MCB EXAM #4 – Flashcards

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How many different functions do antibodies have?
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5
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The ____________is the location for the maturation of T Cells:
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Thymus
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The two branches of specific immunity include the humoral branch and the plasma branch.
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False
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The most numerous leukocytes in the blood are:
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neutrophils
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Residual bodies form during the process of....
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phagocytosis
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Antibodies are able to kill bacteria directly, by themselves
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False
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CD8 cells:
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are the T-cytotoxic cells
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Your blood plasma antibodies mostly belong to the _______class:
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IgG
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Cell-mediated immunity includes the use of perforins and __________secreted by Tc cells:
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granzymes
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When antigens and antibodies combine, they can precipitate or
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agglutinate
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The amount (concentration) of antibody in a patient sample is called the:
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Titer
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A long-term, sometimes lifelong, immune response is elicited using:
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live attenuated vaccines
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Which of these is a conjugated vaccine?
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HiB
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This is an advantage of oral live vaccine agents:
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confers herd immunity
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When an insoluble antigen combines with its matching antibody and forms bridging complexes, this is called:
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make an appointment for a repeat ELISA test
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A ________________cannot stimulate the immune response unless it is attached to a larger protein carrier:
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hapten
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A toxoid is:
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a weakened version of a toxin
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The anthrax vaccine has been made available to the general public.
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False
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Hay fever, asthma, and systemic anaphylaxis are examples of ________.
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type I hypersensitivity
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Transfusion reactions are examples of ________.
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Transfusion reactions are examples of type II (cytotoxic) reactions.
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Glomerulonephritis is an example of a/an ________.
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Glomerulonephritis involves immune complexes and is an example of type III hypersensitivity.
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Autoimmune diseases are much more common among women than men.
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True
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Immune complexes cause tissue damage by ________.
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fixing complement. Immune complexes activate complement that will cause tissue destruction.
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Which of the following promotes the development of self tolerance and prevents the eventual development of autoimmune diseases?
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clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells Clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells during T-cell maturation in the thymus is believed to prevent autoreactivity.
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Which of the following steps is the second one in tissue typing?
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Complement is fixed. First, anti-HLA antibodies attach to HLAs on lymphocytes. Next, complement is fixed (activated). The activated complement damages the cell membrane of the lymphocyte, which allows the trypan blue dye to enter and stain the cell.
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Graft-versus-host (GVH) disease can occur when ________.
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T and B cells are transplanted GVH disease occurs when immune-competent tissue containing B cells and T cells is transplanted.
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causes of immune deficiencies
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inheritance infection
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Incidence of which of the following cancers is now reduced by a vaccine?
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cervical cancer The Gardasil vaccine is an example of a prophylactic vaccine that causes the development of an immune response against strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer.
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A patient with congenital hypogammaglobulinemia lacks B cells. Symptoms of this disease include ________.
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frequent bacterial diseases
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Embryonic stem cells ________.
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may be pluripotent Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent cells that are derived from embryos, several days after conception.
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HIV can evade the immune system by
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infecting by cell-cell fusion remaining in vacuoles forming a provirus
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A patient with <200 CD4 cells/cubic millimeter and Pneumocystis pneumonia would be diagnosed with ________.
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AIDS
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A patient with persistent vaginal yeast infections and cervical cancer with reduced CD4 cell count would be diagnosed with ________.
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phase 2 HIV infection
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Herceptin is an example of ________.
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a monoclonal antibody used to treat breast cancer Herceptin is a humanized monoclonal antibody that is used to treat some forms of breast cancer.
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One week after taking penicillin, a 50-year-old woman experiences bullae (rash) over her entire body. What is your diagnosis?
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Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
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A skin test is used to detect the presence of ________.
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antibodies Skin tests are used to detect the antibodies responsible for type I hypersensitivity reactions. These will indicate the allergens to which an individual is allergic.
