Microbiology Ch 18 – Flashcards
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What does a vaccine contain? A. T cells against a pathogen B. Live active pathogens C. Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen D. B cells against a pathogen
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C. Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen
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When a person has previously been vaccinated against a viral pathogen, which cells are activated if that same pathogen re-enters the host's cells months or years later? A. Memory cytotoxic T cells B. Bacterial pathogens C. Memory B cells D. Helper T cells
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A. Memory cytotoxic T cells
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What is the primary benefit of vaccination? A. Unvaccinated persons can never mount an immune response to a pathogen. B. Vaccines provide antibodies against the pathogen that persist forever in the body. C. An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen. D. Vaccinated persons get used to the symptoms of a disease.
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C. An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen.
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Which type of vaccine could possibly cause a person to develop the disease? A. Inactivated killed vaccine B. Toxoid vaccine C. Toxoid vaccine and inactivated killed vaccine D. Attenuated live vaccine
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D. Attenuated live vaccine
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What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine? A. They contain only the non-pathogenic elements of a pathogen, not the entire cell. B. These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein. C. They contain the DNA from a pathogenic virus.
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B. These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein.
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The influenza vaccine is an example of a(n) A. conjugated vaccine. B. inactivated killed vaccine. C. toxoid vaccine. D. DNA vaccine.
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B. inactivated killed vaccine.
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What is the function of boosters? A. Boosters are the highly antigenic portions of the conjugated vaccines. B. Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity. C. Boosters help to kill the pathogens used in inactivated killed vaccines. D. Boosters are vaccines containing no pathogenic portions of the pathogen.
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B. Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity.
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The Hepatitis B vaccine is which type of vaccine? A. DNA vaccine B. Inactivated killed vaccine C. Subunit vaccine D. Toxoid vaccine
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C. Subunit vaccine
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BCG is a vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The vaccine is composed of a live Mycobacterium bovis variant called bacillus of Calmette and Guérin. This is an example of which type of vaccine? A. attenuated whole agent vaccine B. inactivated whole agent vaccine C. subunit vaccine D. toxoid vaccine
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A. attenuated whole agent vaccine
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To vaccinate children against the bacterial infection diphtheria, pure diphtheria toxin is chemically modified and injected as a vaccine. This is an example of which type of vaccine? A. attenuated whole agent vaccine B. inactivated whole agent vaccine C. subunit vaccine D. toxoid vaccine
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D. toxoid vaccine
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Patients can receive one of two different types of influenza vaccine, both of which use whole viruses. The nasal spray uses live virus and is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine, while the injection uses killed virus and is an example of a(n)___________ vaccine. A. attenuated whole agent, subunit B. subunit, attenuated whole agent C. inactivated whole agent, attenuated whole agent D. attenuated whole agent, inactivated whole agent
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D. attenuated whole agent, inactivated whole agent
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Which of the following best describes vaccination? A. An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the adaptive immune system is stimulated to produce memory B cells and memory T cells, which protect from subsequent exposures. B. An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the body has an inflammatory response, which protects the individual from subsequent exposures. C. An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures because the body produces macrophages that live a long time and can remember the pathogen. D. An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the innate immune system is stimulated.
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A. An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the adaptive immune system is stimulated to produce memory B cells and memory T cells, which protect from subsequent exposures.
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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using live attenuated vaccines? A. They often do not require boosters. B. They often produce a more complete type of immunity that includes both humoral and cell-mediated components. C. They are usually safer than other types of vaccines. D. They are usually highly effective.
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C. They are usually safer than other types of vaccines.
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What is an adjuvant? A. a chemical additive that increases the effectiveness of vaccines B. a vaccine that contains only nucleic acids C. a chemical additive that increases the safety of vaccines D. a molecule physically linked to another molecule to stimulate antibody production
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A. a chemical additive that increases the effectiveness of vaccines
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I have a new test for determining whether a patient is infected with the influenza virus. It is very specific but not very sensitive. What does this mean? A. False-positives and false-negatives will happen with high frequency. B. Both false-positives and false-negatives will be rare. C. False-positives will be rare, but false-negatives may happen frequently. D. False-positives will happen frequently, but false-negatives will be rare.
