MCB Exam 2 – Flashcards
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Unlock answersWhat are the 5 kingdoms? |
1. Animal 2. Plant 3. Monera 4. Protozoa 5. Fungi |
What are the 3 domains for microorganisms? |
1. Small Eukarya 2. Archaea 3. Bacteria |
Why are viruses in a class of their own? |
Because they are not complete cells. They have no membrane, no regulation, cannot replicate on its own. |
What is spontaneous generation? And who disproved it and how? |
The rise of living from the non living. Pasteur and Koch = Germ Theory of Disease |
Who was the first to see and define microbes; defined the cell? |
Robert Hooke |
Who is responsible for discovering immunizations? |
Edward Jenner |
Who is the creator of Penicillin? |
Alexander Fleming |
Why is Paul Ehrlich a major contributor to the science of microbiology? |
He found the cure for syphilis. Found out that Salvarsan chemical killed the spirochetes. "Magic Bullet" that targets the site of infection |
Who is the father of microbiology and why? |
Louis Pasteur Did the swan- neck flask experiment and developed the Germ Theory of Disease that states that there is a germ behind every disease. Found the causes for Tb, anthrax, cholera, and rabies. |
What are the 6 major bioelements? |
1. Carbon 2. Hydrogen 3. Sulfur 4. Oxygen 5. Nitrogen 6. Phosphorous
(SPONCH) |
What are the 4 polymers all life forms have? What are there building blocks? |
1. Lipids = Fatty acids + glycerol 2. Protein = Amino Acids 3. Nucleic Acids = Nucelotides (Base/Sugar/PO4) 4. Carbohydrate (Polysaccharides) = Sugars |
Which carbohydrate source is most abundant on earth? |
Cellulose (but cant be digested by humans because of the B 1,4 bond) |
What are carbohydrates used for in the body? |
1. Structural units 2. Energy 3. Important in the cell membrane they can attach to lipids and proteins on surface then can serve as receptors |
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated lipids? And which is more fluid? |
Saturated = More hydrogens, no double bonds
Unsaturated = More double bonds, less hydrogens (MORE FLUID because the double bonds tilt the molecule so it dont compact well) |
Which is the most abundant polymer? |
Protein
It accounts for 55% of dry weight of cells |
What is a polymer? |
A repeat of similar or identical monomers |
What are the 3 categories of chemical reactions? |
1. Synthesis = Anabolism = Dehydration 2. Decomposition = Catabolism = Hydrolysis 3. Exchange = no net gain/loss of water |
_____________ is part of the bacterial cell wall whereas ___________ is in fungal cell walls. |
Peptidoglycan Chitin |
This type of reaction occurs spontaneous and releases energy, whereas ______________ requires energy input. |
Exergonic Endergonic |
What are some functions of proteins in cells? |
1. Enzymes 2. Regulate cellular processes 3. Structural support (ex: collagen) 4. Surface receptors (ex: glycoprotein) 5. Carriers 6. Transmembrane proteins that are involved in signal transduction |
What type of bonds contribute to the primary structure of a protein? |
~ 300 A.A connected by peptide bonds (a form of covalent bond)
The NH2 from 1 A.A attachs to the COOH from another A.A |
What types of bonds make up the secondary structure of proteins? And what do they make? |
Held together by H-bonds between the A.A along with there peptide bonds from their primary structure.
Alpha helix and Beta Sheets |
The tertiary structure of proteins results from what kind of bonds/forces? |
1. Disulfide bonds (S-S = covalent bond) 2. Hydrophobic interactions 3. Van Der Waals interactions |
This structure is when the protein becomes functional: ____________ |
Tertiary (3D shape) |
What gives proteins its biological properties and what things affect the protein structure? |
Folding gives its properties
Temp (can melt H bonds) pH (can affect polarity/charge) |
What are the 2 different types of microscopes and there magnification strength? |
1. Compound Light microscope = 1000-2000x magnification
2. Electron microscope = 100,000x Magnification |
Which type of compound light microscopy is best for Ab-Ag interactions and is a good tool for detecting infectious disease? What is its source of illumination? |
Fluorescent
UV light |
What are the 2 types of Electron microscopy you can have? |
SEM = surface of cell TEM = cross section of the cell |
When would you use electron microscopy? And what is its light source? |
It is good for detail of individuals structures, you can even view viruses.
