MCB Exam 3 Questions – Flashcards
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What allows deinococcus radiodurans to endure high doses of ionizing radiation? |
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multiple copies of chromoseom & radiation absorbing pigments |
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What are the 5 types of phototrophic bacteria? |
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blue-green, green sulfur, green non-sulfur, purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur |
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What are the 8 types of low G+C gram-pos bacteria? |
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clostridium, mycoplasma, lactobacillus, enterococcus, bacillus, listeria, streptococcus, staphylococcus |
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What are the 3 types of high G+C gram-pos bacteria? |
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corynebacterium, mycobacterium, actinomycetes |
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What is the most common form of food poisoning? |
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Clostridium botulinum |
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What are symptoms of clostridium botulinum? |
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headache, double vision, flaccid paralysis |
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__ is involved in duck die-offs. |
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Botulinum |
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How does botulism kill babies? |
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lives in intestines and starts making the neurotoxin to make dead organic matter |
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What does the tetanus vaccine do? |
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infect with tetanus toxin that's chemically inactive, to get body used to it |
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What is tetanospasmin? |
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tetanus excretion |
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How does the antitoxin for tetanus work? |
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aminoglobulins bind to toxin to get them to stop suffering from tetanus |
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What is the untreated mortality rate of tetanus? |
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40-80% |
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Factors that cause wound infections include: 1. ___ of contaminating organism 2. size of contaminating ___ 3. extent of __ damage at wound 4. ____ of wounded person |
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1. virulence 2. dose 3. tissue 4. health status |
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What are symptoms of clostridium perfringens? |
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abdominal pain, diarrhea |
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How does gas gangrene work? |
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use fermentative pathways, making CO2 which builds in the wound |
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How do antibiotics help C. Diff? |
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kill other intestinal organisms, leaving room for C. Diff to grow |
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What does C. diff's tissue destruction cause? |
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formation of plaque-like pseudomembrane |
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What is used to treat C. diff? |
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probiotics |
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What are the 3 virulence factors in bacillus anthracis? |
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edema factor; lethal factor; protective antigen |
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What is the untreated mortality rate in cutaneous anthrax? |
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20% |
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What does edema factor cause in anthrax? |
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fluids to leech into the lung |
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What does gastrointestinal anthrax do? |
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infects gut due to eating contaminated meat |
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How does bacitrcin inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis? |
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interferes w/ movement of precursor groups through cell membrane to cell wall |
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16sRNA shows mycoplasma are most like ____, but they appear ___ in a gram-stain. |
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clostridium; gram-negative |
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Why are mycoplasma penicilin resistent? |
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don't have cell walls |
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What are symptoms of mycoplasma pneumoniae? |
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headache, sort throat, sweating, coughing, really tired, fever |
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How is walking pneumonia treated? |
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erthyromycin |
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How is walking pneumonia spread? |
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nasal secretions |
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What is the incubation period for walking pneumonia? |
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7-14 days |
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How long does it take for walking pneumonia to be seen on a screen? |
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2-6 weeks |
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What disease is responsible for 1/2 of all infections that lead to infertility? |
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ureaplasma urealyticum |
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What is used to treat ureaplasma urealyticum patients? |
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tetracycline |
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What do most patients at VD clinics carry? |
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ureaplasma urealytican |
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Listeria produces enzymes that cause polymerization of ___, which is how they move. |
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actin fibers |
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Listeria survives phagocytosis to lives within ____ |
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cytoplasm of macrophages |
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What does catalase negative mean? |
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unable to break down H2O2 |
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stopped at slide 40 |
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____ is extensive destruction of deep subcutaneous muscle and fat. |
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necrotizing fasciitis |
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Flesh eating bacteria is aka: |
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necrotizing fasciitis |
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___ is excretion of enzymes capable of breaking down redblood cells. |
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hemolysis |
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What happens with beta hemolytic cells in agar? |
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complete clearing around the colony |
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What is petechiae? |
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red spots in the throat |
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What causes 35% of sore throats for kids? |
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streptococcal pharyngitis |
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What is used to diagnose streptococcal involvement in pharyngitis? |
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rapid strep screen (RSS) |
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What is the treatment for s. pyogenes? |
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pencillins or tetracyclines |
