Test Questions on MIcrobiology Exam 2 – Flashcards with Answers
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| Which bacterial identification method relies upon antibodies to identify bacterium? |
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| Serology methods |
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| What is the point of a phage typing test? |
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| To determine which phages (bacterial viruses) a bacteria is susceptible to |
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| What is the principle behind a G+C base composition bacterial identification method? |
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| Overall % of G and C content compared to A and T content in DNA |
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| True or False: PCR is one method used to identify bacteria |
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| True |
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| True or False rRNA sequencing is NOT a method used to identify bacteria |
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| False |
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| True or False: Spirochetes are associated with the use of axial filaments |
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| True |
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| Which of the following is considered a spirochete: Neisseria, treponema, Pseudomonas, H. pylori |
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| Treponema |
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| What are the 3 spirochetes discussed during lecture? |
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| treponema, borrelia, leptospira |
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| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of Campylobacter jejuni. |
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| Gram negative curved/spiral rod |
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| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of Helicobacter pylori. |
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| Gram negative curved rod |
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| True or False: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-positive faculative anaerobe cocci. |
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| False P. aeruginosa is a gram negative aerobe rod |
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| Where is pseudomonas aeruginosa likely to be found? |
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| In the soil |
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| True or False: Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with an innate antibiotic resistance |
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| true |
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| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of all Neisseria species. |
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| Gram negative diplococcus |
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| What environment does an Enterobacteriaceae thrive in? What is its gram reaction and morphology? |
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| Faculative anaerobe Gram negative rod |
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| E. coli, salmonella, and shigella are all part of which bacterial family? |
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| Enterobacteriaceae |
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| Which group of bacteria is associated with fermenting glucose and various other carbohydrates? |
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| Enterobacteriaceae |
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| True or False: Vibrio cholerae is a faculative anaerobic gram-negative rod |
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| True |
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| What are the two requirements for culturing haemophilus? |
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| Must have blood in the culture medium Requires hemin |
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| Describe the gram reaction and morphology of haemophilus. What environment does it thrive in? |
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| Gram negative rod Faculative anaerobe |
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| What environment do bacteroides species thrive in and what is their gram reaction and morphology? |
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| Anaerobic gram-negative rods |
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| What are the 3 likely locations one would find Bacteroides species? |
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| Oral cavity, genital tract, respiratory tract |
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| True or False: Bacteroides species are known for producing spores. |
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| False They are nonspore-forming |
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| What bacteria is associated with causing periodontitis? |
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| Bacteroides species |
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| Describe the motility of bacteroides species? |
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| Non-motile |
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| How does one acquire Rickettsia? |
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| arthropod vector (louse, tick, mosquito) |
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| What two groups of bacteria are known as "obligate intracellular gram-negative coccobacillus?" |
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| Rickettsia and Chlamydia trachomatis |
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| What are two common diseases associated with Rickettsia bacterial infections? |
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| Typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
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| True or False: Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with blindness |
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| true |
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| Walking pneumonia (primary atypical pneumonia) is caused by what bacterial species? |
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| Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
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| What is significant about the cell walls of Mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
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| They DONT have cell walls |
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| What bacteria is associated with causing wound infections, toxic shock syndrome, and food poisoning? |
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| Staphylococcus aureus |
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| Strep throat is caused by which specific species of Streptococcus? |
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| Streptococcus pyogenes |
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| What is the major pathogenic species of the Staphylococcus family? |
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| Staphylococcus aureus |
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| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Bacillus anthracis? What disease is associated with this species? |
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| Gram-positive rod anthrax |
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| True or False: Bacillus anthracis can survive extreme conditions |
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| True Since it is endospore forming |
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| True or False: Bacillus anthracis thrives in an anerobic environment |
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| False B. anthracis is an aerobic species |
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| What two diseases are associated with Clostridium perfringens? |
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| food poisoning and gas gangrene |
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| Clostridium species thrive in what environment? Describe their gram reaction and morphology. |
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| Anaerobic Gram-positive rods |
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| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? |
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| gram positive rod Pleomorphic morphology (irregular) |
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| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Listeria monocytogenes? |
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| gram positive rods |
