences between their group and other groups. This typically involves a distorted perception of reality. In-groups view outsiders as a threat.
question
The strength of the _____ conflict-handling style is its longer lasting impact because it deals with the underlying problem rather than merely with symptoms.
answer
integrating
question
A person using the _____ conflict-handling style tries to play down differences while emphasizing commonalities, even to the point of neglecting his or her own concerns to satisfy the concern of the other party.
answer
obliging An obliging person neglects his or her own concern to satisfy the concern of the other party. This style, often called smoothing, involves playing down differences while emphasizing commonalities.
question
_____ is a process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another party.
answer
Conflict
question
Which of the following statements about negotiation is true?
answer
Personality characteristics can affect negotiating success.
question
Which of the following is true regarding the communication styles of men and women?
answer
Men tend to ignore blame and place it elsewhere. Refer: Table 14-4
question
Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is true?
answer
ye contact conveys emotion.
question
_____ entails the temporary use of communication behaviors typical of the other gender in order to increase the potential for influence.
answer
Genderflex
question
One day Sara's boss storms into her office and tells her, "I'm not at all satisfied with our work on the project, Sara. I'll expect better next time!" Then, he storms out. Sara, who has been working on five projects at the same time, has no idea which one her boss was referring to. She is not even sure if "our work" means Sara's work with the boss, with her co-workers, or just her own work. In this scenario, Sara is a victim of the _____ barrier to effective communication.
answer
semantic
question
According to the contingency model for selecting media, which of the following choices falls into the overload zone?
answer
The interactive medium for a low-complexity problem According to the contingency model for selecting media, there are three zones of communication effectiveness. Effective communication occurs when the richness of the medium is matched appropriately with the complexity of the problem or situation. An interactive medium or face-to-face communication for a low-complexity problem would provide excessive information and take more time than necessary to communicate, and thus fall into the overload zone. Refer: Figure 14-2
question
The _____ model of communication is based on the belief that a receiver creates the meaning of a message in his or her mind, and the receiver's interpretation of the message may differ from the message intended by the sender.
answer
perceptual
question
The _____ model depicts communication as a pipeline in which information and meaning are perfectly transferred from one person to another.
answer
conduit Historically, the communication process was described in terms of a conduit model. This model depicts communication as a pipeline in which information and meaning are transferred from person to person.
question
Harry is thinking about meeting Connie. He writes a text message to Connie, inviting her for a drink at the local bar. This is an example of _____.
answer
encoding This is an example of encoding. Encoding entails translating thoughts into a code or language that can be understood by others. This forms the foundation of the message.
question
_____ refers to language or terminology that is specific to a particular profession, group, or company.
answer
Jargon
question
_____ listeners attempt to understand the main message and determine important points.
answer
Discerning
question
One characteristic of good listeners is that they _____.
answer
listen for the central or overall ideas Effective listening is a learned skill that requires effort and motivation. One characteristic of good listeners is that they listen for the central or overall ideas. Refer: Table 14-3
question
_____ listeners listen analytically and continually formulate arguments and challenges to what is being said. They tend to accept or reject messages based on personal beliefs, ask a lot of questions, and can become interruptive.
answer
Discerning Evaluative listeners listen analytically and continually formulate arguments and challenges to what is being said. They tend to accept or reject messages based on personal beliefs, ask a lot of questions, and can become interruptive.
question
_____ is a nonverbal body movement that communicates defensiveness.
answer
Crossing one's legs Defensiveness is communicated by gestures such as folding arms, crossing hands, and crossing one's legs. Body movements, such as leaning forward or backward, and gestures, such as pointing, provide additional nonverbal information that can either enhance or detract from the communication process.
question
_____ communication is the exchange of information from manager to subordinate.
answer
Downward Downward communication occurs when someone at a higher level in the organization sends information or a message to someone at a lower level. Managers generally provide five types of information through downward communication: strategies/goals, job instructions, job rationale, organizational policies and practices, and feedback about performance.
question
Which of the following media is the richest form of communication?