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AIDS treatments work by targeting
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viral protease gp120 reverse transcriptase
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Why can a woman with blood type A deliver a healthy baby with blood type B?
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She has IgM anti-B antibodies. Maternal-fetal ABO incompatibilities are relatively uncommon because maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies are of the IgM subclass.
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All of the following are true for type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions
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The reactions may be localized or systemic. The reactions often occur with minutes of exposure to the allergen. Mediators of the reaction include histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins. Examples include hay fever, asthma, and bee sting allergies.
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What type of immunoglobulin binds to mast cells during an allergic reaction?
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IgE
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cases of localized anaphylaxis?
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hay fever hives allergy to dust mites asthma
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lood transfusion hypersensitivity reactions are examples of ________.
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type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity
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Although maternal-fetal incompatibilities are possible in the ABO blood group, the incidence of adverse reactions in the fetus or newborn is far less common than in the case of Rh incompatibilities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
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Maternal anti-A and anti-B antibodies typically do not cross the placenta.
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Which of the following diseases is a type III autoimmune disease?
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rheumatoid arthritis
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A patient with severe burns on her hands and arms has a skin graft with skin taken from her upper thigh. This type of tissue transplant is a/an ________.
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autograft
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Following an organ transplant, therapeutic immunosuppression to prevent organ rejection may be accomplished by any of the following
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blocking IL-2 chimeric monoclonal antibodies suppression of cell-mediated immunity cyclosporine
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example of immunotherapy for cancer treatment or prevention
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injections of immunotoxins that target tumor cells stimulating dendritic cells with tumor antigens vaccination against hepatitis B injections with monoclonal antibodies specific for HER2
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Which type of graft will most likely cause hyperacute rejection?
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xenotransplant
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component of the HIV virion
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reverse transcriptase gp120 RNA strands lipoprotein envelope
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HIV can remain latent in the host cell by integrating its reverse transcriptase produced DNA into the host chromosome, becoming a ________.
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provirus
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the following concerning the clinical phases of HIV infection are correct
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phase 1: persistent lymphadenopathy phase 2: persistent oral Candida infection phase 3: CD4 T-cell count less than 200 cells per cubic mm phase 3: Pneumocystis pneumonia or toxoplasmosis of the brain
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Which of the following could be predicted for an individual with a mutation in the gene encoding CCR5?
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resistance to HIV infection
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Which of the following predictions can be made regarding the immune response of an individual with AIDS?
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They can make antibody in response to T-independent antigens.
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Which of the following diseases is most likely to be similar to AIDS in terms of the specific immunodeficiency?
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DiGeorge syndrome
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mechanism used in anti-HIV drugs?
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protease inhibition blocking viral fusion inhibition of HIV integrase blocking reverse transcriptase
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Which of the following is not a common disease associated with AIDS?
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Influenza
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The desensitization injections for allergy treatments are aimed at producing ________.
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IgG
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In hemolytic disease of the newborn, fetal red blood cells are targeted for destruction by ________.
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maternal IgG antibodies
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Most allergies are due to over-release of chemicals like:
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histamine and prostaglandins
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If allergies become systemic, this can result:
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anaphylactic shock
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The primary problem with incompatible Rh antigen (in a mother who is Rh-) is:
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hemolytic disease of the newborn
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Type ___________immune reactions involve only lymphocytes and macrophages:
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IV
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__________is an example of allergic contact dermatitis:
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poison oak/ivy latex allergy
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Tissue grafts between genetically distinct members of the same species:
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allograft
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How soon does it take for a poison ivy rash to appear after exposure to the chemical?
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after 24 hours
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A person is born with a primary immunodeficiency.
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True
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Blood transfusion reactions are _____________hypersensitivity reactions:
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Type II
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Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reactions include:
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glomerulonephritis
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When will someone infected with HIV have the most viral particles in their blood?
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1 to 2 months after the initial infection
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What causes the rapid decline in the HIV population in the blood 3 to 6 months after the initial infection?