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| True or False: Listeria monocytogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are endospore forming bacteria. |
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| False Nonspore-forming gram positive rods |
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| Which bacteria is likely to cause stillbirth in pregnant women? |
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| Listeria monocytogenes |
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| What type of person is likely to acquire Listeria monocytogenes? |
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| Immunocomprimised |
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| Which genus of bacteria is associated with leprosy and tuberculosis? |
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| Mycobacterium |
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| What is significant about the cell walls of Mycobacterium species? |
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| Mycolic acid in cell walls |
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| What the the gram reaction and morphology of all Mycobacterium species? |
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| Trick question, Mycobacterium do not stain via gram staining because their cell walls contain mycolic acid. Thus, they stain via acid fast staining. However, their morphology is rod-shaped |
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| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Bacillus anthracis? What disease is associated with this species? |
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| Gram-positive rod anthrax |
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| True or False: Bacillus anthracis can survive extreme conditions |
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| True Since it is endospore forming |
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| True or False: Bacillus anthracis thrives in an anerobic environment |
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| False B. anthracis is an aerobic species |
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| What two diseases are associated with Clostridium perfringens? |
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| food poisoning and gas gangrene |
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| Clostridium species thrive in what environment? Describe their gram reaction and morphology. |
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| Anaerobic Gram-positive rods |
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| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? |
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| gram positive rod Pleomorphic morphology (irregular) |
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| What is the gram reaction and morphology of Listeria monocytogenes? |
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| gram positive rods |
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| True or False: Listeria monocytogenes and Corynebacterium diphtheriae are endospore forming bacteria. |
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| False Nonspore-forming gram positive rods |
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| Which bacteria is likely to cause stillbirth in pregnant women? |
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| Listeria monocytogenes |
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| What type of person is likely to acquire Listeria monocytogenes? |
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| Immunocomprimised |
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| Which genus of bacteria is associated with leprosy and tuberculosis? |
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| Mycobacterium |
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| What is significant about the cell walls of Mycobacterium species? |
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| Mycolic acid in cell walls |
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| What the the gram reaction and morphology of all Mycobacterium species? |
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| Trick question, Mycobacterium do not stain via gram staining because their cell walls contain mycolic acid. Thus, they stain via acid fast staining. However, their morphology is rod-shaped |
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| Whats the function of vegetative mycelium and aerial mycelium? |
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| vegetative - nutrients aerial - reproduction |
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| What does the term coenocytic mean? |
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| No septae |
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| What term refers to fungal filaments? |
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| Hyphae |
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| What does the term thallus mean? |
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| fungal body of a filamentous fungi |
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| What makes this statement false: Yeasts are filamentous multicellular fungi which have a spherical morphology and reproduce via binary fission. |
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| Yeasts are NONFILAMENTOUS UNICELLULAR fungi which have spherical morphology and reproduce via BUDDING |
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| Describe a dimorphic fungi. |
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| Fungi which exhibits two forms of growth at different temperatures 37 deg C = grows as a yeast 25 deg C = grows as a filament |
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| True or False Asexual reproducing fungi do not exhibit genetic diversity. |
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| True |
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| What three structures are associated with asexually reproducing fungi? |
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| Sporangiospore (in a sac) Sporangium (sac containing spores) Conidia (spores not enclosed in sac) |
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| What pH do fungi need to be near for survival? |
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| 5.0 |
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| True or False: Molds are aerobic fungi while yeasts are faculative anaerobes |
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| True |
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| Which of the following is false: Fungi grow in a low sugar or salt environment and require high amounts of moisture to survive Fungi require less nitrogen to survive than many other species Fungi metabolize complex carbohydrates Fungi grow in a pH relatively near 5.0 |
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| Fungi grow in a low sugar or salt environment and require high amounts of moisture to survive Typically, fungi grow in high surgar or salt environements and do not need very much moisture. This is why they require less nitrogen than many other species |
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| A mycosis is a ... |
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| fungal infection |
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| What are the 5 categories of fungal infections (based off of degree of tissue involvement and mode of entry into body) |
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| Systemic Subcutaneous Cutaneous Superficial Opportunistic |
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| This type of fungi causes systemic mycoses? How does it enter the body? |
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| Saprophytic fungi living in the soil They enter the body via inhalation of endospores |
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| What are the two systemic mycoses discussed during lecture? |
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| Histoplasmosis Coccidioidomycosis |
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| A subcutaneous mycoses is one that is ______________________. It is caused by __________ fungi which lives in _______________. Its route of transmission is ________________ |
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| A subcutaneous mycoses is one that is BENEATH THE SKIN. It is caused by SAPROPHYTIC fungi which lives in SOIL/VEGETATION. Its route of transmission is DIRECT IMPLANTATION OF SPORES IN PUNCTURE OR WOUND. |
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| What type of mycoses is Sporothrix schenckii associated with? |
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| Subcutaneous mycoses |
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| Dermatophytes cause _____________ mycoses. They secrete ___________. The route of transmission for this mycoses is _________________________. |
