MDLS Final – Flashcards
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A pt states that she has heard that the origin of most CA is "genetic". What is the best response?
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"CA arise in cells that have alterations in the genes"
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Which of these qualities is common to CA cells?
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They continue to grow even when surrounded by other cells
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By which process does "initiation" assist in CA development?
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Inflicting mutations at specific sites on the exposed cell's DNA
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Which statement best describes the role of tumor suppressor genes in CA development?
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Tumor suppressor genes control or modify the activity of oncogenes, reducing the risk for CA development
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What is the result of a mutation occurring in a suppressor gene?
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Loss of an existing function
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Which statement regarding general CA development is true?
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The risk for CA development increases with age
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Why are people who have poor DNA repair mechanisms at greater risk for CA development?
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Their somatic mutations are more likely to be permanent
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What is the thought to be the usual function of a normal BRCA1 gene?
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Suppresses the growth potential of a variety of oncogene
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How does an acquired mutation in a somatic cell gene leading to CA development affect a person's ability to pass on a predisposition for that CA type to his or her children?
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There is no risk of passing on a CA predisposition from a somatic cell mutation
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Which feature is associated exclusively w/ sporadic CA?
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It occurs at the same frequency within an extended family as in the general population
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Which characteristic(s) is/are associated w/ an inherited predisposition for a CA type?
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CA tend to appear at an earlier age than do "sporadic" CA
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Juliet tells a nurse that she has 3 UNTS (2 on her father's side, ages 42 and 56, and one on her mother's side, age 62) who were dx w/ breast CA. She asks if she should have genetic testing. What should the nurse tell her?
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"your family hx may indicate an increased risk for breast CA and a genetic counselor could help determine whether you could benefit from genetic testing."
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What type of genetic test provides info. about an asymptomatic person's risk for having a child with a specific autosomal recessive disorder in the future?
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carrier test
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What genetic/genomic issues influence individual variation of the response to a specific drug?
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Polymorphisms of genes encoding metabolizing enzymes
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The issue of pharmacogenetics test info. depends on all of the following except...
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Type of drug receptors identified
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What would be the pt's response to a normal drug dose that because of a genetic variation in an enzyme that prepares the drug for elimination results in a blood drug level that is below the minimum effective concentration (MEC)?
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The intended response fails to be produced
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Which statement by a newly licensed nurse would indicate to the nurse manager a need for additional info. about pharmacogenetics and pharmacogenomics?
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"Pharmacogenomics focuses on how an individual's genetic makeup will alter their response to medications"
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A pt is ID as an ultra-rapid metabolizer for drugs that are prepared for elimination by CYP2D6. What effect will this have on the pts ability to benefit from any active drug that is metabolized by this enzyme?
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Both intended responses and side effects decrease
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A pt has a very high concentration of insulin receptors on cells that require insulin for glucose to enter. How should insulin dosage be adjusted for this pt to have blood glucose levels WNL?
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Insulin dosage should be decreased because the drug will exert its actions at lower concentrations
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Oncogenes act ______; one copy of the gene _______, regardless of whether or not there is a normal, unactivated copy of the homologous chromosome.
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Dominantly, make the cell express the altered phenotype
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A hospital has implemented a policy whereby parental consent is required before a PKU test is dawn. The lab tech. says, "I don't see why we need a special consent for a PKU. It is a blood test just like a potassium level." How should the nurse respond?
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"PKU is a genetic test, which is different from a simple electrolyte level."
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Which gene is useful index and managing colon CA infamilies w/ familial adenomatous polyposis?
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APC
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Which of the following is not a reason to suggest prenatal dx by amniocentesis?
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Maternal age less that 35 years old
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2 methods of prenatal dx is genetic abnormalities involve analysis of fetal tissues and visualization of the fetus. Which of the following is a means by which we can analyze fetal tissue?
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Two of the above (Chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis)
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At a woman's first prenatal appointment, the nurse draws blood for prenatal screening that includes genetic testing. What info. should the nurse provide?
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"This sample will tell us about your current health and whether we need to watch for any genetic in your baby"
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Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)...
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Exist every 100 bases along the human genome
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The anti-CA drug Herceptin...
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Shows the best response in women who over express the HER2 protein
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Most complex diseases are...