answer
Face-to-face A two-way face-to-face conversation is the richest form of communication. It provides immediate feedback and allows for the observation of multiple cues such as body language and tone of voice. Refer: Figure 14-2
question
A(n) _____ communication style is characterized by inhibition and self-denying behavior.
answer
nonassertive Refer: Table 14-2
question
Which of the following influence tactics gets others to participate in planning, making decisions, and changes?
answer
Consultation There are nine influence tactics: rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, personal appeals, exchange, coalition tactics, pressure, and legitimating tactics. The consultation influence tactic gets others to participate in planning, making decisions, and changes.
question
Which of the following types of power tend to produce commitment, as opposed to compliance or resistance?
answer
Expert, referent, and positive legitimate power Reward, coercive, and negative legitimate power tend to produce compliance (and sometimes, resistance). On the other hand, positive legitimate power, expert power, and referent power tend to foster commitment.
question
Personalized power is exhibited when managers focus more on:
answer
satisfying their own needs. Personalized power is exhibited when managers: (1) focus more on satisfying their own needs, (2) focus less on the needs of their underlings, and (3) act like "the rules" others are expected to follow don't apply to them.
question
The _____ influence tactic involves referring to friendship and loyalty when making a request.
answer
personal appeal There are nine influence tactics: rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, personal appeals, exchange, coalition tactics, pressure, and legitimating tactics. The personal appeal influence tactic involves referring to friendship and loyalty when making a request.
question
Valued knowledge or information gives an individual _____ power over those who need such knowledge or information.
answer
expert Valued knowledge or information gives an individual expert power over those who need such knowledge or information. The power of supervisors is enhanced because they know about work schedules and assignments before their employees do.
question
Personal initiative:
answer
is goal-directed and action-oriented. Personal initiative is a behavior syndrome resulting in an individual's taking an active and self-starting approach to work and going beyond what is formally required in the given job. More specifically, personal initiative is characterized by the following aspects: it (1) is consistent with the organization's mission, (2) has a long-term focus, (3) is goal-directed and action-oriented, (4) is persistent in the face of barriers and setbacks, and (5) is self-starting and proactive.
question
A politically naĂŻve employee believes that _____.
answer
the truth will win out Refer: Table 15-2
question
Avoiding additional work and trying to get laid off are motives for _____.
answer
making a poor impression In a survey of the work experiences of business students at a large northwestern US university, four motives for intentionally looking bad at work were developed. They were: (1) avoidance, (2) obtain concrete rewards, (3) exit, and (4) power.
question
_____ involves intentional acts of influence to enhance or protect the self-interests of individuals or groups.
answer
Organizational politics Organizational politics involves intentional acts of influence to enhance or protect the self-interest of individuals or groups. An emphasis on self-interest distinguishes this form of social influence.
question
The _____ influence tactic tries to build enthusiasm by appealing to others' emotions, ideals, or values.
answer
inspirational appeal There are nine influence tactics: rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, consultation, ingratiation, personal appeals, exchange, coalition tactics, pressure, and legitimating tactics. Trying to build enthusiasm by appealing to others' emotions, ideals, or values is a part of the inspirational appeal influence tactic.
question
Compared to coalitions, networks _____.
answer
have broader agendas Unlike coalitions, which pivot on specific issues, networks are loose associations of individuals seeking social support for their general self-interests. Politically, networks are people oriented, while coalitions are issue oriented. Networks have broader and longer term agendas than do coalitions.
question
"My goal is to be a powerful advocate on the part of my constituents." This statement reflects a preference for _____ power.
answer
socialized
question
According to Randolph's empowerment plan:
answer
a clear vision should be created for the lower-level employees to follow. According to Randolph's empowerment model, a clear vision should be created for the lower-level employees to follow. Heavy doses of training and direction should be provided for new skills. Refer: Figure 15-4
question
Which of the following is true of authoritarian power?
answer
It has a low degree of employee empowerment and a high degree of managerial domination. Authoritarian power is displayed when managers or leaders impose their decisions on their followers. It involves a low degree of employee empowerment and high degree of managerial domination. Refer: Figure 15-2
question
What can managers do to keep organizational politics within reasonable bounds?
