IT 343 IT Project Management IV Essay

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Project management lifecycle
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is universal to all projects and consists of five process groups: initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, and controlling.
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Initiating
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the official launch of the project, it is based on identified business needs that justify the expense, risk, and allotment of resources for the project to exist.
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Planning
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an iterative project process group that communicates the intent of the project manager.
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quality control
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you and the project team inspecting the project work to confirm that it’s done correctly before the stakeholder’s look at what you’ve created. It’s all about keeping mistakes out of the customers’ hands.
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quality assurance
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doing the project work correctly the first time, while quality control is proving the work is done correctly.
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project management
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the ability to administer a series of chronological tasks resulting in a desired goal.
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feasibility study
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A feasibility study is a documented expression of what your research has told you. It helps you determine the validity or scope of a proposed project or a section of a project. Feasibility studies can help solidify if a problem is solvable or whether an opportunity can be realized by the company. You might also be tasked with writing a feasibility study to determine the financial aspects of the project—including potential return on investment. A study that is the result of a preliminary study to do the following: Define the purpose of the research Determine resources needed for research, not the project yet. Delegate Organize & Document Evaluate
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business needs
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Links the need to a project solution. Defines the scenario the business wants to achieve, i.e., the requirements. Generally a comparison of current state to future (desired) state. Methods to determine business need: Benchmarking, Rules Analysis, Focus Groups, Root Cause Analysis.
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scope
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Primary input for planning Reference for all future project decisions Scope will continue to be refined in planning stage. Defines: Deliverables Work of development team Boundaries Acceptance criteria, i.e., project success criteria Simply what will be built and what won’t be built.
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Scope
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all the work involved in creating the products of the project. It defines what is or is not to be done.
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return on investment
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The benefit of the project compared to the cost of the project (time and money quantified in dollars). Example: Improved Business Process $2,000,000 ÷ Project Costs $1,400,000 = 42.9 % ROI
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work breakdown structure
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A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project Foundation document for project management Provides the basis for planning and managing: Project schedules Costs Changes
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work breakdown structure techniques
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Top-Down Bottom-Up Analogy- Looks similar to a previous project. Parametric Model Price to Win Rolling Wave 1st pass: go 1-3 levels deep Gather more requirements or data Add more detail later
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What the PM needs to establish
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1. Setup the tasks 2. Effort per task- Your estimate of how many labor hours it will take to accomplish each task. 3. Assign team 4. Gauge Ability- gauge the ability of the team to have an accurate forecast. These tasks combined in that order equal the schedule or duration (the calendar days to accomplish the tasks)
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Which Project gets picked from an investment perspective?
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The decision is often based on anticipated cash flow and the riskiness, i.e., the likeliness, of that cash flow.
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Why does it matter to the PM how it gets picked?
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Because companies care about cash flow and how a project is picked sets the anticipation of payments occurring
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schedule development
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Determines the start and end dates of the project and its activities. Creates a realistic project schedule as a bass for monitoring project progress. Tools and techniques include: Gantt charts PERT anaysis Critical Path Analysis- longest path from the day you start to the day you finish.
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project charter
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A project charter is similar to the goal, but more official, more detailed, and in line with your company’s vision and goals.
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benchmarking
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This tool compares one component to a similar component. For example you might compare the benefits of Oracle or SQL.
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types of organizations
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1. Functional Organization 2. Matrix Organization 3. Project Organization
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scope management plan
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A scope management plan is a document used to confirm a common understanding of the project scope. It should include: Brief description of the project products. Summary of all project deliverables. Monitor & Control of Scope. Statement of what determines project success.
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deliverables
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products produced as part of a project, such as hardware or software, planning documents, or meeting minutes
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critical path
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the longest path through the network diagram
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market risk
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Will the new product be useful to the organization or marketable to others? Will users accept and use the product or service?
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financial risk
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Can the organization afford to undertake the project? Is this project the best way to use the company’s financial resources?
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technology risk
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Is the project technically feasible? Could the technology be obsolete before a useful product can be produced?