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C. False-positives will be rare, but false-negatives may happen frequently.
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You are conducting a viral hemagglutination inhibition test. Which of the following indicates that a patient's serum has antibodies against influenza virus? A. Hemagglutination does not occur in a mixture of influenza virus and erythrocytes but does occur when the patient's serum is added. B. Hemagglutination occurs in a mixture of influenza virus and erythrocytes but does not occur when the patient's serum is added. C. Hemagglutination occurs in a mixture of influenza virus and erythrocytes and also occurs when the patient's serum is added. D. An antigen-antibody reaction will occur, resulting in precipitation.
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B. Hemagglutination occurs in a mixture of influenza virus and erythrocytes but does not occur when the patient's serum is added.
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Which of the following is NOT a reason why monoclonal antibodies (Mabs) are useful? A. They can be produced in large quantities. B. They are highly specific. C. They are always highly sensitive. D. They are uniform.
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C. They are always highly sensitive.
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__________ reactions are used to detect antibodies for relatively large pathogens, such as bacteria. For these tests, the antigen is mixed with the test sample at various dilutions. Reaction mixes are then monitored for the formation of visible aggregates. A. Precipitation B. Western blotting C. ELISA D. Agglutination
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D. Agglutination
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Direct fluorescent-antibody techniques are frequently used to __________. A. detect soluble antigens via the formation of aggregates B. produce monoclonal antibodies C. detect microorganisms in a clinical sample D. detect antibodies in a clinical sample
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C. detect microorganisms in a clinical sample
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What is the purpose of conjugated vaccines? A. to provide protection against toxins B. to provide enhanced immune response by mimicking a real infection C. to provide protection against viruses D. to enhance the immune response of children to polysaccharide antigens
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D. to enhance the immune response of children to polysaccharide antigens
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Western blotting is best used for which of the following? A. to detect RNA fragments with specific nucleotide sequences B. to detect a specific protein in a mixture C. to detect DNA fragments with specific nucleotide sequences D. to detect very low amounts of nonprecipitating antibody in a sample
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B. to detect a specific protein in a mixture
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The earliest vaccinations were against smallpox. Which of the following statements about the history of smallpox vaccinations is FALSE? A. The earliest vaccinations were called variolations and protected people from smallpox by inoculating them with smallpox matter. B. Edward Jenner inoculated people with cowpox in an attempt to protect them from smallpox. C. Proteins from dairy cows were injected into people to protect them from smallpox. D. Chinese physicians prevented smallpox disease by having children inhale dried smallpox scabs.
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C. Proteins from dairy cows were injected into people to protect them from smallpox. The earliest vaccinations involved inoculating individuals with material from smallpox pustules. This process, named variolation, became popular in eighteenth-century England and protected individuals from subsequent exposure to smallpox. The mortality rate associated with this procedure was about 1%, which was much lower than the 50% mortality rate associated with the actual disease. Years later, Edward Jenner modified the process by inoculating people with cowpox in order to protect them from smallpox. The term vaccination was coined to honor Jenner's accomplishments. Two centuries later, vaccinations have eliminated smallpox worldwide!
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Which of the following is a basic type of vaccine? Select all that apply. - subunit vaccine - antitoxin vaccines - live, attenuated vaccine - nucleic acid vaccines
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- subunit vaccine - live, attenuated vaccine - nucleic acid vaccines As technology increases our understanding of the immune response, more efficient vaccines are being developed. Live attenuated vaccines use weakened pathogens to stimulate an immune response. This type of vaccine more closely resembles a true infection. Inactivated killed vaccines use microbes that have been killed, thus making them considerably safer than live vaccines. Subunit vaccines use antigenic pieces from the microorganisms to stimulate an immune response. These vaccines are created using recombinant DNA technology. Conjugated vaccines use proteins combined to polysaccharide fragments of the pathogen to stimulate the immune response. The proteins are necessary for a response because without them, the polysaccharides (usually capsules) are not immunogenic and will not result in an immune response. DNA vaccines are still relatively new and are based on plasmids injected into the individual. The DNA is then transcribed and translated to produce antigenic proteins from the pathogen. This technique is effective because it stimulates both humoral and cellular immunity.
