Microsoft 70-410 Practice Exam – Flashcards

Which of the following processor architectures can be used for a clean Windows Server 2012 R2 installation? A. 32-bit Processor only B. 64-bit processor only C. 32-bit or 64-bit processor D. 64-bit or Itanium processor

Which of the following paths is a valid upgrade path to Windows Server 2012 R2? A. Windows Server 2003 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard B. Windows Server 2008 Standard to Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard C. Windows Server 2008 32-bit to Windows Server 2012 R2 64-bit D. Windows 7 Ultimate to Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials

Which of the following features must be added to a Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Core installation to convert it to the Minimal Server Interface? A. Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure B. Server Graphical Shell C. Windows PowerShell D. Microsoft Management Console

Which of the following terms is the name of the directory where Windows Stores all the operating system modules it might need to install at a later time? A. Windows B. System32 C. bin D. WinSxS

Which of the following statements are valid reasons as to why administrators might want to install their Windows Server 2012 R2 servers by using the Server Core option (Choose all that apply) A. A Server Core installation can be converted to the full GUI without reinstalling the operating system B. The Windows PowerShell 4.0 interface in Windows Server 2012 R2 includes more than 10 times as many cmdlets as Windows PowerShell 2.0 C. The new Server Manager in Windows Server 2012 R2 makes it much easier to administer servers remotely D. A Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Core license costs significantly less than a full GUI license.

Which features must be removed from a full GUI installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 in order to convert it to a server Core installation? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) B. Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure C. Desktop Experience D. Server Graphical Shell

Which of the following NIC teaming modes provides fault tolerance and bandwidth aggregation? A. Hyper-V live migration B. Switch Independent Mode C. Switch Dependent Mode D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol

Which of the following command-line tools are used to join a computer to a domain? A. Net.exe B. Netsh.exe C. Netdom.exe D. Ipconfig.exe

Which of the following statements about Server Manager is NOT true? A. Server Manager can deploy roles to multiple servers at the same time. B. Server Manager can deploy roles to VHDs while they are offline. C. Server Manger can install roles and features at the same time. D. Server Manager can install roles and features to any Windows Server 2012 R2 server on the network.

Which of the following operations can you NOT perform on a service by using Server manager? (Choose all that apply) A. Stop a running service B. Start a stopped service C. Disable a service D. Configure a service to start when the computer starts

Which of the following statements are true of striped volumes? (Choose all that apply) A. Striped volumes provide enhanced performance over simple volumes. B. Striped volumes provide greater fault tolerance than simple volumes. C. You can extend striped volumes after creation. D. If a single physical disk in the striped volume fails, all the data in the entire volume is lost.

Which of the following statements best describes the requirements for extending a volume on a dynamic disk? (Choose all that apply) A. If you want to extend a simple volume, you can use only the available space on the same disk if the volume is to remain simple. B. The volume must have a file system (a raw volume) before you can extend a simple or spanned volume. C. You can extend a simple or spanned volume if you formatted it by using the FAT or FAT32 file systems. D. You can extend a simple volume across additional disks if it is not a system volume or a boot volume.

Which of the following volume types supported by Windows Server 2012 R2 provide fault tolerance? (Choose all that apply) A. Striped B. Spanned C. Mirrored D. RAID-5

A JBOD drive array is an alternative to which of the following storage technologies? A. SAN B. SCSI C. RAID D. iSCSI

What is the maximum number of shadow copies a Windows Server 2012 R2 system can maintain for each volume? A. 8 B. 16 C. 64 D. 128

Which of the following terms describes the process of granting users access to file server shares by reading their permissions? A. Authentication B. Authorization C. Enumeration D. Assignment

Which of the following are tasks you can perform by using the quotas in File Server Resource Manager but can't perform by using NTFS quotas? (Choose all that apply) A. Send an email message to an administrator when users exceed their limits. B. Specify different storage limits for each user. C. Prevent users from consuming storage space on a volume beyond their allotted limit. D. Generate warnings to users when they approach their allotted storage limit.

In the Windows Server 2012 R2 NTFS permission system, combinations of advanced permissions are also known as _______ permissions. (Choose all that apply.) A. Special B. Basic C. Share D. Standard

Which of the following statements best describes the role of the security principal in file system permission assignments? A. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the only person who can access a file that has no permissions assigned to it. B. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the person responsible for creating permission policies. C. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the person assigning the permissions. D. The security principal in file system permission assignments is the person to whom the permissions are assigned.

Which of the following terms best describes the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device? A. Printer B. Print server C. Printer driver D. Print Management Console

You are setting up a printer pool on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2. The printer pool contains three identical print devices. You open the Properties dialog box for the printer and select the Enable Printer Pooling option on the Ports tab. Which of the following steps must you perform next? A. Configure the LPT1 port to support three printers. B. Select or create the ports mapped to the three printers. C. On the Device Settings tab, configure the installable options to support two additional print devices. D. On the Advanced tab, configure the priority for each print device so that printing is distributed among the three print devices.

One of your print devices is not working properly, so you want to temporarily prevent users from sending jobs to the printer serving that device. Which of the following actions should you take? A. Stop sharing the printer. B. Remove the printer from Active Directory. C. Change the printer port. D. Rename the share.

You are administering a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2 configured as a print server. Users in the Marketing group report that they cannot print documents using a printer on the server. You view the permissions in the printer's properties. The Marketing group is allowed Manage Documents permission. Which of the following statements best explains why the users cannot print to the printer? A. The Everyone group must be granted the Manage Documents permission. B. The Administrators group must be granted the Manage Printers permission. C. The Marketing group must be granted the Print permission. D. The Marketing group must be granted the Manage Printers permission.

