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D. Senator Smith's argument is primarily about efficiency, while Senator Well's argument is primarily about equality.

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Senator Smith argues that replacing the income tax with a national sales tax would increase the level of output. Senator Wells objects that this policy would benefit the rich at the expense of the poor. A. Both Senators' arguments are primarily about equality. B. Both Senators' arguments are primarily about efficiency. C. Senator Smith's argument is primarily about equality, while Senator Well's argument is primarily about efficiency. D. Senator Smith's argument is primarily about efficiency, while Senator Well's argument is primarily about equality.

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D. You should include only the amount by which your room-and-board expenses exceed the expenses for rent and food if you were not in college.

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When you calculate your true costs of going to college, what portion of your room-and-board expenses should be included? A. Your full room-and-board expenses should always be included. B. None of your room-and-board expenses should ever be included. C. You should include only the amount by which your room-and-board expenses exceed the income you earn while attending college. D. You should include only the amount by which your room-and-board expenses exceed the expenses for rent and food if you were not in college.

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A. Scarcity.

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Economics deals primarily with the concept of A. scarcity. B. money. C. poverty. D. banking.

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D. 100%.

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Approximately what percentage of the world's economies experience scarcity? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

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D. Senator Smith's argument is primarily about efficiency, while Senator Well's argument is primarily about equality.

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Senator Smith argues that replacing the income tax with a national sales tax would increase the level of output. Senator Wells objects that this policy would benefit the rich at the expense of the poor. A. Both Senators' arguments are primarily about equality. B. Both Senators' arguments are primarily about efficiency. C. Senator Smith's argument is primarily about equality, while Senator Well's argument is primarily about efficiency. D. Senator Smith's argument is primarily about efficiency, while Senator Well's argument is primarily about equality.

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C. The $45,000 salary that you will be able to earn after having completed your graduate program.

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Suppose after graduating from college you get a job working at a bank earning $30,000 per year. After two years of working at the bank earning the same salary, you have an opportunity to enroll in a one-year graduate program that would require you to quit your job at the bank. Which of the following should not be included in a calculation of your opportunity cost? A. the cost of tuition and books to attend the graduate program B. the $30,000 salary that you could have earned if you retained your job at the bank C. the $45,000 salary that you will be able to earn after having completed your graduate program D. the value of insurance coverage and other employee benefits you would have received if you retained your job at the bank.

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A. Except to the extent that you pay more for them, opportunity costs should not include the cost of things you would have purchased anyway.

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Which of the following is correct concerning opportunity cost? A. Except to the extent that you pay more for them, opportunity costs should not include the cost of things you would have purchased anyway. B. To compute opportunity costs, you should subtract benefits from costs. C. Opportunity costs and the idea of trade-offs are not closely related. D. Rational people should compare various options without considering opportunity costs.

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B. People face tradeoffs.

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The adage, "There is no such thing as a free lunch," is used to illustrate the principle that A. goods are scarce. B. people face tradeoffs. C. income must be earned. D. households face many decisions

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C. What you give up to get it.

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In economics, the cost of something is A. the dollar amount of obtaining it. B. always measured in units of time given up to get it. C. what you give up to get it. D. often impossible to quantify, even in principle.

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C. Scarce for households and scarce for economies.

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Resources are A. scarce for households but plentiful for economies. B. plentiful for households but scarce for economies. C. scarce for households and scarce for economies. D. plentiful for households and plentiful for economies.

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A. A tenured economist employed at a leading university analyzing the impact of bank regulations on rural lending.

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Which of the following is most likely to produce scientific evidence about a theory? A. a tenured economist employed at a leading university analyzing the impact of bank regulations on rural lending B. a radio talk show host collecting data on how capital markets respond to taxation C. a lawyer employed by General Motors addressing the impact of air bags on passenger safety D. an economist employed by the AFL/CIO doing research on the impact of trade restrictions on workers' wages

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B. Efficient.

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Points on the production possibilities frontier are A. unattainable. B. efficient. C. none of these answers. D. inefficient. E. normative.

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C. To address the benefits of trade, an economist assumes that there are two people and two goods.

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In which of the following cases is the assumption most reasonable? A. To address the impact of money growth on inflation, an economist assumes that money is strictly coins. B. To estimate the speed at which a beach ball falls, a physicist assumes that it falls in a vacuum. C. To address the benefits of trade, an economist assumes that there are two people and two goods. D. To address the impact of taxes on income distribution, an economist assumes that everyone earns the same income.

