MCB Exam 2 – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
What are the 5 kingdoms?
answer

1. Animal

2. Plant

3. Monera

4. Protozoa

5. Fungi

question
What are the 3 domains for microorganisms?
answer
1. Small Eukarya
2. Archaea
3. Bacteria
question
Why are viruses in a class of their own?
answer
Because they are not complete cells.  They have no membrane, no regulation, cannot replicate on its own.
question
What is spontaneous generation? And who disproved it and how?
answer

The rise of living from the non living. 

Pasteur and Koch = Germ Theory of Disease

question
Who was the first to see and define microbes; defined the cell?
answer
Robert Hooke
question
Who is responsible for discovering immunizations?
answer
Edward Jenner
question
Who is the creator of Penicillin?
answer
Alexander Fleming
question
Why is Paul Ehrlich a major contributor to the science of microbiology?
answer

He found the cure for syphilis.  Found out that Salvarsan chemical killed the spirochetes.

"Magic Bullet" that targets the site of infection

question
Who is the father of microbiology and why?
answer

Louis Pasteur

Did the swan- neck flask experiment and developed the Germ Theory of Disease that states that there is a germ behind every disease. 

Found the causes for Tb, anthrax, cholera, and rabies.

question
What are the 6 major bioelements?
answer

1. Carbon

2. Hydrogen

3. Sulfur

4. Oxygen

5. Nitrogen

6. Phosphorous

 

(SPONCH)

question
What are the 4 polymers all life forms have? What are there building blocks?
answer

1. Lipids  = Fatty acids + glycerol

2. Protein = Amino Acids

3. Nucleic Acids = Nucelotides (Base/Sugar/PO4)

4. Carbohydrate (Polysaccharides) = Sugars

question
Which carbohydrate source is most abundant on earth?
answer

Cellulose

(but cant be digested by humans because of the B 1,4 bond)

question
What are carbohydrates used for in the body?
answer

1. Structural units

2. Energy

3. Important in the cell membrane they can attach to lipids and proteins on surface then can serve as receptors

question
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated lipids? And which is more fluid?
answer

Saturated = More hydrogens, no double bonds

 

Unsaturated = More double bonds, less hydrogens (MORE FLUID because the double bonds tilt the molecule so it dont compact well)

question
Which is the most abundant polymer?
answer

Protein

 

It accounts for 55% of dry weight of cells

question
What is a polymer?
answer
A repeat of similar or identical monomers
question
What are the 3 categories of chemical reactions?
answer

1. Synthesis = Anabolism = Dehydration

2. Decomposition = Catabolism = Hydrolysis

3. Exchange = no net gain/loss of water

question
_____________ is part of the bacterial cell wall whereas ___________ is in fungal cell walls.
answer

Peptidoglycan

Chitin

question
This type of reaction occurs spontaneous and releases energy, whereas ______________ requires energy input.
answer

Exergonic

Endergonic

question
What are some functions of proteins in cells?
answer

1. Enzymes

2. Regulate cellular processes

3. Structural support (ex: collagen)

4. Surface receptors (ex: glycoprotein)

5. Carriers

6. Transmembrane proteins that are involved in signal transduction

question
What type of bonds contribute to the primary structure of a protein?
answer

~ 300 A.A connected by peptide bonds (a form of covalent bond)

 

The NH2 from 1 A.A attachs to the COOH from another A.A

question
What types of bonds make up the secondary structure of proteins? And what do they make?
answer

Held together by H-bonds between the A.A along with there peptide bonds from their primary structure. 

 

Alpha helix and Beta Sheets

question
The tertiary structure of proteins results from what kind of bonds/forces?
answer

1. Disulfide bonds (S-S = covalent bond)

2. Hydrophobic interactions

3. Van Der Waals interactions

question
This structure is when the protein becomes functional: ____________
answer
Tertiary (3D shape)
question
What gives proteins its biological properties and what things affect the protein structure?
answer

Folding gives its properties

 

Temp (can melt H bonds)

pH (can affect polarity/charge)

question
What are the 2 different types of microscopes and there magnification strength?
answer

1. Compound Light microscope = 1000-2000x magnification

 

2. Electron microscope = 100,000x Magnification

question
Which type of compound light microscopy is best for Ab-Ag interactions and is a good tool for detecting infectious disease? What is its source of illumination?
answer

Fluorescent

 

UV light

question
What are the 2 types of Electron microscopy you can have?
answer

SEM = surface of cell

TEM = cross section of the cell

question
When would you use electron microscopy?  And what is its light source?
answer

It is good for detail of individuals structures, you can even view viruses. 

 

They use electron beam as the light source

question
What is smear preparation?
answer
Heat fixing cells so that they dont get washed off during the staining procedure
question
What are some different stains that you can do?
answer

1. Simple stain = one color

2. Differential stain = 2 colors

3. Negative stain = stain the background

question
What are 2 important differential staining procedures?
answer

1. Gram Stain

2. Acid fast stain

question
When do you do an Acid Fast Stain?
answer
Used with Mycobacterium because they have a thick waxy coat that doesnt absorb color from a stain.  Used to determine TB/Leprosy if results in a positive Acid fast stain.
question
Structural stains involve staining of these structures: _____________, _____________, _____________
answer

Flagella

Endospore

Capsule

question

What is the relative size of microbes?