They use electron beam as the light source |
What is smear preparation? |
Heat fixing cells so that they dont get washed off during the staining procedure |
What are some different stains that you can do? |
1. Simple stain = one color 2. Differential stain = 2 colors 3. Negative stain = stain the background |
What are 2 important differential staining procedures? |
1. Gram Stain 2. Acid fast stain |
When do you do an Acid Fast Stain? |
Used with Mycobacterium because they have a thick waxy coat that doesnt absorb color from a stain. Used to determine TB/Leprosy if results in a positive Acid fast stain. |
Structural stains involve staining of these structures: _____________, _____________, _____________ |
Flagella Endospore Capsule |
What is the relative size of microbes? What about RBC and Eukaryotes? |
Micro = 0.5 to 2.0 microns RBC = 7.5 microns Euk = 20 microns |
Give an example of a gram positive cocci that is in clusters. |
Staphylococcus |
Give an example of a gram positive cocci in a chain? |
Streptococcus |
Give an example of a gram negative cocci. |
Gonorrhea |
What types of shapes do the following have: 1. Cocci 2. Bacilli 3. Spirillum 4. Spirochete |
1. Spherical 2. Rod 3. Spiral 4. Coil |
What are some examples of gram positive bacilli? |
Bacillus (anthrax) Clostridium (tetanus, botulinum) |
What are some examples of gram negative bacilli? |
1. E. Coli 2. Salmonella |
Which is the most famous spirochete? |
Syphilis |
Give an example of a spirillum? |
Cholera |
Cholera is a ____________ borne disease. |
Water |
T/F: Endospores are found in both Pro and Euk. |
False, only in Pro |
T/F: Peptidoglycan is only found in Eukaryotes (in plants). |
False; Only in Prokaryotes |
What is the endosymbiosis theory? |
That organelles such as Mitochondria and Chlorplast evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes living in other prokaryotes. |
What 3 things make up the glycocalyx? And what does glycocalyx aid in? |
1. Capsule 2. Extracellular Polysaccharides 3. Slime layer
In the formation of the biofilm |
Microorganisms are divided up into 2 groups depending on the structural component of their cellular envelops. What are these 2 groups? |
Gram + Gram - |
What 2 sugars make up the cell wall? |
NAG = N-acetylglucosamine NAM = N-acetylmuranic Acid |
Describe the cell wall and cell membrane of a gram positive cell. |
1. Many layers of peptidoglycan 2. No outer membrane 3. Contains Teichoic and Lipoteichoic acid 4. No Lipopolysaccharrides (LPS)
|
Describe the cell wall and cell membrane of a gram negative cell. |
1. Few peptidoglycan layers 2. Has an outer membrane 3. Has a Periplasmic space btwn the outer and cytoplasmic membrane 4. Has LPS 5. Has no techoic acid 6. Has porins for entry of molecules |
Describe the process of Gram staining. |
1. Primary stain with a crystal violet 2. Add a mordant (Iodine) to intensify the primary stain 3. Decolorize via Alcohol or Acetone 4. Counterstain with a secondary stain - Safarin
RESULTS Gram + retain the primary color cause of thick walls so they are purple Gram - lose the primary color after decolorizing and are red/pink due to the counterstain |
T/F: Gram + are red where as Gram - come out violet after a gram staining procedure. |
False, it is the opposite + = violet - = red |
Mycoplasma is a type of bacteria that lack what? |
A cell wall |
______________ destroys cell walls. |
Lysozymes |
If you have a higher amount of ______________ than you are more _____________ to lysozymes so an example of this would be a gram ______ cell. |
Cell wall sensitive + |
What is the fluid mosaic model? |
Biological membranes are a 2D liquid made up of lipids and proteins that diffuse more or less easily than others. PHOSPHOLIPID BILAYER SEMI PERMEABLE |
T/F: Polar and Ionic substances can easily diffuse across a membrane. |
False; only nonpolar, uncharged molecules can cross readily |
Facilitated Diffusion still does not require energy but it does require specific binding of the nutrient to a _________________ where it causes a _______________ in the protein which results in the release of the nutrients in the _____________. |
Facilitator protein Conformational Change Cytoplasm |
In Simple diffusion/Passive and Facilitated Diffusion there is an _______________ amount of nutrients inside and outside the cell. |
Equal (Equilibrium) |
Active Transport is ______________________ that concentrates nutrients ____________ the cell. |
Energy Dependent Inside (1000x more than outside) |
What is the energy source for active transport? |
The Proton Motive Force |
What 2 things make up the PMF? |
1. Proton Gradient 2. Charge Gradient |
What is PTS? |
Phosphotransferase System
Gluc comes into the cell and gets PO4+ via PEP (is highly regulated) |
T/F: Since H2O is polar it does not cross the membrane freely. |
False; it is the only polar substance that can cross readily thru the membrane |
What makes up metabolism? |
Catabolism = releases energy Anabolism = uses that energy to make new cells |
There are 2 different types of culture medias, what are the they and the difference between the 2? |
