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Mbios 305 – Microbiology – Flashcards

Brandon Ruffin

7 July 2022

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question

A Group III virus must convert ____ to +ssRNA in order to ________________.
a. ds RNA; translate RNA into new viral proteins.
b. ds DNA; transcribe new viral nucleic acids.
c. ss RNA; translate RNA into new viral proteins.
d. Viral envelope lipids; synthesize host cell acyl groups.
e. Both (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

answer

a. ds RNA; translate RNA into new viral proteins.

question

2. A WSU student has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis, probably from Neisseria
meningitidis. What symptoms would you expect from this infectiona. Skin lesions dripping pus.
b. Impaired nervous system function due to inflammation.
c. Fever.
d. Buboes.
e. Only (b.) and (c.) are likely.

answer

e. Only (b.) and (c.) are likely.

question

3. Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins are normally co-expressed on the cell surface
of red blood cells (RBCs).
a. True.
b. False.

answer

b. False

question

4. Which of the following viruses would leave viral proteins on the surface of infected host cells right
after entry, before production of new virus particles for sheddinga. Adenovirus.
b. Rhinovirus.
c. Measles virus.
d. Bacteriophage.
e. Hepatitis C virus.

answer

c. Measles virus.

question

5. The advantage for a virus entering through endocytosis compared to a virus using membrane fusion
entry is
a. Exposure to host cell cytoplasmic proteins within the endosome.
b. Increased rates of translation of new viral proteins.
c. Lack of viral proteins left on the host cell surface during entry.
d. Alkaline conditions in the maturing endosome.
e. Receptor engagement on the surface of the host cell.

answer

c. Lack of viral proteins left on the host cell surface during entry.

question

6. In order to make many copies of viral nucleic acid for new virus assembly and release,
Rhinoviruses must
a. Translate viral proteins into host cell enzymes.
b. Transcribe host cell ssRNA into viral proteins.
c. Make –ssRNA using existing host cell enzymes.
d. Translate viral ssRNA into enzymes that make –ssRNA.
e. Both (c.) and (d.) above are correct.

answer

d. Translate viral ssRNA into enzymes that make –ssRNA.

question

7. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) is a/an
a. Retrovirus.
b. Enveloped virus.
c. RNA Virus
d. All of the above (a., b. and c.) are correct.
e. Only (a. and b.) above are correct.

answer

d. All of the above (a., b. and c.) are correct.

question

8. Influenza virus has a surface with __ that binds ___ with high affinity.
a. Neuraminidase; upper respiratory epithelial cells.
b. Hemagglutinin; upper respiratory epithelial cells.
c. Neuraminidase; lower respiratory epithelial cells.
d. Hemagglutinin; lower respiratory epithelial cells.
e. Hemagglutinin; intestinal epithelial cells.

answer

d. Hemagglutinin; lower respiratory epithelial cells.

question

9. Conservative estimates for the worldwide death toll attributed to the influenza pandemic of 1918
are
a. 0.3 million deaths.
b. 3 million deaths.
c. 30 million deaths.
d. 300 million deaths.
e. 3 billion deaths.

answer

c. 30 million deaths.

question

10. During September and October of 1918,
a. Influenza cases were reported only in large cities.
b. Influenza cases were reported only on military bases.
c. Influenza cases were reported only in rural areas with birds.
d. Influenza cases were reported throughout the United States.
e. Influenza cases were reported in all areas with coastal access.

answer

d. Influenza cases were reported throughout the United States.

question

11. The World Health Organization (WHO) monitors southeast (SE) Asia for new strains of influenza
virus because
a. SE Asia has monkeys that act as animal reservoirs for influenza.
b. SE Asia has living conditions that allows for co-infection of pigs with multiple strains.
c. SE Asia has insect vectors that transmit influenza to farm animals.
d. SE Asia is under-developed and influenza is not monitored in rural areas.
e. SE Asia has the correct temperature for influenza to grow.

answer

b. SE Asia has living conditions that allows for co-infection of pigs with multiple strains.

question

12. Tamiflu™ is an anti-viral compound that acts by
a. Inhibiting viral transcription.
b. Inhibiting viral binding to host cell receptors.
c. Stimulating anti-influenza antibody production.
d. Inhibiting neuraminidase activity.
e. Inhibiting hemagglutinin binding to host cells.

answer

d. Inhibiting neuraminidase activity.

question

13. Which of the following is NOT a general function of the entire immune system (innate and
adaptive systems combined)a. Keep microbes out of your tissues.
b. Recognize and eliminate microbes that manage to get into your tissues.
c. Regenerate new tissue cells when existing tissue cells die.
d. Improve after first exposure to defend if re-exposure occurs.
e. Recognize and eliminate abnormal cells before they become cancerous tumor cells.