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3% of s. Pyogenes cases get sequelae, causing ___, ____, ___, or ___. |
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scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis, chorea |
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What can cause s. pyogenes? |
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direct contact or droplet infection |
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What is used to treat pneumonia? |
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amoxicillin |
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Most strains of s. pneumnoia are __ hemolytic. |
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alpha |
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Virulent s. pneumonia have a __ made of ___. |
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capsule; polysaccharides |
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How does s. pneumoniae interfere with recognition by macrophages? |
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anitphagocytic capsule |
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___ is inflammation of membranes that surround brain and spinal cord. |
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bacterial meningitis |
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Any organism that can access the CNS can cause: |
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spinal meningitis |
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Enterococcus can cause ___, ___, ____, and ___ if it gets out of intestines. |
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UTIs, bacteremia, endocarditis, meningitis |
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Why is vancomycin resistant enterococcus such an issue? |
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vancomycin is the last resort with enterococcus |
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_____ can cause peritonitis if it gets into the abdominal cavity. |
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enterococcus faecalis |
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Staphylococcus tend to grow on ___. |
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skin |
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What does catalase negative mean? |
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unable to break down hydrogen peroxide |
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What protects staphylococcus aureus from phagocytes? |
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coagulase (enzyme that causes fibrin to clot) |
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How does hyaluronidase help the staphylococcus aureus bacteria? |
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breaks down hylauronic acid, which helps hold cells and tissues together |
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How does staphylococcal food poisoning happen? |
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heat stable enterotoxin |
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___ dissolves blood clots to allow spread to new locations. |
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staphylokinase |
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___ disrupts cell membranes of most host cells. |
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cytolytic toxins |
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___ disrupts cytoplasmic membranes of leukoctyes. |
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leukocidin |
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____ triggers fever, vomiting, rash, and shock. |
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toxic shock syndrome. |
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What is the "D" in the DPT shot? |
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diphteria |
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What produces the palisades in C. dip? |
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snapping cell division |
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How does the immunization for c. diptheria work? |
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inject w/ just enough dip to retain structure, making an immunological response happen |
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If C. diptheria becomes systemic, what can happen? |
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heart and kidney failure in 7-10 days. |
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___ are slow growing, non-spore forming rods with waxy mycolic acids in cell walls. |
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mycobacterium |
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How do antibiotic drugs affect leprosy? |
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they can never kill it off completely |
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What was used to form the first aminoglycoside, used to inhibit bacterial ribosomes? |
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streptomyces griseus |
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Gram-positive cell walls are bound together by ___ and ___. |
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teichoic acids; lipoteichoic acids |
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Gram-negative cell wall has a thin layer of ___, with outer membrane of ___. |
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peptidoglycan; lipopolysaccharide |
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Tuberculosis transmission is usually associated with: |
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aerosol from an infected person |
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In latent TB, body successfully: |
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inhibits spread of bacteria |
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In active TB, the bacteria can infect ___ tissue. |
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ANY |
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Alpha, beta, gamma, delta, and epsilonproteobacteria are all ____ bacteria. |
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gram-negative |
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With rhizobium, bacteria converts atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia, then provides __ to the plant, while the plant provides ___. |
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organic nitrogenous compounds; organic compounds from photosynthesis |
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What is a crown gall? |
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tumor of tissue caused by modified DNA, producing strange AA that plant can't use |
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slide 77 |
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____ is a nitrifying bacterium that helps convert ammonia to nitrate. |
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nitrobacter |
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_____ has anoxygenic photosynthesis and can use light energy to produce PMF |
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rhodospirillacea (purple non-sulfur bacteria) |
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Bacteria that are grown in light produce ___. |
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rhodopsin |
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Brucella abortis does not colonize the ___. |
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gut |
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Symptoms of Rickettsia rickettsia are: |
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non-itchy spotted rash fever headache chills muscle aches nausea vomiting petechiae |
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What is the causative agent of typhus? |
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Rickettsia rickettsia |
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What are gonorrhea symtpoms in men? |
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burning sensation and pus discharge |
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What are gonorrhea symptoms in women? |
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may be asymptomatic or vaginal discharge and pelvic pain |
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What happens if gonorrhea is left untreated? |
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spreads through the body, can cause sterility |
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How often is gonorrhea asymptomatic in women? |
