question

Which statement is most accurate regarding immunological escape? A Daughter cells that display tumor-specific antigens will not be attacked by NK cells. B Cancer cells often mutate and can sometimes avoid detection by NK cells. C Once immunological escape has occurred, cancer cells remain stationary. D If a primary tumor has a surrounding capsule, the cells within absolutely cannot provoke a massive response by NK cells.

answer

B Cancer cells often mutate and can sometimes avoid detection by NK cells.

question

The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells. A suppressor T B plasma C helper T D NK E B

answer

D NK

question

Drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the processes and the structural components involved when a body cell becomes infected by a pathogen.

answer

...

question

When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell. A helper T B cytotoxic T C suppressor T D NK E plasma

answer

A helper T

question

Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells. A plasma B suppressor T C helper T D B E cytotoxic T

answer

E cytotoxic T

question

Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons? A secrete mutant proteins B activate genes that trigger apoptosis C secrete free radicals D secrete organic solvent E secrete strong acid

answer

B activate genes that trigger apoptosis

question

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells? A NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide). B NK cells attack transplanted organs. C NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells. D NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane

answer

D NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.

question

Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication? A phagocytes B interferons C T lymphocytes D complement proteins

answer

B interferons

question

How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria? A The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells. B The phagocytes look for the absence of "self" proteins. C Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface. D All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize.

answer

A The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.

question

Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis? A natural killer (NK) cells B cytokines C interferons D complement proteins

answer

D complement proteins

question

Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis? A T cells B antibodies and complement proteins C interferons D natural killer (NK) cells

answer

B antibodies and complement proteins

question

The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would A activate antibodies. B opsonize pathogens. C produce a fever. D activate complement. E cause inflammation.

answer

C produce a fever

question

Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except A heat of the inflamed tissue. B chemotaxis of phagocytes. C swelling of the inflamed tissue. D redness of the inflamed tissue. E movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.

answer

B chemotaxis

question

Inflammation produces localized A swelling. B redness. C heat. D pain. E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

Which nonspecific defense mechanism increases the resistance of cells to viral infection and slows the spread of disease? A interferons B immunological surveillance C pyrogens D complement system

answer

A interferons

question

Which of the following are secreted by T cells and NK cells, and stimulate macrophage activity? A beta interferons B gamma interferons C complement proteins D alpha interferons

answer

B gamma interferons

question

Plasma contains ________ special complement proteins that form the complement system. A 9 B 3 C 11 D 5 E 7

answer

C 11

question

The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except A enhanced phagocytosis. B destruction of target cell plasma membranes. C histamine release. D inhibition of the immune response. E stimulation of inflammation.

answer

D inhibition of the immune response.

question

Which of the following are abundant, mobile, and quick to phagocytize cellular debris or invading bacteria? A fixed macrophages B neutrophils C eosinophils D free macrophages

answer

B neutrophils

question

Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except A body hair. B basement membranes. C epithelium. D secretions. E complement.

answer

E complement

question

The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the A phagocytes. B T cells. C B cells. D plasma cells. E NK cells.

answer

A phagocytes

question

The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called ________.

answer

chemotaxis

question

Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A immunological surveillance. B fever. C specific immunity. D skin defenses. E nonspecific immunity.

answer

C specific immunity

question

Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. A auto B natural passive C passive D innate E naturally acquired active

answer

E naturally acquired active

question

Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. A passive B auto C innate D naturally acquired passive E active

answer

D naturally acquired passive

question

________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time.

answer

memory

question

Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only A during infections. B when plasma cells are releasing antibodies. C in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. D when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited. E when NK cells are activated.

answer

C in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.

question

The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the ________ cells. A helper T B NK C suppressor T D cytotoxic T E B

answer

E B

question

When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell. A plasma B helper T C cytotoxic T D B E NK

answer

C cytotoxic T

question

The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. A liver B thymus C NK D helper T E plasma

answer

E plasma

question

Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are ________ cells. A B B helper T C cytotoxic T D plasma E NK

answer

B helper T

question

Helper T cells do all of the following, except A destroy target cells using perforins. B activate sensitized B cells by costimulation. C secrete cytokines to stimulate production of plasma cells. D enhance cell-mediated immunity. E enhance antibody-mediated immunity.