answer

c. Regenerate new tissue cells when existing tissue cells die

question

14. The innate immune system is defined as the immune system you have when you are born.
a. True.
b. False.

answer

b. False.

question

15. The innate and adaptive divisions of the immune system often cooperate to provide effective
immune defenses. Which of the following is NOT a common example of these two divisions
cooperatinga. The classical complement fixation pathway.
b. Opsonization by antibody.
c. Phagocytes displaying peptide fragments from ingested microbes that stimulate naive T
cells.
d. Phagocytes displaying peptide fragments from ingested microbes that stimulate naive B
cells.
e. T-helper cells releasing cytokines that regulate macrophages in tissues.

answer

d. Phagocytes displaying peptide fragments from ingested microbes that stimulate naive B cells.

question

16. The skin acts as a dry, physical barrier
a. By shedding dead cells at the outermost part of the epidermis.
b. Because keratin polymers are physically difficult to penetrate.
c. Because non-pathogenic microbes on the surface are hard to penetrate.
d. All of the above (a, b. and c.) are correct.
e. Only (a.) and (b.) above are correct.

answer

e. Only (a.) and (b.) above are correct.

question

17. Lysozyme is an enzyme secreted in tears and mucus that
a. Degrades the cell wall of Gram-positive microbes.
b. Degrades all sugar-containing polymers.
c. Degrades any bond between amino acids in a protein.
d. Degrades viral capsid structures.
e. All of the above (a., b., c. and d.) are correct.

answer

a. Degrades the cell wall of Gram-positive microbes.

question

18. A red blood cell is about _________ than a single Escherichia coli bacterium.
a. Two times larger.
b. Fifty times larger.
c. One million times larger.
d. Two times smaller.
e. One hundred times smaller.

answer

a. Two times larger.

question

19. White blood cells (WBCs) resident in normal, healthy tissue include
a. Monocytes.
b. Macrophages.
c. Dendritic cells.
d. All of the above (a., b. and c.) are correct.
e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

answer

e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

question

e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

answer

e. Only (a.) and (b.) above are correct.

question

21. Which of the following steps in the complement pathway amplifies the pathway’s responsea. Multiple C9 molecules polymerizingon the surface of a microbe.
b. Antibodies bind leading to cleaving C3 molecules.
c. Enzymes on the microbe surface cleaving C3 molecules.
d. C3b cleaving multiple C5 molecules.
e. C5b diffusing away from the site of infection.

answer

d. C3b cleaving multiple C5 molecules.

question

22. During phagocytosis, when does a neutrophil kill a pathogenic microbea. When assessing microbe surface structures.
b. As soon as the microbe is opsonized.
c. During exocytosis.
d. During the transition of phagosome to phagolysosome.
e. During the conversion of complement C3 protein to C3a and C3b proteins.

answer

d. During the transition of phagosome to phagolysosome.

question

23. The antigen-binding site on an antibody molecule
a. Includes the light chain.
b. Includes the heavy chain.
c. Includes the variable region.
d. All of the above (a., b. and c.) are correct.
e. Only (a.) and (b.) above are correct.

answer

d. All of the above (a., b. and c.) are correct.

question

24. The Fc portion of an antibody molecule
a. Includes the light chain.
b. Includes the heavy chain.
c. Includes the variable region.
d. All of the above (a., b. and c.) are correct.
e. Only (a.) and (b.) above are correct.

answer

b. Includes the heavy chain.

question

25. Passive immunity conveyed to a child just before or shortly after birth is critical because
a. A newborn child gets IgM antibody from its mother that will fight infections.
b. A newborn child lacks effective adaptive immune responses for its first year.
c. A newborn child’s IgA production is slow until they are about 8 years old.
d. A newborn child has excess Natural Killer (NK) cells after birth.
e. A newborn child will use this passive immunity to sense which person is its true mother.

answer

b. A newborn child lacks effective adaptive immune responses for its first year.

question

26. IgE is primarily used by the immune system to
a. Opsonize.
b. Target NK cells.
c. Sensitize mast cells.
d. Initiate complement fixation.
e. All of the above (a., b. c. and d.) are correct.

answer

c. Sensitize mast cells.

question

27. A pharmaceutical company developing a synthetic antibody product that will last a long time in the
blood of a treated patient will likely choose ___ for development and testing.
a. IgG.
b. IgA.
c. IgM.
d. IgE.
e. IgD.

answer

a. IgG.

question

28. In response to a specific, non-self, foreign antigen, clonal selection indicates that
a. All nearby lymphocytes undergo mitosis.
b. All T cells undergo mitosis while B cells remain dormant.
c. All lymphocytes with antigen receptors that can bind this antigen undergo mitosis.
d. All lymphocytes with antigen receptors that cannot bind this antigen remain dormant.
e. Both (c.) and (d.) are correct.

