microexam study this – Flashcards
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Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
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-most frequent cause of community-acquired meningitis
-has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis
-produces alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide
-small gram-positive flattened coccus
-->responds well to penicillin
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Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except
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scarlet fever.
-->pertussis.
rheumatic fever.
glomerulonephritis.
erythrogenic rash.
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Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans.
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False
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Cold viruses are transmitted by
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droplet contact and indirect contact.
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Lactobacillis in the female reproductive tract
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is protective.
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Herpes simplex 1
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-is exclusive to oral mucosa.
-is exclusive to genitourinary tract.
-confers immunity to herpes simplex 2.
-is cleared by acyclovir.
-->None of the choices is correct.
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The presence of viruses in the blood is called
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viremia.
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Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
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treatment involves antitoxin therapy
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The most common cause of liver cancer in the United States is
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HBV.
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Malaria may be prevented by
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-using bed nets sprayed with insecticide.
-eliminating standing water.
-taking prophylactic drugs.
-decreasing the mosquito population.
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Each of the following may be used in the treatment of anthrax except
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penicillin.
ciprofloxacin.
doxycycline.
-->chloroquine.
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All of the following pertain to gonorrhea except
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-->a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry.
-is a sexually transmitted disease.
-pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis, and infertility are complications.
-females can have asymptomatic infection.
-symptoms include painful urination and discharge.
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The most common reported STD in the United States is
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chlamydia.
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Most cases of septicemia are caused by
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bacteria.
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What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
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blood-brain barrier
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Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
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False
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Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?
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-It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route.
-It has flulike symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine.
-->It predisposes a person for liver cancer.
-Immunoglobulin therapy helps decrease the severity.
-HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.
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The most common cause of vaginitis is
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Candida albicans.
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If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with
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chickenpox.
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Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis?
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causative agent
presence of vaginal inflammation
presence of discharge
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Up to 50% of persons who survived polio as children will suffer from post-polio syndrome later in life.
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True
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Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
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protease inhibitors
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The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with
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Lyme disease
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Hepatitis B virus
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is principally transmitted by blood.
transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse.
is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
has many chronic carriers.
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Lyme disease is transmitted by
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ticks
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All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
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-->transmitted by human feces.
caused by Yersinia pestis.
patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes.
patient has fever, headache, nausea, and weakness.
can progress to a septicemia.
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All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
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-live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.
-symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.
-lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
-the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.
-->antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
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The causative organism of malaria is a
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protozoan.
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Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
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Clostridium botulinum.
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Aedes mosquitoes are the vectors involved in yellow fever and dengue fever.
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True
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Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
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-->All species are human pathogens.
Cell walls have waxy lipids.
They are acid fast.
Usually have a slow growth rate.
They are long, slender rods.
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Anthrax is
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a zoonosis.
transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion.
a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia.
only seen sporadically in the United States.
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Transmission of the pathogen of Leishmaniasis is by the
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sand fly.
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Chlamydiosis can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease.
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true
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Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw.
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false
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Extrapulmonary TB can involve the
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kidneys.
long bones.
spine.
brain
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The leading cause of morbidity and mortality in AIDS patients is Pneumocystis pneumonia.
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true
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A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of
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Staphylococcus aureus
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Treponema pallidum
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has humans as the reservoir.
can cross the placenta.
has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium.
is transmitted by direct sexual contact.
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The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
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enterotoxin.
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The only body fluid that can transmit hepatitis B virus is blood.
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false
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Virulence factors of Streptococcus pyogenes include
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polysaccharides on the cell wall.
lipoteichoic acid.
spiky M proteins.
hyaluronic acid capsule.
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The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is
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rhinovirus.
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Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
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false
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Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to
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infertility.
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The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of
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mononuclear cells.
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What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"?
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-->Streptococcus
Corynebacterium
Propionibacterium
yeasts
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The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
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neuraminidase.
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The latency period of syphilis can last up to
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20 years or more.
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Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes?
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forms spores
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Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity.
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true
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The causative agent of Lyme disease is
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Borrelia burgdorferi.
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Chlamydias can cross the placenta and cause intrauterine infection.
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false
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The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
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coagulase.
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Malaria may be prevented by
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using bed nets sprayed with insecticide.
eliminating standing water.
taking prophylactic drugs.
decreasing the mosquito population.
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Influenza vaccines include all the following except
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an inactivated dead virus.
the incorporation of usually three different strains.
an attenuated nasal drops vaccine.
-->the ability to provide lifelong immunity.
an overall effectiveness of 70%-90%.