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The patient begins to make antibodies against HIV.
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What type of immunoglobulin binds to mast cells during an allergic reaction?
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IgE
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Immune complexes cause tissue damage by ________.
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fixing complement
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Which of the following promotes the development of self tolerance and prevents the eventual development of autoimmune diseases?
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clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells
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Diseases such as multiple sclerosis and rheumatic fever are much more common in individuals with a particular HLA type.
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True
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Cancer cells can be killed by the immune system if they are recognized as "nonself."
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True
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Histamine plays an important role in delayed hypersensitivity reactions.
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False
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HIV infects the CD8 T cells as well as CD4 cells.
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True
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When mast cells degranulate, the mediators they release include leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and __________.
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Histamine
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In hypersensitivity reactions, the body becomes sensitized to an antigen, also called a/an __________.
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allergen
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The bone marrow and umbilical cord are sources of __________ stem cells.
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hematopoietic
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__________________are proteins found in the plasma that are activated by three different paths, in a 'cascade':
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complement
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M.A.C. complexes consist of:
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C5b6789
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The first and second lines of defense are part of nonspecific immunity; do antibodies belong with them?
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No
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________________is the coating of a (bacterial) cell by complement in order to enhance phagocytosis:
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opsonization
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Some bacteria can resist phagosome-lysosome fusion in macrophages.
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True
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Some bacteria have __________________which enable them to avoid (slip out of)the pseudopods of phagocytes:
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capsules
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An exogenous pyrogen:
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LPS
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_______________is the process which enables phagocytes to 'squeeze' between endothelial cells lining a capillary and enter inflamed body tissue:
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diapedesis
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Many bacteria are starved by a lack of iron when these proteins are abundant:
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transferrin
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Interferon is effective against which of the following?
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viral, acute infections
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All of these cells demonstrate phagocytic activity except ________.
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lymphocytes
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Activation of which of these complement proteins causes cytolysis?
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C9
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Activation of which of these complement proteins causes opsonization?
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C3b
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All of these answers are characteristic of innate immunity except ________.
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innate immunity produces strong, long-lasting memory responses
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All of the following are chemical factors that cause the skin to be relatively resistant to infection except ________.
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complement proteins
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Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota?
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Commensalism
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Activation of the following complement proteins causes inflammation. Which is the last one activated?
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C5a
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Complement can be activated by all of these substances except ________.
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viruses
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A lysosome ________.
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is an organelle in white blood cells
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All of these mechanical factors provide resistance against disease except ________.
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stomach acid
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Which type of leukocyte is the most abundant in normal blood?
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neutrophil
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Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs first?
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vasodilation
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The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to ________.
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interleukin-1
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Which of these substances is collected in lymphatic capillaries and becomes lymph?
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interstitial fluid
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The hypothesis that Lactobacillus bacteria can be used to treat some bacterial infections, such as those of the vagina and intestines, is based on ________.
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microbial antagonism
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Which of these steps of phagocytosis is the third one?
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phagosome formation
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All of these answers statements are true of lysozyme except ________.
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It is an organelle in white blood cells.
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Your lab partner slipped on his way to class. He scraped his arm without drawing blood. You make a smear of the fluid from his scrape and observe large nucleated cells. These cells are most likely ________.
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neutrophils
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Which cells kill pathogens by releasing peroxide ions in an oxidative burst?
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neutrophils
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Which of these molecules or structures is not associated with innate immunity?
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antibodies
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The epidermis ________.
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contains the protein keratin
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The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to ________.
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microbial antagonism
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The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following except ________.
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the lacrimal apparatus
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All of these statements about sebum are true except ________.
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it raises the PH of the skin
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One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked eosinophilia. This might be suggestive of ________.
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either a parasitic infection or an allergic (hypersensitivity) reaction
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Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?
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lymphocytes
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Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe?
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Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence.
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Which answer is true for bacterial destruction by phagocytosis?