answer

A destroy target cells using perforins.

question

What forms the base of the antibody molecule? A hapten B constant segments of the heavy chain C variable segments of the light chain D antigen-binding sites

answer

B constant segments of the heavy chain

question

Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are A IgG. B IgD. C IgA. D IgE. E IgM.

answer

C IgA

question

The most abundant type of antibody is A IgD. B IgA. C IgE. D IgM. E IgG.

answer

E IgG

question

During a primary immune response, the A IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel. B IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer. C IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer.

answer

B IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.

question

A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A tears. B interstitial. C lymph. D blood. E serum.

answer

A Tears

question

The process by which antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes is called ________.

answer

agglutination

question

The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called ________.

answer

opsonization

question

The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in A neutralization of the antigen. B agglutination or precipitation. C complement activation and opsonization. D all of the above E none of the above

answer

D all of the above

question

Choose the correct statement pertaining to allergies. A Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of IgE. B The tendency to produce IgG antibodies in response to specific allergens may be genetically determined. C An example of localized allergic reactions is anaphylaxis. D Allergic rhinitis is an example of systemic allergic reactions.

answer

A Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of IgE.

question

Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A the result of stress. B allergies. C signs of a weak system. D immunodeficiency diseases. E autoimmune diseases.

answer

B allergies

question

Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called ________.

answer

Allergens

question

In viral infections, what occurs after helper T cells are activated? A activation of cytotoxic T cells B activation of B cells C opsonization and phagocyte attraction D stimulation of NK cells

answer

B activation of B cells

question

Which specific defense cells, produced as a result of the activation of Class II MHC proteins, await the reappearance of the antigen? A NK cells B memory TH cells C memory TC cells D helper T cells

answer

B memory TH cells

question

Destruction of antigens or cell lysis can be caused by all of the following except by A complement system. B cytotoxic T cells. C macrophages. D antibody actions. E helper T cells.

answer

E helper T cells

question

Autoantibodies A are produced by activated T cells. B are produced during an allergic reaction. C are the first step in immunological competence. D are directed against the body's own antigens. E are important in tissue rejection reactions.

answer

D are directed against the body's own antigens.

question

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells. A plasma B cytotoxic T C suppressor T D B E helper T

answer

E helper T

question

Rheumatoid arthritis: A occurs when T cells are activated by contact with MHC proteins on plasma membranes. B is an autoimmune disorder. C is an immunodeficiency disease. D occurs when a virus binds to CD4 proteins and infects helper T cells.

answer

B is an autoimmune disorder

question

Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system? A adaptive defenses B innate external defenses C innate internal defenses

answer

B innate external defenses

question

Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system? A adaptive defenses B innate internal defenses C innate external defenses

answer

B innate internal defenses

question

What cells make antibodies? A memory T cells B cytotoxic T cells C memory B cells D plasma B cells

answer

D plasma B cells

question

What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to? A antibody B antigen C an antigenic determinant D pathogen

answer

C an antigenic determinant

question

What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient? A humoral immunity B antibody mediated immunity C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)

answer

A humoral immunity

question

If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated? A humoral immunity B antibody-mediated immunity C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)

answer

C cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)

question

Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells? A Cytotoxic T cells B macrophages C B cells

answer

A Cytotoxic T cells

question

Which of the following is part of a nonspecific defense that might prevent an influenza virus in your respiratory passages from causing an infection? A The presence of bodily hair B The mucus coat C The antibodies against influenza virus D The tough keratinized cells

answer

B the mucous coat

question

Though the symptom is unpleasant, some doctors recommend allowing fever to continue for a short period without medication, because A A higher body temperature results in sweat that prevents influenza virus infection of skin cells B A higher body temperature causes us to use less energy and require less food C C A higher body temperature increase the rate of repair of tissues D A higher body temperature kills most bacteria and viruses

answer

C A higher body temperature increases the rate of repair of tissues

question

Our bodily defenses can take advantage of the presence of viral hemagglutinins by A Creating an allergic reaction based on the hemagglutinins B Creating white blood cells that seek out the hemagglutinins C Creating complement proteins specific to antigens on the hemagglutinins D Creating antigens to recognize and combat the hemagglutinins

answer

B Creating white blood cells that seek out the hemagglutinins

question

Which type of epithelium lines the inferior portions of the pharynx? A stratified squamous epithelium B simple squamous epithelium C simple cuboidal epithelium D pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

answer

A stratified squamous epithelium

question

The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of A surfactant cells. B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C ciliated squamous epithelium. D simple squamous epithelium. E moist cuboidal epithelium.