Defined = You know the exact # of material and you need a buffer to maintain pH
Undefined (complex) = You dont know the # and is uses proteins derived from plants and animal extracts as the buffer |
Why are enzymes used in reactions? |
They are used to lower the activation energy needed to start the rxn, this increases the rate of the rxn. Enzymes work by bringing the substrates closer together or by making them interact more. |
Metabolism usually involves ___________ of highly ____________ food sources (sugars), extracting energy and storing it in the form of ____________. |
Oxidation Reduced ATP |
Lose Electrons = ___________ Gain Electrons = ____________ |
Oxidation Reduction
(LEO the lion says GER) |
Oxidation and Reduction reactions are always _____________ and use _____________. |
Coupled Electron Carrier Proteins |
What are the 3 main electron carriers? |
1. NAD+---------> NADH 2. NADP+-------> NADPH 3. FAD-------> FADH2 |
What is the definition of phosphorylation? |
Adding organic PO4 to a substrate |
What are the 3 ways cells can phosphorylate ADP to ATP? |
1. Substrate Level Phosphorylation (SLP) 2. Oxidative Phosphorylation 3. Photophosphorylation |
Where does SLP occur? |
In Glycolysis (makes PEP first) and the Kreb Cycle (makes succinly CoA)
|
In ______________ the reduced molecules are oxidized and the energy is extracted by the ___________. |
Oxidative Phosphorylation ETC |
What is an electron acceptor? |
A molecule that accepts electrons and in the process becomes reduced! |
What is the Chemiosmosis Theory? |
1. Membrane maintains electrochemical gradient 2. Cells use energy released in redox rxns of ETC to make PMF 3. H+ propelled by PMF, flow down electrochemical gradient via ATP Synthases to make ATP
AKA Oxidative Phosphorylation because proton gradient created by oxidation of components of ETC |
What are 3 ways to reoxidize the electron carriers? And which is most preferred method? |
1. Anaerobic Respiration 2. Aerobic Respiration (most preferred) 3. Fermentation
|
In Glycolysis, Glucose is ___________ to make _____ Pyruvate, and _____ ATP while at the same time reducing ____ NAD+ to make NADH. |
Oxidized 2 2 2
|
During fermentation NADH is reoxidized to NAD+ by using ATP from ____________ and forms _______ and _______ as end products. |
Glycolysis Alcohols Acids |
What happens during Cellular Respiration? |
Pyruvic Acid is completely oxidized to make ATP after a series of redox rxns |
Under Aerobic conditions, Pyruvate is converted to _________ and ___________ via the enzyme ____________. |
Acetyl CoA CO2 Pyruvate Dehydrogenase |
What is decarboxylation, and how many in the Kreb cycle? |
The release of CO2 There is 2 CO2 released |
What are examples of high energy compounds? |
1. Succinyl-CoA 2. ATP, ADP 3. PEP |
T/F: The Krebs Cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria in prokaryotes and in the Cytoplasm for Eukaryotes. |
False; Prokaryotes = Cytoplasm Eukaryotes = Mitochondrial Matrix |
What is an amphibolic pathway? Give an example! |
Amphibolic = Can be used for both anabolic and catabolic processes
Example = Glycolysis and Kreb Cycle |
What happens during Aerobic Respiration? |
1. Regenerate NAD+ and FAD 2. Pump H+ out of cell, but comes back in via ATP Synthetase, this creates PMF 3. Make lots of ATP 4. O2 is reduced to H2O |
What is the first enzyme in the ETC and what is the final electron acceptor? |
1. NADH Dehydrogenase 2. O2 |
In Anerobic Respiration, since there is no O2 what is used as the final electron acceptor? |
Inorganic molecules such as Nitrates, Nitrites, Sulfates and Carbonates |
What is the difference between fermentation and anaerobic respiration? |
In Fermentation there is no Kreb Cycle or ETC It uses an organic molecule as the terminal e- acceptor and makes ATP via SLP. It also only make 2 ATPs
Anaerobic Respiration = Occurs with the ETC but different e- acceptor than O2. It uses inorganic molecules and makes ~ 34 ATPs |
Which mechanisms generate ATP using an ETC? |
Both Anaerobic and Aerobic Respiration |
Which process makes the most ATPs thus is the most efficient mechanism? |
Aerobic Respiration |
What type of process is it if you require the use of a proton gradient across the membrane to make ATP? |
Oxidative Phosphorylation (aka chemiosmosis) |
What are the products of the Krebs Cycle? |
2 ATP 2 FADH2 4 CO2 6 NADH |
What are some similarities between Aerobic and Anaerobic Respiration? |
Both undergo Glycolysis, Krebs and ETC ATP is made via Oxidative Phosphorylation Electron carriers are re-oxidized |
Phototrophs use the _________ as their energy source whereas chemotrophs use _______________. |
Sun Oxidation of organic/inorganic compounds |
Autotrophs use ____________ to fix CO2 whereas Heterotrophs use ____________ as there carbon source. |
Inorganic compounds Organic compounds |
T/F: Photoautotrophs use both the energy from the sun and CO2 fixation as their carbon source. |
True |
Enzymes are ____________that are not used up during a reaction, so they can be reuused! |
Organic Catalysts |
Enzymes are made up of an ______________ (protein portion) and a ______________ (non protein portion). Together they make up the ______________. |