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4/5 times, can cause inflammation of cervix and uterine tubes |
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In ___, airways become constricted by mucus. |
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b. pertussis |
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B. pertussis can be treated by ___, if caught early. However, most treatment is ___ b/c it's about the epithelium, not the number of bacteria. |
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erthyromycin; supportive |
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How is salmonellosis transmitted? |
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fecal-oral cycle |
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What is the incubation period for salmonellosis? |
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8-48 hours |
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___ is infection of the blood caused by salmonellosis. |
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typhoid fever |
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Typhoid fever's 2 worst symptoms are ___ and ___ |
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kidney failure, peritonitis |
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___ is an infection of animals that only infects human as second target. |
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zoonosis |
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What are the 2 manifestations of the plague? |
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bubonic (flea bite) pneumonic (aerosol from infected person |
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If bubonic, what is the main symptom of the plague? |
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enlarged lymph nodes |
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What is the main symptom of the plague if pneumonic? |
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bloody cough b/c of lung infecion |
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Which type of plague is contagious? |
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pneumonic |
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____ causes rapid wound infections after exposure to contaminated sea water. |
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vibrio vulnificus |
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In cholera, ___ clears up the infection, but ___ is the cause of the disease. |
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tetracycline; choleragen (toxin) |
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What causes pink eye? |
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haemophilus aegyptius |
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What usually causes otitis media? |
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throat organisms |
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What is a chancre? |
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syphilitic ulcer |
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What does the chancre do? |
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sheds bacteria (very contagious) |
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What is congenital syphilis? |
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when mom gives syphilis to baby |
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What are the normal microflora of the mouth? |
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gram positive streptococci alpha hemolytic |
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If listeriosis symptoms appear, the odds of death are ___ |
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20% |
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When did eukaryotic microbes first evolve? |
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2.5-3B years ago |
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What is an exon? |
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part of DNA that encode info for protein synthesis in eukaryotes |
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What is an intron? |
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nonsense sequences of DNA that aren't necessarily necessary |
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What do eukaryotic mRNAs have on the 3' end? |
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poly A-tail |
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___ makes most of the ATP that's used in a eukaryotic cell. |
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mitochondria |
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___ have their own, mini chromosome. |
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mitochondria |
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What are made from the mitochondrial chromosome? |
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a small percentage of the proteins they need |
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What may hydrogenosomes evolved from? |
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mitochondria |
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____ are associated with basal body of flagella. |
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kinetoplasts |
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How are introns gotten rid of? |
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splicing enzymes |
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___ resist tension, while ___ resist compression. |
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microfilaments; microtubules |
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____ is extension of cytoplasm seen in protozoa and animal cells that enables the cell to move by amoeboid motion |
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pseudopod |
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What is the order of the 4 phases of mitosis? |
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prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
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____ is cell division for reproduction. |
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meiosis |
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In _____, a chromosome looks like a X and is composed of 2 copies of chromosome that have undergone replication. |
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mitosis metaphase |
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What is the key difference between mitosis and meiosis? |
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in meiosis, each X-shaped chromosome associates with its homologous partner to form chromosome pairs |
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Algae produce ___ and fix ___. |
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oxygen, CO2 |
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What happens to energized electrons in photosynthesis? |
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passed off to NADP+ to NADPH |
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Where is algae common? |
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water and upper millimeters of damp soil or snow |
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Algae go through ___ photosynthesis. |
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oxygenic |
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What is a unicellular fungi? |
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yeast |
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What is the technical name for fungal kingdom? |
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mycopheta |
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___ make reproductive spores. |
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Fungus |
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Fungal spores can be ___ or ___. |
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vegetative (asexual); sexual |
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What is a basidiocarp? |
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top part of mushroom |
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Sexual cycle of zymycota forms a mass of diploid cells called: |
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zygosporangium |
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Meiosis within the zygosporangium yields a ___ and ___. |
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hypha; sporangium |
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Basidiospores develop at end of basidia, which develops from: |
