Flashcards on Test on MicroBiology Exam 2

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question
Which of the following genetic elements is transcribed into a single mRNA?
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The structural Gene
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Which operons are always transcribed unless deactivated?
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Repressible Operons
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Which operons are never transcribed unless activated?
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Inducible Operons
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Where on the DNA does a repressor bind?
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The operator
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What are the products of semiconservative replication for a double-stranded DNA molecule?
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Two Double- stranded DNA molecules each w/ 1 parent and 1 daughter strand
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Why is DNA replication essential for a cell?
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To copy its DNA to pass to an offspring
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What is the function of the parental DNA in replication?
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Serves as a template for DNA replication
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What characteristic of DNA allows two connected DNA polymerases to synthesize both the leading and lagging strands?
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It is Flexible
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What is the function of the connector proteins?
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They link the leading strand DNA polymerase and the lagging strand DNA polymerase together.
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Which DNA strand is synthesized continuously?
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The Leading strand
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Why is the DNA synthesis of the lagging strand considered discontinuous?
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The synthesis is moving in the opposite direction from the replication fork.
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Transcription produces which RNA?
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mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
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What makes mRNA from the information stored in a DNA template?
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RNA Polymerase
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Ribosomes contain which kind of RNA?
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rRNA
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What RNA is involved in bringing Amino Acids to the ribosomes?
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tRNA
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Which RNA can be translated into a protein?
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mRNA
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What is the inducer molecule in the lac operon?
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Allolactose
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With which genetic region does the repressor protein interact?
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The operator region
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When the cell is not in the presence of lactose, the repressor proteins bind to what?
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the Operator
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What is the basic function of the lac operon?
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To code for enzymes involved in catabolizing lactose.
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In the Lac operon, what genetic element does the RNA polymerase bind?
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The promoter
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_______; The transmission from Parent to Offspring that occurs during cell division?
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Vertical Gene Transmission
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What was found in Griffith's experiment?
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DNA released from dead bacteria entered live bacteria and changed them genetically.
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Deleting or inserting one nucleotide pair in the middle of a gene is an example of what?
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Frameshift Mutation
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What glucose is high; cAMP is _____ and CAP _____ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase _____ bind the lac operator
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Low; Does Not; Does Not
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T/F: Bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes
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False
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T/F: Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those that benefit cells.
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True!
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D
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What are the function of the primers in PCR?
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They provide a 3' end for the DNA polymerase
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In which direction for DNA polymerase synthesize the new DNA strand?
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5' to 3'
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What provides the energy for DNA polymerization in PCR reaction?
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DNAase Triphosphates
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Why is DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus ideal for PCR?
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It can withstand the heat associated with PCR
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How do restriction enzymes cut DNA sequences?
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They cut at Recognition sites with specific sequences
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What attaches the target gene to a desired location?
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DNA Ligase
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Foreign DNA can be inserted into cells using a variety of different methods. Which method involves the formation of microscopic pores in the cell's membrane?
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Electroporation
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Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a
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Vector
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T/F: The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.
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False
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Define: Biotechnology
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The use of microorganisms, cells or cell components to make a product
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Define: Genetic Engineering
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Making microorganisms make chemicals they normally do not make by inserting genes using rDNA
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Define: Vector (genetic engineering)
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Used to insert genes into a cell's DNA
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What kind of vector is needed to insert genes?
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Self-replicating
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What are the steps to creating a bacterium expressing a gene of your choice?
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1. Choose Gene if interest
2. PCR
3. Insert gene into vector
4. Insert Vector into Bacteria
5. Verify uptake
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What are the PCR steps?
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1. DNA melted into two ssDNA
2.Add Forward and Reverse Primers, DNA Polymerase, dNTP, and nucleic acids
3. Primers bind, and DNA polymerase copies
4. Repeat!
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What are the two steps you can use to insert a vector into bacteria
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Transformation and Electroporation
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What process is used if a cell is not competent?
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Transformation
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Define: Electroporation
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Using electricity to make small holes or pores in cells that plasmids can travel into
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What are the two methods to make sure vectors were inserted into the DNA?
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1. Grow cells with antibiotic resistant markers on antibiotic plates
2. Blue-White screening
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Why is E Coli a bad choice?
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Doesn't release proteins, have to break them open and releases LPS and contaminates the proteins.
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Define: Sequencing
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Determination of the sequences of bases in a piece of DNA (up to the whole genome)
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Define: Restriction Enzyme
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Recognize short sequences of DNA and cuts them out with sticky ends in the same place.