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Kelly learns that the diagnosis of HPV may rely on the presence of viral DNA. Other infectious agents can be diagnosed based on immunologic responses. Which of the following represents an immunologic-based diagnostic test? Select all that apply. - precipitation reactions - polymerase chain reaction (PCR) - agglutination reactions - fluorescent-antibody techniques
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- precipitation reactions - agglutination reactions - fluorescent-antibody techniques Immunology has given us many invaluable diagnostic tools, most of which are based on interactions of humoral antibodies with antigens. A known antibody can be used to identify an unknown pathogen by its reaction with it. Inversely, a known pathogen can be used to test whether or not an individual has immunity to the pathogen based on antibodies found in the patient's blood. Precipitation reactions, such as immunodiffusion or immunoelectrophoresis, occur when the ratio of antigen to antibody is optimal. The antibodies and antigen will complex to form lattice structures that are visible as a precipitate. Agglutination reactions are similar and involve particulate antigens. When antibodies react with antigens on neighboring cells, they agglutinate and form a visible reaction. Fluorescent-antibody techniques can be used to identify microorganisms in clinical specimens and can detect the presence of antibody in serum. These techniques combine fluorescent dyes with antibodies that make them fluoresce when exposed to UV light. Other immunologic-based tests include neutralization reactions, complement-fixation reactions, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and Western blotting. These techniques are helpful when a rapid diagnosis is required.
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Why is it necessary to give the HPV vaccine in multiple doses? A. The viral DNA used in the vaccine needs a long time to integrate into the host genome and elicit an immune response. B. Vaccines for viruses must be given in multiple doses because the viral particles are not very immunogenic. C. Three doses of the HPV vaccine are given to elicit both a humoral and a cell-mediated response. D. DNA vaccines are not very stable; therefore, multiple doses must be given to ensure an immune response.
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C. Three doses of the HPV vaccine are given to elicit both a humoral and a cell-mediated response. DNA vaccines are effective at stimulating both a humoral response and a cell-mediated response because the DNA is transcribed and translated to produce proteins. These proteins are carried to the red bone marrow, where they stimulate both arms of the immune system, thus leading to an increased immunologic memory.
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The development of vaccines is considered the single most important application of immunology. What are the benefits associated with vaccinations? Select all that apply. - control of viral disease - herd immunity - eradication of disease - protection during travels
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- control of viral disease - herd immunity - eradication of disease - protection during travels A vaccine is a suspension of organisms or fractions of organisms that is used to induce immunity. Vaccinations are valuable tools at both the individual and the population level. The population is protected via herd immunity, which happens when enough individuals are immune to a disease to prevent a spread of epidemics. Many common childhood illnesses are caused by viruses. Unlike bacterial infections, which can be treated with antibiotics, viruses are difficult to treat once they have been contracted. For viral infections, therefore, prevention is the best method. The use of vaccines as preventive measure for smallpox allowed for its eradication in 1979. Measles and polio have been targeted as the next viral infections to be eradicated through the use of vaccinations. Another beneficial use of vaccines is to protect individuals who travel to areas where certain infectious diseases are endemic. A person who has no prior immunity to a disease that is not endemic to his or her home location may contract it. Thus, public health officials recommend that travelers protect themselves by obtaining the necessary immunizations before they leave on their trip. No one likes to have an infection or a disease, so why not prevent the ones we can?
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All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT A. antibodies. B. parts of bacterial cells. C. live, attenuated bacteria. D. toxoids. E. inactivated viruses.
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A. antibodies.
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Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus? A. hemolysis B. hemagglutination C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. hemagglutination-inhibition
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E. hemagglutination-inhibition
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A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The patient may have been vaccinated. B. The patient may have had the disease and has recovered. C. The patient was near someone who had the disease. D. A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies. E. The patient may have the disease.
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C. The patient was near someone who had the disease.
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In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer? 32 1:32 64 6 1:6
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64
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An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test A. detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results. B. detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results. C. detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results. D. detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results. E. detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
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E. detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
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Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing? A. vaccinated animals B. monoclonal antibodies C. viral cultures D. vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies E. vaccinated animals, monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
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D. vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies
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A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n) A. agglutination reaction. B. neutralization reaction. C. immunofluorescence. D. complement fixation. E. precipitation reaction.