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Multifactorial
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2 genes used to predict appropriate doses of warfarin are...
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VKORC1 and CYP2C9
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Prenatal testing revels a genotype associated with mental retardation. What info. should the nurse consider when talking to the parents?
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The genotype cannot accurately describe the child's phenotype
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Important considerations when recognizing and identifying a genetic concern include all of the following except
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All of the above are valid
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A 42 year old woman is pregnant for the first time. She says "I don't want any prenatal genetic testing. I don't want to know." How should the nurse respond?
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Support this choice if it is an informed decision.
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Women who have clotting factor polymorphisms can increase the risk of developing blood clots by...
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Taking oral contraceptives
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Which of the following types of genetic testing will confirm that the individual will eventually develop the disease if she or he lives long enough?
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Presymptomatic
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Red flags that suggest inherited predisposition for CA include all of the following except...
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Evidence for rapid metastasis among multiple individuals with CA
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A woman w/ a family hx of breast CA gene mutations is tested for variations in BRCA1 or BRCA2. How would you explain her results?
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If she has a positive result, she has a much greater risk for developing breast CA that the general population
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A pt is identified as an ultra-rapid metabolizer for drugs that are prepared for elimination by CYP2D6. What effect will this have on the pt ability to benefit from any active drug that is metabolized by this enzyme?
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Both intended responses and side effects decrease
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A client asks a nurse how something as small as a gene can change the way a medication works? Which response would not be accurate?
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Genetic changes can make enzymes that will work only on specific medications
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A client was prescribed warfarin starting last week. The genetic testing results returned today indicate the client is a CYP2C9 poor metabolizer. What therapy changes may be indicated?
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The clients status and INR label results should be monitored very closely.
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An Asian American man and his Caucasian wife are both taking warfarin (Coumadin) daily because of atrial fibrillation. Polymorphisms in the CYP2C9 metabolizing enzyme are common in Asians and Asian Americans. The husband asks why he is prescribed a much smaller than average dose of the drug to keep his INR ratio at 2.0 and his wife takes the average dose even though he is taller and heavier than she is. What is the nurse's best response?
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"Many Asian Americans do not break down warfarin as fast as Caucasians, so the drug is more effective at lower dosages."
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which type of genetic testing examines a person's chromosomes for variations in number or structure?
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cytogenetic testing
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when we see a SNP that is different in individuals with a particular disease; one of the things we want to know is, what is the likelihood of seeing a disease with this SNP (i.e., genotype) compared to overall likelihood of seeing the disease in the population. This is referred to as
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increased risk
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a woman whose sister tested positive for a specific mutation in the BRCA1 gene, which increases the risk for breast and ovarian cancer, is found not to have that mutation but does have a mutation of unknown significance near the known mutation site. How should this woman be counseled?
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she should be informed that she does not have the specific mutation but that because another mutation is present she should be vigilant about screening.
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which of the following statements is true concerning genome wide association studies?
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a statistical statement about the co-occurrence of alleles or phenotypes
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a patient whose mother has Huntington's disease is considering genetic testing but is not sure whether she really wants to know if she has the mutation. She asks you what you would do if your mother had the disease. What is your best response?
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"I can only tell you the benefits and the risks of testing, you must make this decision yourself."
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which statement about a "germline" mutation in either a cancer suppressor gene or an oncogene is accurate?
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cancer risk increases but additional mutations are required for cancer development
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a client expresses concern that his employer might obtain and misuse information from recent genetic testing. How should the nurse respond to this concern?
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"your information is protected by the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act"
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a client with breast cancer, who is being treated with tamoxifen (prodrug) has had genetic testing that shows she's a CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolizer. How would the nurse explain this result?
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"your body will break down tamoxifen to its active metabolites very quickly, which increases your ability to fight your cancer."
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under which conditions would genetic testing for predisposition to an inherited disorder in a minor child be considered reasonable?
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when the risk is high and prophylaxis to reduce disorder severity is available
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what group(s) of people is/are specifically protected by the Genetic Information and Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?
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people applying for health insurance who have had predictive genetic testing
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An adult patient comes to the emergency room with a fever, severe headache, and photophobia. A lumbar puncture shows many WBCs and gram positive diplococci. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of his illness?