answer

B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

question

The openings to the nostrils are the A vestibules. B nasal apertures. C conchae. D external nares. E internal nares.

answer

D external nares.

question

Which of the following is a cartilaginous structure that surrounds and protects the glottis? A laryngopharynx B larynx C hard palate D trachea

answer

B larynx

question

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A nasopharynx. B oropharynx. C nasal cavity. D larynx. E laryngopharynx.

answer

B oropharynx.

question

The nasal cavities are divided from one another by the A soft palate. B hard palate. C internal nares. D cribriform plate. E nasal septum.

answer

E nasal septum.

question

Breathing through the nose rather than the mouth is advantageous because A air is warmed on inhalation. B air is humidified on inhalation. C heat loss is reduced on exhalation. D water loss is reduced on exhalation. E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

The laryngeal cartilage composed of elastic cartilage that prevents entry of solids or liquids into the laryngopharynx when swallowing is the A thyroid. B corniculate. C epiglottis. D cricoid. E arytenoid.

answer

C epiglottis.

question

A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A extrinsic ligaments. B intrinsic ligaments. C vocal folds. D intrinsic laryngeal muscles. E ventricular folds.

answer

C vocal folds

question

Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the A movement of the arytenoid cartilages. B extrinsic ligaments. C contraction of laryngeal muscles. D movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles. E none of the above

answer

D movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles

question

The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage. A corniculate B cricoid C arytenoid D epiglottis E cuneiform

answer

B cricoid

question

What branches from the trachea? A secondary bronchi B terminal bronchioles C tertiary bronchi D primary bronchi E alveolar ducts

answer

D primary bronchi

question

During a choking episode, most foreign objects are more likely to become lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A right primary B left primary C right secondary D left secondary E None of the above are more likely.

answer

A right primary

question

Which is greater? A the number of lobes in the right lung B the number of lobes in the left lung C Neither; the number of lobes is usually equal.

answer

A the number of lobes in the right lung

question

The process of air traveling through the body

answer

1. Air enters throught the nose or mouth 2. Air travels down the trachea and then enters the bronchi 3. Air travels down smaller and smaller bronchioles 4. Air reaches small sacs called alveoli

question

Which structure is located most superior at the hilum of the left lung? A primary bronchus B oblique fissure C pulmonary artery D pulmonary veins

answer

C pulmonary artery

question

Gas exchange between air and circulating blood takes place within ________.

answer

Alveoli

question

Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in A a loss of surfactant. B a decreased rate of gas exchange. C increased surface tension in the alveoli. D increased tendency to alveolar collapse. E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of A ciliated squamous epithelium. B pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. C surfactant cells. D simple squamous epithelium. E moist cuboidal epithelium.

answer

D simple squamous epithelium

question

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are A terminal bronchioles. B alveoli. C pleural spaces. D interlobular septa. E bronchioles.

answer

B alveoli

question

The process Carbon dioxide is released through the body

answer

1. CO2 is released from the mitochondria 2. CO2 diffuses into a capillary 3. CO2 is carried to the lungs 4. CO2 diffuses into alveolus 5. Air exits through nose or the mouth

question

During inhalation, A the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. B the diaphragm relaxes. C air moves up the trachea. D oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. E the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.

answer

A the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.

question

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood? A Alveoli BTrachea C Bronchi D Bronchioles E Nose

answer

A Alveoli

question

Which statement is correct? A Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration. B Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells. C As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated. D Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries. E In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

answer

E In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

question

After blood becomes oxygenated, A it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs. B it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen. C it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs. D it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells. E it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth

answer

D it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.

question

Hemoglobin A has five subunits. B is the site of cellular respiration. C is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen. D is found in blood plasma. E uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells

answer

C is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.

question

Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A oropharynx B alveoli C bronchioles D bronchi E larynx

answer

A oropharynx

question

Boyle's law states that gas volume is A directly proportional to temperature. B directly proportional to pressure. C inversely proportional to temperature. D inversely proportional to pressure. E both directly proportional to pressure and directly proportional to temperature.