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How large are viruses?
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20-1000nm
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What are the basic components of a virus?
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D/RNA (never both), Protein coat, specialized structures to transfer D/RNA to other cells
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What do viruses need to replicate?
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Host cell machinery
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Define: Specificity
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Infecting certain hosts (and often certain cells within a host)
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Specificity is mediated by what?
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Receptor/ Attachment sites on the host cell and virus
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What is an example os a virus that can move between groups of organisms?
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Influenza, (pigs birds and humans)
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What are viruses called that only infect bacteria?
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Phage/ bacteriophage
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Define: VSV
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Vesicular Stomatitis
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What virus is restricted to the cytoplasm (causing cytopathology) and is a disease of horses cattle and pigs many other wild species and humans?
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VSV
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What virus is used to "eat" cancer
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VSV
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Define: Virion
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A single complete (full developed) infectious viral particle
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Define: Provirus
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A virus that is incorporated into the chromosome
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Define: Capsid
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Coat composed of capsomere proteins
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What are the capsomere arrangements that are used to differentiate viruses?
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Helical, Polyhederal, Enveloped, Non enveloped, and complex.
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Define: Envelope
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An additional coat surrounding the capsid
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Define: Spikes
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Coated with distinctive carbohydrate-protein complexes.
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What are the functions of spikes?
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Assist in cell adhesion and can also allow viruses to cause blood cell clumping.
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Define: In Vitro
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"In glass"
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To grow viruses what cells can be provided in vitro for growth?
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For Animal infecting viruses: fertilized chicken eggs
OR
HeLa cells, a typical human culture (die after <100 gen.)
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All Phage can do a _____ cycle; but only dsDNA can do a _____ cycle.
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Lytic; lysogenic
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All phages have to do which cycle to transfer to a new host?
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Lytic
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What are the steps to the Lytic cycle?
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1. Virus attaches
2. Injects DNA
3. Cell produces viral proteins
4. viral components are made into virions
5. Host cell lyses; virions are released.
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Which phage is used in the lytic cycle?
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T4 phage
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What is required for a virus to undergo the lysogenic cycle?
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the virus has to have dsDNA
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How can viruses be helpful to humans?
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Human treatment; phage infection can be used to target bacterial infection. "Cancer eating"
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What are the steps to the lysogenic cycle?
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1. Attachment to host
2. Virus D/RNA enters lysogenic cycle
3. Viral D/RNA integrates w/ host chromosome
4. Host cell replicates
5. Viral D/RNA excises from chromosome and goes lytic
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Define: Specialized Transduction
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When the viral DNA takes a piece of the host chromosome with it.
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Define: Prophage
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Phage DNA inserted into the host chromosome
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What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic cycles?
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Lysis cut up host DNA and lyses cell
Lysogenic incorporates the phage into host DNA
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What are the steps to Animal Virus replication?
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1. Attachment
2. Penetration and uncoating
3. Biosynthesis
4. Maturation
5. Release (budding or cell death)
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What steps are the same for Animal virus and phage replication?
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Attachment and maturation
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Define: Retrovirus
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carries one enzyme called reverse transcriptase
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What is the function of reverse transcriptase?
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Turns RNA into dsDNA
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What is the primary treatment against retroviruses?
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inhibit reverse transcriptase
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Define: Oncovirus
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add or activate oncogenes
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Define: Oncogene
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A gene that when mutated or expressed causes a normal cell to become a tumor cell
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What kind of DNA is required to become oncogenic?
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dsDNA
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Define: Latent
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Virus remains in asymptomatic host cell for long periods
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Define: Chronic
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Disease process occurs over a long period of time
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Define: Viroids
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Short stretches of naked RNA, don't code for proteins, and reproduce themselves.
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Define: Prions
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One single type of protein that cause encephalopathies
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The accumulation of what cause distinctive lesions in the brain?
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Prions
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Which is more "dangerous" latent or chronic?
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Chronic! (Latent doesn't always have outbursts)
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Do Viroids cause human disease?
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Nope! Only infect plants
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What is the normal prion and function?
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PrpC; Roles in sleep physiology and renewal of hematopoietic Stem cell
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What is important in the transmissibility of prions?
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sequence similarity
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What is the treatment of prion diseases?
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There is none!
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What is the sporadic spongiform encephalitis disease?