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E. precipitation reaction.
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A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n) A. complement fixation. B. precipitation reaction. C. agglutination reaction. D. neutralization reaction. E. immunofluorescence.
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C. agglutination reaction.
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A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen-antibody reaction is called a(n) A. complement fixation. B. precipitation reaction. C. neutralization reaction. D. agglutination reaction. E. immunofluorescence.
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A. complement fixation.
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A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n) A. nucleic acid vaccine. B. subunit vaccine. C. conjugated vaccine. D. attenuated whole-agent vaccine. E. live whole-agent vaccine.
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A. nucleic acid vaccine.
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Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n) A. dendritic cell proliferation. B. antibody response against these bacterial toxins. C. TC cell response. D. antibody response against gram-positive bacteria. E. immune complex.
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B. antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
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The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the A. precipitation test. B. complement-fixation test. C. viral hemagglutination inhibition test. D. indirect agglutination test. E. direct agglutination test.
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C. viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
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What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens? A. subunit vaccine B. conjugated vaccine C. attenuated whole-agent vaccine D. nucleic acid vaccine E. toxoid vaccine
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D. nucleic acid vaccine
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Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n) A. nucleic acid vaccine. B. conjugated vaccine. C. subunit vaccine. D. toxoid vaccine. E. attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
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C. subunit vaccine.
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What type of vaccine is the live measles virus? A. toxoid vaccine B. subunit vaccine C. attenuated whole-agent vaccine D. nucleic acid vaccine E. conjugated vaccine
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C. attenuated whole-agent vaccine
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A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the A. hemagglutination-inhibition test. B. direct agglutination test. C. direct fluorescent-antibody test. D. indirect fluorescent-antibody test. E. direct ELISA test.
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D. indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
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A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the A. indirect fluorescent-antibody test. B. hemagglutination-inhibition test. C. hemagglutination test. D. direct fluorescent-antibody test. E. indirect ELISA test.
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D. direct fluorescent-antibody test.
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A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the direct fluorescent-antibody test. indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
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indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
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Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres? A. direct agglutination reaction B. indirect agglutination reaction C. immunofluorescence D. neutralization reaction E. precipitation reaction
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B. indirect agglutination reaction
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Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antisera? A. direct agglutination reaction B. passive agglutination reaction C. immunofluorescence D. neutralization reaction E. precipitation reaction
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A. direct agglutination reaction
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Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva? A. direct agglutination reaction B. passive agglutination reaction C. immunofluorescence D. neutralization reaction E. precipitation reaction
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E. precipitation reaction
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A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an) A. antigen with a B cell. B. myeloma cell with a virus. C. antigen with an antibody. D. B cell with a myeloma cell. E. B cell with a T cell.
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D. B cell with a myeloma cell.
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Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n) A. conjugated vaccine. B. subunit vaccine. C. nucleic acid vaccine. D. inactivated whole-agent vaccine. E. toxoid vaccine.
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E. toxoid vaccine.
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A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n) A. conjugated vaccine. B. subunit vaccine. C. nucleic acid vaccine. D. inactivated whole-agent vaccine. E. toxoid vaccine.
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B. subunit vaccine.
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A patients serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium? A. Hemagglutination occurs. B. No hemolysis occurs. C. Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs. D. Bacteria fluoresce. E. Hemolysis occurs.
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B. No hemolysis occurs.
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Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n) A. monoclonal antibody. B. immunosuppressive. C. vaccine. D. toxoid. E. nucleoside analog.
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A. monoclonal antibody.
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Live polio virus can be used in a(n) A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C. conjugated vaccine. D. subunit vaccine. E. toxoid vaccine.
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B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
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Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n) A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C. conjugated vaccine. D. subunit vaccine. E. toxoid vaccine.
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C. conjugated vaccine.
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Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n) A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C. conjugated vaccine. D. subunit vaccine. E. toxoid vaccine.
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A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
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Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n) A. inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine. C. conjugated vaccine. D. subunit vaccine. E. toxoid vaccine.