Apoenzyme Cofactor or Coenzyme Holoenzyme |
What is binary fission? |
As a cell grows it divides into 2 new cells. |
What device measures the increase in cell mass which thus can determine the growth rate? |
Spectrophotometer |
What is the generation time? And when is it measured? |
It is the amount of time it takes for the bacteria to 2x
Measured during the log phase |
What are the 4 different growth phases? |
1. Lag Phase 2. Log Phase 3. Stationary Phase 4. Death/ Log Decline Phase |
What happens during the lag phase? Log phase? Stationary phase? Death phase? |
Lag phase = acclimation, where preparation occurs and the synthesis of necessary enzymes
Log phase = Exponential growth where you get the max rate of growth
Stationary phase = Waste builds up and the # of cells dividing = # cells dying
Death phase = cell death |
Define growth curve? |
It is growth of a bacteria due to an increase in cells in a population not there size |
If you have a higher ____________ than your Optical Density is ________ which means there is ____________ bacteria. |
Absorbance higher more |
What are the cardinal temperatures of growth? |
1. Hyperthermophiles: grow at 80 C 2. Psychrophiles: grow at 20-40 C and 0 C 3. Mesophiles: Optimal growth at 37 C |
How does Temp and pH affect microbial growth? |
Temp: if 2 hi or low can denature protein by affecting H bonds
pH: Changes enzymatic activity by changing the shape of the protein |
Acidophiles grow best at _________. |
Very low pHs |
In which ways can Facultative Anaerobic organisms maintain life? |
1. Fermentation 2. Anaerobic Respiration 3. Aerobic Respiration |
In order for obligate anaerobes to grow there must not be any __________ present. |
Oxygen |
Aerotolerant Anaerobes dont undergo aerobic metabolism but they do have enzymes that do what? |
Detoxify the poisonous forms of Oxygen |
What products arise following oxygen metabolism? |
Formation of oxidizing agents such as: Superoxides Peroxides Free radicals
(All can lead to cell damage) |
What are microaerophiles? |
Aerobes that need only a little bit of Oxygen (2-10%) and can only detoxify the byproducts of oxygen metabolism to small extent |
Which type of organism growth condition the most efficient? |
Facultative Anaerobe - they can undergo all 3 processes |
Give an example of an obligate anaerobe? |
Clostridium--- causes gangrene |
What occurs in a Hypotonic solution? |
Water moves into the cell and may cause the cell to burst if the wall is weak/damaged (osmotic lysis). There is a lower solute concentration on the outside of the cell. |
What happens in Hypertonic solution? |
Water moves out of the cell causing the plasma membrane to shrink (plasmolysis). There is a greater solute concentration outside the cell. |
What is the difference between selective and differential media? |
Selective = select on group against others Differential = Different groups will grow in different colors
If fermentation has occured the pH will b lower. Use phenol red indicator to determine when fermentation has occured. Red = 7 Pink = 9 and Yellow = 5 |
What is made after transcription? |
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA |
Translation is the process of making _____________ |
Proteins from mRNA |
What are some major differences between RNA and DNA? |
1. Ribose vs Deoxyribose 2. Uracil vs Thymine 3. single stranded vs double stranded |
DNA replication occurs in the _________ direction so DNA Polymerase adds nucleotides to this end ________. |
5' -----> 3'
3' OH end |
Because DNA is antiparallel, this creates a ______________ strand and a ____________ strand. Which has continous replication? |
Leading (continous) Lagging |
Why does DNA form a double helix? |
Because of the H bonds between complementary base pairs |
What do they mean by DNA is Semi-Conservative? |
There is one old strand (parent) and one newly synthesized strand (daughter) |
Because Bacteria has circular DNA, where do they know to start replication? |
At the ORI (origin) |
How are errors corrected in DNA replication? |
DNA Polymerase has proofreading abilities. it has a 3' to 5' exonuclease activity that removes wrong nucleotides |
Which enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA from DNA? |
RNA Polymerase |
T/F: RNA Polymerase needs a primer. |
False; it doesnt need a primer, but it does need a DNA template |
Compare RNA Polymerase to that of DNA Polymerase. |
1. Lacks proofreading activity 2. Does not need a helicase 3. Does not need a primer 4. Slower 5. Puts in U instead of T
|
Where is the site of protein synthesis? |
The ribosomes |
What is the definition of an operon? |
A cluster of genes under one comman/control |
What is an inducible operon and give an example? |
It is normally off, and it has to be activated by an inducers. This type of operon controls catabolic enzymes
Ex: Lactose Operon. If no glucose then turned on because there is high # of lactose |
What is a repressible operon? Give an example |
It is normally on and transcribed continually until it is deactivated by repressors. This type of operon controls anabolic enzymes.