answer
Screen out overly political individuals at hiring time In order to keep organizational politics within reasonable bounds, managers can: (1) screen out overly political individuals at hiring time, (2) create an open-book management system, (3) make sure every employee knows how the business works and has a personal line of sight to key results with corresponding measurable objectives for individual accountability, (4) have nonfinancial people interpret periodic financial and accounting statements for all employees, (5) establish formal conflict resolution and grievance processes. Refer: Table 15-3
question
If the second party grudgingly agrees to the first party's proposal and needs a lot of prodding to satisfy the minimum requirements, the second party is said to be exhibiting:
answer
compliance.
question
The path-goal theory is based on the premise:
answer
that an employee does not have to be a supervisor or manager to engage in leader behavior. House places much more emphasis on the need for leaders to foster intrinsic motivation through empowerment. Shared leadership represents the final change in the revised theory. That is, path-goal theory is based on the premise that an employee does not have to be a supervisor or manager to engage in leader behavior.
question
Transformational leaders:
answer
can be ethical or unethical. Transformational leaders can be ethical or unethical. Whereas ethical transformational leaders enable employees to enhance their self-concepts, unethical ones select or produce obedient, dependent, and compliant followers.
question
Which of the following is true about leadership?
answer
It is a process between a leader and followers. There are four commonalities among the many definitions of leadership: (1) leadership is a process between a leader and followers, (2) leadership involves social influence, (3) leadership occurs at multiple levels in an organization and (4) leadership focuses on goal accomplishment.
question
According to Ohio State researchers, which of the following sets are the two independent dimensions of leader behavior?
answer
Consideration; initiating structure Researchers at Ohio State University began by generating a list of behaviors exhibited by leaders. At one point, the list contained 1,800 statements that described nine categories of leader behavior. Ultimately, the Ohio State researchers concluded there were only two independent dimensions of leader behavior: consideration and initiating structure.
question
Initiating structure involves leader behavior associated with:
answer
organizing and defining what followers should be doing to maximize output.
question
Which of the following is true regarding gender and leadership?
answer
Men and women are equally assertive.
question
What is a key takeaway message from the trait theory?
answer
Management development programs can be used to build a pipeline of leadership talent. Management development programs can be used to build a pipeline of leadership talent. This is a particularly important recommendation in light of results from corporate surveys showing that the majority of companies do not possess adequate leadership talent to fill future needs.
question
According to the _____ theory of leadership, leadership is something that is learned. In other words, leaders are made, not born.
answer
behavioral style
question
Transformational leaders transform followers by creating changes in their _____.
answer
goals and aspiration Transformational leaders transform followers by creating changes in their goals, values, needs, beliefs, and aspirations. They accomplish this transformation by appealing to followers' self-concepts—namely their values and personal identity.
question
According to Fiedler's Contingency Model, _____ refers to the degree of pre-arrangement contained within duties performed by the work group.
answer
task structure Task structure is concerned with the amount of structure contained within tasks performed by the work group. Because structured tasks have guidelines for how the job should be completed, the leader has more control and influence over employees performing such tasks.
question
_____ focuses on clarifying employees' role and task requirements and providing followers with positive and negative rewards contingent on performance.
answer
Transactional leadership
question
_____ is defined as "a dynamic, interactive influence process among individuals in groups for which the objective is to lead one another to the achievement of group or organizational goals or both.
answer
Shared leadership Shared leadership is defined as "a dynamic, interactive influence process among individuals in groups for which the objective is to lead one another to the achievement of group or organizational goals or both. This influence process often involves peer, or lateral, influence and at other times involves upward or downward hierarchical influence."
question
_____ leadership represents a general failure to take responsibility for leading.
answer
Laissez-faire The authors of the full-range model of leadership proposed that leadership behavior varied along a continuum from laissez-faire leadership—a general failure to take responsibility for leading—to transactional leadership to transformational leadership.
question
Which of the following is true about transactional leadership?
answer
It is based on using rewards and punishment to drive motivation and performance
question
According to Fiedler's Contingency Model, _____ refers to the extent to which the leader has the support, loyalty, and trust of the work group.