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Streptococcus pneumonia
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If the patient in the previous question has a lumbar puncture and the CSF shows no WBCs and no organisms, which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of his illness?
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St. Louis encephalitis virus
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If another adult patient with symptoms similar to those described in question 1 has a lumbar puncture and the CSF shows many WBCs and gram negative diplococci, which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of his illness?
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Neisseria meningitidis
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All of the following except__________ are relatively common causes of meningitis.
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Chlamydia pneumonia
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Hemophilus influenza type b meningitis...
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Has decreased in incidence due to the Hib vaccine
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Which one of the following conditions is associated with Clostridium botulinum?
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Blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing and chewing
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Which of the following is/are associated with neonatal meningitis?
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E. Coli and Group B strep
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The ______ controls the substances that can enter the CNS and reverts many potentially toxic metabolites and pathogens from entering the nervous tissue of the CNS.
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Blood-brain barrier
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Antibiotics are of no value in treating tetanus because...
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The signs and symptoms are caused by a toxin, not by the growth of the organism
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Gummas are lesions...
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Associated with tertiary syphilis
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Diseases caused by spirochetal bacteria (spirochetes)
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Often have multiple stages or phases
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Which of the following viruses is associated with human cancer?
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Human papilloma virus (HPV 16)
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Which of the following is a sexually transmitted protozoal disease?
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Trichomoniasis
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Vaginosis in woman of child bearing age results from a decrease in the population of ____ in the vagina and a large increase in________ bacteria.
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Lactobacillus, anaerobic
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Vaginal yeast infections are caused by....
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Candida albicans
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Which of the following is diagnostic of gonorrhea in males?
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Gram-negative diplococci and WBCs in urethral discharge
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Which of the following is/are sign/s of tertiary syphilis?
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Gummas
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A young man presents with burning at urination and a urethral discharge. Which of the following laboratory tests will be most useful?
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Gram stain of discharge and culture
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For the patient in the previous question, the sample you have chosen shows no WBCs and no organisms. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
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Urethritis caused by Chlamydia
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Of the top 10 reported notifiable diseases in the US, 2 are sexually transmitted. Which of the these infections is the most commonly reported?
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Chlamydia
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Females are more likely to develop UTIS...
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Due to the proximity of the urethra to the vagina and the anus, because the urethra is shorter than in males
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The most common cause of cystitis is...
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E. Coli
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A urine culture is reported to have 100,000 mixed organisms/mL. Which of the following is true?
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This result is not considered clinically significant, because these organisms are assumed to represent normal flora from the urethra.
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Which of the following is a human prion disease?
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Variant CJD
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Which one of the following applies to the fungas Crytococcus neoformans?
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The organism grows in the droppings of pigeons
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____ involves a sudden drop in blood pressure and physiological collapse due to multiple organ failure.
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Septic shock
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Listeria is often associated with...
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Refrigerated or frozen foods
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Which of the following problems can be caused by listeria monocytogenes?
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All of the above are possible (Menfitis characterized by headaches, stiff neck, delirium and coma; a blood disease accompanied by high number of infected monocytes; if contracted during pregnancy, the disease may result in miscarriage of the fetus or mental damage to the newborn)
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Which one of the following diseases is not caused by a spore-forming organisms?
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Syphilis
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Which organisms causes puerperal fever, neonatal sepsis, and rheumatic fever?
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Streptococci
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Buboes are lesions associated with what disease?
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Plague
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Which of the following describes the plague bacillus?
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A gram-negative rod with bipolar staining
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The rat flea is important to the transmission of...
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Bubonic plague but not pneumonic plague
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A pt that lives in the northeastern US c/o a growing rash where the lesions looks like a "bulls-eye" and is not itchy like a mosquito bite. Symptoms include fever and other flu like symptoms. Which of the following is the best dx?
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Lyme disease
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Another name for tularemia is?
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Rabbit fever
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Which one of the following is not a method of transmission for brucellosis?
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The bite of a tick
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Erythema chronicum migrans is the distinctive skin lesion associated with...
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Lyme disease
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What 3 symptoms are associated with rickettsial disease?