Ex: Tryptophan operon. If Tryp is present then operon is turned off |
Ribosomes are made up of ____________ and _____________ and vary in size in Pro vs Euk. |
Protein RNA |
What are some important features of the genetic code? |
1. Universal 2. Remains unchanged 3. Start codon = AUG (Methionine) 4. Stop codon = UAA, UAG, UGA |
T/F: Every codon codes for a specific A.A. but an A.A can have more than codon because of degeneracy. |
True |
Why do bacteria have an advantage of simultaneous replication, transcription and translation? |
Since they have no nucleus, all processes are coupled and occur at the same time. This gives it a faster rate and there is no need for post transcriptional modification |
What is a Frame-Shift Mutation? |
A change in the reading frame of the DNA due to an insertion/ deletion. This can lead to a partially folded protein, a missense or a nonsense where there is no protein made. |
What is a mutagen? |
Anything that causes a mutation (that is a heritable chnage in DNA) |
Why is radiation consider a mutagen? |
If its ionizing then it induces breaks in both strands that are hard to repair in chromosomes.
If its nonionizing then it could still form thymine dimers |
What are some examples of chemical mutagens? |
1. Nucleotide analogs 2. Nucleotide-altering chemicals 3. Frameshift mutagens |
A Nucleotide analog looks like a NT but does not function normally it disrupts DNA and RNA replication and causes _____________. |
Point mutations |
Nucleotide-altering chemicals result in _____________ and ___________ mutations. |
Base-pair substitution Missense |
Frameshift Mutagens result in _______________. |
Nonsense mutations
no protein is made |
How does DNA repair occur? |
All repairs via DNA Polymerase
Finds error, removes it, fills gap with correct base. |
T/F: Carcinogens are harmful chemicals or agents that can cause cancer due to mutations in the DNA |
True |
In light repair photoactivation opens ______________ whereas in dark repair this occurs _____________. |
Thymine dimers
The wrong base is removed and is replaced with a new base |
What is the Ames Test used for? |
Used to look at bacterial DNA to help screen for substances that might cause cancer. It looks at metaboolic activity being affected by mutation (damage) to DNA |
In the Ames test, if _______________ is present then there is a carcinogen present. |
Histidine |
What is genetic recombination? |
It is the exchange of DNA segments composed of homogolous sequences |
What is vertical gene transfer? |
Organisms replicate their genomes and then pass it down to the next generation.
Example from parent to daughter |
What is horizontal gene transfer? |
A donor contributes part of their genome to recipient. |
List and define the 3 types of Horizontal Gene transfer. |
1. Transduction = DNA is transfered with the help of viruses 2. Transformation = cells pick up DNA from lysed cells 3. Conjugation = Donor transfers plasmid to recipient via pilli |
Why use Recombinant DNA Technology? |
To modify genomes of organisms by natural and artificial processes for practical processes.