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| Dermatophytes cause CUTANEOUS mycoses. The secrete KERATINASE. Their route of transmission is DIRECT CONTACT WITH INFECTED HUMAN |
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| Trichophyton, epidermophyton, and microsporum are associated with this type of mycoses. |
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| Cutaneous mycoses (dermatomycoses) |
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| True or False: In a normal habitat, opportunistic mycoses are highly pathogenic. |
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| False: Opportunistic mycoses only become pathogenic in a host who is immunocompromised. |
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| Mucormycosis, aspergillosis, and candidiasis all fall under which category of mycoses? |
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| Opportunistic mycoses |
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| What two fungi are considered to cause Mucormycosis? |
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| Rhizopus and Mucor |
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| Apicomplexans are also known as ...? |
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| sporozoans |
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| Flagellates, one of the medically important protozoa, are also known as ...? |
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| Mastigophora |
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| Amoebae, one of the medically important protozoa, are also known as...? |
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| Sarcodina |
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| Amoebae move via ...? |
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| Pseudopods |
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| This species of amoebae is known to cause amebic dystentery? |
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| Entamoeba histolytica |
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| Trichomonas vaginalis falls under which category of protozoan? |
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| Flagellates |
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| Giardia lamblia falls under which category of protozoans? |
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| Flagellates |
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| Where would a hemoflagellate be found in the human body and how does it become transmitted? |
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| Found in the blood or lymph fluids and it is transmitted by bites or feces of blood-feeding insects |
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| African sleeping sickness is caused by what genus and species of protozoan? This protozoan falls under which category? |
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| Caused by Trypanosoma brucei which falls under Hemoflagellates |
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| True or False: African sleeping sickness is associated with the tsetse fly. |
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| True The tsetse fly is an arthropod vector for Trypanosoma brucei |
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| Chagas' disease is caused by which protozoan? It is transferred to a human via which arthropod vector? |
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| Caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and is transmitted by the kissing bug or reduviid bug |
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| Trypanosoma cruzi falls under which category of protozoan? |
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| Hemoflagellates |
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| Plasmodium species fall under which category of protozoan? These species are the causative agent for which major disease? |
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| Apicomplexans Malaria |
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| True or False: Plasmodium species definitve host is in the mosquito |
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| True |
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| When a mosquito containing malaria bites you it injects what into the human body? |
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| Injects a sporozoite (sexual stage) |
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| What does the term dioecious refer to? |
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| Separate sexes |
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| True or False: Monoecious is synonymous with hermaphrodidic |
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| true |
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| Trematodes/flukes fall under which phyla of helminth? |
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| Platyhelminthes |
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| An acetabulum is also known as a...? |
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| Ventral sucker of a trematode |
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| What is the intermediate hose for a trematode? |
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| Snail |
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| How does a trematode obtain its food? |
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| From absorption through a cuticle |
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| A schistosome is also known as a ...? |
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| Blood fluke |
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| Respectively, the scolex and proglottids are also known as? |
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| Holdfast organ and segments on a cestode |
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| The infective stage of a nematode is ...? |
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| Larvae or egg |
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| Which two helminth species discussed in lecture have their infective stage as larvae? |
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| Necator americanus (hookworm) and Trichinella spiralis |
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| Trichinella spiralis is transmitted to humans by...? |
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| Ingesting larvae |
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| What is a virion? What is it made of? Is there any special structure? |
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| Complete, fully-developed viral particle composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by protein coat |
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| How do viruses multiply? |
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| By taking over the host cells machinery (obligate intracellular parasite) |
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| How does a capsid differ from a capsomere? |
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| Capsid - protein coat Capsomere - protein subunits that make up capsid |
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| Between naked viruses and enveloped viruses, which is more resistant to killing? |
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| Naked viruses |
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| What is the typical morphology of an enveloped virus? |
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| Spherical |
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| What is the morphology of a complex virus? |
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| helical and icosohedral |
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| What does the term icosahedron refer to? |
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| A virus displaying 20 triangular faces and 12 corners |
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| In reference to viral taxonomy what do the follow suffixs' mean-virus -viridae -ales |
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| -virus - genus names -viridae - family names -ales - order names |
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| What is the viral cytopathic effect? |
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| Observation of cell deterioration on a culture virus |
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| Adenoviridae is associated with what pathological condition? Is this a DNA or RNA virus |
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| common cold DNA virus |
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| Herpesviridae is associated with cold sores and what other pathological condition? Is this a DNA or RNA virus? |
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| mononucleosis DNA virus |