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D. subunit vaccine.
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In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patients urine, what is the third step in the test process? A. the patients urine sample B. substrate for the enzyme C. enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested D. antibody against the drug being tested
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C. enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested
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Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test? A. antigen B. antibodies against the antigen C. substrate for the enzyme D. antihuman immune serum
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A. antigen
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Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies? A. direct fluorescent-antibody B. indirect ELISA C. complement fixation D. agglutination E. neutralization
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B. indirect ELISA
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Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies? A. agglutination B. precipitation C. flow cytometry D. neutralization E. complement fixation
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C. flow cytometry
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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents? A. They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. B. They elicit lifelong immunity. C. The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection. D. They occasionally revert to virulent forms. E. They require few or no booster immunizations.
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D. They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
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In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is in the second well? A. antibodies B. red blood cells C. mycelia D. fungal cells E. a fungal antigen
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E. a fungal antigen
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In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this? A. an agglutination reaction B. an ELISA test C. a complement-fixation test D. a precipitation reaction E. a direct test
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D. a precipitation reaction
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Which of the following statments about measles is FALSE? A. It is preventable by vaccination. B. Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death. C. The disease has been eradicated in the United States. D. Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide. E. It is a serious disease.
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C. The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
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Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses. True False
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True
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In a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does NOT replicate. True False
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False
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An injection of naked DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine. True False
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False
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Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses. True False
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True
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The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA. True False
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True
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Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins. True False
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True
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A highly specific diagnostic test will have very few false negative reactions. True False
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False
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Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens. True False
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True
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Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Patient A 0 0 256 512 Patient B 128 256 512 1024 Patient C 0 0 0 0 Patient D 128 128 128 128 In the table, who probably has the disease? A. Patients C and D B. Patients A and B C. Patients B and C D. Patients A and C E. Patients A and D
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B. Patients A and B
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Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Patient A 0 0 256 512 Patient B 128 256 512 1024 Patient C 0 0 0 0 Patient D 128 128 128 128 In the table, who is most likely protected from the disease? Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D
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Patient D
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Antibody Titer Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21 Patient A 0 0 256 512 Patient B 128 256 512 1024 Patient C 0 0 0 0 Patient D 128 128 128 128 In the table, who showed seroconversion during these observations? Patient A Patient B Patient C Patient D
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Patient A
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Which component in the figure came from the patient in this ELISA test? a b c d e
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b
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The figure is an illustration of a(an) A. complement fixation test. B. precipitation test. C. hemagglutination test. D. indirect ELISA test. E. direct ELISA test.
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D. indirect ELISA test.
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Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they A. are highly specific. B. can be produced in large quantities. C. contain a mixture of antibodies. D. are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities. E. are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of antibodies.
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D. are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
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The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step? A. Culture the hybridoma. B. Isolate antibody-producing B cells. C. Vaccinate a mouse. D. A B cell is activated to produce antibodies. E. Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
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E. Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
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Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions. True False
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True
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A positive complement-fixation test in indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test. True False
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False
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What is the function of myeloma cells used in the production of monoclonal antibodies? A. They produce large quantities of antibodies. B. They produce a large variety of antibodies. C. They are immortal cells capable of continuous growth.
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C. They are immortal cells capable of continuous growth.
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Which step in the production of monoclonal antibodies must necessarily precede all other steps in the process? A. The spleen of a mouse is removed and homogenized. B. A specific antigen is used to induce production of a specific antibody. C. Myeloma cells must be fused to antibody producing cells.
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B. A specific antigen is used to induce production of a specific antibody.
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Monoclonal antibodies: A. are produced normally in the human body B. are not yet available to the public and are still being developed C. can attach to a target cell while carrying a diagnostic marker or anticellular toxin
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C. can attach to a target cell while carrying a diagnostic marker or anticellular toxin
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The body produces a specific ANTIBODY in response to a specific antigen. When cancerous B cells are fused with antibody producing normal B cells, a HYBRIDOMA is obtained.
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Antibodies that are produced in vitro by a clone of B cells hybridized with cancer cells are MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES. B cells that become cancerous are called MYELOMAS.