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A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a(n)
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chest X ray.
acid-fast stain of sputum.
sputum culture.
tuberculin skin test.A vaccine for Lyme disease is available.
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A vaccine for Lyme disease is available.
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False
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The main causes of dental caries seem to be
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Streptococcus mutans.
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Pelvic inflammatory disease results from infection of the
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Both fallopian tubes and ovaries are correct.
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Most cases of septicemia are caused by
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bacteria.
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All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except
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-->summer outbreaks in the United States have been increasing recently.
-transmitted primarily by fecal-contaminated water.
-can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea.
-if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed.
-caused by enterovirus.
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The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS
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has a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body.
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The secondary stage of syphilis
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is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
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Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut.
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False
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Lyme disease involves
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early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck.
crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
people having contact with ticks.
treatment with antimicrobials.
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All species of Staphylococcus
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lack spores.
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Which of the following is not true of influenza?
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It has glycoprotein spikes of hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N).
Antigenic drift which changes the antigens to reduce immune recognition.
Antigenic shift causes changes in the RNA strands.
-->Symptoms are very similar to the common cold.
The virus can infect both humans and swine.
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Chickenpox
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is transmitted by droplet contact.
lesion distribution is centripetal.
has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.
has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
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Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?
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tertiary
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Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting (food poisoning)?
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Clostridium difficile
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During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
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secondary
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Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is
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enterovirus.
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The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72- hour episodes in a malaria patient are
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chills, fever, and sweating.
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Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid.
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true
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Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include
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it grows in moist soil; rich in nitrogen from bird and bat droppings.
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Which of the following are characteristics that can be utilized to distinguish between vaginitis and vaginosis?
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causative agent
presence of vaginal inflammation
presence of discharge
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Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
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cutaneous
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Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
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Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining.
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Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw.
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false
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All of the following pertain to genital warts except
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-->are not common in the United States.
are sexually transmitted.
often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminate.
certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.
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All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except
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red blood cells in urine.
painful urination.
white blood cells in urine.
nausea.
-->diarrhea.
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This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients.
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Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
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Documented transmission of HIV involves
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unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
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Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?
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It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route.
It has flulike symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine.
-->It predisposes a person for liver cancer.
Immunoglobulin therapy helps decrease the severity.
HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.
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Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting (food poisoning)?
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Clostridium perfringes
Staphylococcus aureus exotoxin
-->Clostridium difficile
Bacillus cereus
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The best defense against arborviruses is
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vector control.
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Which is incorrect about malaria?
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-->Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells.
Trophozoites develop in RBCs.
The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites.
Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.
Cerebral malaria is a potential serious complication.
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Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?
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yellow fever
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Hepatitis B infection
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increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
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All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it
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--->is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
is a colitis that is a superinfection.
often has an endogenous source.
is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials.
is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
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Helicobacter pylori causes
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gastritis.
duodenal ulcers.
stomach ulcers.
increased risk for stomach cancer.
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During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?
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secondary
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The causative organism of malaria is a
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protozoan.
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The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota.
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true
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Most cases of septicemia are caused by
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bacteria
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The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is
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Escherichia coli.
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Chickenpox
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is transmitted by droplet contact.
lesion distribution is centripetal.
has an incubation of 10 to 20 days.
has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
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The predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years is
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Lactobacillus.
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A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a(n)
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chest X ray.
acid-fast stain of sputum.
sputum culture.
tuberculin skin test.
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What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"?
answer
-->Streptococcus
Corynebacterium
Propionibacterium
yeasts
All of the choices are correct.
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The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by
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red blood cell lysis.
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What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection?
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nasal hairs
cilia
mucus
macrophages
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The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota.
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true
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Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include
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it grows in moist soil; rich in nitrogen from bird and bat droppings.
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The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
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capsule
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Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except
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necrotizing fasciitis.
erysipelas.
impetigo.
scarlet fever.
-->scalded skin syndrome.
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The chancre of syphilis
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develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated, central crater.
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The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
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neuraminidase.
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The presence of viruses in the blood is called
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viremia.
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The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is
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exfoliative toxin.
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Control of rodent populations is important for preventing
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plague
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The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.
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true
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Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
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mouth
nasal cavity
-->trachea
pharynx
larynx
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The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is
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chlamydia.
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Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
answer
reverse transcriptase inhibitors
-->protease inhibitors
fusion inhibitors
integrase inhibitors
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Which of the following causes a noncommunicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis?
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Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
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Meningococci initially colonize the
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nasopharynx.