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Fever, headache, rash
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A woman with a fluctuating fever comes to a physician. She says that every bone in her body feels like it is breaking. Of the following, the pt is most likely to be suffering from....
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Dengue fever
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Which of the following is not transmitted by mosquitoes?
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Tularemia
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The TORCH group of diseases refers to congenital infections. This group includes all except which of the following?
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Rickettsia
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Cytomegalovirus (CMV) poses a threat to pregnant women because it may...
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Cross the placenta and damage fetal tissue
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The protozoan can cause serious problems if a pregnant woman becomes infected. The fetus ay become infected because the parasites pass across the placenta and may cause brain and eye damage, lesions of the visceral organs, or spontaneous abortion. This organism is...
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Toxoplasma gondii
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Which of the folding organism(s) is/are on the CDC list of class A bioterror agents?
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Francisella tularensis; smallpox
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Sulfanilamide is active against these bacteria that
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Synthesize folic acid
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Penicillin is most effective against...
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Rapidly-growing gram (+) bacteria
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All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by...
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Inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis
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The range of activity of tetracyclide antibiotics...
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Is essentially similar to chloramphenicol's range
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If a disease-causing organism produces beta-lactamase, which of the following antibiotics would be the best choice for treatment?
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Vancomycin
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Nystatin is the recommended drug for...
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Candida albicans infections of the intestine or oral cavity
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The agar diffusion method is useful for determining...
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Which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection
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Which of the following could be used to treat herpes simplex?
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Valacyclovir
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In which organelle or cell area are most genes in humans located?
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Nucleus
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What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different expression of the trait coded for by that gene?
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Alleles
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Which chromosome number represents the normal human somatic cells?
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46
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The set of nucleotides in MRNA that encode on amino acid is called a(n):
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codon
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What is the expected result of a "nonsense" point mutation?
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Replacing an amino acid codon with a "stop" codon, resulting in a truncated (shortened) protein product
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An allele that expresses its phenotype even when heterozygous with a recessive allele is termed
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Dominant
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How does an acquired mutation in a somatic cell gene leading to hypercholesterolemia affect a person's ability to pass on a predisposition for that disease to his or her children?
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There is no risk of passing on a cancer predisposition to one's children from a somatic cell mutation
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Nucleotides in DNA consist of which of the following?
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Nitrogen base, deoxyribose, and phosphate
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What mechanisms may explain the difference in symptoms in Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes?
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Genomic imprinting
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What is the relationship among genes, DNA, and proteins?
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A gene is a section of DNA that provides the information for synthesizing a specific protein
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The fundamental physical and functional unit of inheritance that encodes a functional product is
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gene
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When an individual appears to be the first in their family to be affected by a disorder, this is most often due to
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New mutation
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The process of protein synthesis is also called
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translation
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Which statement is true with respect to autosomal dominant transmission of single gene traits?
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The risk for a person who is homozygous for the trait to transmit the trait to his/her children is 100% with each pregnancy
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A girl of normal height is born to 2 parents with the condition achondroplasia, an autosomal dominant trait. People with achondroplasia are very short and have especially disproportionately short arms and legs. What is the probability that any pregnancy this girl eventually has will result in the birth of an infant with achondroplasia if her partner also has normal stature?
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Zero out of four (0%)
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In the usual flow of genetic information (often called the central dogma), which of the following best represents the expression of genes?
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DNA-RNA-protein
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Which statement or factor is true with respect for autosomal recessive transmission of single gene traits?
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About 25% of the members of a large family with an autosomal recessive trait will express the trait
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What is the most obvious expecte3d finding when analyzing a four-generation pedigree for X- linked dominant transmission of a trait?
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Females are affected at the twice rate of males
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What is the expected expression of a trait that has its locus on the Y chromosome?
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Females never inherit the trait
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Which issue is considered a "red flag" for the need for referral to a genetics professional?
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The presence of neurodevelopmental disorders in one or more members of the family
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The (expressed) sequences within genes that code for gene products are called:
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Exons
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Martha has Alzheimer's disease. She and her daughter Melanie provided care for Marth's mother Margaret when she had severe Alzheimer's disease. Now Melanie, age 57, is showing signs of impaired memory. Melanie's daughter Megan is pregnant with her first child and has contacted a genetic counselor to discuss Alzheimer's risk in her family. Who in this family is the proband?