answer

e. Both (c.) and (d.) are correct.

question

29. To stimulate a naive T cell with CD4 on the cell surface, the first step is
a. T cell surface antibody binding soluble antigen in solution.
b. T cell surface T cell antigen receptor (TCR) binding CD40 on the B cell.
c. T cell surface TCR binding Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) Class I with
peptide.
d. T cell surface TCR binding MHC Class II with peptide.
e. T cell surface Interleukin-2 (IL-2) binding the IL-2 receptor.

answer

d. T cell surface TCR binding MHC Class II with peptide.

question

30. By vaccinating a large proportion of a community for an infectious microbe, herd immunity is
achieved. This means that
a. There are few asymptomatic carriers shedding the infectious microbe.
b. Any individual that encounters this microbe will likely die.
c. Asymptomatic carriers cannot enter the community.
d. The community has a greater incidence of disease compared to a nearby, unimmunized
community.
e. Only (a.) and (c.) above are correct.

answer

a. There are few asymptomatic carriers shedding the infectious microbe.

question

31. Vaccine programs all strive to achieve
a. Maximum risk.
b. Minimum participation.
c. Maximum benefit.
d. Minimum benefit.
e. Reduced compliance.

answer

c. Maximum benefit.

question

32. In theory, the only type of vaccine capable of infecting someone is
a. A subunit vaccine.
b. An attenuated vaccine.
c. A recombinant vaccine.
d. A toxoid vaccine.
e. An intramuscular vaccine.

answer

b. An attenuated vaccine.

question

33. The OraSure™ HIV test is a(n) ___ that detects___.
a. Fluorescent antibody (FA) test; HIV viral proteins.
b. Agglutination test; Anti-HIV IgG antibody in the blood.
c. Genetic screening test; HIV viral RNA.
d. Immunoassay; Anti-HIV IgA in the saliva.
e. Genetic screening test; HIV mutations indicating antiviral drug resistance.

answer

d. Immunoassay; Anti-HIV IgA in the saliva.

question

34. New drugs that block HIV interaction with CCR5 on host cells
a. Kill the HIV on contact.
b. Specifically inhibit proviral integration into the host cell genome.
c. Specifically block host cell entry.
d. Specifically inhibit assembly of new viral particles.
e. Reduce the amount of CD4 available for T cell function.

answer

c. Specifically block host cell entry.

question

35. HIV generally enters host cells by
a. Membrane fusion.
b. Endocytosis.
c. Nuclear membrane targeting.
d. Phagocytosis.
e. Reverse adhesion.

answer

a. Membrane fusion.

question

36. Once infected with HIV, an HIV+ patient never has pre-infection levels of CD4+ T-helper cells.
a. True.
b. False.

answer

a. True.

question

37. HIV-infected patients are constantly battling low-level infections with variants of HIV and manage
to suppress them until the onset of AIDS.
a. True.
b. False.

answer

a. True.

question

38. Microbiology began with the design of the microscope. Which of the following statements is truea. Hooke’s microscope had a better lens than van Leewenhoek’s; therefore van Leewenhoek’s
microscope had more (better) resolving power.
b. Van Leewenhoek and Hooke collaborated to develop their microscopes.
c. Van Leewenhoek’s microscope was more like a backwards telescope than Hooke’s simpler,
single-lens device.
d. Both van Leewenhoek and Hooke conducted their work on microscopes before the Golden
Age of Microbiology.
e. The ability to visualize microbes through either van Leewenhoek’s or Hooke’s microscope
validated the Germ Theory of Disease that was being discussed at the time of their work.

answer

d. Both van Leewenhoek and Hooke conducted their work on microscopes before the Golden
Age of Microbiology.

question

40. Secondary metabolites:
a. Are only produced during early log phase.
b. Include chemical compounds used for quorum sensing.
c. Include antibiotics.
d. All of (a.), (b.), and (c.) above are correct.
e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

answer

e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

question

41. The quinolones (such as ciprofloxacin and enrofloxacin):
a. Inhibit folic acid biosynthesis.
b. Are electron acceptors in electron transport systems/chains.
c. Inhibit cell wall biosynthesis.
d. Are semi-synthetic antibiotics based upon the structure of penicillin.
e. Are synthetic antibiotics with no structural similarity to natural products.

answer

e. Are synthetic antibiotics with no structural similarity to natural products.

question

42. The peptidoglycan of a newly-discovered microbe contains peptides made of L-alanine, Dglutamate,
L-lysine, and D-alanine. Cross bridges are most likely to be found between:
a. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM).
b. L-lysine and D-glutamate.
c. L-alanine and D-alanine.
d. L-lysine and D-alanine.
e. L-lysine and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG).