You can eliminate unwanted phenotypes Combine beneficial traits to make a valuable organism Make products that humans need |
What are some tools used in Recombinant DNA Techonology? |
1. Mutagens 2. Reverse Transcriptase 3. Restriction enzymes 4. Vectors 5. Synthetic nucleic acids 6. Gene libraries |
What are vectors? And list some useful properties. |
Vectors are tools for inserting DNA into a host. They can be viruses, plasmids, transposons
They are small enough to make in lab Can survive inside the cell Contain gene markers that are recognizable Ensure genetic expression of gene |
What is a gene library? |
A collection of bacterial or phage clones; each contains a piece of the genetic information of interest |
List some examples of techniques used in Recombinant DNA Technology. |
1. PCR 2. Separation of DNA molecules 3. Insertion of DNA into cells 4. Clone Selection |
What is PCR? |
Polymerase Chain Reaction
Used for multiplying/ amplifying DNA in vitro
(Was used for West Nile virus and Bacilius Antracis to ID the source of spores) |
What are ways to separate DNA molecules? |
1. Gel electrophoresis = separate based on charge, size and shape (the smaller the faster it will travel)
2. Southern Blot |
What are some natural methods of inserting DNA into cells? |
1. Transduction 2. Transformation 3. Conjugation
Can use vectors |
Describe the artificial methods for inserting DNA into cells. |
1. Electroporation = Make the membrane more responsive 2. Protoplast fusion = fuse 2 cells membranes 3. Injection = gene gun and microinjection |
What are the applications for Recombinant DNA technology? |
1. Genome mapping 2. Drug development 3. Vaccine Development 4. Agricultural applications 5. Provides info on metabolism, growth 6. Relate DNA sequence to protein synthesis 7. Transgenic organisms |
List 3 incidents over the last century that brought infectious diseases under control. What did they control? |
1. Establishment of Health Department in 1900s = Made water treatment systems that controlled Cholera
2. Creation of antibiotics = Controlled Pneumonia
3. Vaccinations = Eradicated smallpox |
What are common types of diseases in the United States? |
1. STDs 2. Upper Respiratory Disease 3. Gastroenteritis |
What are some of the common infectious diseases in developing countries? |
1. AIDS 2. Respiratory Diseases 3. Intestinal Diseases ( virus = rotavirus, bacterial = Salmonella, Campylobacter) 4. Deseases caused by lack of Immunization = Tetanus |
What is MRSA? |
Methillicin Resistant Staphylcoccus Aureus (The pathogen is resistant to the antibiotic) This is a 2 billion dollar problem in hospitals and accounts for 20000 deaths a year. |
What is the name of the flesh eating bacteria? |
Streptoccocus Pyrogenes |
What is a nosocomial infection? What are some contributing factors? |
A disease acquired while in a hospital.
1. Old age, weakened Immune system 2. A breakdown of barriers (burns, cuts, etc) 3. Chemotheraphy 4. Antibiotic resistant bacteria 5. Get 1 infection every 14 extra days 6. 1/20 infected or 1/400 deaths = 20000/yr 7. 2 billion $ a year |
What are some causes for a nosocomial infection? |
1. Patients are already ill, have impaired defenses 2. crowding = more infections 3. Most virulent forms are in hospitals 4. Newborns lack functional immune system 5. Drug resistant pathogens |
Which pathogens is most common in UTIs? Which are most common in surgical infections? |
1. E.Coli 2. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
1. S. Aureus 2. Streptococcus |
Define disease |
Abnormal condition or function |
What is an infection? |
Growth of a microbe on or within a host (can be symptomatic or asymptomatic) |
What is a pathogen? And which 2 microbes are usually pathogens? |
Bacteria capable of causing disease (only a small # are pathogens)
Usually: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB) and Yersenia Pestis |
What is the definition of an opportunistic pathogen and what is the most common of them? |
A pathogen that normally doesnt cause harm, but does so in immune compromised people.
Ex: Pseudomonas Aeruginosa |
T/F: Virulence is the relative ability (degree) to cause a disease. So if you have a higher virulence then you are more likely to cause a disease. |
True |
What is ID50? What happens if you have a lower LD50? |
ID50 = Infectious Dose 50
The number of organisms required to make 50% of the population sick
If LD50 is low then there is high virulence |
What is LD50? And what happens if you have a high LD50? |
LD50 = Lethal Dose 50
Is the number of microbes that can kill 50% of the population that has the disease.