What about RBC and Eukaryotes?

answer

Micro = 0.5 to 2.0 microns

RBC = 7.5 microns

Euk = 20 microns

question
Give an example of a gram positive cocci that is in clusters.
answer
Staphylococcus
question
Give an example of a gram positive cocci in a chain?
answer
Streptococcus
question
Give an example of a gram negative cocci.
answer
Gonorrhea
question

What types of shapes do the following have:

1. Cocci

2. Bacilli

3. Spirillum

4. Spirochete

answer

1. Spherical

2. Rod

3. Spiral

4. Coil

question
What are some examples of gram positive bacilli?
answer

Bacillus (anthrax)

Clostridium (tetanus, botulinum)

question
What are some examples of gram negative bacilli?
answer

1. E. Coli

2. Salmonella

question
Which is the most famous spirochete?
answer
Syphilis
question
Give an example of a spirillum?
answer
Cholera
question
Cholera is a ____________ borne disease.
answer
Water
question
T/F:  Endospores are found in both Pro and Euk.
answer
False, only in Pro
question
T/F:  Peptidoglycan is only found in Eukaryotes (in plants).
answer
False; Only in Prokaryotes
question
What is the endosymbiosis theory?
answer
That organelles such as Mitochondria and Chlorplast evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes living in other prokaryotes.
question
What 3 things make up the glycocalyx? And what does glycocalyx aid in?
answer

1. Capsule

2. Extracellular Polysaccharides

3. Slime layer

 

In the formation of the biofilm

question
Microorganisms are divided up into 2 groups depending on the structural component of their cellular envelops. What are these 2 groups?
answer

Gram +

Gram -

question
What 2 sugars make up the cell wall?
answer

NAG = N-acetylglucosamine

NAM = N-acetylmuranic Acid

question
Describe the cell wall and cell membrane of a gram positive cell.
answer

1. Many layers of peptidoglycan

2. No outer membrane

3. Contains Teichoic and Lipoteichoic acid

4. No Lipopolysaccharrides (LPS)

 

question
Describe the cell wall and cell membrane of a gram negative cell.
answer

1. Few peptidoglycan layers

2. Has an outer membrane

3. Has a Periplasmic space btwn the outer and cytoplasmic membrane

4. Has LPS

5. Has no techoic acid

6. Has porins for entry of molecules

question
Describe the process of Gram staining.
answer

1. Primary stain with a crystal violet

2. Add a mordant (Iodine) to intensify the primary stain

3. Decolorize via Alcohol or Acetone

4. Counterstain with a secondary stain - Safarin

 

RESULTS

Gram + retain the primary color cause of thick walls so they are purple

Gram - lose the primary color after decolorizing and are red/pink due to the counterstain

question
T/F: Gram + are red where as Gram - come out violet after a gram staining procedure.
answer

False, it is the opposite

+ = violet

- = red

question
Mycoplasma is a type of bacteria that lack what?
answer
A cell wall
question
______________ destroys cell walls.
answer
Lysozymes
question
If you have a higher amount of ______________ than you are more _____________ to lysozymes so an example of this would be a gram ______ cell.
answer

Cell wall

sensitive

+

question
What is the fluid mosaic model?
answer

Biological membranes are a 2D liquid made up of lipids and proteins that diffuse more or less easily than others.  PHOSPHOLIPID BILAYER

SEMI PERMEABLE

question
T/F:  Polar and Ionic substances can easily diffuse across a membrane.
answer
False; only nonpolar, uncharged molecules can cross readily
question
Facilitated Diffusion still does not require energy but it does require specific binding of the nutrient to a _________________ where it causes a _______________ in the protein which results in the release of the nutrients in the _____________.
answer

Facilitator protein

Conformational Change

Cytoplasm

question
In Simple diffusion/Passive and Facilitated Diffusion there is an _______________ amount of nutrients inside and outside the  cell.
answer

Equal

(Equilibrium)

question
Active Transport is  ______________________ that concentrates nutrients ____________ the cell.
answer

Energy Dependent

Inside (1000x more than outside)

question
What is the energy source for active transport?
answer
The Proton Motive Force
question
What 2 things make up the PMF?
answer

1. Proton Gradient

2. Charge Gradient

question
What is PTS?
answer

Phosphotransferase System

 

Gluc comes into the cell and gets PO4+ via PEP

(is highly regulated)

question
T/F:  Since H2O is polar it does not cross the membrane freely.
answer
False; it is the only polar substance that can cross readily thru the membrane
question
What makes up metabolism?
answer

Catabolism = releases energy

Anabolism = uses that energy to make new cells

question
There are 2 different types of culture medias, what are the they and the difference between the 2?
answer