You are administering a print server running Windows Server 2012 R2. You want to perform maintenance on a print device physically connected to the print server. There are several documents in the print queue. You want to prevent the documents from being printed to the printer, but you don't want users to have to resubmit the documents to the printer. Which of the following statements best describes the best way to do this? A. Open the printer's Properties dialog box, select the Sharing tab, and select the Do Not Share This Printer option. B. Open the printer's Properties dialog box and select a port that is not associated with a print device. C. Open the printer's queue window, select the first document, and select Pause from the Document window. D. Open the printer's queue window and select the Pause Printing option from the Printer menu.

Which of the following tasks must you perform before you can manage a remote server running Windows Server 2012 R2 using the Computer Management snap-in? A. Enable WinRM on the remote server. B. Enable the COM+ Network Access rule on the remote server. C. Enable the Remote Event Log Management rules on the remote server. D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools on the remote server.

Which of the following Windows PowerShell cmdlets can you use to list the existing Windows Firewall rules on a computer running Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply.) A. Get-NetFirewallRule B. Set-NetFirewallRule C. Show-NetFirewallRule D. New-NetFirewallRule

Which of the following tasks can you not perform remotely on a server running Windows Server 2008? A. Install roles by using Server Manager B. Install roles by using Windows PowerShell C. Connect to the remote server by using the Computer Management snap-in D. Monitor event log entries

Which of the following updates must you install on a server running Windows Server 2008 before you can connect to it by using Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A. .NET Framework 3.5 B. .NET Framework 4.0 C. Windows Management Framework 3.0 D. Windows Server 2008 R2

When you run Server Manager from a Windows 8 workstation using Remote Server Administration Tools, which of the following elements do not appear in the default display? A. The Dashboard B. The Local Server home page C. The All Servers home page D. The Welcome tile

Which of the following statements about Type I and Type II virtualization are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs on top of a host OS. B. In Type I virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the computer hardware. C. In Type II virtualization, the hypervisor runs on top of a host OS. D. In Type II virtualization, the hypervisor runs directly on the computer hardware.

Which of the following types of server virtualization provides the best performance for high-traffic servers in production environments? A. Type I virtualization B. Type II virtualization C. Presentation virtualization D. RemoteApp

Which of the following Microsoft operating systems includes a license that enables you to license an unlimited number of virtual instances? A. Hyper-V Server B. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter C. Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard D. Windows Server 2012 R2 Foundation

Which of the following Hyper-V features make it possible for a VM to function with a minimum RAM value that is lower than the startup RAM value? (Choose all that apply.) A. Smart paging B. Dynamic Memory C. Memory Weight D. Guest Integration Services

When you install the Hyper-V role on a server running Windows Server 2012 R2, the instance of the OS on which you installed the role is converted to what system element? A. The hypervisor B. The Virtual Machine Monitor C. The parent partition D. A child partition

Which of the following statements about Generation 1 and Generation 2 virtual machines are true? (Choose all that apply.) A. You must create a Generation 1 VM before you can create a Generation 2 VM. B. Generation 2 VMs deploy faster than Generation 1 VMs. C. Generation 2 VMs only support Windows 8.1 and Windows Server 2012 R2 as guest operating systems. D. Generation 2 VMs use the same device drivers as Generation 1 VMs.

Which of the following statements about VHDX files is not true? A. VHDX files can be as large as 64 TB. B. VHDX files can only be opened by computers running Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2. C. VHDX files support larger block sizes than VHD files. D. VHDX files support 4-KB logical sectors.

Which of the following must be true about a pass-through disk? A. A pass-through disk must be offline in the guest OS that will access it. B. A pass-through disk must be offline in the parent partition of the Hyper-V server. C. A pass-through disk can only be connected to a SCSI controller. D. A pass-through disk must be added to a VM with the Disk Management snap-in.

The Merge function only appears in the Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard under which of the following conditions? A. When you select a VHDX file for editing B. When you select two or more disks for editing C. When you select a disk with free space available in it D. When you select a differencing disk for editing

Which of the following are valid reasons not to take checkpoints of VMs? (Choose all that apply.) A. Checkpoints can consume a large amount of disk space. B. Each checkpoint requires a separate copy of the VM's memory allocation. C. Each checkpoint can take several hours to create. D. The existence of checkpoints slows down VM performance.

Which of the following is not required to add a Fibre Channel adapter to a Hyper-V VM? A. You must create a Fibre Channel virtual SAN. B. You must have a physical Fibre Channel adapter installed in the host computer. C. You must have a Fibre Channel adapter driver that supports virtual networking. D. You must have a SCSI cable connecting the Fibre Channel adapter to the storage devices.

Which of the following are valid reasons for using an emulated network adapter rather than a synthetic one? (Choose all that apply.) A. You want to install the guest OS by using a Windows Deployment Services server. B. There is no Guest Integration Services package available for the guest OS you plan to use. C. The manufacturer of your physical network adapter has not yet provided a synthetic network adapter driver. D. The emulated network adapter provides better performance.

Which of the following statements is not true about synthetic network adapters? A. Synthetic adapters communicate with the parent partition by using the VMBus. B. Synthetic adapters require the Guest Integration Services package to be installed on the guest OS. C. Synthetic adapters provide faster performance than emulated adapters. D. Synthetic adapters can start the child VM by using a PXE network boot

What is the maximum number of ports supported by a Hyper-V virtual switch? A. 8 B. 256 C. 4,096 D. Unlimited

Which of the following virtual switch types does not enable guest OSs to communicate with the parent partition? A. External B. Internal C. Private D. Isolated

How many dynamically assigned MAC addresses can a Hyper-V server provide by default? A. 8 B. 256 C. 4,096 D. Unlimited