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risk analysis
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Estimating size of loss: Loss is easier to see than probability You can break this down into “chunks” (like WBS) Estimating probability of loss: Use team member estimates and have a risk-estimate review Use Delphi or group-consensus techniques Use gambling analogy “How much would you bet?” Use “adjective calibration”: highly likely, probably, improbable, unlikely, highly unlikely
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Risk tolerance
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Risk tolerance is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential risky payoff: Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a person who is risk-averse Those who are risk-seeking have a higher tolerance for risk and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake The risk-neutral approach achieves a balance between risk and payoff
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Risk Communication
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A CRISIS is a risk that has materialized. Do not be afraid to convey the risks or crisis. Use your judgment to balance message Sky-is-falling vs. information distribution Show mitigated risks and current risks
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Risk response planning
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How to decide to respond to risk include: 1. Avoidance: eliminating a specific threat or risk, usually by eliminating its causes 2. Acceptance: accepting the consequences should a risk occur 3. Transference: shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party 4. Mitigation: reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence
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Contingency Plans
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predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs
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Fallback plans
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developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives
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Contingency reserves or allowances
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provisions held by the project sponsor that can be used to mitigate cost or schedule risk if changes in scope or quality occur
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resource loading
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refers to the amount of individual resources an existing project schedule requires during specific time periods
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resource leveling
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is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying or reassigning tasks. The main purpose of resource leveling is to create a smoother distribution for resource usage.
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What is project management? (Ch1)
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Project management is the ability to manage a temporary endeavor to create a unique product or service on time, within budget.
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All of the following are project management process groups except for which one? A. Initiating B. Planning C. Implementing D. Monitoring and controlling
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Implementing is not one of the five project management process groups. The five groups are initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.
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You are a project manager in your organization and would like to present a project to management. What organizational component is most likely to review your project to determine if it is worthy of investment?
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Of all the choices presented, the portfolio review board is the best selection. This board consists of upper management and organization’s decision makers.
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Why must you interview the project decision makers before starting the project?
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Again, you must have a clear understanding of what the decision makers’ vision of the project results is before any other factor of the project implementation.
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What is the purpose of the project charter?
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The purpose of the project charter is to authorize the project.
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You are the project manager for your organization, and management has presented a new project to you. This project requires that you adhere to several government regulations for the project deliverable. In this instance, what are the government regulations considered?
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Government regulations are requirements and are never optional. Standards may be tempting, but standards are optional and don’t necessarily have to be followed by the project manager.
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Marci is a project manager in her organization and she is collecting requirements for a new project. She is working with Frances, an end user, to see how Frances is using the current software that Marci’s project deliverable will replace. Marci asks Frances questions as she works, stops Frances to explore the purpose behind the software activities, and quizzes Frances on each step of the software activity. What is Marci doing in this instance?
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Marci is participating in active stakeholder observation. She is working with Frances through the usage of the current software to better understand how the new software can be developed for the end users. Choice A, gathering project requirements, is tempting but doesn’t answer the question as completely as choice D
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You are helping to create the project charter. One of the elements you need to include is the high-level risks in your project. Which one of the following is the best definition of a risk?
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Risks can have a positive or negative effect on the project. Negative risks are often what project managers focus on, but positive risks can be demonstrated through cost savings, time savings, or new opportunities for income.
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Management has asked that you hire a moderator for a new focus group. What is a focus group?
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A focus group is a collection of users your project will affect. A moderator is an impartial person who leads the conversation of the focus group to help gather project requirements.
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Why can a focus group be counterproductive?
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The participants may focus on the problems of the old technology rather than the goals of the project. An improperly organized focus group can result in a gripe session about the old technology and its flaws rather than the benefits and goals of the new project. A focus group requires a strong leader to help the participants focus on the future implementation rather than their complaints with the current technology.
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A project manager would like to use an anonymous tool to gain a consensus on the needs of the project. Which tool is the project manager likely to use?
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The Delphi Technique allows for anonymous input from participants and provides rounds of discussion for consensus building. Answer A is incorrect because a survey on an intranet site may or may not provide anonymous input. Answer C, e-mail, is incorrect because it does not provide anonymous input from users. Answer D is incorrect. Monte Carlo simulation is a simulation tool testing variables, not a consensus-building approach.
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You are working with management to evaluate and understand their goals for a new technical project you’ll be leading. You want to use the SMART approach in your assessment of the project goals. What does SMART mean?