Defined = You know the exact # of material and you need a buffer to maintain pH

 

Undefined (complex) = You dont know the # and is uses proteins derived from plants and animal extracts as the buffer

question
Why are enzymes used in reactions?
answer
They are used to lower the activation energy needed to start the rxn, this increases the rate of the rxn.  Enzymes work by bringing the substrates closer together or by making them interact more.
question
Metabolism usually involves ___________ of highly ____________ food sources (sugars), extracting energy and storing it in the form of ____________.
answer

Oxidation

Reduced

ATP

question

Lose Electrons = ___________

Gain Electrons = ____________

answer

Oxidation

Reduction

 

(LEO the lion says GER)

question
Oxidation and Reduction reactions are always _____________ and use _____________.
answer

Coupled

Electron Carrier Proteins

question
What are the 3 main electron carriers?
answer

1. NAD+---------> NADH

2. NADP+-------> NADPH

3.  FAD-------> FADH2

question
What is the definition of phosphorylation?
answer
Adding organic PO4 to a substrate
question
What are the 3 ways cells can phosphorylate ADP to ATP?
answer
1. Substrate Level Phosphorylation (SLP)
2. Oxidative Phosphorylation
3. Photophosphorylation
question
Where does SLP occur?
answer

In Glycolysis (makes PEP first)  and the Kreb Cycle (makes succinly CoA)

 

 

question
In ______________ the reduced molecules are oxidized and the energy is extracted by the ___________.
answer

Oxidative Phosphorylation

ETC

question
What is an electron acceptor?
answer
A molecule that accepts electrons and in the process becomes reduced!
question
What is the Chemiosmosis Theory?
answer

1. Membrane maintains electrochemical gradient

2. Cells use energy released in redox rxns of ETC to make PMF

3. H+ propelled by PMF, flow down electrochemical gradient via ATP Synthases to make ATP

 

 

AKA Oxidative Phosphorylation because proton gradient created by oxidation of components of ETC

question
What are 3 ways to reoxidize the electron carriers? And which is most preferred method?
answer

1. Anaerobic Respiration

2. Aerobic Respiration (most preferred)

3. Fermentation

 

 

question
In Glycolysis, Glucose is ___________ to make _____ Pyruvate, and _____ ATP while at the same time reducing ____ NAD+ to make NADH.
answer

Oxidized

2

2

2

 

question
During fermentation NADH is reoxidized to NAD+ by using ATP from ____________ and forms _______ and _______ as end products.
answer

Glycolysis

Alcohols

Acids

question
What happens during Cellular Respiration?
answer
Pyruvic Acid is completely oxidized to make ATP after a series of redox rxns
question
Under Aerobic conditions, Pyruvate is converted to _________ and ___________ via the enzyme ____________.
answer

Acetyl CoA

CO2

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

question
What is decarboxylation, and how many in the Kreb cycle?
answer

The release of CO2

There is 2 CO2 released

question
What are examples of high energy compounds?
answer

1. Succinyl-CoA

2. ATP, ADP

3. PEP

question
T/F:  The Krebs Cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria in prokaryotes and in the Cytoplasm for Eukaryotes.
answer

False;

Prokaryotes = Cytoplasm

Eukaryotes = Mitochondrial Matrix

question
What is an amphibolic pathway? Give an example!
answer

Amphibolic = Can be used for both anabolic and catabolic processes

 

Example = Glycolysis and Kreb Cycle

question
What happens during Aerobic Respiration?
answer

1. Regenerate NAD+ and FAD

2. Pump H+ out of cell, but comes back in via ATP Synthetase, this creates PMF

3. Make lots of ATP

4. O2 is reduced to H2O

question
What is the first enzyme in the ETC and what is the final electron acceptor?
answer

1. NADH Dehydrogenase

2. O2

question
In Anerobic Respiration, since there is no O2 what is used as the final electron acceptor?
answer
Inorganic molecules such as Nitrates, Nitrites, Sulfates and Carbonates
question
What is the difference between fermentation and anaerobic respiration?
answer

In Fermentation there is no Kreb Cycle or ETC

It uses an organic molecule as the terminal e- acceptor and makes ATP via SLP.  It also only make 2 ATPs

 

Anaerobic Respiration = Occurs with the ETC but different e- acceptor than O2.  It uses inorganic molecules and makes ~ 34 ATPs

question
Which mechanisms generate ATP using an ETC?
answer
Both Anaerobic and Aerobic Respiration
question
Which process makes the most ATPs thus is the most efficient mechanism?
answer
Aerobic Respiration
question
What type of process is it if you require the use of a proton gradient across the membrane to make ATP?
answer

Oxidative Phosphorylation

(aka chemiosmosis)

question
What are the products of the Krebs Cycle?
answer

2 ATP

2 FADH2

4 CO2

6 NADH

question
What are some similarities between Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration?
answer

Both undergo Glycolysis, Krebs and ETC

ATP is made via Oxidative Phosphorylation

Electron carriers are re-oxidized

question
Phototrophs use the _________ as their energy source whereas chemotrophs use _______________.
answer