answer

D inversely proportional to pressure.

question

The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is A mm Hg. B torr. C cm H20 D all of the above E none of the above

answer

B torr

question

Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"? Mechanics of Ventilation Diagram A rectus abdominis B internal intercostals C external intercostals D Diaphragm Eboth rectus abdominis and external intercostals

answer

C external intercostals

question

Which of the following pulmonary characteristics is calculated by adding the vital capacity and the residual volume? A total lung capacity B inspiratory capacity C functional residual capacity Dtidal volume

answer

A total lung capacity

question

The vital capacity is: A the maximum amount of air that one can move into or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle. B the total volume of the lungs C the amount of air remaining in the lungs after one has completed a quiet respiratory cycle. D the amount of air that one can draw into the lungs after having completed a quiet respiratory cycle.

answer

A the maximum amount of air that one can move into or out of the lungs in a single respiratory cycle.

question

During a single quiet respiratory cycle, inhaling more vigorously and exhaling more completely can increase which of the following? A Residual volume B inspiratory reserve volume Ctidal volume Dminimal volume

answer

C tidal volume

question

Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume? Asternocleidomastoid B pectoralis minor C scalenes D serratus anterior E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s). A diaphragm B external intercostal C internal intercostal D scalene E serratus anterior

answer

C internal intercostal

question

If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A inspiratory reserve volume. B reserve volume. C expiratory reserve volume. D vital capacity. E tidal volume.

answer

D vital capacity

question

Alveolar ventilation refers to the A movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. B movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute. D utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. E movement of air into and out of the lungs.

answer

C amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute.

question

________ equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space). A Respiratory minute volume B External respiration rate C Alveolar ventilation rate D Pulmonary ventilation rate E Vital capacity

answer

C Alveolar ventilation rate

question

Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A respiratory minute volume B inspiratory reserve volume C expiratory reserve volume D forced vital capacity E anatomical dead space

answer

A respiratory minute volume

question

Dalton's law states that A gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. C gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. D the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. E gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.

answer

C in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.

question

Henry's law states that A the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas. B gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. D in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

answer

A the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas.

question

In inhaled dry air, which of the following is found in the highest concentration? A oxygen (O2) B water vapor (H2O) C carbon dioxide (CO2) D nitrogen (N2)

answer

D nitrogen (N2)

question

The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately A 50 mm Hg. B 70 mm Hg. C 45 mm Hg. D 95 mm Hg.

answer

D 95 mm Hg

question

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately A 45 mm Hg. B 70 mm Hg. C 100 mm Hg. D 50 mm Hg.

answer

A 45 mm Hg

question

The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A 70 mm Hg. B 40 mm Hg. C 100 mm Hg. D 45 mm Hg. E 50 mm Hg.

answer

B 40 mm Hg

question

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately A 55 mm Hg. B 100 mm Hg. C 70 mm Hg. D 45 mm Hg. E 35 mm Hg.

answer

D 45 mm Hg

question

The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is A external respiration. B cellular respiration. C breathing. D pulmonary ventilation. E internal respiration.

answer

E internal respiration

question

Which of the following is greatest? A the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air B the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood C the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in inspired air D the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air E the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

answer

B the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood

question

Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen. A 20 B 30 C 10 D 50 E 75

answer

A 20

question

Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of A acid-base balance. B carbon dioxide transport. C hemoglobin synthesis. D external respiration. E internal respiration.

answer

E internal respiration

question

Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? A decreased temperature B decreased pH C increased tissue PO2 D decreased amounts of BPG E none of the above

answer

B decreased pH

question

Carbonic anhydrase Ais in RBCs. B is an enzyme. C can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma. D can convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid. E all of the above

answer

E all of above

question

Which statement about the chloride shift is false? A involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs B depends on the chloride-bicarbonate counter-transporter C involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma D causes RBCs to swell E is driven by a rise in PCO2

answer

D causes RBCs to swell

question

Most of the carbon dioxide that is absorbed by blood: A undergoes chloride shift. B is converted to carbaminohemoglobin. C is converted to carbonic acid. D functions as pH buffers.

answer

C is converted to carbonic acid

question

The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A anoxia. B COPD. C respiratory distress syndrome. D pulmonary embolism. E pneumothorax.