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Megan
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Which demographic information could have an important influence on susceptibility to disorders that have a strong genetic component?
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Ethnicity
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Disorders of this mode of inheritance are sometimes found more commonly in societies that practice consanguinity?
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Autosomal recessive
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When constructing a pedigree around a specific health problem, what is the minimal number of generations needed to accurately assess the presence or absence of a genetic factor in disease development?
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3
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How are Punnett squares and pedigrees different?
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Punnett squares represent genotypes and pedigrees represent phenotypes
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What is the risk for disease expression among the offspring of a woman who has an autosomal recessive disorder when her partner is a carrier for the same disorder?
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All children have a 50% risk for being affected and a 50% risk for being a carrier
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Which observations in a pedigree indicate a probable autosomal dominant trait transmission?
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Affected males and females appear in every generation
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A man with syndactyly, an AD condition, has one child who also has syndactyly. His unaffected wife states, "since the risk for having a child with this problem is 50% and our first child has the problem, then the next child will not be affected." What is the best response to this statement?
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"that is correct and if you only have two children, the second one will not have syndactyly."
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Aneuploidy is believed to account for approximately what percentage of spontaneous abortions?
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50
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How are twins indicated on a pedigree?
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The vertical lines to each twin begin at the same point on parent's horizontal mating line
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The information encoded in DNA resides in __________
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The nucleotide sequence
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The accompanying pedigree is for a rare, but relatively mild, hereditary disorder of the skin. Is the disorder inherited as a dominant or recessive phenotype?
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Recessive
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Females have been observed with 5 X chromosomes, in each cell. How many Barr bodies would these females have?
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4
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Women have sex chromosomes of XX, and men have sex chromosomes of XY. Which of a woman's grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on her X-chromosome?
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Father's father
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The Lyon hypothesis states that one X chromosome in each cell is randomly inactivated early in the embryonic development of females
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This ensures that females will produce x-linked gene products in quantities roughly similar to those produced in males
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The pedigree shown is an autosomal dominant disease, the genotypes of the two individuals in generation IV could only be which of the following?
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Aa, Aa
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Autosomal aneuploidy can result in
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Down Syndrome
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Nondisjunction means that a pair of chromosomes
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do not separate
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Monosomy refers to
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a missing chromosome
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In Turner syndrome, there is a(n
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loss of an extra chromosome
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Edwards syndrome is a
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Trisomy of chromosome 18
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A change resulting in net loss of DNA is
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deletion
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Robertsonian translocations result from which of the following?
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Breaks occur at or near the centromeres of 2 acrocentric chromosomes followed by the reciprocal exchange of broken parts
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A small portion of chromosome 2 has been found on the end of the chromosome 15, and a small portion of chromosome 15 has been found on the end of chromosome 2. This mutation is called a...
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Reciprocal translocation
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How is a sequence different from a syndrome?
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In a sequence one structural problem leads to development of other problems, whereas a syndrome is a collection of separate by consistent anomalies
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What is the best description of a drug prescribed to control acne that also causes severe birth defects when it is taken during pregnancy?
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Teratogenic
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Which characteristic or feature distinguishes a major anomaly from a minor anomaly?
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Major anomalies require medical attention, whereas minor anomalies are considered a variation in structure
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How does genetic assessment differ from routine physical assessment?
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Genetic assessment encompasses routine physical assessment and always added the consideration of genetic causes for findings.
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Characteristic of multifactorial inheritance is
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A combination of genetics and environment
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We discussed a novel therapy for Clostridium difficile. How does it work?
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Replaces normal flora bacteria in the intestine to compete with the pathogen
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UV light destroys bacteria by
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Damaging DNA
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A substance that has been pasteurized
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Does not contain pathogenic bacteria
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Differential media would be used to
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Cause certain bacteria to look different
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A stool sample is added to a culture medium that has been designed so that gram-positive bacterial growth is inhibited, but gram0negative is not. What type of culture medium is this?
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Selective medium
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Bacteria that can grow only in the absence of oxygen are said to be
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Anaerobic
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Which of the following would be the best way to check the function of an autoclave?