Sun

Oxidation of organic/inorganic compounds

question
Autotrophs use ____________ to fix CO2 whereas Heterotrophs use ____________ as there carbon source.
answer

Inorganic compounds

Organic compounds

question
T/F: Photoautotrophs use both the energy from the sun and CO2 fixation as their carbon source.
answer
True
question
Enzymes are ____________that are not used up during a reaction, so they can be reuused!
answer
Organic Catalysts
question
Enzymes are made up of an ______________ (protein portion) and a ______________ (non protein portion). Together they make up the ______________.
answer

Apoenzyme

Cofactor or Coenzyme

Holoenzyme

question
What is binary fission?
answer
As a cell grows it divides into 2 new cells.
question
What device measures the increase in cell mass which thus can determine the growth rate?
answer
Spectrophotometer
question
What is the generation time? And when is it measured?
answer

 It is the amount of time it takes for the bacteria to 2x

 

Measured during the log phase

question
What are the 4 different growth phases?
answer

1. Lag Phase

2. Log Phase

3. Stationary Phase

4. Death/ Log Decline Phase

question
What happens during the lag phase? Log phase? Stationary phase?  Death phase?
answer

Lag phase = acclimation, where preparation occurs and the synthesis of necessary enzymes

 

Log phase = Exponential growth where you get the max rate of growth

 

Stationary phase = Waste builds up and the # of cells dividing = # cells dying

 

Death phase = cell death

question
Define growth curve?
answer
It is growth of a bacteria due to an increase in cells in a population not there size
question
If you have a higher ____________ than your Optical Density is ________ which means there is ____________ bacteria.
answer

Absorbance

higher

more

question
What are the cardinal temperatures of growth?
answer

1. Hyperthermophiles: grow at 80 C

2. Psychrophiles: grow at 20-40 C and 0 C

3. Mesophiles: Optimal growth at 37 C

question
How does Temp and pH affect microbial growth?
answer

Temp: if 2 hi or low can denature protein by affecting H bonds

 

pH:  Changes enzymatic activity by changing the shape of the protein

question
Acidophiles grow best at _________.
answer
Very low pHs
question
In which ways can Facultative Anaerobic organisms maintain life?
answer

1. Fermentation

2. Anaerobic Respiration

3. Aerobic Respiration

question
In order for obligate anaerobes to grow there must not be any __________ present.
answer
Oxygen
question
Aerotolerant Anaerobes dont undergo aerobic metabolism but they do have enzymes that do what?
answer
Detoxify the poisonous forms of Oxygen
question
What products arise following oxygen metabolism?
answer

Formation of oxidizing agents such as:

Superoxides

Peroxides

Free radicals

 

(All can lead to cell damage)

question
What are microaerophiles?
answer
Aerobes that need only a little bit of Oxygen (2-10%) and can only detoxify the byproducts of oxygen metabolism to small extent
question
Which type of organism growth condition the most efficient?
answer
Facultative Anaerobe - they can undergo all 3 processes
question
Give an example of an obligate anaerobe?
answer
Clostridium--- causes gangrene
question
What occurs in a Hypotonic solution?
answer
Water moves into the cell and may cause the cell to burst if the wall is weak/damaged (osmotic lysis).  There is a lower solute concentration on the outside of the cell.
question
What happens in Hypertonic solution?
answer
Water moves out of the cell causing the plasma membrane to shrink (plasmolysis).  There is a greater solute concentration outside the cell.
question
What is the difference between selective and differential media?
answer

Selective = select on group against others

Differential = Different groups will grow in different colors

 

If fermentation has occured the pH will b lower. Use phenol red indicator to determine when fermentation has occured.

Red = 7 Pink = 9 and Yellow = 5

question
What is made after transcription?
answer
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
question
Translation is the process of making _____________
answer
Proteins from mRNA
question
What are some major differences between RNA and DNA?
answer

1. Ribose vs Deoxyribose

2. Uracil vs Thymine

3. single stranded vs double stranded

question
DNA replication occurs in the _________ direction so DNA Polymerase adds nucleotides to this end ________.
answer

5' -----> 3'

 

3' OH end

question
Because DNA is antiparallel, this creates a ______________ strand and a ____________ strand.  Which has continous replication?
answer

Leading (continous)

Lagging

question
Why does DNA form a double helix?
answer
Because of the H bonds between complementary base pairs
question
What do they mean by DNA is Semi-Conservative?
answer
There is one old strand (parent) and one newly synthesized strand (daughter)
question
Because Bacteria has circular DNA, where do they know to start replication?
answer
At the ORI (origin)
question
How are errors corrected in DNA replication?
answer
DNA Polymerase has proofreading abilities.  it has a 3' to 5' exonuclease activity that removes wrong nucleotides
question
Which enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA from DNA?
answer
RNA Polymerase
question
T/F: RNA  Polymerase needs a primer.
answer
False; it doesnt need a primer, but it does need a DNA template
question
Compare RNA Polymerase to that of DNA Polymerase.
answer

1. Lacks proofreading activity

2. Does not need a helicase

3. Does not need a primer

4. Slower

5. Puts in U instead of T

 

question
Where is the site of protein synthesis?
answer
The ribosomes
question
What is the definition of an operon?
answer
A cluster of genes under one comman/control
question
What is an inducible operon and give an example?
answer

It is normally off, and it has to be activated by an inducers.  This type of operon controls catabolic enzymes

 

Ex: Lactose Operon.  If no glucose then turned on because there is high # of lactose

question
What is a repressible operon? Give an example
answer

It is normally on and transcribed continually until it is deactivated by repressors.  This type of operon controls anabolic enzymes.