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C. The study of very large industries is a topic within macroeconomics.

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Which of the following statements about microeconomics and macroeconomics is not true? A. Microeconomics and macroeconomics cannot be entirely separated. B. Macroeconomics is concerned with economy-wide phenomena. C. The study of very large industries is a topic within macroeconomics. D. Microeconomics is a building block for macroeconomics.

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A. Built with assumptions.

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Economic models are A. built with assumptions. B. created to duplicate reality. C. usually made of wood and plastic. D. useless if they are simple.

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A. A reduction in unemployment.

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Which of the following will not shift a country's production possibilities frontier outward? A. a reduction in unemployment B. an increase in the capital stock C. an increase in the labor force D. an advance in technology

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E. The factors of production are owned by households.

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Which of the following statements regarding the circular-flow diagram is true? A. The factors of production are owned by firms. B. If Susan works for IBM and receives a paycheck, the transaction takes place in the market for goods and services. C. None of these answers are true. D. If IBM sells a computer, the transaction takes place in the market for factors of production. E. The factors of production are owned by households.

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B. A shift in the production possibilities frontier outward.

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Economic growth is depicted by A. a movement along a production possibilities frontier toward capital goods. B. a shift in the production possibilities frontier outward. C. a movement from inside the curve toward the curve. D. a shift in the production possibilities frontier inward.

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C. A reduction in unemployment benefits will reduce the unemployment rate.

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In making which of the following statements is an economist acting more like a scientist? A. The state should increase subsidies to universities because the future of our country depends on education. B. The rate of inflation should be reduced because it robs the elderly of their savings. C. A reduction in unemployment benefits will reduce the unemployment rate. D. The unemployment rate should be reduced because unemployment robs individuals of their dignity.

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D. The unemployment rate should be lower.

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Which of the following statements is normative? A. Printing too much money causes inflation. B. Large government deficits cause an economy to grow more slowly. C. People work harder if the wage is higher. D. The unemployment rate should be lower.

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B. Brady has a comparative advantage over everyone else in mowing his lawn.

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Tom Brady should pay someone else to mow his lawn instead of mowing it himself, unless A. Brady has an absolute advantage over everyone else in mowing his lawn. B. Brady has a comparative advantage over everyone else in mowing his lawn. C. Brady's opportunity cost of mowing his lawn is higher than it is for everyone else. D. All of the above are correct.

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E. If the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of food, then Mexico must have a comparative advantage in the production of clothing.

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Suppose the world consists of two countries--the United States and Mexico. Furthermore, suppose there are only two goods--food and clothing. Which of the following statements is true? A. None of these answers are true. B. If the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of food, Mexico might also have a comparative advantage in the production of food. C. If the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of food, it must also have a comparative advantage in the production of clothing. D. If the United States has an absolute advantage in the production of food, then Mexico must have an absolute advantage in the production of clothing. E. If the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of food, then Mexico must have a comparative advantage in the production of clothing.

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A. Not restricting trade.

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A country that currently does not trade with other countries could benefit by A. not restricting trade. B. restricting imports and promoting exports. C. promoting imports and restricting exports. D. restricting both imports and exports.

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C. Goods produced domestically and sold abroad.

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By definition, exports are A. people who work in foreign countries. B. limits placed on the quantity of goods brought into a country. C. goods produced domestically and sold abroad. D. goods in which a country has an absolute advantage.

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B. A self-sufficient country at best can consume on its production possibilities frontier.

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Which of the following statements is true? A. A self-sufficient country consumes outside its production possibilities frontier. B. A self-sufficient country at best can consume on its production possibilities frontier. C. Only countries with an absolute advantage in the production of every good should strive to be self-sufficient. D. Self-sufficiency is the road to prosperity for most countries.

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C. Both countries, as a whole, will be better off.

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Suppose the U.S. and Japan both produce airplanes and televisions and the U.S. has a comparative advantage in the production of airplanes while Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of televisions. If the U.S. exports airplanes to Japan and imports televisions from Japan, A. all individuals in both countries will be better off. B. both countries, as a whole, will be worse off. C. both countries, as a whole, will be better off. D. all individuals in both countries will be worse off.