answer

C respiratory distress syndrome.

question

Asthma is A caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B a collapsed lung. C an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways. D characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E an obstructive tumor.

answer

B an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.

question

The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called A emphysema. B tuberculosis. C pneumonia. D bronchitis. E asthma.

answer

A emphysema.

question

A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe A increased cardiac output from the left ventricle. B increased cardiac output from the right ventricle. C no appreciable changes in heart structure or function. D distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung. E increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.

answer

E increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.

question

The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ . A pneumotaxic center B inspiratory center of DRG C expiratory centers D apneustic center

answer

B inspiratory center of DRG

question

Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in A increased respiratory rate. B more intense inhalation. C decreased vital capacity. D less activity in the DRG center. E a shorter respiratory cycle.

answer

B more intense inhalation.

question

If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, A alveolar ventilation would increase. B tidal volumes would increase. C pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. D a person would stop breathing. E the respiratory minute volume would increase.

answer

D a person would stop breathing.

question

The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A oxygen. B hemoglobin. C bicarbonate ion. D carbon dioxide. E sodium ion.

answer

D carbon dioxide

question

Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to A changes in pH. B changes in PCO2. C changes in blood pressure. D changes in PO2.

answer

B changes in PCO2.

question

The term hypercapnia refers to A the cessation of breathing. B elevated PCO2. C labored breathing. D an increase in pH. E elevated PO2.

answer

B elevated PCO2.

question

Which statement regarding lung cancer is correct? A Before about 1970, this disease affected primarily elderly women. B About 40-55 percent of all lung cancers are the direct result of cigarette smoking. C Lung cancers now account for 75 percent of new cancer cases in both men and women. D Since 1992, the incidence of lung cancer among women has been increasing.

answer

D Since 1992, the incidence of lung cancer among women has been increasing.

question

Evan's friends have become increasingly concerned about his health these days. He has always been a very active and outgoing person, but these days, simple activities like mowing the lawn or taking out the trash tire Evan out. He dismisses the problem, saying that anyone would expect to slow down a bit at the age of 50. But Evan's friends have noticed other symptoms that they find troubling. He complains of a tight chest and he appears to spend a lot of effort breathing, even when he is at rest. Evan has smoked cigarettes as long as his friends can remember, and despite his inability to do any exercise, he has remained very thin. Sometimes it looks like Evan is puffing his chest out, and Evan often jokes, "My lungs must be a nice place to hang out, because sometimes it seems like the darn air just doesn't want to go out!" 1. Evan is most likely suffering from A Atelectasis B Emphysema C Asthma D Chronic bronchitis 2. Evan complains that the air in his lungs sometimes "doesn't want to go out." At these times, which of the following muscles is likely working harder than normal? A Transversus thoracis B Diaphragm C External intercostals D Pectoralis minor Evan's lungs probably have an abnormally large A Tidal volume B Expiratory reserve volume C Residual volume D Inspiratory reserve volume

answer

A Emphysema B Transversus thoracis C Residual Volume

question

Know the layers of the digestive tract

answer

...

question

Which of these descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus? A loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels B sensory neural network C secretes a watery fluid D component of mucosa E coordinates activity of muscularis externa

answer

E coordinates activity of muscularis externa

question

The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. A fibrosa B serosa C lamina propria D mesenteries E adventitia

answer

D mesenteries

question

A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A increase intestinal motility. B decrease gastric secretion. C decrease intestinal motility. D increase gastric secretion. E interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.

answer

C decrease intestinal motility.

question

The ability to function over a wide range of lengths is called A elasticity. B spasticity. C extensibility. D plasticity. E compaction.

answer

D plasticity.

question

What type muscle cells are arranged in sheets or layers, with adjacent muscle cells electrically connected by gap junctions and mechanically connected by dense bodies? A multi-unit smooth muscles B skeletal muscles C cardiac muscles D visceral smooth muscles

answer

D visceral smooth muscles

question

The movement of materials along the digestive tract, as well as many secretory functions, is primarily controlled by which of the following? A parasympathetic motor fibers in the glossopharyngeal, vagus, or pelvic nerves B local factors C villi D enteroendocrine cells

answer

B local factors

question

Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called A peristalsis. B segmentation. C churning movements. D pendular movements. E mastication.