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intertwined hyphae of basidiocarp |
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What happens in the sexual cycle of saccharoymces cervisiae? |
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gives a single celled ascus that contains 2-4 ascospores |
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What is a yeast infection for women? |
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overgrowth of vaginal candida albicans |
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What is a dimorphic fungus? |
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something that's hyphae in soil & yeast in lungs |
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What does aspergillus flavus look like? |
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broccoli heads |
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What is aflatoxin? |
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liver carcinogen found in improperly stored grains and peanuts |
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What mutation does aflatoxin cause? |
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converts guanines to thymines |
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What phylum is candida albicans found in? |
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ascomycota |
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What three species can cause ringworm? |
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tricophyton rubrum, microsporum gypseum, and microsporum canis |
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What is onychomycosis? |
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fungal infection of nail |
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What is thrush? |
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infection of oral cavity |
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Where is histoplasma capsulatum found? |
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soils contaminated by bat or bird droppings |
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What are some of the symptoms of histoplasmosis? |
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chronic fever, cough, chest pain, lung cavities, may cough up tissue |
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How does coccidiodomycosis act in lungs? |
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like a yeast |
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Where does coccidiodomycosis live? |
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hot, dry, dusty areas |
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How is coccidiodomycosis contracted? |
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inhalation of spores |
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What is the size range for protozoa? |
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2-3 microns to 200-300 microns |
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What do protozoa use to be motile? |
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pseudopods, flagella, cilia |
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What is encystment, and what has it? |
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tough resting form of organism; protozoas |
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What does diplomonad mean? |
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protozoa with 2 nuclei |
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What are the 3 stages of amoeboflagellates? |
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amoeba, flagellated, cyst |
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When do protozoa form cysts? |
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when conditions become unfavorable |
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What is the trophozite? |
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the actively feeding and growing form of a protozoan |
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What form of protozoa usually causes disease? |
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trophozite |
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___ have hard shells made of calcium carbonate. |
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foraminfera |
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In ciliophora, the ___ is large and has copies of the genome, while the ___ is small and involved in sexual reproduction. |
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macronucleus; micronucleus |
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Where do the life stages of t. brucei occur? |
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extracellularly |
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Chronic t. cruzi can affect the ___, ___, or ___. |
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heart, colon, peripheral nervous system |
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What is the merozoite stage of plasmodium falciparum? |
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microorganism grows in either red blood cells or liver cells |
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What happens if pregnant women inhale taxoplasma gondii? |
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can transfer to the fetus and kill it |
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What is the vegetative stage like for penicillum chrysogenum? |
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produces white or yellow |
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What both causes hallucinations and can be used to induce labor? |
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ergot (toxin from clavices purpurea) |
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What is African sleeping sickness? |
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fatal infection of blood that can spread to nervous system |
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A suitable host cell must have the ___ a virus needs to reproduce. |
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enzymes |
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Sizes: 1. Red blood cell 2. E. Coli 3. Poliovirus 4. Small Pox Virus 5. Bacteriophage T4 6. Tobacco mosaic virus |
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1. 10,000 nm diameter 2. 1000 nm x 3000 nm 3. 30 nm 4. 200 nm x 300 nm 5. 50 nm x 225 nm 6. 15 nm x 300 nm |
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Viral envelope is a ___ bilayer, embedded with ___, but is not active like a cytoplasmic membrane. |
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lipid; proteins |
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What shape is the rabies virus? |
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bullet |
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What are the 3 pieces of the tail of a bacteriophage? |
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base plate, tail fibers, tail spike |
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What are the 5 stages of the general virus life cycle? |
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attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, release |
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How does a lambda phage go through attachment? |
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attaches to a pore with the base plate |
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How does lambda phage enter the cell? |
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tail protein shifts and rearranges, acts like a syringe to inject DNA into host cell |
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During which bacteria phage stage is the host chromosome degraded? |
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synthesis |
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How many lambda phages are made during assembly per cell? |
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20-50 |
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What is the last thing made by a lambda phage? |
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lysozome--degrades peptidoglycan, causes host cell to break open |
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What is a lytic cycle? |
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virus actively grows and kills cell when breaks out |
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What is a lysogenic cycle? |
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virus remains dormant and host cell continues to grow & divide |