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CJD
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What is the horizontally transmissible spongiform encephalitis diseases?
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vCJD, BSE, CWD, Scrapie
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Genetically spongiform encephalitis diseases?
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Fatal Familial Insomnia
Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome
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Define: Taxonomy
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Categories of organisms that show the relatedness between them through evolution.
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Define: Phylogeny
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The study of the evolutionary history of an organism
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The placement of an organism in a domain relies on the relatedness of what?
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rRNA
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Define: Strain
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A group of cells derived from a single cell
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Define: Serovar
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Strains with different antigens and antigenic properties
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When do you classify, or identify?
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Classification is done the first time something is encountered and ID is done from an already known list of classifications
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What are the characteristics and tests done to ID an unknown microorganism?
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Morphology, Differential staining, biochemical testing and Dichotomous Key, and oxygen
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What is Serology?
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Three tests done to that show differentiation based on serum
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What are the three tests with serology?
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Slide Agglutination, ELISA and Western Blotting
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What are the DNA techniques?
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Fingerprinting, PCR and Hybridization
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How does DNA fingerprinting work?
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RE's recognize and cut at specific DNA sequences and the frequency of cut sites to a variety of enzymes are compared
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Which ID techniques would you use to find viruses in DNA?
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Polymerase Chain reaction
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How does Polymerase chain reaction work?
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synthesize small fragments of DNA in the LAB using the DNA of organism as a template
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What are the steps in Nucleic Acid Hybridization
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1. Heat and separate DNA
2. Add DNA from known organism
3. Determine the level of annealing or binding together
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Define: Chemoheterotrophic
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Cannot use CO2 to make organic compounds and cannot photosynthesize
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What is the study of fungus?
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mycology
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Characteristics of yeasts
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unicellular, divide by budding and facultative anaerobes
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Characteristics of molds
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Multicellular, extend hyphae, obligate anaerobes
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Most of what is visible in molds and fleshy fungi is the body, or...
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thallus
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The thallus is composed of multiple what?
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hyphae
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What is the mass of hyphae grown by molds?
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Mycelium
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What do molds use to produce asexually?
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Spores
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What are the molds that have lost the ability to reproduce called?
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Anamorphs
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What are Dimorphic fungi?
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Can exist as yeasts or molds
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What are fungal infections called?
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Mycoses
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Fungal Toxin- Aflatozin is produced by which fungus and is found where?
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Aspergillus spp. found in soil and on crops, and penut butter
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Fungal Toxin- Ergot is produced by which fungus and is found where?
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Claviceps pupurea found in rye and causes LSD effects
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Define: Cutaneous mycoses
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growth on skin nails or hair
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Define: Subcutaneous mycoses
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below skin to subcutaneous connective tissue and bone tissue.
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Define: Systemic mycoses
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able to infect internal organs
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What is Ergosterol and what effects it?
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The fungal cells cholesterol, and antifungal make the membrane less fluid and the contents spill out
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What is a Glucan Synthesis Inhibitor?
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Glucan is important in the cell wall and block 1,3-beta glucan synthase
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Define: Definitive host
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harbors parasite as it reaches sexual maturity
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Define: Intermediate Host
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Required for parasite development
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Define: Paratenic Host
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only holds parasite until it can be transferred to another host
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Define: Reservoir Host
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Any animal that harbors a parasit which can be transmitted to a human
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Internal Parasites are called what?
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Endoparasite
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Parasites on the outside of the surface of the host is called what?
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Ectoparasite
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Define: Coelozoic
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Living in hollow organ
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Define: histozoic
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living in tissues
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If a parasite is obligate what does it require?
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a host for most of their life
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What is it if a parasite is facultative?
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Lives without a host unless accidentally introduced
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Define: Vectors (microbiology)
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Marcoparasites that transmit diseases (mosquito and malaria)
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Can occur through ingestion of dormant cysts in contaminated water or food
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Giardia lamblia
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"brain eating amoeba"
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Naegleria fowleri
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Caused by transmission from the "kissing bug"
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American typanosomiasis
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Platyhelminthes, absorb nutrients through their non-living outer cover called what?
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cuticle
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A Head equipped with suckers and hooks for attachment
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Scolex
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Containing male and female organs
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monoecious
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Male and Female are seperate
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dioecious
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These hemiliths live their whole lives in human hosts
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pinworms
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Proteins which promote gene transcription
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Inducer proteins
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Proteins which decrease gene transcription
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Repressor proteins
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