question

The term capacity refers to the maximum quantity an operating unit can process over a given period. True or False?

answer

True

question

Capacity decisions are usually one-time decisions; once they have been made, we know the limits of our operations. True or False?

answer

False

question

Stating capacity in dollar amounts generally results in a consistent measure of capacity regardless of the actual units of measure. True or False?

answer

False

question

Design capacity refers to the maximum output that can possibly be attained. True or False?

answer

True

question

If the unit cost to buy something is less than the variable cost to make it, the decision to make or buy is based solely on the fixed costs. True or False?

answer

False

question

Increasing productivity and quality will result in increased capacity. True or False?

answer

True

question

Utilization is defined as the ratio of effective capacity to design capacity. True or False?

answer

False

question

Increasing capacity just before a bottleneck operation will improve the output of the process. True or False?

answer

False

question

An example of an external factor that influences effective capacity is government safety regulations. True or False?

answer

True

question

Cost and competitive priorities reduce effective capacities. True or False?

answer

False

question

Capacity increases are usually acquired in moderately large "chunks" rather than in smooth increments. True or False?

answer

True

question

In cost-volume analysis, costs that vary directly with volume of output are referred to as fixed costs because they are a fixed percentage of output levels. True or False?

answer

False

question

The break-even quantity can be determined by dividing the fixed costs by the difference between the revenue per unit and the variable cost per unit. True or False?

answer

True

question

According to the reading on restaurant sourcing practices, only fast food restaurants are able to 'bring' in outsourced foods. True or False?

answer

False

question

The greater the gap between current and desired capacity, the greater the opportunity for profit. True or False?

answer

False

question

The current trend toward global operations has made capacity decisions much easier since we have the whole world in which to consider operations. True or False?

answer

False

question

Capacity planning requires an analysis of needs; what kind, how much and when. True or False?

answer

True

question

Waiting line analysis can be useful for capacity design, especially for service systems. True or False?

answer

True

question

Capacity decisions often involve a long-term commitment of resources which, when implemented, are difficult or impossible to modify without major added costs. True or False?

answer

True

question

Outsourcing some production is a means of supporting a constraint. True or False?

answer

False

question

Outsourcing some production is a means of _________ a capacity constraint. A. Identifying B. Modifying C. Supporting D. Overcoming E. Repeating

answer

D. Overcoming

question

A basic question in capacity planning is: A. what kind is needed B. how much is needed C. when is it needed D. all of the above E. none of the above

answer

D. all of the above

question

Which of these factors would not be subtracted from design capacity when calculating effective capacity? A. personal time B. maintenance C. scrap D. operating hours per day E. all of the above would be subtracted in the calculation

answer

E. all of the above would be subtracted in the calculation

question

A reason for the importance of capacity decisions is that capacity: A. limits the rate of output possible B. affects operating costs C. is a major determinant of initial costs D. is a long-term commitment of resources E. all of the above

answer

E. all of the above

question

Which of the following is the case where capacity is measured in terms of inputs? A. hospital B. theater C. restaurant D. all of the above E. none of the above

answer

D. all of the above

question

Unbalanced systems are evidenced by A. Top heavy operations B. Labor unrest C. Bottleneck operations D. Increasing capacities E. Assembly lines

answer

C. Bottleneck operations

question

Maximum capacity refers to the upper limit of: A. inventories B. demand C. supplies D. rate of output E. finances

answer

D. rate of output

question

The impact that a significant change in capacity will have on a key vendor is a: A. supply chain factor B. process limiting factor C. internal factor D. human resource factor E. operational process factor

answer

A. supply chain factor

question

The maximum possible output given a product mix, scheduling difficulties, quality factors, and so on, is: A. utilization B. design capacity C. efficiency D. effective capacity E. available capacity

answer

D. effective capacity

question

Efficiency is defined as the ratio of: A. actual output to effective capacity B. actual output to design capacity C. design capacity to effective capacity D. effective capacity to actual output E. design capacity to actual output

answer

A. actual output to effective capacity

question

Utilization is defined as the ratio of: A. actual output to effective capacity B. actual output to design capacity C. design capacity to effective capacity D. effective capacity to actual output E. design capacity to actual output

answer

B. actual output to design capacity

question

Which of the following is a factor that affects service capacity planning? A. the need to be near customers B. the inability to store services C. the degree of volatility of demand D. the customer's willingness to wait E. all of the above

answer

E. all of the above

question

Which of the following is a tactic that helps service capacity management? A. pricing B. promotions C. discounts D. advertising E. all of the above

answer

E. all of the above

question

The ratio of actual output to effective capacity is: A. design capacity B. effective capacity C. actual capacity D. efficiency E. utilization

answer

D. efficiency

question

The ratio of actual output to design capacity is: A. design capacity B. effective capacity C. actual capacity D. efficiency E. utilization

answer

E. utilization

question

Given the following information, what would efficiency be? Effective capacity = 80 units per day Design capacity = 100 units per day Utilization = 48% A. 20% B. 35% C. 48% D. 60% E. 80%

answer

D. 60%

question

Given the following information, what would efficiency be? Effective capacity = 50 units per day Design capacity = 100 units per day Actual output = 30 units per day A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. 80% E. 90%

answer

C. 60%

question

Given the following information, what would utilization be? Effective capacity = 20 units per day Design capacity = 60 units per day Actual output = 15 units per day A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 3/4 E. none of these

answer

A. 1/4

question

Which of the following is not a strategy to manage service capacity? A. hiring extra workers B. backordering C. pricing and promotion D. part time workers E. subcontracting

answer

B. backordering

question

Which of the following is not a determinant of effective capacity? A. facilities B. product mix C. actual output D. human factors E. external factors

answer

C. actual output

question

Capacity planning decisions have both long-term and short-term considerations. Which of the following statements are true? (I) Long-term considerations relate to the overall level of capacity. (II) Short-term considerations relate to the probable variations in capacity requirements. (III) Short-term considerations determine the "effective capacity." A. Only one of the three statements is true. B. I and II C. II and III D. I and III E. All three statements are correct.