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SMART is a method to assess project goals; it means that each goal should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound. All of the other choices are incorrect meanings of the SMART approach to goal assessment.
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You are working with Sarah on developing a project charter for a new project. All of the following elements should be include in the project charter except for which one?
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The project charter does not need the company’s mission statement. Project charters should include high-level milestones, high-level cost estimates, stakeholder identification, a general project approach, a problem statement, high-level constraints and assumptions, high-level risks, and the project objectives.
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You are working with your project team and management to determine how long the project will take. One of your team members suggests padding all of the activities by 10-20 hours to ensure there’s enough time in case there are problems with the work. You disagree with this idea. Why?
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Parkinson’s Law states that work will expand to fill the amount of time allotted to it. If you pad the project activities, they will likely expand to use all of the time allotted to each activity—something you don’t want when it comes to time estimates. The Law of Diminishing Returns addresses the amount of labor you can add to work to shorten the work duration in ratio to cost of the labor in proportion to the yield of the work. Moore’s Law states that processor speed doubles every 18 months. Pareto’s Law is also known as the 80/20 principle, such that 80 percent of your business income comes from 20 percent of your customers.
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What is the primary difference between a project and operations?
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Projects are temporary endeavors, whereas operations are ongoing initiatives. For example, a project could be to design a new software application, but the support of the application in the workforce would be an operational activity.
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(CH2) You are an IT project manager for the UYQ Organization and are working on a new project to create new software for manufacturers. You are just starting to work on the intent of the project, the high-level goals, and the opportunity for the organization to formulate a document that links the project objectives to the business needs. What type of document are you creating? A. The project scope statement B. The Concept Definition Statement C. The key performance indicators D. The project charter
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B. You are creating the Concept Definition Statement. This document defines the high-level goals and proposed solution for the project. It links the project objectives to the business needs. The project scope statement comes much later in the project; it defines all of the required work needed to satisfy the project objectives. The key performance indicators are the factors that are important to the project stakeholders and must be measured in order for the project to be determined successful. The project charter authorizes the project and names the project manager.
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Jane is the project manager for her organization. She is preparing the business case and identifying the business goals and objectives for an identified problem that a project may solve. Jane is comparing two different applications for performance, cost, scalability, and the expected time for the end users to learn the software applications. What tool is Jane using as part of her creation and documentation of the business goals and project objectives? A. Benchmarking B. Brainstorming C. Business rules analysis D. Functional decomposition
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A. Jane is using the benchmarking approach to compare the costs and benefits of one solution to another. Brainstorming is usually a group activity that encourages the participants to come up with as many ideas as possible for a solution. Business rules analysis examines the rules and policies that an organization and project must abide by. Functional decomposition is the breakdown of a problem into smaller, manageable components.
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What research technique breaks down large problems into smaller, manageable components? A. Root cause analysis B. Functional decomposition C. Focus groups D. Brainstorming
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B. Functional decomposition breaks down a large problem into smaller, manageable components. Root cause analysis examines the causal factors that are contributing to an effect that’s being experienced. Focus groups are groups of project stakeholders that discuss a problem, a solution, or other objectives of a project. Brainstorming is usually a group activity that encourages the participants to come up with as many ideas as possible for a solution.
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Mark is the project manager of the BGH Project. This project doesn’t have much time for planning, as the project customer is urgent for a solution to be implemented. Mark has a limited amount of time to complete the research for the solution. When time is of the essence, what can a project manager do to increase research productivity? A. Delegate the research topics among team members.B. Use only one or two research outlets. C. Limit the time spent doing the research. D. Hire a vendor to do the implementation.
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A. Many hands lighten the load. Whenever possible, a project manager should delegate the planning among team members. The project manager rarely completes planning alone. It may be tempting to hire a vendor to complete the implementation of the project, but the focus of the question is on the research of the project.
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Gary is the business analyst for his organization, and he’s created a proposed solution for the company to implement. Management has asked you to create a feasibility study based on Gary’s findings. What is a feasibility study? A. A plan for researching the project B. A plan based on the project research C. A plan that recommends the proposed technology D. A plan that does not recommend the proposed technology
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B. A feasibility study is a plan based on the project research. It contains a summary of the information you’ve discovered in an organized, factual document to determine if the project is feasible to complete.