answer

A peristalsis

question

The activities of the digestive system are regulated by A hormones. B parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons. C the contents of the digestive tract. D intrinsic nerve plexuses. E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except A absorption of monosaccharides. B mechanical processing of food. C digestion of carbohydrates. D analysis of material before swallowing. E lubrication.

answer

A absorption of monosaccharides.

question

The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the A glossal septum. B fauces. C uvula. D lingual frenulum. E labial frenulum.

answer

D lingual frenulum.

question

The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the A faux. B vestibule. C gingiva. D uvula. E alveolus.

answer

C gingiva

question

The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A cementum. B enamel. C periodontium. D dentin. E pulp.

answer

D dentin

question

The root of a tooth is covered by A enamel. B pulp. C the root canal. D dentin. E cementum.

answer

E cementum

question

________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing. A Bicuspids B Cuspids C Incisors D Molars E Premolars

answer

B Cuspids

question

Which of the following is an accurate characteristic of the pharyngeal phase of swallowing? A It begins as the contraction of pharyngeal muscles forces the bolus through the entrance to the esophagus. B It begins with the compression of the bolus against the hard palate. C Motor commands from the swallowing center in the pons direct a coordinated pattern of muscle contraction in the pharyngeal muscles. D It begins when tactile receptors on the palatal arches and uvula are stimulated.

answer

D It begins when tactile receptors on the palatal arches and uvula are stimulated.

question

The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the gut tube. These include A epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar. B muscularis externa may be striated muscle. C epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous. D epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle. E epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.

answer

D epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous, and muscularis externa may be striated muscle.

question

Which structure is the remnant of the ventral mesentery between the liver and the anterior wall of the peritoneal cavity? A mesentery proper B lesser omentum C greater omentum D falciform ligament

answer

D falciform ligament

question

The ________ supports most of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement. A greater omentum B diaphragm C falciform ligament D lesser omentum E mesentery proper

answer

E mesentery proper

question

The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity A secretes peritoneal fluid. B decreases friction. C lubricates the cavity. D prevents irritation. E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called A ascites. B the dorsal and ventral frenulums. C the diaphragm. D mesenteries. E peritoneal sheets.

answer

D mesenteries

question

Lacteals A secrete digestive enzymes. B increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. C carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system. D produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. E produce milk.

answer

C carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system.

question

Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa? A. Muscularis Mucosae B. Submucosal plexus C. Circular layer of smooth muscle D. Myentric plexus E. Longitudinal layer of smooth muscle

answer

D Myentric plexus

question

Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to A constrict. B shorten. C dilate. D fold for increased surface area. E secrete enzymes.

answer

A constrict

question

Parietal cells secrete A enteropeptidase. B gastrin. C pepsinogen. D hydrochloric acid. E mucus.

answer

C hydrochloric acid

question

Chief cells secrete A hydrochloric acid. B intrinsic factor. C mucus. D gastrin. E pepsinogen.

answer

E pepsinogen

question

The enzyme pepsin digests A nucleic acids. B carbohydrates. C proteins. D vitamins. E lipids.

answer

C protein

question

A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. B increased protein digestion in the stomach. C a higher pH during gastric digestion. D decreased gastrin production. E a lower pH during gastric digestion.

answer

a higher pH during gastric digestion.

question

The greater omentum is A important in the digestion of fats. B the entrance to the stomach. C attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature. D a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. E a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.

answer

D a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.

question

Which structure helps the stomach to stretch as it fills with food? A Cardia B Body C Lesser curvature D Greater curvature E Rugae

answer

E Rugae

question

Identify the structure labeled "10." A longitudinal muscle layer B circular muscle layer C oblique muscle layer D rugae E submucosa

answer

C oblique muscle layer

question

The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the A pylorus. B fundus. C cardia. D body. E antrum.

answer

A pylorus

question

The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the A pylorus. B fundus. C antrum. D body. E cardia.

answer

D body

question

After food and gastric juices combine, the gastric contents are referred to as ________.

answer

chyme

question

The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the A ileum. B haustrum. C duodenum. D jejunum. E appendix.

answer

A ileum.

question

The part of the digestive tract that plays the primary role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients is the A cecum. B colon. C stomach. D duodenum. E jejunum.