answer

B. I and II

question

Capacity in excess of expected demand that is intended to offset uncertainty is a: A. margin protect B. line balance C. capacity cushion D. timing bubble E. none of the above

answer

C. capacity cushion

question

Short-term considerations in determining capacity requirements include: A. demand trend B. cyclical demand variations C. seasonal demand variations D. mission statements E. new product development plans

answer

C. seasonal demand variations

question

Which of the following is not a criterion for developing capacity alternatives? A. design structured, rigid systems B. take a big-picture approach to capacity changes C. prepare to deal with capacity in "chunks" D. attempt to smooth out capacity requirements E. identify the optimal operating level

answer

A. design structured, rigid systems

question

Seasonal variations are often easier to deal with in capacity planning than random variations because seasonal variations tend to be: A. smaller B. larger C. predictable D. controllable E. less frequent

answer

C. predictable

question

Production units have an optimal rate of output where: A. total costs are minimum B. average unit costs are minimum C. marginal costs are minimum D. rate of output is maximum E. total revenue is maximum

answer

B. average unit costs are minimum

question

When the output is less than the optimal rate of output, the average unit cost will be: A. lower B. the same C. higher D. could be either higher or lower E. could be either higher, lower or the same

answer

C. higher

question

When buying component parts, risk does not include: A. loss of control B. vendor viability C. interest rate fluctuations D. need to disclose proprietary information E. all are risk factors

answer

C. interest rate fluctuations

question

At the break-even point: A. output equals capacity B. total cost equals total revenue C. total cost equals profit D. variable cost equals fixed cost E. variable cost equals total revenue

answer

B. total cost equals total revenue

question

What is the break-even quantity for the following situation? FC = $1,200 per week VC = $2 per unit Rev = $6 per unit A. 100 B. 200 C. 600 D. 1,200 E. 300

answer

E. 300

question

An alternative will have fixed costs of $10,000 per month, variable costs of $50 per unit, and revenue of $70 per unit. The break-even point volume is: A. 100 B. 2,000 C. 500 D. 1,000 E. none of these

answer

C. 500

question

For fixed costs of $2,000, revenue per unit of $2, and variable cost per unit of $1.60, the break-even quantity is: A. 1,000 B. 1,250 C. 2,250 D. 5,000 E. none of these

answer

D. 5,000

question

Which of the following are assumptions of the break-even model? I. Only one product is involved. II. Everything that is produced can be sold. III. The revenue per unit will be the same regardless of volume. A. I only B. I and II only C. II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III

answer

E. I, II and III

question

If the output rate is increased but the average unit costs also increase we are experiencing: A. market share erosion. B. economies of scale. C. diseconomies of scale. D. value added accounting. E. step-function scale up.

answer

C. diseconomies of scale.

question

The method of financial analysis which focuses on the length of time it takes to recover the initial cost of an investment is: A. payback B. net present value C. internal rate of return D. queuing E. cost-volume

answer

A. payback

question

When determining the timing and degree of capacity change, one can use the approach of: A. lead time flexibility strategy B. expand early strategy C. wait-and-see strategy D. backordering E. delayed differentiation

answer

B. expand early strategy

question

The method of financial analysis which results in an equivalent interest rate is: A. payback B. net present value C. internal rate of return D. queuing E. cost-volume

answer

C. internal rate of return

question

An investment proposal will have annual fixed costs of $60,000, variable costs of $35 per unit of output, and revenue of $55 per unit of output. (A) Determine the break-even quantity (B) What volume of output will be necessary for an annual profit of $60,000?

answer

A. 3,000 B. 6,000

question

A firm is considering three capacity alternatives: A, B, and C. Alternative A would have an annual fixed cost of $100,000 and variable costs of $22 per unit. Alternative B would have annual fixed costs of $120,000 and variable costs of $20 per unit. Alternative C would have fixed costs of $80,000 and variable costs of $30 per unit. Revenue is expected to be $50 per unit. (A) Which alternative has the lowest break-even quantity? (B) Which alternative will produce the highest profits for an annual output of 10,000 units? (C) Which alternative would require the lowest volume of output to generate an annual profit of $50,000?

answer

A. 3,572 4,000 4,000 B. 180,000 180,000 120,000 C. 5,358 5,667 6,500

question

A small business owner is contemplating the addition of another product line. Capacity increases and equipment will result in an increase in annual fixed costs of $50,000. Variable costs will be $25 per unit. A) What unit-selling price must the owner obtain to break-even on a volume of 2,500 units a year? B) Because of market conditions, the owner feels a revenue of $47 is preferred to the value determined in part A. What volume of output will be required to achieve a profit of $16,000 using this revenue?

answer

A. 45 B. 3,000

question

The efficiency of a productive unit is 60%. The unit produces an average of 20 forklift trucks per day. Determine the effective capacity of the unit.

answer

33.33

question

The utilization of a machine is 50%. The machine has a design capacity of 70 units per hour and an effective capacity of 60 units per hour. Find the efficiency of the machine.

answer

58.33

Operations Management – Chapter 5 Notes – Flashcards

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