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Of the following, which topic is not usually included in a feasibility study? A. Executive summary B. Market research C. Defined business problem D. Assumptions used in the study
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B. Market research is not included in a feasibility study. Feasibility studies include eight sections: executive summaries, defined business problem or opportunity, requirements and purpose of the study, descriptions of the options assessed, assumptions used, audience impacted, financial obligations, and recommended actions.
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You are the project manager for the JHW Organization. Management has come to you with a proposed solution to standardize all workstations and laptops in your organization. They would like you to first complete a feasibility study for the solution with a focus on the total cost of the project implementation. You agree but insist that you should also address the users of the project that will be affected by the change the project will create. Why must a project manager address the users impacted by the technology in a feasibility study? A. To determine their willingness to use the product B. To determine how many users will use the product C. To determine the downtime caused by the product D. To determine the validity of changing or adding technology
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C. A project manager must evaluate any downtime caused by the product implementation. Downtime for users, whether through a learning curve or lack of productivity, is an expense for the company. Too high of a learning curve or long periods of inactivity due to lack of planning is unacceptable when there’s a primary concern about the initial cost of the technical project implementation.
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Why should a project manager demonstrate return on investment (ROI) in the financial obligation portion of a feasibility study? A. He should not; it will be determined by the project sponsor. B. He should include ROI to demonstrate the validity of the project. C. He should include ROI to demonstrate the initial cash outlay for the technology. D. He should include ROI to make certain his project is approved.
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B. To implement the technology, an organization will have an initial cash outlay. The ROI will show how the technology can earn back the initial expense and more by increasing productivity. If the ROI is too little, the project may be scrapped.
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You are the IT project manager for your organization. Several projects being initiated in your organization have large financial requirements, entail extensive usage of human resources, and require access to network facilities. You suggest that project priority be established. What is project priority? A. It is the ability of a project manager to determine which project is the most valuable to an organization. B. It is the ability of a project sponsor to determine which projects should be implemented and which should be discarded. C. It is a process project managers and project sponsors must go through when conflicting projects arise within an organization. D. It is a process project sponsors use to determine which project is of greater importance when two projects conflict
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A. A project manager may have multiple projects to manage. Project priority is the ability to determine which project takes precedence, as it is most important to the success of an organization.
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A new project has been launched by Shelly Dere, the project sponsor. Shelly insists that the project manager have total autonomy over the project decisions, but Shelly will retain the control of the project budget. What is the goal of a project sponsor? A. To manage the project manager B. To delegate duties to the project manager C. To increase profits through the project led by the assigned project manager D. To increase productivity through technical implementations
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C. The goal of a project sponsor is to increase profits through the proposed project. A project manager will carry out the implementation of the project. A project sponsor may manage a project manager, but it should not be her goal to do so. It’s not unusual for the functional management to retain control over the project budget while allowing the IT project manager control over project decisions. All of the other answers in the question are not valid choices, so the only logical choice is that the project sponsor should support the project and help it generate profits for the organizations. Remember, all projects aim to either cut or increase revenue.
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Complete this sentence: In order to complete successful planning, the project manager must know ______________________? A. The mission statement of the organization B. How much the project budget is C. The cause of the problem the project is to solve D. The requirements the project must satisfy
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D. In order for a project to be successful, the project manager must know the requirements the project must satisfy. Meetings and interviews with the project stakeholders will help the project manager and the project team ascertain what exactly the project must create. Note that not all projects solve problems; some projects seize opportunities.
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What is project portfolio management? A. It is the risk the project manager is taking when implementing a project. B. It is the pool of available project managers. C. It is the management and selection of which projects will be engaged, allowed to continue, or stopped based on conditions within the organization or project. D. It is the relationship between the project manager and a third party that will implement the proposed technology.
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C. Project portfolio management is a process that management uses to determine which projects should be engaged and which should not be. Project portfolio management is also used to determine if projects should be halted because of a shift in priorities, conditions within a project, or conditions within an organization.