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Myeloperoxidase in lysosomes is involved in the formation of HOCl.
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The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called ________.
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adherence
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Which answer is not true of the inflammatory process?
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The area becomes red due to a decrease in capillary diameter.
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Activation of the complement cascade ________.
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can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis
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All of these answers are true of inflammation except ________.
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many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation
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Complement can be activated by all of the following except ________.
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presence of host tissue
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All of the following are true of nitric oxide (NO) except ________.
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it is of little value in killing microbes or tumor cells
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Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to see?
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lysis of the red blood cells
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All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except ________.
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C3 is the first component to be activated
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Complement component C3, in the classical pathway, is split by ________.
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C2aC4b
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Which of the following occurs first, setting in motion the remaining events?
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Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on macrophages and dendritic cells attach to pathogen-associated microbial patterns (PAMPS) on invading microorganisms.
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Interferons:
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are host specific but not virus specific
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Vaccination eliminates diseases such as smallpox and polio by ________.
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eliminating susceptible hosts
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A vaccine consisting of an inactivated diphtheria toxin is called a/an ________.
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toxoid
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A vaccine consisting of a live, avirulent strain of mumps virus is called a/an ________.
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attenuated whole-agent vaccine
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For the Hib vaccine, Haemophilus influenza b capsular polysaccharide is attached to a protein such as diphtheria toxoid. This attachment to the protein causes a better immune response against H. influenza b in infants. This Hib vaccine is a ________.
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conjugated vaccine
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Monoclonal antibodies are produced ________.
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by hybrid cells
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Which of these vaccines is dangerous to administer to a patient who has a T-cell deficiency?
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attenuated whole-agent vaccine
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To test a patient's serum for evidence of a Salmonella infection, you mix the serum sample with bacteria. A positive test would show ________.
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agglutination
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To perform an agglutination test to detect the enzyme streptolysin in patient's serum, you would mix the serum sample with ________.
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antibody-coated latex spheres
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Knowing that rubella virus causes hemagglutination, you mix red blood cells, rubella virus, and a patient's serum in a tube. Hemagglutination does not occur. You conclude that ________.
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the patient has antibodies against rubella virus
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How does the pneumococcal vaccine given to adults differ from the one given to infants?
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The adult vaccine consists of purified capsular polysaccharide; the vaccine for infants is a conjugated vaccine in which the polysaccharide is attached to a protein.
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A rapid test for Bordetella pertussis uses fluorescent dye-labeled antibodies to stain a smear made from a nasopharyngeal swab. A positive test would show ________.
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fluorescent coccobacilli
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To detect antibodies against HIV in a patient, you would use a/an ________.
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indirect ELISA
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Which kind of vaccine may spread from the vaccinated individual to close contacts, immunizing them as well?
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attenuated whole-agent vaccines
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You decide to perform a complement-fixation test on a patient's serum to test for antibodies against adenovirus. You mix the patient's serum, adenovirus, and complement, and then add red blood cells and antibodies against red blood cells. If the patient does not have anti-adenovirus, you will observe ________.
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no hemolysis
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To perform a direct ELISA test for rotavirus, you would mix the following ingredients. Which is added last?
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enzyme substrate
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To perform an indirect ELISA test to identify the strain of influenza in a patient, you would mix the following ingredients. Which is added first?
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antigen
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Which type of vaccine is most likely to be contaminated with tiny amounts of endotoxin?
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killed whole-cell vaccine
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Which of these antibodies provides evidence of an active infection when present?
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IgM
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Assume you add dead Salmonella typhi to serial dilutions of patient's serum. The last tube showing agglutination has a 1:32 concentration of serum. What is the antibody in this test?
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anti-Salmonella typhi
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Assume you set up serial dilutions to determine a patient's antibody titer. The first tube is 1:2, the second is 1:4, the third is 1:8, and so on. If tube nine is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the patient's antibody titer?
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512
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