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| Poxviridae is associated with what pathological conditions Is this a DNA or RNA virus? |
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| small pox and cow pox DNA virus |
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| True or FAlse Papovaviridae and Hepadnaviridae are what RNA viruses? |
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| False DNA viruses |
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| True or FAlse: A reoviridae is a negative sense ssRNA virus. |
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| False reoviridae is a double stranded rna virus |
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| What -viridae is responsible for rabies? influenza? Measles These -viridae all fall under the same type of virus (DNA/RNA) which type are they? |
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| Rabies = Rhabdovirus Influenza = Orthomyxoviridae Paramyxoviridae = Measles All fall under negative sense ssRNA viruses |
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| What are the two positive sense ssRNA viruses and what conditions are associated with each? |
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| Picornaviridae - common cold, polio Togaviridae - rubella, arthropod-borne viruses |
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| Togaviridae causes what two pathological conditions? |
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| Rubella, arthropod-borne viruses |
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| Picornaviridae is responsible for what two pathological conditions? |
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| common cold and polio |
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| True or False Retroviridae is composed of 2 copies of positive sense ssRNA |
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| true |
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| What is a provirus? What type of -viridae is it associated with? |
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| Provirus - viral dna integrated into host cells chromosome Associated with retroviridae |
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| True or False: Reverse transcriptase works by forming DNA from RNA and then degrading to original viral RNA |
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| True |
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| Viral adsorption is the process of...? |
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| Attaching to the receptor site |
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| Viral penetration is the process of...? |
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| Endocytosis or fusion of the virus into the host cell |
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| Viral uncoating is the process of...? |
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| Releasing of nucleic acid |
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| Viral biosynthesis accomplishes two things, what are they? |
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| Replication of nucleic acid Production of capsid proteins |
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| Describe the steps involved for biosynthesis of DNA viruses? |
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| transciption/translation of early genes DNA replication transciption/translation of late genes (capsid proteins) |
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| Describe the steps involved for biosynthesis of RNA viruses? (for + sense rna) |
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| Positive RNA acts as mRNA and codes for/makes RNA polymerase. Then a - sense copy is made (used as a template for replication) or translation may occur directly |
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| Describe the steps involved for biosynthesis of RNA viruses? (for - antisense RNA) |
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| - antisense RNA carries RNA polymerase and makes a + strand to be used as a template for replication. The formed + strand may also complex with mRNA to translate enzymes and capsid proteins |
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| Viral assembly (maturation) refers to the process of...? |
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| assembling viral nucleic acid and capsids into virions |
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| What are two ways that a virus is "released"? |
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| Budding (seen in enveloped viruses) Lysis |
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| What are the three dna oncogenic viruses discussed in lecture and what type of cancer can they cause? |
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| HPV - cervical cancer EBV - burkitt's lymphoma HBV - liver cancer |
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| What are the two RNA oncogenic viruses discussed in lecture and what type of cancer can they cause? |
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| HTLV-1 and HTLV-2 Causes T cell leukemia and lymphoma |
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| Shingles is caused by what virus? |
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| Herpes zoster |
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| True or False: The infectious agent for a prion is purely protein. |
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| True |
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| What is the value for amount of normal flora in the body? |
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| 1.0x10^14 |
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| What is microbial antagonism? |
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| normal flora inhibits overgrowth by pathogens |
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| Is alpha-hemolytic strep inhibiting beta-hemolytic strep considered microbial antagonism? |
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| yes |
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| E. coli operates under commensalism or mutalism? |
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| Mutalism because e. coli synthesizes vitamin K and B while the gut contents are used to e. coli growth |
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| True or False: Mycobacterium leprae and treponema pallidum are culturable bacteria. |
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| False They are unculturable according to Koch |
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| What is the difference between signs and symptoms? |
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| Signs - objective changes in body functions Symptoms - subjective changes in body function |
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| Incidence vs prevalence? |
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| Incidence is the number of new cases contracted withing a set population during specified period of time Prevalence: total number of people infected within populations at any time |
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| bacteremia vs septicemia |
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| bacteremia : transient bacteria in blood septicemia: growth/multiplication of bacateria in blood |
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| What type of infection (primary, secondary, subclinical) is HIV and West Nile Virus? |
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| Subclinical |
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| Convalescence is ...? |
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| Period of recovery after an infection |
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| What does the term prodromal refer to? |
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| Early, mild, non-speficic symptoms |
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| What is the reservoir for cholera? Tetanus? |
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| Cholera - water tetanus - soil |
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| Tinea capitis is an infection transmitted how? |
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| Indrect contact (fomite) |
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| This bacteria is responsible for causing septic shock. It is a nosocomial infection. What does this term mean? |
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| Pseudomonas aeruginosa Nosocomial - hospital acquired infection |
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| What is the causitive agent for nosocomial UTI's? |
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| Candida albicans |
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| Fibrooptic instruments are a way to transmit a disease from...? |