answer
leader-member relations Leader-member relations reflect the extent to which the leader has the support, loyalty, and trust of the work group. This dimension is the most important component of situational control. Good leader-member relations suggest that the leader can depend on the group, thus ensuring that the workgroup will try to meet the leader's goals and objectives.
question
According to the leader-member exchange model of leadership, out-group exchanges are characterized by _____.
answer
a lack of mutual respect
question
When measuring organizational effectiveness, the ______ approach is appropriate when powerful stakeholders can significantly benefit or harm the organization.
answer
strategic constituencies
question
_____ is a systematic process of rigorously discussing hows and whats, questioning, tenaciously following through, and ensuring accountability.
answer
Execution Execution is a systematic process of rigorously discussing hows and whats, questioning, tenaciously following through, and ensuring accountability. It includes making assumptions about the business environment, assessing the organization's capabilities, linking strategy to operations and the people who are going to implement the strategy, synchronizing those people and their various disciplines, and linking rewards to outcomes.
question
_____ refers to the number of people reporting directly to a given manager.
answer
Span of control
question
Which of the following is true regarding line and staff positions?
answer
The president and executive directors of a company are examples of line managers. Line managers such as the president, the executive directors, and the various directors occupy formal decision-making positions within the chain of command. Line positions generally are connected by solid lines on organization charts on organization charts.
question
An open system is:
answer
dependent on the environment for survival. They are capable of self-correction, adaptation, and growth, thanks to characteristics such as homeostasis and feedback control.
question
Which of the following is a characteristic of an organic organization?
answer
It has flexible networks of multitalented individuals.
question
Organic organizations have:
answer
decentralized decision making.
question
An organization chart reveals an organization's:
answer
line and staff positions. To organization theorists, however, organization charts reveal much more. The organization chart reveals four basic dimensions of organizational structure: (1) hierarchy of authority (who reports to whom), (2) division of labor, (3) spans of control, and (4) line and staff positions.
question
According to the criterion of _____, effectiveness is gauged by how well the organization meets or exceeds its stated objectives.
answer
goal accomplishment Goal accomplishment is the most widely used effectiveness criterion for organizations. Key organizational results or outputs are compared with previously stated goals or objectives. Deviations, either plus or minus, require corrective action. Effectiveness, relative to the criterion of goal accomplishment, is gauged by how well the organization meets or exceeds its goals.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a mechanistic organization?
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It has a rigid bureaucracy. It places a high emphasis on obedience and loyalty. Mechanistic organizations are rigid bureaucracies with strict rules, narrowly defined tasks, and top-down communication. A mechanistic organization generally would have one of the traditional organization designs and a hierarchical culture. A mechanistic organization places high emphasis on obedience and loyalty and has an authoritarian decision-making style. Refer: Table 17-2
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Historically, spans of control of _____ were considered best.
answer
7 to 10
question
A(n) _____ structure combines a vertical structure with an equally strong horizontal overlay.
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matrix A matrix structure combines a vertical structure with an equally strong horizontal overlay. This generally combines functional and divisional chains of command to form a grid with two command structures, one shown vertically by function, and the other shown horizontally, by product line, brand, customer group, or geographic region.
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The starting point of organizational innovation is represented by the:
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seeds of innovation. There are three components that influence the benefits of innovation: seeds of innovation, challenges of innovation, and nutrients of innovation. Seeds of innovation represent the starting point of organizational innovation.
question
A _____ is a group of people working together to collectively enhance their capacities to create results that they truly care about.
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learning organization A learning organization is a group of people working together to collectively enhance their capacities to create results that they truly care about. A learning organization is one that proactively creates, acquires, and transfers knowledge and that changes its behavior on the basis of new knowledge and insights.
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An organization chart is:
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a graphic representation of formal authority and division of labor relationships. An organization chart is a graphic representation of formal authority and division of labor relationships. To the casual observer, the term organization chart means the family tree-like pattern of boxes and lines posted on workplace walls.
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_____ change is lowest in complexity, cost, and uncertainty.