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Percy is the project manager of a large project that spans three countries. The project team is operating as a virtual team. There have recently been some arguments among the project team members over the technical implementation of the project. What causes internal conflicting IT projects? A. Lack of communication B. Lack of planning C. Technology that develops too quickly D. Conflicting technology
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A. Lack of communication causes conflicting IT projects. When a project manager is managing a virtual team as Percy is in this instance, it’s important to take extra steps to communicate among the project team members. If departments, teams, project managers, and project sponsors would effectively share plans, research, and needs among the organization, there would be fewer conflicts and more successful IT implementation.
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Of the following, which is the best solution two project managers can take to resolve conflicting projects? A. Ask the project sponsors from both projects to take the project to upper management. B. Ask the project sponsor from both projects to meet and determine how, and if, the projects can work together. C. The project managers from both projects should meet and determine if a solution can be reached between them. D. The project managers from both projects should meet. The project manager with the most seniority will determine how the projects may continue.
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C. When two projects clash, the initial reaction between the project managers should be to meet and discuss the situation. The two project managers should attempt to find a resolution and move forward with as little disruption as possible. If no resolution can be met, then the project sponsors should get involved to find a solution. Job seniority, despite popular opinion, does not make someone right.
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Which solution would allow project managers to disseminate information among projects quickly and easily? A. Monthly meetings should be conducted among all project managers. B. Weekly meetings should be conducted among all project managers. C. A newsletter should be created on proposed projects and dispersed to all project managers. D. An intranet project page should be created for all project managers.
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D. Use technology to discuss technology. Meetings are often counterproductive, a waste of time, and hard to schedule. A newsletter, while admirable, is not quickly created or updated. An intranet site can be quickly created and updated, is searchable, and is very cost effective.
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(CH3) You are the project manager for your organization, and you are preparing a presentation for management. This project will help your organization become more efficient and it will help your career as a project manager in your organization. Your audience will include the CEO, customers, and end users. Considering this information, what is the most important thing in your presentation? A. The audience B. The message C. The technology being presented D. The length of the presentation
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B. The most important thing in a presentation is not the audience, it is the message. The presentation must be clear, concise, and to the point. The technology being presented and the time of the presentation are both important elements, but they are not the most important things in the presentation.
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Marty is the project manager, though her manager calls her the project coordinator, for her organization. Her manager, Tom, meets with Marty and the project team weekly to assign project work and to review the project work completed so far in the project. The project team members have regular operational work to do in addition to the completion of the project work. What type of an organizational structure is Marty likely a project manager for? A. Functional B. Weak matrix C. Strong matrix D. Projectized
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A. Marty is working in a functional structure. Your clues in the question include that Marty is called a project coordinator—something that’s common in a functional structure. Tom’s involvement with the project team is another clue that this is a functional structure. Finally, the project team members have regular operational duties to complete, so you can reason that this is not a projectized organization.
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Harold is the project manager for his organization. He believes that project teams can be self-led and want to accomplish the project as long as they understand the work they are to complete. Harold believes in challenging the project team and pressing their abilities to learn and do more. What management theory does Harold most likely believe in? A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation B. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs C. McGregor’s Theory of X and Y D. The Expectancy Theory
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C. McGregor’s Theory of X and Y says that X workers are lazy and unwilling to work. Y workers are self-led, have initiative, and are willing to work. Harold demonstrates this belief by putting confidence in his team to complete their project work.
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You are the project manager for the NHQ Organization. You and several project managers have been invited to present your potential projects to a management committee to determine the worthiness, return on investment, and potential risks. What is the name of this committee that may select your project to be initiated? A. Murder board B. Organizational governance board C. Technical assessment board D. Project Management Office
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A. A murder board is a management-driven board that reviews potential projects to determine which project will likely be the most successful for the organization. An organizational governance board review the policies, procedures, and financial audits of a project.
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You are the project manager for an organization that is a balanced matrix. Your project team members come from many different areas of the organization. Which one of the following is likely a negative component of working in a balanced structure? A. Lack of project team resources B. Increase in team productivity C. Anxiety for the project team as the project nears completion D. Higher communication requirements
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D. Matrix structures have higher communication requirements than the projectized or functional structure. This is because the project team members come from across the organization and are likely to work on multiple projects at once. The project managers must communicate with the functional managers, the other project managers, and the project team members to coordinate schedules, activities, and resource utilization.