answer

E jejunum

question

The villi are most developed in the A gall bladder. B duodenum. C cecum. D jejunum. E stomach.

answer

D jejunum

question

An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucus secretion by the submucosal duodenal glands and dilation of intestinal capillaries is A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B GIP. C secretin. D gastrin. E cholecystokinin.

answer

A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP).

question

The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate-rich fluid is A vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B gastrin. C GIP. D cholecystokinin. E secretin.

answer

E secretin.

question

An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is A cholecystokinin. B secretin. C GIP. D gastrin. E enteropeptidase.

answer

A cholecystokinin.

question

The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is A CCK. B gastrin. C enteropeptidase. D secretin. E cholecystokinin.

answer

B gastrin.

question

In response to the arrival of acid chyme in the duodenum, the A blood levels of secretin rise. B blood levels of cholecystokinin fall. C blood levels of gastrin rise. D blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall. E blood levels of gastrin rise and blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall

answer

A blood levels of secretin rise.

question

During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated? A gastric phase B cephalic phase C intestinal phase

answer

C intestinal phase

question

Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers? A both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic fibers B interneurons of the enteric nervous system C sympathetic postganglionic fibers D parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

answer

C sympathetic postganglionic fibers

question

Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters? A ACh (acetylcholine) B VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide) C norepinephrine D substance P

answer

B VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)

question

Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates bile from the gall bladder? A motilin B GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) C CCK (cholecystokinin) D gastrin

answer

C CCK (cholecystokinin)

question

Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions? A GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B motilin C gastrin D secretin

answer

D secretin

question

The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the A entry of chyme into the small intestine. B entry of chyme into the large intestine. C release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine. D sight, thought, or smell of food. E entry of food into the stomach.

answer

E entry of food into the stomach.

question

During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach. B the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. C the stomach responds to distention. D production of gastric juice slows down. E secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells

answer

A there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach.

question

The gastroileal reflex A decreases peristaltic activity. B empties the duodenum. C moves some chyme to the colon. D promotes gastric secretion. E is relayed through the CNS.

answer

C moves some chyme to the colon.

question

Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the A anus. B anal canal. C rectum. D sigmoid colon. E rectal column.

answer

C rectum

question

A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the A pancreas. B appendix. C haustra. D gallbladder. E ileum.

answer

B appendix

question

This organ is primarily responsible for water absorption. A anus B stomach C large intestine D esophagus E small intestine

answer

C large intestine

question

Which is true regarding the defecation reflex? A Stimulation of sympathetic motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord results in stimulation of somatic motor neurons. B Stimulation of the myenteric plexus in the sigmoid colon and rectum results in decreased local peristalsis. C The short reflex stimulates mass movements that push feces toward the rectum from the descending colon and sigmoid colon. D It involves two positive feedback loops.

answer

D It involves two positive feedback loops.

question

Movements unique to the large intestine are ________ movements. A mass B segmentation C writhing D peristaltic E pendular

answer

A mass

question

Functions of the large intestine include A storage of fecal material prior to defection. B absorption of vitamins. C reabsorption of water and compaction of feces. D all of the above E none of the above

answer

D all of the above

question

A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A reduce delivery of saliva. B cause mumps-like swelling of the face. C interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D all of the above E none of the above

answer

D all of the above

question

The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar. A parotid B submaxillary C sublingual D submandibular E vestibular

answer

A parotid

question

The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth. A lingual B sublingual C submandibular D mandibular E parotid

answer

B sublingual

question

Each of the following is a function of the liver, except A antibody production. B synthesis of plasma proteins. C storage of glycogen and iron reserves. D synthesis and secretion of bile. E inactivation of toxins.

answer

A antibody production.

question

Identify the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers. A lingual B parotid C mandibular D sublingual E submandibular

answer

B parotid

question

Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the A duodenum. B jejunum. C ileum. D pancreas. E liver.

answer

B duodenum.

question

Gastrin secretion in response to elevated luminal pH is an example of A neural stimulation. B local stimulation. C muscular stimulation. D hormone stimulation. E none of the above

answer

B local stimulation.

question

The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the A falciform ligament. B ligamentum teres. C hepatic ligament. D lesser omentum. E greater omentum.