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D. Imports.

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Goods produced abroad and sold domestically are called A. exports. B. exchange rates. C. opportunity costs. D. imports.

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B. Belarus should export linen to Russia.

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Belarus has a comparative advantage in the production of linen, but Russia has an absolute advantage in the production of linen. If these two countries decide to trade, A. Without additional information about opportunity costs, this question cannot be answered. B. Belarus should export linen to Russia. C. trading linen would provide no net advantage to either country. D. Russia should export linen to Belarus.

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B. It can produce that good using fewer resources than its trading partner.

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If a nation has an absolute advantage in the production of a good, A. it will specialize in the production of that good and export it. B. it can produce that good using fewer resources than its trading partner. C. it can produce that good at a lower opportunity cost than its trading partner. D. it can benefit by restricting imports of that good. E. none of these answers are true.

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B. $49.

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Alexis is a lawyer. She bills her clients $100 an hour for her services. She can also mow her lawn in 30 minutes. She can hire someone to mow her lawn who takes an hour. Of the following prices, which is the highest Alexis would pay someone to mow her lawn? A. $99 B. $49 C. $29 D. Alexis would always mow her own lawn because she can do it faster.

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E. An increase in the price of watches.

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All of the following shift the supply of watches to the right except A. manufacturers' expectations of lower watch prices in the future. B. an advance in the technology used to manufacture watches. C. All of these answers cause an increase in the supply of watches. D. a decrease in the wage of workers employed to manufacture watches. E. an increase in the price of watches.

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D. An inferior good.

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If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for camping equipment, then camping equipment is A. a normal good. B. a complementary good. C. a substitute good. D. an inferior good. E. none of these answers.

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D. Only one seller.

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A monopolistic market has A. none of these answers. B. at least a few sellers. C. many buyers and sellers. D. only one seller. E. firms that are price takers.

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D. An increase in the equilibrium price and quantity.

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An increase (rightward shift) in the demand for a good will tend to cause A. a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in the equilibrium quantity. B. an increase in the equilibrium price and a decrease in the equilibrium quantity. C. none of these answers. D. an increase in the equilibrium price and quantity. E. a decrease in the equilibrium price and quantity.

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C. Decrease the demand for that good.

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The law of demand states that an increase in the price of a good A. does none of these answers. B. increases the quantity supplied of that good. C. decreases the quantity demanded for that good. D. decreases the demand for that good. E. increases the supply of that good.

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A. Increase the quantity supplied of that good.

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The law of supply states that an increase in the price of a good A. increases the quantity supplied of that good. B. decreases the quantity demanded for that good. C. decreases the demand for that good. D. does none of these answers. E. increases the supply of that good.

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C. Decrease in demand.

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An inferior good is one for which an increase in income causes a(n) A. increase in supply. B. increase in demand. C. decrease in demand. D. decrease in supply.

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D. The equilibrium price and quantity of salad dressing will fall.

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Which of the following statements is true about the impact of an increase in the price of lettuce? A. The demand for lettuce will decrease. B. The equilibrium price and quantity of salad dressing will rise. C. Both the demand for lettuce will decrease and the equilibrium price and quantity of salad dressing will fall. D. The equilibrium price and quantity of salad dressing will fall. E. The supply of lettuce will decrease.

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E. A decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches are complements.

answer

Which of the following shifts the demand for watches to the right? A. an increase in the price of watches B. a decrease in the price of watches C. none of these answers D. a decrease in consumer incomes if watches are a normal good E. a decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches are complements

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E. Price will increase; quantity is ambiguous.

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Suppose both buyers and sellers of wheat expect the price of wheat to rise in the near future. What would we expect to happen to the equilibrium price and quantity in the market for wheat today? A. Price will increase; quantity will increase. B. The impact on both price and quantity is ambiguous. C. Price will decrease; quantity is ambiguous. D. Price will increase; quantity will decrease. E. Price will increase; quantity is ambiguous.

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D. Price inelastic.

answer

In general, a steeper supply curve is more likely to be A. none of these answers. B. price elastic. C. unit price elastic. D. price inelastic.

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B. The percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.

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The price elasticity of demand is defined as A. the percentage change in income divided by the percentage change in the quantity demanded. B. the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by the percentage change in the price of that good. C. the percentage change in price of a good divided by the percentage change in the quantity demanded of that good. D. none of these answers. E. the percentage change in the quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in income.