 

Ex: Tryptophan operon.  If Tryp is present then operon is turned off

question
Ribosomes are made up of ____________ and _____________ and vary in size in Pro vs Euk.
answer

Protein

RNA

question
What are some important features of the genetic code?
answer

1. Universal

2. Remains unchanged

3. Start codon = AUG (Methionine)

4. Stop codon = UAA, UAG, UGA

question
T/F: Every codon codes for a specific A.A. but an A.A can have more than codon because of degeneracy.
answer
True
question
Why do bacteria have an advantage of simultaneous replication, transcription and translation?
answer
Since they have no nucleus, all processes are coupled and occur at the same time.  This gives it a faster rate and there is no need for post transcriptional modification
question
What is a Frame-Shift Mutation?
answer
A change in the reading frame of the DNA due to an insertion/ deletion.  This can lead to a partially folded protein, a missense or a nonsense where there is no protein made.
question
What is a mutagen?
answer
Anything that causes a mutation (that is a heritable chnage in DNA)
question
Why is radiation consider a mutagen?
answer

If its ionizing then it induces breaks in both strands that are hard to repair in chromosomes.

 

If its nonionizing then it could still form thymine dimers

question
What are some examples of chemical mutagens?
answer

1. Nucleotide analogs

2. Nucleotide-altering chemicals

3. Frameshift mutagens

question
A Nucleotide analog looks like a NT but does not function normally it disrupts DNA and RNA replication and causes _____________.
answer
Point mutations
question
Nucleotide-altering chemicals result in _____________ and ___________ mutations.
answer

Base-pair substitution

Missense

question
Frameshift Mutagens result in _______________.
answer

Nonsense mutations

 

no protein is made

question
How does DNA repair occur?
answer

All repairs via DNA Polymerase

 

Finds error, removes it, fills gap with correct base.

question
T/F: Carcinogens are harmful chemicals or agents that can cause cancer due to mutations in the DNA
answer
True
question
In light repair photoactivation opens  ______________ whereas in dark repair this occurs _____________.
answer

Thymine dimers

 

The wrong base is removed and is replaced with a new base

question
What is the Ames Test used for?
answer
Used to look at bacterial DNA to help screen for substances that might cause cancer.  It looks at metaboolic activity being affected by mutation (damage) to DNA
question
In the Ames test, if _______________ is present then there is a carcinogen present.
answer
Histidine
question
What is genetic recombination?
answer
It is the exchange of DNA segments composed of homogolous sequences
question
What is vertical gene transfer?
answer

Organisms replicate their genomes and then pass it down to the next generation.

 

Example from parent to daughter

question
What is horizontal gene transfer?
answer
A donor contributes part of their genome to recipient.
question
List and define the 3 types of Horizontal Gene transfer.
answer

1. Transduction = DNA is transfered with the help of viruses

2. Transformation = cells pick up DNA from lysed cells

3. Conjugation = Donor transfers plasmid to recipient via pilli

question
Why use Recombinant DNA Technology?
answer

To modify genomes of organisms by natural and artificial processes for practical processes.

 

You can eliminate unwanted phenotypes

Combine beneficial traits to make  a valuable organism

Make products that humans need

question
What are some tools used in Recombinant DNA Techonology?
answer

1. Mutagens

2. Reverse Transcriptase

3. Restriction enzymes

4. Vectors

5. Synthetic nucleic acids

6. Gene libraries

question
What are vectors? And list some useful properties.
answer

Vectors are tools for inserting DNA into a host.  They can be viruses, plasmids, transposons

 

They are small enough to make in lab

Can survive inside the cell

Contain gene markers that are recognizable

Ensure genetic expression of gene

question
What is a gene library?
answer
A collection of bacterial or phage clones; each contains a piece of the genetic information of interest
question
List some examples of techniques used in Recombinant DNA Technology.
answer

1. PCR

2. Separation of DNA molecules

3. Insertion of DNA into cells

4. Clone Selection

question
What is PCR?
answer

Polymerase Chain Reaction

 

Used for multiplying/ amplifying DNA in vitro

 

(Was used for West Nile virus and Bacilius Antracis to ID the source of spores)

question
What are ways to separate DNA molecules?
answer

1. Gel electrophoresis = separate based on charge, size and shape

(the smaller the faster it will travel)

 