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The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is
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inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk.
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Bubonic plague is transmitted by
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fleas
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In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.
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true
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All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
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virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
causes a serious meningitis.
reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
-->common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
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The leading cause of morbidity and mortality in AIDS patients is Pneumocystis pneumonia.
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true
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Impetigo is caused by
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both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
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Documented transmission of HIV involves
answer
unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
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Hepatitis B infection
answer
increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
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All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except
answer
cryptosporidiosis.
cyclosporiasis.
-->malaria.
campylobacter.
giardiasis.
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Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes?
answer
group A streptococcus
gram positive
-->forms spores
sensitive to bacitracin
beta hemolytic
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Lyme disease involves
answer
early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck.
crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems.
people having contact with ticks.
treatment with antimicrobials.
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Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called
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hepatitis.
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Under normal healthy circumstances the lymphatic system filters any microorganisms present.
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true
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The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is
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inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Salk.
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Infection of the urinary bladder is called
answer
cystitis.
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The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.
answer
true
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Which is incorrect about rabies?
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is a zoonotic disease
wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs
transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation
-->average incubation in human is 1 week
symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis
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Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
answer
the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
the cause of gonorrhea.
called the gonococcus.
virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
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Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
answer
direct contact
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What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
answer
blood-brain barrier
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Chlamydia trachomatis causes
answer
nongonococcal urethritis in males.
cervicitis in females.
congenital conjunctivitis.
pelvic inflammatory disease in females.
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Rheumatic fever is caused by
answer
an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart.
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Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
answer
capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.
-->a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity.
reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.
gram-positive bacillus.
spore former.
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MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are
answer
resistant to penicillin derivatives.
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Herpes simplex 1
answer
is exclusive to oral mucosa.
is exclusive to genitourinary tract.
confers immunity to herpes simplex 2.
is cleared by acyclovir.
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Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
answer
produces "rice-water" stools
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The normal biota of the CNS consists of
answer
The CNS has no normal biota.
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Cryptococcus neoformans is a
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fungus
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Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract?
answer
flushing action of urine
lysozyme
IgA
-->IgG
mucus secretions
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Which of the following is not true of septicemia?
answer
respiratory acidosis
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The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
answer
capsule
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Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
answer
headache
stiff neck
white blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
fever
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years?
answer
Vaginal pH is neutral.
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Symptoms of influenza include
answer
fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge.
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There are vaccines for immunity to the hepatitis B virus.
answer
true
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Which antibody is concentrated in the respiratory tract?
answer
IgA
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Influenza virus can exhibit constant mutation of viral glycoproteins called ________, or __________ , a more serious phenomenon caused by the exchange of a viral gene with that of another influenza virus strain.
answer
antigenic drift, antigenic shift
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Herpes simplex 2 (HSV-2) causes
answer
genital lesions.
intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals.
symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching.
infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal.
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The following are characteristics of chlamydias except
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they are gram negative.
they are obligate parasites that need host cells for growth.
their elementary bodies are the infectious form.
-->the formation of elementary bodies is not part of the lifecycle.
their reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.
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Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
answer
debridement.
washing bite with soap or detergent.
infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG).
postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine.
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Spongiform encephalopathies are
answer
associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain.
chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system.
caused by prions.
Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome.
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______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream.
answer
Septicemia
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Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all of the following except
answer
a purulent exudate over the tonsils.
it can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain.
it can lead to serious sequelae.
-->it is viral in origin.
it causes difficulty in swallowing and fever.
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Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of
answer
chlamydia.
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What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermidis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?
answer
coagulase
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Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
answer
Cryptococcus neoformans
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Plague includes
answer
septicemic form; called Black Death.
bubonic form; buboes develop.
pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious.
disease control; control of rodent population.
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Streptococcus pneumoniae is
answer
alpha-hemolytic on blood agar.
often referred to as pneumococcus.
a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule.
most likely to cause infection in older adults.
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Tuberculin skin testing
answer
injects PPD intradermally.
uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
will be positive if the person has had previous exposure to TB.
will be positive if the person has active TB.
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Protective features of the skin include all but
answer
high ph
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The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
answer
fimbrae
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The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
answer
botulism
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Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?
answer
transmitted by mosquitos
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Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of
answer
chlamydia.
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Legionella pneumophila
answer
often lives intracellularly in amoebas.
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Superantigens
answer
include streptolysin O.
include erythrogenic toxin.
induce production of tumor necrosis factor.
can initiate a cascade of immune responses.