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Autoclave bacterial spores to be sure that they will not grow
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The advantage of spore formation for bacteria is
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Survival in harsh conditions
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Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is found in the
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Gram-negative outer membrane
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The bacterium Staphylococcous aureus appears microscopically as
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A grape-like cluster of spheres
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Whether a bacterium is gram-positive or gram-negative matters because....
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It is related to antibiotic sensitivity
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Which one of the following generally represents sizes from smallest to largest?
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Virus to bacteria to protozoa
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for healthcare-associated infection?
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isolation
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Which cellular organelle may have originally been a free-living separate organism which was engulfed by a primitive eukaryotic cell?
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Mitochondria
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Which of the following would be the best treatment for shingles?
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Acyclovir
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Biofilms can make treatment more difficult because
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Bacteria in biofilms may develop increased antibiotic resistance
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_____________ is an anaerobic spore former associated with gas gangrene.
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Clostridium difficile
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Which one of the following is not caused by a member of the Herpes virus family?
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Rubella
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The cutaneous form of anthrax spreads from infected animal carcasses through
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spores
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Which of these is most likely to be used as a topical antibiotic?
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Bacitracin
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Which of the following is/are associated with measles?
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Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, red skin rash, and Koplik spots
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The most common cause of pharyngitis is
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Virus infection
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Pneumonia caused by which organism is associated with "currant jelly" sputum?
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Klebsiella pneumoniae
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Conjunctivitis can be caused by
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All of the above (adenovirus, hemophilus influenza¸streptococcus)
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Which of the following infections may spread to the bloodstream and become systemic?
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Salmonella typhi
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Possible complications of strep throat include
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Acute glomerulonephritis, rheumatic heart disease, scarlet fever
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Which section of the gastrointestinal tract has the smallest number of normal flora organisms?
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stomach
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Diagnosis of hepatitis infection requires
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Test for antibodies to the virus(es)
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Which of the following organisms is associated with epiglottitis?
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Hemophilus influenza
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A major change in the influenza virus is called
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Antigenic shift
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Which of the following is caused by Helicobacter pylori?
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Stomach ulcers
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A patient presents with bloody diarrhea and cramps. Which bacterium is most likely to be the cuase?
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Campylobacter jejuni
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Which of the following can be picked up by walking barefoot in infected soil or water in warm, wet climates?
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hookworms
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Clostridium difficile is associated with
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Pseudomembranous colitis
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Chronic otitis media may be difficult to treat due to which of the following?
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Biofilm formation
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Which of the following is an intestinal parasite associated with contaminated water, causing a diarrhea which lasts for 1-2 weeks?
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Cryptosporidium
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How is an infection with pinworms (Enterobius) often diagnosed?
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Scotch tape test
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Infection with which of these hepatitis virus(es) is/are associated with chronic liver disease?
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Hepatitis C
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Which of the following is associated with hemolytic uremic disease (HUS)?
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EHEC
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What does a positive TB test indicate?
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Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, but not necessarily active disease
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Which of the following conditions indicates infection at the most superficial tissue level?
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Folliculitis
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An infant suffering from a paroxysmal cough with a loud inspiration may have an infection with (blank); this may be related to (blank).
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Bordatella pertussis; weakened immunity from family members' vaccines
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Healthcare-associated pneumonia is often associated with which organism(S)?
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Acinetobacter and pseudomonas
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Travelers to the desert southwest may be at risk for what fungal infection?
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Coccidiomycosis
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This parasite is the most commonly-reported intestinal protozoan and is associated with some forms of travelers' diarrhea. (the trophozite form resembles a face!)
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Giardia
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The deadliest type of healthcare-associated infections are
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Bloodstream infections and pneumonia
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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding collection of a sputum specimen?
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A nebulizer may be used to induce a deep cough; the specimen should be thick and mucoid
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Treatment for methicillin-resistant Staph infections may include
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Vancomycin
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A previously healthy young adult is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause?
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Mycoplasmas pneumoniae
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A young child has been diagnosed with gastroenteritis as a result of consuming raw milk. Which of the following is NOT likely to be the organism involved?
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Bacillus anthracis
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IgE is the antibody involved in (blank) hypersensitivity
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Type I
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All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except
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Immune complexes
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The innate immune response is (blank), but the adaptive immune response is (blank).