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False

answer

The price elasticity of demand is defined as the percentage change in the price of that good divided by the percentage change in quantity demanded of that good. True False

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False

answer

If the quantity demanded of a good is sensitive to a change in the price of that good, demand is said to be price inelastic. True False

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False

answer

The demand for a necessity such as insulin tends to be elastic. True False

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A. 1.00.

answer

If consumers always spend 15 percent of their income on food, then the income elasticity of demand for food is A. 1.00. B. 0.15. C. 1.15. D. 1.50. E. none of these answers.

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True

answer

The income elasticity of demand for luxury items, such as diamonds, tends to be large (greater than 1). True False

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False

answer

If a demand curve is linear, the price elasticity of demand is constant along it. True False

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C. 1.4.

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Suppose that at a price of $30 per month, there are 30,000 subscribers to cable television in Small Town. If Small Town Cablevision raises its price to $40 per month, the number of subscribers will fall to 20,000. Using the midpoint method for calculating the elasticity, what is the price elasticity of demand for cable television in Small Town? A. 1.0 B. 0.66 C. 1.4 D. 2.0 E. 0.75

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E. Demand would tend to be price inelastic.

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If consumers think that there are very few substitutes for a good, then A. demand would tend to be price elastic. B. supply would tend to be price elastic. C. supply would tend to be price inelastic. D. none of these answers are true. E. demand would tend to be price inelastic.

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D. Sets a legal minimum on the price at which a good can be sold.

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A price floor A. sets a legal maximum on the price at which a good can be sold. B. is not a binding constraint if it is set above the equilibrium price. C. always determines the price at which a good must be sold. D. sets a legal minimum on the price at which a good can be sold.

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D. Demand is elastic and supply is inelastic.

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The burden of a tax falls more heavily on the sellers in a market when A. both supply and demand are inelastic. B. demand is inelastic and supply is elastic. C. both supply and demand are elastic. D. demand is elastic and supply is inelastic.

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A. Decreases teenage employment by about 1 to 3 percent.

answer

Studies show that a 10 percent increase in the minimum wage A. decreases teenage employment by about 1 to 3 percent. B. decreases teenage employment by about 10 to 15 percent. C. increases teenage employment by about 1 to 3 percent. D. increases teenage employment by about 10 to 15 percent.

question

C. Supply curve upward by the size of the tax per unit.

answer

Within the supply-and-demand model, a tax collected from the sellers of a good shifts the A. demand curve downward by the size of the tax per unit. B. demand curve upward by the size of the tax per unit. C. supply curve upward by the size of the tax per unit. D. supply curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.

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C. Both supply and demand are elastic.

answer

The surplus caused by a binding price floor will be greatest if A. demand is inelastic and supply is elastic. B. supply is inelastic and demand is elastic. C. both supply and demand are elastic. D. both supply and demand are inelastic.

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A. The quality of apartments will improve.

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Suppose the equilibrium price for apartments is $500 per month and the government imposes rent controls of $250. Which of the following is unlikely to occur as a result of the rent controls? A. The quality of apartments will improve. B. There will be a shortage of housing. C. Landlords may discriminate among apartment renters. D. Landlords may be offered bribes to rent apartments. E. There may be long lines of buyers waiting for apartments.

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A. A shortage.

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A binding price ceiling creates A. a shortage. B. a surplus. C. an equilibrium. D. a shortage or a surplus depending on whether the price ceiling is set above or below the equilibrium price.

question

A. Falls more heavily on buyers.

answer

A tax placed on a good that is a necessity for consumers will likely generate a tax burden that A. falls more heavily on buyers. B. falls entirely on sellers. C. falls more heavily on sellers. D. is evenly distributed between buyers and sellers.

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C. Demand curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.

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Within the supply-and-demand model, a tax collected from the buyers of a good shifts the A. supply curve upward by the size of the tax per unit. B. demand curve upward by the size of the tax per unit. C. demand curve downward by the size of the tax per unit. D. supply curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.