2. Southern Blot

question
What are some natural methods of inserting DNA into cells?
answer

1. Transduction

2. Transformation

3. Conjugation

 

Can use vectors

question
Describe the artificial methods for inserting DNA into cells.
answer

1. Electroporation = Make the membrane more responsive

2. Protoplast fusion = fuse 2 cells membranes

3. Injection = gene gun and microinjection

question
What are the applications for Recombinant DNA technology?
answer

1. Genome mapping

2. Drug development

3. Vaccine Development

4. Agricultural applications

5. Provides info on metabolism, growth

6. Relate DNA sequence to protein synthesis

7. Transgenic organisms

question
List 3 incidents over the last century that brought infectious diseases under control.  What did they control?
answer

1. Establishment of Health Department in 1900s = Made water treatment systems that controlled Cholera

 

2. Creation of antibiotics = Controlled Pneumonia

 

3. Vaccinations = Eradicated smallpox

question
What are common types of diseases in the United States?
answer

1. STDs

2. Upper Respiratory Disease

3. Gastroenteritis

question
What are some of the common infectious diseases in developing countries?
answer

1. AIDS

2. Respiratory Diseases

 3. Intestinal Diseases ( virus = rotavirus, bacterial = Salmonella, Campylobacter)

4. Deseases caused by lack of Immunization = Tetanus

question
What is MRSA?
answer

Methillicin Resistant Staphylcoccus Aureus

(The pathogen is resistant to the antibiotic)

This is a 2 billion dollar problem in hospitals and accounts for 20000 deaths a year.

question
What is the name of the flesh eating bacteria?
answer
Streptoccocus Pyrogenes
question

What is a nosocomial infection?

What are some contributing factors?

answer

A disease acquired while in a hospital.

 

1. Old age, weakened Immune system

2. A breakdown of barriers (burns, cuts, etc)

3. Chemotheraphy

4. Antibiotic resistant bacteria

5. Get 1 infection every 14 extra days

6. 1/20 infected or 1/400 deaths = 20000/yr

7. 2 billion $ a year

question
What are some causes for a nosocomial infection?
answer

1. Patients are already ill, have impaired defenses

2. crowding = more infections

3. Most virulent forms are in hospitals

4. Newborns lack functional immune system

5. Drug resistant pathogens

question

Which pathogens is most common in UTIs?

Which are most common in surgical infections?

answer

1. E.Coli

2. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

 

1. S. Aureus

2. Streptococcus

question
Define disease
answer
Abnormal condition or function
question
What is an infection?
answer
Growth of a microbe on or within a host (can be symptomatic or asymptomatic)
question
What is a pathogen? And which 2 microbes are usually pathogens?
answer

Bacteria capable of causing disease (only a small # are pathogens)

 

Usually: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB)

and

Yersenia Pestis

question
What is the definition of an opportunistic pathogen and what is the most common of them?
answer

A pathogen that normally doesnt cause harm, but does so in immune compromised people.

 

Ex:  Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

question
T/F: Virulence is the relative ability (degree) to cause a disease. So if you have a higher virulence then you are more likely to cause a disease.
answer
True
question

What is ID50?

What happens if you have a lower LD50?

answer

ID50 = Infectious Dose 50

 

The number of organisms required to make 50% of the population sick

 

If LD50 is low then there is high virulence

question
What is LD50? And what happens if you have a high LD50?
answer

LD50 = Lethal Dose 50

 

Is the number of microbes that can kill 50% of the population that has the disease.

 

If LD50 is high then you have low virulence.

question

State Koch's Postulates?

What does it prove?

answer

1. Observation = Signs and symptoms

2. Isolation = Pure culture

3. Re-infection = in an healthy person

4. Re-Observation and Re-Isolation = compare

 

Proves the etiology of the disease. One disease from one microbe

question
What are the 3 exceptions to Koch's Postulates?
answer

1. Mycobacterium Leprae (leprosy) = grows to slow

2. Treponemma Pallidum (syphillis) = cant grow outside of host

3. Polymicrobic infections

question
Describe the triangle of infection, starting with normal individuals at the top of the triangle.
answer

Top: Normal individuals who are healthy . There are few microbes that are capable of causing disease. So here is there is hi LD50 and ID50

 

Side:  Individuals with impaired defenses

 

Bottom:  Immunocompromised individuals. Many microbes can cause disease. So here there is a low LD50 and ID50.  (ex: Chemo patients, HIV peeps, diabetes peeps, etc)

question
What are the 2 ways bacteria can cause a disease?
answer

1. Invasion

2. Producing toxic products

question
List the degree of invasiveness.
answer

1. No invasion

2. Minimal Invasion

3. Highly invasive

question
Describe a non invasive infection and give an example.
answer

It is highly toxic; usually food borne toxin

 

Ex:  Clostridium Botulinum

or

S. Aureus

question
Describe a minimal invasive infection and provide an example.
answer

Potent toxin

 

Ex: Corynebacterium Diptheria

or

C. tetani

question
Describe a highly invasive infection and give an example.
answer

Little or no toxin made

 

Ex:  Shigella

M. Tuberculosis

question
What are the 3 steps involved in bacterial invasion?
answer

1. Attachment

2. Obtaining nutrients

3. Avoiding host defenses

question
_____________ determines host and tissue specificity.
answer
Attachment
question
What type of structures or macromolecules are used for attachment?
answer

1. Proteins

2. Fimbriae

3. Pili

 

(Ex.  N. Gonorrhea has a specific pili for attachment)

question
What nutrient is often a limiting factor?
answer
Iron
question

What do you call the Iron binding proteins in Bacteria?