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As long as phage repressor protein is active, what happens to the host cell? |
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survives! |
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What is the one benefit to the host during the lysogenic cycle of a virus? |
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protects from other lambda particles |
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When a lambda lysogen encounters harsh conditions, what can happen to lambda repressor protein? |
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can be degraded, causing production of prophage genes |
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When a virus buds out of a cell, what is the envelope made of? |
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cytoplasmic membrane of the host cell with viral proteins on it |
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What are 3 examples of human viruses that are always in lytic cycle? |
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rhinoviruses; enteroviruses; hep A |
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Viruses with ___ in their genome may be capable of being latent within human cells. |
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DNA |
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What does entero virus mean? |
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within the intestines |
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What is a positive strand virus? |
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DNA has same sequence as RNA |
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Positive sense RNA can be translated by: |
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host ribosomes |
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Why is it virtually impossible to cure AIDS? |
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virus becomes latent in T-helper cells |
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What are the 7 types of animal viruses? |
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dsDNA ssDNA dsRNA +ssRNA -ssRNA ssRNA-RT (+ sense w/ DNA intermediate) dsDNA-RT |
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___ attaches influenza virus to human host cells by attaching to __ residue on the surface of the cells. |
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hemagglutinin; sialic acid |
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___ is enzyme that cleaves ___ off of host cells for the influenza virus to allow new virus particles to release. |
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neuraminidase; sialic acid |
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What are flu symptoms due to? |
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immune system attacking infected cells |
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Mortality rates for rubeola in healthy US kids is ___, __ in less developed nations, and ___ for patients with AIDS. |
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.3%; 20%; 30% |
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What is shingles? |
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reactivation of varicalla zoster (chickenpox) |
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What is the largest virus? |
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mimivirus |
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What is an infection? |
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when undesirable microorganism colonizes the host's body |
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What is a communicable disease? |
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something that can pass between humans |
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Symptoms are: |
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aspects of disease felt by patient |
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What are signs of disease? |
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indications of disease that a physician can measure |
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What are the 6 stages of infectious disease? |
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encounter; incubation; prodromal; acute phase; decline/resolution; convalescence |
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What diseases can cross the placental barrier? |
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syphilis, toxoplasmosis, AIDS, rubidium, chlamydia, herpes |
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Give an example of commensalism. |
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streptococcus salivarius lives in human mouth and doesn't cause too many problems |
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Define virulence. |
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ability of microorganism to cause disease |
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___ is study of interactions between disease causing pathogenic microorganisms and society. |
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epidemiology |
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___ is increase in cases of disease in a certain population. |
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epidemic |
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___ is health of a population in regards to a disease. |
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prevalence |
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What is equation for prevalence? |
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total# of cases/population |
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__ describes rate of change in number of cases of disease within a population. |
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#new cases/population |
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What is the 1st line of defense against disease? |
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skin, mucous membranes, chemicals |
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What is the 2nd line? |
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resistance phagocytosis, complement, interferon, inflammation, fever |
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What is the 3rd line? |
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lymphocytes antibodies |
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When is the 3rd line of defense activated? |
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when encountered specific foreign antigen (specific defenses) |
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What 3 things does the skin do to inhibit microbial growth? |
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1. enzymes degrade bacterial cell walls 2. organic acids lower PH 3. high levels of salt |
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How does the respiratory tract defend against microbes? |
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produces mucous to trap stuff and contain antibodies |
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A phagocyte create a ____ to engulf the food, and then does ___. |
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phagolysosome; exocytosis |
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What does an opsonin do? |
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targets antigen for immune response |
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When does immunity develop? |
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after exposure to parasite |
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___ means stimulating antibody production, while ___ means ability to bind effectively to an antibody. |
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immunogenicity; reactivity |
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What makes antibodies different? |
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the antigen binding sites |
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What part of the antibody interacts with phagocytic cells and complement fixation? |
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constant region |
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Phagocytic cells have a greater affinity for bacteria that are coated with: |
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antibodies! |
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Coating of an infectious microorganism with a substance that increases phagocytosis is called: |
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opsonization |