answer

A falciform ligament

question

Which of the following is a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein? A mesentery proper B round ligament C greater omentum D diaphragm E lesser omentum

answer

B round ligament

question

The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s). A one B two C four D three E two large, four small

answer

C four

question

The basic functional unit of the liver is the A Kupffer cell. B lobule. C portal area. D hepatocyte. E bile canaliculus.

answer

B lobule

question

Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule? A hepatic artery B bile duct C central vein D hepatic portal vein E None of the above - all are present in the portal triad.

answer

C central vein

question

In the center of a liver lobule there is a A portal vein. B sinusoid. C central vein. D hepatic duct. E portal area.

answer

C central vein

question

________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein. A Hepatocytes B Portal areas C Hepatic ducts D Bile canaliculi E Kupffer cells

answer

A Hepatocytes

question

Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation? A nausea B fear C a lemon D the thought of food

answer

B fear

question

HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen? A parietal B chief C paracrine (also known as enteroendocrine cells) D G cells

answer

B chief

question

In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions? A duct cells B islet of Langerhans cells C acinar cells

answer

C acinar cells

question

An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) secretion in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl? A GIP (gastric inhibitory peptide) B secretin C gastrin D CCK (cholecystokinin)

answer

B secretin

question

The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following? A bile B bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus C intrinsic factor D digestive enzymes such as CCK and secretin

answer

B bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus

question

The common bile duct: A is the duct that immediately empties the gallbladder. B is formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts. C produces digestive enzymes and buffers. D is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.

answer

D is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.

question

The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the A duodenum and the jejunum. B common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. C duodenum and the bile duct. D duodenum and the pylorus. E duodenum and the pancreatic duct.

answer

B common bile duct and the pancreatic duct.

question

Enzymes secreted by the pancreas include A trypsin (as trypsinogen). B amylase. C nuclease. D chymotrypsinogen. E all of the above

answer

E all of the above

question

Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of A complex carbohydrates. B fats. C disaccharides. D vitamins. E proteins.

answer

B fats

question

Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A elevated levels of blood glucose B blood in the feces C overproduction of blood plasma albumin D jaundice E impaired digestion of protein

answer

D jaundice

question

A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is ________.

answer

mumps

question

Which characteristic of H. pylori is most likely an adaptation to deal with the stomach's powerful muscle contractions that churn its contents? A Its surface adhesins B Its ability to sense chemical gradients C Its stimulation of G cells D Its preference for the pyloric antrum

answer

A Its surface adhesins

question

H. pylori probably prefers the pyloric antrum, because A More pepsinogen can be found in that region B Gastrin is produced in the antrum C The environment is slightly less acidic D Fewer immune system cells that could kill the bacteria reside there

answer

C The environment is slightly less acidic

question

Why might the positive feedback loop described above potentially cause damage to digestive organs? A It will result in very high gastrin concentrations, which are toxic to the body B It will cause the stomach pH to get lower and lower C It will diminish the activity of parietal cells D It will lead to indigestion and constipation

answer

B It will cause the stomach pH to get lower and lower

question

The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called A anabolism. B metabolism. C oxidative phosphorylation. D catabolism. E glycolysis.

answer

B metabolism

question

The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during A the citric acid cycle. B glycolysis. C the formation of water. D electron transport. E the formation of pyruvic acid.

answer

A the citric acid cycle

question

Reactions within ________ provide most of the energy needed by a typical cell. A cytoplasm B the plasma membrane C the mitochondria D the endoplasmic reticulum E none of the above

answer

C the mitochondria

question

The function of the citric acid cycle is to A hydrolize glucose. B produce carbon dioxide. C produce water. D transfer the acetyl group. E remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes

answer

E remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes

question

Catabolism of all of the following is fairly common for energy production, except A protein. B carbohydrates. C glucose. D lipids.

answer

A protein

question

Glycogenolysis is: A the synthesis of glycogen from glucose. B the release of glucose from glycogen. C glucose synthesis from smaller carbon chains. D the breakdown of glucose into two three-carbon molecules/chains

answer

B the release of glucose from glycogen.

question

The synthesis of glucose from smaller carbon chains is which of the following processes? A glycolysis B gluconeogenesis C glycogenolysis D glycogenesis

answer

B gluconeogenesis

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