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A. A significant increase in the demand for gasoline could cause the price ceiling to become a binding constraint.

answer

Which of the following statements is true if the government places a price ceiling on gasoline at $1.50 per gallon and the equilibrium price is $1.00 per gallon? A. A significant increase in the demand for gasoline could cause the price ceiling to become a binding constraint. B. There will be a shortage of gasoline. C. A significant increase in the supply of gasoline could cause the price ceiling to become a binding constraint. D. There will be a surplus of gasoline.

question

A. The minimum amount the seller is willing to accept for a good.

answer

The seller's cost of production is A. the minimum amount the seller is willing to accept for a good. B. the seller's producer surplus. C. the seller's consumer surplus. D. the maximum amount the seller is willing to accept for a good. E. none of these answers.

question

A. All of these answers are true.

answer

If a market is efficient, then A. all of these answers are true. B. the market allocates output to the buyers who value it the most. C. the market allocates buyers to the sellers who can produce the good at least cost. D. the quantity produced in the market maximizes the sum of consumer and producer surplus. E. none of these answers are true.

question

E. The value placed on the last unit of production by buyers exceeds the cost of production.

answer

If a benevolent social planner chooses to produce less than the equilibrium quantity of a good, then A. total surplus is maximized. B. the cost of production on the last unit produced exceeds the value placed on it by buyers. C. producer surplus is maximized. D. consumer surplus is maximized. E. the value placed on the last unit of production by buyers exceeds the cost of production.

question

D. Increases producer surplus.

answer

An increase in the price of a good along a stationary supply curve A. decreases producer surplus. B. improves market equity. C. does all of these answers. D. increases producer surplus.

question

B. $200.

answer

Suppose that the price of a new bicycle is $300. Sue values a new bicycle at $400. It costs $200 for the seller to produce the new bicycle. What is the value of total surplus if Sue buys a new bike? A. $100 B. $200 C. $300 D. $500 E. $400

question

D. $2,000.

answer

If a buyer's willingness to pay for a new Honda is $20,000 and she is able to actually buy it for $18,000, her consumer surplus is A. $0. B. $20,000. C. $38,000. D. $2,000. E. $18,000.

question

D. That buyer's maximum amount he is willing to pay for a good.

answer

A buyer's willingness to pay is A. none of these answers. B. that buyer's producer surplus. C. that buyer's minimum amount he is willing to pay for a good. D. that buyer's maximum amount he is willing to pay for a good. E. that buyer's consumer surplus.

question

A. Decrease consumer surplus.

answer

An increase in the price of a good along a stationary demand curve A. decreases consumer surplus. B. improves the material welfare of the buyers. C. improves market efficiency. D. increases consumer surplus.

question

E. Below the demand curve and above the price.

answer

Consumer surplus is the area A. below the demand curve and above the supply curve. B. below the supply curve and above the price. C. above the supply curve and below the price. D. above the demand curve and below the price. E. below the demand curve and above the price.

question

B. Maximizes total surplus.

answer

Adam Smith's "invisible hand" concept suggests that a competitive market outcome A. minimizes total surplus. B. maximizes total surplus. C. both minimizes total surplus and generates equality among the members of society. D. generates equality among the members of society.

question

False

answer

A tax collected from buyers generates a smaller deadweight loss than a tax collected from sellers. True False

question

True

answer

If a tax is doubled, the deadweight loss from the tax more than doubles. True False

question

True

answer

A larger tax always generates a larger deadweight loss. True False

question

A. Cause a greater deadweight loss in the long run when compared to the short run.

answer

A tax on gasoline is likely to A. cause a greater deadweight loss in the long run when compared to the short run. B. cause a greater deadweight loss in the short run when compared to the long run. C. generate a deadweight loss that is unaffected by the time period over which it is measured. D. None of these answers are correct.

question

True

answer

A deadweight loss results when a tax causes market participants to fail to produce and consume units on which the benefits to the buyers exceed the costs to the sellers. True False

question

True

answer

If an income tax rate is high enough, a reduction in the tax rate could increase tax revenue. True False

question

D. Increase by a factor of four.

answer

If a tax on a good is doubled, the deadweight loss from the tax A. doubles. B. could rise or fall. C. stays the same. D. increases by a factor of four.

question

B. A tax on cruise line tickets.

answer

Which of the following would likely cause the greatest deadweight loss? A. a tax on salt B. a tax on cruise line tickets C. a tax on gasoline D. a tax on cigarettes

question

False

answer

A tax will generate a greater deadweight loss if supply and demand are inelastic. True False

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