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Adaptive Adaptive change is lowest in complexity, cost, and uncertainty. It involves reimplementation of a change in the same organizational unit at a later time or imitation of a similar change by a different unit.
question
According to Lewin's change model, the _____ stage involves providing employees with new information, new behavioral models, or new ways of looking at things.
answer
changing This is the stage in which organizational change takes place. This change, whether large or small, is undertaken to improve some process, procedure, product, service, or outcome of interest to management. Because change involves learning and doing things differently, this stage entails providing employees with new information, new behavioral models, new processes or procedures, new equipment, new technology, or new ways of getting the job done.
question
Sexual harassment experiences and bullying represent _____ stressors
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group-level
question
Which of the following defines esteem support?
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Providing information that a person is accepted and respected despite any inadequacies. Social support is the amount of perceived helpfulness derived from social relationships. One of the types of social support is esteem support, which is providing information that a person is accepted and respected despite any problems or inadequacies.
question
According to John Kotter, when managers want to create a cross-functional, cross-level group of people with enough power to lead the change, they should:
answer
create a guiding coalition. When managers create the guiding coalition Create a cross-functional, cross-level group of people with enough power to lead the change, they are taking the second of Kotter's eight steps for leading organizational change—create the guiding coalition.
question
_____ is a collection of personality characteristics that neutralize occupational stress.
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Hardiness Suzanne Kobasa, a behavioral scientist, identified a collection of personality characteristics that neutralize occupational stress. These collections of characteristics, referred to as hardiness, involve the ability to perceptually or behaviorally transform negative stressors into positive challenges.
question
According to the systems model of change, structure and reward systems are examples of _____, which are target elements of change.
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organizational arrangements There are four targeted elements of change: organizational arrangements, social factors, methods, and people. Organizational arrangements include policies, procedures, roles, structure, rewards, and physical setting.
question
Reintroducing a familiar practice is an example of _____ change.
answer
adaptive Adaptive change is lowest in complexity, cost, and uncertainty. It involves reimplementation of a change in the same organizational unit at a later time or imitation of a similar change by a different unit.
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_____ involves spending time with others in leisure and recreational activities.
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Social companionship
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_____ in individuals with hardiness reflects the extent to which an individual is involved in whatever he or she is doing.
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Commitment Hardiness embraces the personality dimensions of commitment, locus of control, and challenge. Commitment reflects the extent to which an individual is involved in whatever he or she is doing.
question
Which of the following is true about the unfreezing stage of Lewin's Change Model?
answer
The focus of this stage is to create the motivation to change. The focus of the unfreezing stage of Lewin's Change Model is to create the motivation to change. In doing so, individuals are encouraged to replace old behaviors and attitudes with those desired by management.
question
According to Lewin's change model, the _____ stage involves creating the motivation to change by encouraging people to replace old behaviors with those desired by management.
answer
unfreezing The focus of this stage is to create the motivation to change. In so doing, individuals are encouraged to replace old behaviors and attitudes with those desired by management. Managers can begin the unfreezing process by disconfirming the usefulness or appropriateness of employees' present behaviors or attitudes.
question
_____ of change are the components of an organization that may be changed.
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Target elements Target elements of change are the components of an organization that may be changed. They essentially represent change levers that managers can push and pull to influence various aspects of an organization.
question
Introducing a practice new to the organization is an example of _____ change.
answer
innovative Innovative changes fall midway on the continuum of complexity, cost, and uncertainty. An experiment with flexible work schedules by a farm supply warehouse company qualifies as an innovative change if it entails modifying the way other firms in the industry already use it.
question
_____ stressors are those directly associated with a person's job duties.
answer
Individual-level Individual-level stressors are those directly associated with a person's job duties. The most common examples of individual stressors are job demands, work overload, role conflict, role ambiguity, everyday hassles, perceived control over events occurring in the work environment, and job characteristics.
question
_____ is a chronic, determined struggle to accomplish more in less time.
answer
Type A behavior Type A behavior pattern is an action-emotion complex that can be observed in any person who is aggressively involved in a chronic, incessant struggle to achieve more and more in less and less time, and if required to do so, against the opposing efforts of other things or persons.
question
_____ is an example of a group-level stressor.
answer
Managerial behavior
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