answer

d. L-lysine and D-alanine.

question

43. In the tricarboxylic acid (Krebs) cycle, the conversion of _________ to ________ produces 1
molecule of FADH2.
a. Oxaloacetate to citrate
b. Malate to oxaloacetate
c. Alpha-ketoglutarate (AKG) to succinyl-CoA
d. Succinate to fumarate
e. Fumarate to malate

answer

d. Succinate to fumarate

question

44. An example of substrate-level phosphorylation is found in:
a. Conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate.
b. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.
c. Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
d. Hydrolysis of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) to give ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and Pi
(inorganic phosphate).
e. Anaerobic photosystem II.

answer

a. Conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate.

question

45. In an aerobic prokaryotic electron transport chain, ___________ pumps ___ total proton(s) per
molecule of electron donor.
a. NADH dehydrogenase 2 (NDH-2); 0
b. NADH dehydrogeanse 1 (NDH-1); 0
c. Cytochrome bd quinol oxidase (cyt bd); 0
d. Cytochrome bo quinol oxidase (cyt bo); 2
e. Succinate dehydrogenase; 4

answer

a. NADH dehydrogenase 2 (NDH-2); 0

question

46. Suppose a microbe has evolved so that it no longer produces NADH during glycolysis. The
enzyme most likely to be mutated is:
a. Lactate dehydrogenase.
b. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH/G3PDH).
c. Succinate dehydrogenase.
d. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
e. 2-oxoglutarate (alpha-ketoglutarate) dehydrogenase.

answer

b. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH/G3PDH).

question

47. Energy carriers needed for both anabolism and respiration are produced in:
a. Glycolysis.
b. The Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
c. The pentose phosphate pathway.
d. The tricarboxylic acid (TCA)/Krebs cycle.
e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

answer

e. Only (b.) and (c.) above are correct.

question

48. Sulfanilamide functions as a/an _______ of folic acid biosynthesis.
a. Irreversible inhibitor
b. Competitive inhibitor
c. Non-competitive activator
d. Allosteric activator
e. Only (a.) and (b.) above are correct.

answer

b. Competitive inhibitor

question

50. During the summer Dr. Mixter enjoys visiting Lake Coeur d’Alene, a freshwater lake north of
Pullman. In general, the microbes on the surface of the water are __ while those on the bottom are
_____.
a. Nitrogen-fixing; Chemolithotrophs.
b. Autotrophs; Methanotrophs.
c. Photosynthetic; Anaerobic.
d. Sulfur-reducing; Sulfur-oxidizing.
e. Capable of digesting petrochemicals like oil; Streptococci.

answer

c. Photosynthetic; Anaerobic.

question

51. When Dr. Mixter feels slimy rocks on the bottom of Lake Coeur d’Alene, he’s had a close
encounter with
a. Fermentation.
b. Extra chromosomal aberrations.
c. An infection thread.
d. A biofilm.
e. Extremophiles.

answer

d. A biofilm.

question

52. To compost collected organic materials, the WSU compost facility sprays piles with a patented,
genetically-modified microbe (developed at WSU) capable of withstanding high temperatures and
degrading this material.
a. True.
b. False.

answer

a. True.

question

53. You read a headline in the Daily Evergeen stating “Study Shows Increased HIV Infections Among
College Students.” Before you read further, you know that this study was
a. Introspective.
b. Prospective.
c. Double-blind.
d. Hypothetical.
e. Descriptive.

answer

e. Descriptive.

question

54. As Haiti recovers from an earthquake, cholera is now sweeping the country. Cholera toxin causes
disease by
a. Inserting in the membrane and allowing contents to flow out, lysing red blood cells.
b. Forcing the cell to overproduce cAMP, opening cellular ion channels in the intestines.
c. Lysing red blood cells throughout the body, leading to clots and anemia.
d. Causing genital warts and precancerous lesions in the cervical tissues of women.
e. Filling the lungs with bloody fluid, allowing additional infections to ensue.

answer

b. Forcing the cell to overproduce cAMP, opening cellular ion channels in the intestines.

question

55. Your service group is raising money to send to “Nothing but Nets,” a group fighting malaria in
affected parts of the world. The group will use funds to purchase nets that will
a. Filter water to eliminate infectious malaria microbes.
b. Trap infected mechanical vectors transporting parasites.
c. Keep the biological vector away from uninfected persons.
d. Allow persons infected with malaria to play volleyball for needed recreation.
e. Allow infected persons to catch fish, boosting their nutrition and energy levels, curing them
of malaria.

answer

c. Keep the biological vector away from uninfected persons.

Mbios 305 – Microbiology – Flashcards

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