What about in the host cells?

answer

Bacteria = Siderophores (Is a virulence factor)

(used to try and steal the hosts Iron)

 

Host = Transferrin, Lactoferrin

question
What is a protective mechanism that a host cell does in order to make Iron less available to a bacteria?
answer
It will limit the amount of Iron circulating in the body and will transfer it to the liver
question
In which ways do bacteria avoid the host defenses?
answer

1. Avoid antibody

2. Avoid the phagocytic cells

question
What 2 ways do bacteria avoid host antibody during invasion? And give examples of bacteria that do this.
answer

1. Rapid antigenic change (changes it pili so wont recognize it)  - N.Gonerrhea, Borrelia

 

2. Precipitate Antibody by binding to Fc portion (inactivates it)  - Staphylcoccus Aureus

question
In which 3 ways do bacteria avoid the action of phagocytic cells?
answer

1. Leukocidins

2. Survival within the cell

3. Antiphagocytic capsule

question
________________ attack phagocytic cells.  Which bacteria possess this?
answer

Leukocidins

 

Staphyloccus Aureus

question
Which type of bacteria are capable of surviving within a phagocytic cell?
answer

1. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

2. Salmonella typhi

question
T/F: A capsule is a virulence factor.
answer
True
question
For both Exotoxin and Enterotoxin, entry is required and both are dimeric proteins. What does A do, What does B do?
answer

A:  Required for toxic activity

B:  Required for entry into cell (you want antibodies to inhibit the attachment)

question
Cytolytic toxins attack ______________ whereas ____________ affects normal nerve function.
answer

Surfaces

 

Neurotoxins

question
What is an Exotoxin?
answer
Proteins that are produced and secreted by a microorganism.  They are highly toxic, nonpyrogenic and hihgly immunogenic. 
question
What is a superantigen?
answer
Toxic chemicals produced by bacteria that mimics multiple infections thus activating multiple T cells leading to an over reaction to one infection.
question
What is an endotoxin?
answer
Part of the gram negative bacteria outer membrane (LPS) and is only released once the microbe dies
question
The Cytotoxin, S. Aureus has an alpha toxin that does what?
answer
Disturbs the cell membranes ion channels
question
Which organisms is responsible for cell death? How does it accomplish this?
answer

C. Diphtheria

 

A portion of the dimeric protein inactivates the Elongation Factor 2 thus inhibits protein synthesis

question
_______________ is a neurotoxin that masks the target muscle so that the neurotransmitter cannot reach it.  This leads to _______________ .
answer

C. Tetani

 

Constant contraction (ex: lock jaw)

question
This neurotoxin inhibits the release of neurotransmitters leading to constant relaxation.
answer
C. Botulinum
question
How does the enterotoxin, V. Cholera cause diarrhea/dehydration?
answer

The A portion of the tetramer increases the adenylate cyclase activity thus increases cAMP.  The increase in cAMP increases the flow of ions out of the cell and thus water too. 

 

No antibiotics is need, just rehydrate

question
During shock, what are some main things to look out for?
answer

Fever

Hypotension

question
What are routes of entry for infectious diseases? 
answer

1. Mucous membranes (GI, Resp, Uri, Eye) 

2. Skin

3. Parenteral route

4. Vector Transmission

question
What is a parenteral route for disease?
answer

Entering the body by other means than the alimentary tract. 

 

Entry via subcutaneous, intramuscular, or IV

question
What is vector transmission? Give an example
answer

Entry via an insect

 

Ex:  Rickettsia Prowaskii = body lice

question
What are the functions of pili?
answer

They are aka adhesins. Specific attachment

Genetic exchange

Promote blood clotting

Prevent Phagocytosis

question
What is flagella?
answer

An organ for locomotion

aka H-antigen

question
_____________ is made up of proteins and carbohydrates; causative agents of pneumonia and meningitis.  It is aka ____________.
answer

Capsule

K Antigen

question

What are virulence factors?

List the different forms of virulence factors.

answer

Anything that facilitates a disease. Can be the prescence of the bacteria in the body, something the organism makes, or something it possess.

 

1. Pili

2. Capsule (K-Antigen)

3. Flagella (H-Antigen)

4. Cell Wall

 

question
What are some ways phagocytic failure can occur? What are the organisms that do this?
answer

1. Inhibit Phagocytosis = S. Pneumonia

2. Inhibit Lysosomal fusion = TB

3. Escape Lysosome = Plague

4. Lives w/in Lysosome = Salmonella

5. Kill Phagocyte = S. Aereus

question
What is epidemiology concerned with?
answer

Transmission, spread, control and prevention of infectious diseases in populations.