If LD50 is high then you have low virulence. |
State Koch's Postulates? What does it prove? |
1. Observation = Signs and symptoms 2. Isolation = Pure culture 3. Re-infection = in an healthy person 4. Re-Observation and Re-Isolation = compare
Proves the etiology of the disease. One disease from one microbe |
What are the 3 exceptions to Koch's Postulates? |
1. Mycobacterium Leprae (leprosy) = grows to slow 2. Treponemma Pallidum (syphillis) = cant grow outside of host 3. Polymicrobic infections |
Describe the triangle of infection, starting with normal individuals at the top of the triangle. |
Top: Normal individuals who are healthy . There are few microbes that are capable of causing disease. So here is there is hi LD50 and ID50
Side: Individuals with impaired defenses
Bottom: Immunocompromised individuals. Many microbes can cause disease. So here there is a low LD50 and ID50. (ex: Chemo patients, HIV peeps, diabetes peeps, etc) |
What are the 2 ways bacteria can cause a disease? |
1. Invasion 2. Producing toxic products |
List the degree of invasiveness. |
1. No invasion 2. Minimal Invasion 3. Highly invasive |
Describe a non invasive infection and give an example. |
It is highly toxic; usually food borne toxin
Ex: Clostridium Botulinum or S. Aureus |
Describe a minimal invasive infection and provide an example. |
Potent toxin
Ex: Corynebacterium Diptheria or C. tetani |
Describe a highly invasive infection and give an example. |
Little or no toxin made
Ex: Shigella M. Tuberculosis |
What are the 3 steps involved in bacterial invasion? |
1. Attachment 2. Obtaining nutrients 3. Avoiding host defenses |
_____________ determines host and tissue specificity. |
Attachment |
What type of structures or macromolecules are used for attachment? |
1. Proteins 2. Fimbriae 3. Pili
(Ex. N. Gonorrhea has a specific pili for attachment) |
What nutrient is often a limiting factor? |
Iron |
What do you call the Iron binding proteins in Bacteria? What about in the host cells? |
Bacteria = Siderophores (Is a virulence factor) (used to try and steal the hosts Iron)
Host = Transferrin, Lactoferrin |
What is a protective mechanism that a host cell does in order to make Iron less available to a bacteria? |
It will limit the amount of Iron circulating in the body and will transfer it to the liver |
In which ways do bacteria avoid the host defenses? |
1. Avoid antibody 2. Avoid the phagocytic cells |
What 2 ways do bacteria avoid host antibody during invasion? And give examples of bacteria that do this. |
1. Rapid antigenic change (changes it pili so wont recognize it) - N.Gonerrhea, Borrelia
2. Precipitate Antibody by binding to Fc portion (inactivates it) - Staphylcoccus Aureus |
In which 3 ways do bacteria avoid the action of phagocytic cells? |
1. Leukocidins 2. Survival within the cell 3. Antiphagocytic capsule |
________________ attack phagocytic cells. Which bacteria possess this? |
Leukocidins
Staphyloccus Aureus |
Which type of bacteria are capable of surviving within a phagocytic cell? |
1. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis 2. Salmonella typhi |
T/F: A capsule is a virulence factor. |
True |
For both Exotoxin and Enterotoxin, entry is required and both are dimeric proteins. What does A do, What does B do? |
A: Required for toxic activity B: Required for entry into cell (you want antibodies to inhibit the attachment) |
Cytolytic toxins attack ______________ whereas ____________ affects normal nerve function. |
Surfaces
Neurotoxins |
What is an Exotoxin? |
Proteins that are produced and secreted by a microorganism. They are highly toxic, nonpyrogenic and hihgly immunogenic. |
What is a superantigen? |
Toxic chemicals produced by bacteria that mimics multiple infections thus activating multiple T cells leading to an over reaction to one infection. |
What is an endotoxin? |
Part of the gram negative bacteria outer membrane (LPS) and is only released once the microbe dies |
The Cytotoxin, S. Aureus has an alpha toxin that does what? |
Disturbs the cell membranes ion channels |
Which organisms is responsible for cell death? How does it accomplish this? |
C. Diphtheria
A portion of the dimeric protein inactivates the Elongation Factor 2 thus inhibits protein synthesis |
_______________ is a neurotoxin that masks the target muscle so that the neurotransmitter cannot reach it. This leads to _______________ . |
C. Tetani
Constant contraction (ex: lock jaw) |
This neurotoxin inhibits the release of neurotransmitters leading to constant relaxation. |
C. Botulinum |
How does the enterotoxin, V. Cholera cause diarrhea/dehydration? |
The A portion of the tetramer increases the adenylate cyclase activity thus increases cAMP. The increase in cAMP increases the flow of ions out of the cell and thus water too.
No antibiotics is need, just rehydrate |
During shock, what are some main things to look out for? |
Fever Hypotension |
What are routes of entry for infectious diseases? |
1. Mucous membranes (GI, Resp, Uri, Eye) 2. Skin 3. Parenteral route 4. Vector Transmission |
What is a parenteral route for disease? |
Entering the body by other means than the alimentary tract.
Entry via subcutaneous, intramuscular, or IV |
What is vector transmission? Give an example |
Entry via an insect
Ex: Rickettsia Prowaskii = body lice |
What are the functions of pili? |
They are aka adhesins. Specific attachment Genetic exchange Promote blood clotting Prevent Phagocytosis |
What is flagella? |
An organ for locomotion aka H-antigen |
_____________ is made up of proteins and carbohydrates; causative agents of pneumonia and meningitis. It is aka ____________. |
Capsule K Antigen |
What are virulence factors? List the different forms of virulence factors. |
Anything that facilitates a disease. Can be the prescence of the bacteria in the body, something the organism makes, or something it possess.