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Rapid; specific
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Which of the following is the best description of clonal selection?
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A subset of lymphocytes respond when an antigen binds to their cell-surface receptor
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Immune complexes are involved in (blank) hypersensitivity.
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Type 3
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An attenuated vaccine
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Is an organism which has been modified so that it no longer causes disease
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An anaphylactic reaction includes which of the following?
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Increased vascular permeability and bronchial constriction
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Which of the following immunoglobulin molecules is produced in the largest amount during a memory response?
answer
IgG
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The soluble mediators involved in adaptive immunity include
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Antibodies and cytokines
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The cell-surface receptor on a B cells is a(n
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Immunoglobulin (antibody) molecule
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The ability to produce a secondary antibody response depends on
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Memory T and B cells
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What do activated CD8 T cells do?
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Kill infected cells
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Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins are important for
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T cell recognition of antigen
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Which one of the following applies to Type II hypersensitivity?
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IgG reacts with antigens on the surfaces of cells, resulting in cell destruction
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Hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn occurs when
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A Rh- woman produces antibodies to her first Rh+ pregnancy, and those antibodies destroy blood cells in a subsequent Rh+ fetus
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The pathology of systemic lupus erythematosus involves which of the following mechanisms?
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Immune complexes
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Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the
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Immune system recognizes the tissue to be nonself
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The inability to produce mature B cells (plasma cells) is called
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X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterized by
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A defect in the ability to phagocytose microorganisms
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A T-cell count of (blank) or less defines an HIV-infected individual as having AIDS
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200
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Someone with an IgA deficiency would be at increased risk for which of the following?
answer
Pneumonia
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Why is HIV infection treated with a combination of antiviral drugs?
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Multiple medications overcome the rapid development of drug resistance by HIV
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People with Graves disease develop (blank), but Hashimoto's autoimmune thyroiditis causes (blank)
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Hyperthyroidism; hypothyroidism
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Which of the following is an example of an endogenous infection?
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Cystitis in a woman caused by E. coli
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A secondary infection is one that
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Follows another infection
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Which of the following help to determine the outcome of a potential infection?
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Where bacteria enter the body, virulence factors of the bacterium, the status of the individual's immune system, and amount of pathogen exposure
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In the prodromal phase, symptoms
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Are non-specific
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DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by
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Reduced or absent thymic development
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Which of the following is involved in resistance to virus infection?
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Interferon
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Innate immunity includes
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Macrophages and neutrophils
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The first antibody produced during an infection is
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IgM
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What is the result of opsonization?
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Enhances the efficiency of phagocytosis
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Enhances the efficiency of phagocytosis
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Intact antigen; processed peptides with MHC proteins
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An epidemic disease
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Occurs at a higher level than usual for a population
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Which of the following kills virus-infected cells?
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NK cells
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Which of the following result(s) from complement activation?
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Opsonization, bacterial killing by membrane lysis, and recruitment of phagocytic cells
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Which of the following releases mediators that cause allergic responses?
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Mast cell
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Graft vs. host disease refers to
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Donor lymphocytes attacking recipient tissue
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for immunity?
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Malnutrition
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A patient steps on a rusty nail and develops an infection with Clostridium tetani. He received a tetanus booster last year, so his immune system produces antibody to tetanus toxin. He doesn't develop tetanus. This illustrates
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Neutralization
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Fever can be caused by
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Cytokines
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A child recieves the chickenpox vaccine. The following year, she attends a birthday party where she is exposed to the virus. Her immune system produces a large amount of antibody to the virus, and she does not develop the illness. This represents
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Secondary antibody response
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Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable infectious disease?
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Anthrax
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Helper T cells bind to
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Class II MHC using the CD4 co-receptor
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Macrophages and neutrophils
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Are both phagocytic
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T cells mature in
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Thymus
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Systemic activation of the inflammatory response results in
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Septic shock
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Which of the following is an example of direct horizontal transmission?
answer
Catching the flu from a sneezing classmate
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Cell-mediated immunity includes which of the following
answer
CD8 cytotoxic T cells
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Which of the following statements about HIV is false?
answer
The immune system does not responds to HIV infection