 

(All aspects of disease except treatment)

question
What is the difference between endemic, epidemic and pandemic?
answer

Endemic = Disease stays in pop at low frequency

Epidemic = Sudden outbreak in above levels
Pandemic = An epidemic over a wide area (worldwide)

question
What is the difference between mortality and morbidity?
answer

Mortality = Reported deaths due to the disease

Morbidity = All reported cases of disease;  illness + deaths

question
___________________ is where a disease is typically found.
answer
Reservoir
question
Give some examples of reservoirs.
answer

Inanimate

Animate = Humans (ex: gallbladder)

Carriers

question
Compare and contrast the different routes of transmission of diseases.
answer

1. Airborne-borne = Most common, travels > 1 m (ex: Cold, Flu, TB)

 

2. Anthropod- borne = Carried by vector (ex: Thphus fever from body lice)

 

3. Direct contact = STDs

 

4. Food-borne = Preformed toxins (ex: Botulinum)

 

5. Water-borne = ex: Cholera

question
How do bacteria evade the immune system (antibodies, complement and phagocytes)?
answer

1. Proteases = inactivate host defense

2. LPS = Lipid A stimulate cytokine release, damages host cells

3. Capsules = Prevent phagocytosis

4. Vary surface antigens = H and K

5. Superantigens = Excess cytokine production

6. Cross reactivity

question
What is normal flora?
answer
A form of commensalism where their is bacteria in us that benefit from us, and leaves no harm to the host. The organisms are associated with healthy body tissues.
question
What is the normal flora on the skin? Which can tolerate high salt concentrations?
answer

1. Staphylococcus - can tolerate it

2. Corynebacterium

question
What organism breaks down enamel (hardest compound in body) by lowering the pH as it grows in the oral cavity?
answer
Streptococcus Mutans
question
Give some examples of normal flora in the mucous membranes.
answer

1. GI = Lactobacilli

2. Small Intestine = Enterococci

3. Large Intestine = Entercocci

4. Upper Respir. Tract = Strep and Staph

5. Urethra = E. Coli, Proteus

6. Vagina = Lactobacilli

question
What is symbiosis??
answer
A close association between 2 microbes where both benefit from the association
question
_______________ is an example of a symbiosis whereas paratism is an example of ____________.
answer

Mutualism

 

Antagonism

 

question
How is the skin an important barrier to infectious diseases?
answer

It has natural defense mechanisms

 

1. High Salt concentration

2. Low moisture

3. Fatty acids

4. Low pH

question
What is significant of the epidermis?
answer

It has a tight layer of cells.  The top layer is dead cells that is constantly shedded.

Makes it hard for microbes to attach

question
Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA.
answer

Eukaryotic mRNA have the following modifications:

 

5' Cap

3' Poly A tail

Introns removed

question
What are plasmids? What are transposons?
answer

Plasmids = DNA molecule that can separate independently of chromosomal DNA

 

Transposons = sequences of DNA that move within a genome

question
What is significant of biofilm?
answer
Is a virulent factor that protects the bacteria from the immune system.  Creates a sticky film around the bacteria.  Made from glycocalyx
question
List some different forms of Adherence factors?
answer

1. Glycocalyx

2. Adherence proteins

3. Lipoteichoic acids

4. Fimbriae (pili)

question
Compare the intracellular and extracellular life of bacteria.
answer

Intra = Microbes live inside cells where they are protected from Ab, phagocytes, etc. They dont move as much  (Ex: Chlamydia = obligate intracellular parasite)

 

Extra = Bacteria is in the blood not the cells. So they are constantly under attack, but have more motility

question
Fimbriae are hair like structures used for ______ attachment whereas cilia is hair like projections that are used to ___________ in the respiratory tract.
answer

non specific attachment

 

sweep away fluids/particles

question
Lipoteichoic acid is only found in ___________ and can cause __________.
answer

Gram +

Immune system activation

question
T/F:  LPS is found on the outer membrane of gram + and act as endotoxins that stimulate an immune response.
answer
False; LPS is only found in gram -
question
What is the signficance of having capsule, endospores and flagella for the bacteria?
answer

They are all virulence factors

 

Capsules = prevent phagocytosis

Flagella = locomotion

Endospores = Survive harsh conditions

question
In which ways do bacteria avoid detection by the immune system?
answer

1. Fast in, fast out

2. Mimic host antigens

3. Stay within host cells

4. Infect priviledge sites

5. Bind to host antibodies upside down

6. Antigenic variation

question
Define RFLP
answer

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism

 

It is the difference between samples of homologous DNA molecules that come from differing locations of restriction enzymes sites

question
Define In Situ Hybridization
answer
Uses labeled complementary DNA or RNA strand (probe) to localize a specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion/section of tissue
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New