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| Patient to patient |
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| The term selective toxicity refers to...? |
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| Killing microorganism without harming the host |
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| Isoniazid is an antimicrobial which targets what species? |
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| Mycobacterium |
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| What term refers to an overgrowth of the normal flora? |
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| Superinfection |
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| How does penicillin act as an antimicrobial? |
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| By inhibiting cell wall synthesis |
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| Augmentin contains penicillin and clavulanic acid, what is the purpose of the clavulanic acid? |
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| It inhibits B-lactamase from cleaving the B-lactam ring |
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| How does a cephalosporin act as an antimicrobial? |
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| Inhibits cell wall synthesis |
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| True or False: Vancomycin is used against gram negative organisms |
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| False Only effective against gram positive |
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| How is vancomycin an antimicrobial? |
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| Inhibits cell wall synthesis |
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| Isoiazid acts as an antimicrobial by...? |
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| Inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis |
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| How do aminoglycosides act as antimicrobials? |
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| inhibit protein synthesis by preventing tRNA from binding to 30s ribosomes |
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| What two antibiotics are considered aminoglycosides? |
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| streptomycin and gentamicin |
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| Tetracyclines act as antimicrobials by...? |
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| Inhibiting protein synthesis by preventing tRNA from binding to 30S ribosomes |
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| How do tetracyclines differ from aminoglycosides? |
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| Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic Aminoglycosides are bacteriocidal |
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| Chloramphenicol acts as an antimicrobial by...? Bacteriocidal or static? |
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| Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S subunit of ribosome Bacteriostatic |
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| A macrolide (antimicrobial) is an alternative to what? |
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| Penicillin |
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| Erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin are all part of what group of antimicrobials? |
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| Macrolides |
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| How do macrolides act as antimicrobials? |
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| Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosome subunit |
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| What type of antimicrobial works by injuring the plasma membrane? |
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| polymyxins |
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| How does Rifampin act as an antimicrobial? |
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| Inhibiting synthesis of mRNA |
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| The antibiotic most likely to be used against pseudomonas infections is? |
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| Ciprofloxacin |
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| How do quinolones act as antimicrobials? |
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| inhibit DNA gyrase |
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| Antibiotics ending in _________ are part of the group quinolones? |
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| -acin |
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| What type of antibiotic works by blocking folic acid synthesis? |
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| sulfonamides |
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| TMP-SMZ is an antibiotic of what category? |
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| sulfonamides |
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| amphotericin B works by...? |
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| binding to ergosterol in fungal plasma membranes |
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| Triazoles work by...? |
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| interfering with sterol synthesis |
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| Terinafines work by...? |
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| interfering with sterol synthesis (different than triazoles) |
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| Griseofulvin, a class of anti-fungals, works by...? |
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| inhibiting fungal reproduction by blocking microtubule assembly and interfering with mitosis |
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| Herpesvirus infections are treated with what types of antivirals? |
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| Those ending in -ovir ancyclovir, valacyclovir, etc |
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| The antiviral drug category, amantadine, works by...? |
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| preventing penetration of cell by virus |
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| The antiviral drug, zanamivir or oseltamivir, works by...? |
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| inhibiting neuraminidase |
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| The HIV drug zidovudine and didanosine work by...? |
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| blocking activity of reverse transcriptase of HIV |
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| The HIV drug indinavir and saquinavir work by...? |
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| Inhibiting HIV protease activity |
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| The HIV drug Enfuvirtide works by...? |
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| Inhibiting fusion of HIV to its receptor on host cell |
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| A parenteral route of infection is one where the pathogen enters from...? |
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| Breaks in the skin |
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| What is the gram reaction of an organism which produces an exotoxin? |
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| Gram positive |
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| What is the most lethal type of substance known? |
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| Exotoxins |
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| The Diphtheria toxin is dangerous because it inhibits what human process? |
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| protein synthesis of eukaryotic cells |
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| Diphtheria toxin has two polypeptides, A and B. What does each do? |
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| A - active portion of toxin B - binding portion |
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| Endotoxins are cause by what type of gram bacteria? |
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| Gram negative bacteria |
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| How does an endotoxin get into the system? |
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| Gram negative bacteria die and the cell walls undergo lysis, thus releasing the endotoxin into the blood stream |
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| What is the portal of exit for the following TB HSV-1 Polio Food-borne illness STD HIV Hepatitis Malaria |
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| HSV-1 - mouth TB - mouth and nose Polio - feces Food-borne illness - feces STDs - gonadal secretions HIV - gonadal secretions, blood Hepatitis - blood Malaria - blood (only by vector) |