1. Pili 2. Capsule (K-Antigen) 3. Flagella (H-Antigen) 4. Cell Wall
|
What are some ways phagocytic failure can occur? What are the organisms that do this? |
1. Inhibit Phagocytosis = S. Pneumonia 2. Inhibit Lysosomal fusion = TB 3. Escape Lysosome = Plague 4. Lives w/in Lysosome = Salmonella 5. Kill Phagocyte = S. Aereus |
What is epidemiology concerned with? |
Transmission, spread, control and prevention of infectious diseases in populations.
(All aspects of disease except treatment) |
What is the difference between endemic, epidemic and pandemic? |
Endemic = Disease stays in pop at low frequency Epidemic = Sudden outbreak in above levels |
What is the difference between mortality and morbidity? |
Mortality = Reported deaths due to the disease Morbidity = All reported cases of disease; illness + deaths |
___________________ is where a disease is typically found. |
Reservoir |
Give some examples of reservoirs. |
Inanimate Animate = Humans (ex: gallbladder) Carriers |
Compare and contrast the different routes of transmission of diseases. |
1. Airborne-borne = Most common, travels > 1 m (ex: Cold, Flu, TB)
2. Anthropod- borne = Carried by vector (ex: Thphus fever from body lice)
3. Direct contact = STDs
4. Food-borne = Preformed toxins (ex: Botulinum)
5. Water-borne = ex: Cholera |
How do bacteria evade the immune system (antibodies, complement and phagocytes)? |
1. Proteases = inactivate host defense 2. LPS = Lipid A stimulate cytokine release, damages host cells 3. Capsules = Prevent phagocytosis 4. Vary surface antigens = H and K 5. Superantigens = Excess cytokine production 6. Cross reactivity |
What is normal flora? |
A form of commensalism where their is bacteria in us that benefit from us, and leaves no harm to the host. The organisms are associated with healthy body tissues. |
What is the normal flora on the skin? Which can tolerate high salt concentrations? |
1. Staphylococcus - can tolerate it 2. Corynebacterium |
What organism breaks down enamel (hardest compound in body) by lowering the pH as it grows in the oral cavity? |
Streptococcus Mutans |
Give some examples of normal flora in the mucous membranes. |
1. GI = Lactobacilli 2. Small Intestine = Enterococci 3. Large Intestine = Entercocci 4. Upper Respir. Tract = Strep and Staph 5. Urethra = E. Coli, Proteus 6. Vagina = Lactobacilli |
What is symbiosis?? |
A close association between 2 microbes where both benefit from the association |
_______________ is an example of a symbiosis whereas paratism is an example of ____________. |
Mutualism
Antagonism
|
How is the skin an important barrier to infectious diseases? |
It has natural defense mechanisms
1. High Salt concentration 2. Low moisture 3. Fatty acids 4. Low pH |
What is significant of the epidermis? |
It has a tight layer of cells. The top layer is dead cells that is constantly shedded. Makes it hard for microbes to attach |
Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA. |
Eukaryotic mRNA have the following modifications:
5' Cap 3' Poly A tail Introns removed |
What are plasmids? What are transposons? |
Plasmids = DNA molecule that can separate independently of chromosomal DNA
Transposons = sequences of DNA that move within a genome |
What is significant of biofilm? |
Is a virulent factor that protects the bacteria from the immune system. Creates a sticky film around the bacteria. Made from glycocalyx |
List some different forms of Adherence factors? |
1. Glycocalyx 2. Adherence proteins 3. Lipoteichoic acids 4. Fimbriae (pili) |
Compare the intracellular and extracellular life of bacteria. |
Intra = Microbes live inside cells where they are protected from Ab, phagocytes, etc. They dont move as much (Ex: Chlamydia = obligate intracellular parasite)
Extra = Bacteria is in the blood not the cells. So they are constantly under attack, but have more motility |
Fimbriae are hair like structures used for ______ attachment whereas cilia is hair like projections that are used to ___________ in the respiratory tract. |
non specific attachment
sweep away fluids/particles |
Lipoteichoic acid is only found in ___________ and can cause __________. |
Gram + Immune system activation |
T/F: LPS is found on the outer membrane of gram + and act as endotoxins that stimulate an immune response. |
False; LPS is only found in gram - |
What is the signficance of having capsule, endospores and flagella for the bacteria? |
They are all virulence factors
Capsules = prevent phagocytosis Flagella = locomotion Endospores = Survive harsh conditions |
In which ways do bacteria avoid detection by the immune system? |
1. Fast in, fast out 2. Mimic host antigens 3. Stay within host cells 4. Infect priviledge sites 5. Bind to host antibodies upside down 6. Antigenic variation |
Define RFLP |
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
It is the difference between samples of homologous DNA molecules that come from differing locations of restriction enzymes sites |
Define In Situ Hybridization |
Uses labeled complementary DNA or RNA strand (probe) to localize a specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion/section of tissue |