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When creating audience handouts for a presentation, what information must be included in the handouts? A. Information on the profits B. Information on the project manager C. An executive summary D. An implementation plan and timeline
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C. Always include an executive summary. As you give your presentation, the executive summary allows the audience to read over the quick facts of the project and get an idea of where the project will end. It also documents the goals and overview of the project for individuals who may not be able to attend your presentation.
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Frank is proposing a project to management. His project will require $300,000 to be initiated and will last for two years. Considering that the current rate of return is six percent, what must Frank’s project be worth in two years as a minimum for management to consider this project? A. $300,000 B. $300,001 C. $337,080 D. $266,988
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C. You can use the future value formula to determine the minimum amount that Frank’s project should be worth. In this instance the formula is $300,000(1.1236), as the interest rate is six percent and the project will last for two years. If Frank’s project is worth less than $337,080, it’s not a good financial decision for the organization to make.
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What role does management play in project management? A. Hands-on implementation B. Authoritarian C. Support D. Financial watchdog
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C. Management should be supportive but not authoritarian or hands on.
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If you subscribe to Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation, which one of the following must exist as a hygiene agent before you may offer motivating agents to your project team? A. Paycheck B. Reward C. Bonuses D. Physiological needs
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A. Hertzberg’s Theory of Motivation defines hygiene agents, which must exist first, as the expectation of the employee. A paycheck must exist for the worker as a hygiene agent before she’s likely to be motivated for other rewards and incentives.
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What is the present value of $575,000 four years from today if the rate of return is six percent? A. $455,453 B. $609,500 C. $725,924 D. $34,500
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A. The present value can be found by using the formula future value/(1+i)n where i is the interest rate and n is the number of time periods. In this instance, it’s $575,000/(1.2624), for a value of $455,453.
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You are the project manager for your organization. Your current project is a database upgrade project, and your project team has completed the first phase of the project. Before your project can move forward, management must review the first phase and determine if the project is allowed to transition to phase two. What is this review process called? A. Organizational governance B. Tollgate approval C. Quality control D. Step funding
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B. The review at the end of a phase has many names, but of all the choices only the tollgate approval is the correct choice. While it’s true that the tollgate approval is part of organizational governance, organizational governance includes many other components and is not the most exact of all the choices.
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You are the project manager of the GHR Project for your organization. This project has just recently been initiated, and the requirements of the project have been agreed upon. Your sponsor would now like you to host a meeting that will review the agreement of the project objectives and establish the direction of the project. What type of a meeting does management want you to host? A. Workshop B. Scope decomposition session C. Kickoff meeting D. Bidders conference
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C. This is a kickoff meeting to discuss the project objectives and establish the project’s direction. A kickoff meeting is not an opportunity to request scope changes or debate the project’s merit.
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Complete the following sentence: Standards are _______________ while regulations are _______________. A. Guidelines, penalties B. Rules, requirements C. Optional, penalties D. Guidelines, requirements
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D. Standards are guidelines while regulations are requirements. You can change or deviate from some standards in a project, but you must always follow the related regulations or there will be fines and penalties.
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Management is considering a new project for your organization. This project will likely last for three years with the realization of benefits each quarter the project is in existence. Knowing that the benefits will be available to the company at each quarter, management would you like to examine the value of the project to determine its true worth for the required investment. What type of benefits measurement approach does management want you to complete? A. Net present value analysis B. Future value analysis C. Cost-benefits ratio analysis D. Management horizon analysis
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A. Of all the choices, net present value analysis is the best choice because net present value allows you to consider the cash flow inflow and time value of money for each time period of the project.
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Management is considering several projects that they would like to implement. To determine which projects are the best for the organization, management has created six categories to measure each project: profitability, risk exposure, schedule, marketplace conditions, competency required, experience, and efficiency gained. Each project will receive points in each category, and the project with the most points will be selected. What type of benefits measurement approach is being completed in this organization? A. Scoring model B. Weighted analysis C. Time value of money analysis D. Cost-benefits analysis
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A. A scoring model is a benefit measurement method that assigns points to defined categories of projects. The project which receives the most points is the project that is selected, funded, and initiated. Incidentally, project managers can use a scoring model when it comes to vendor selection as part of the procurement process.
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(CH4) You are the project manager for a project that will develop in-house software used to monitor computer parts inventory. Your project sponsor asks that you begin working on the WBS. What is a WBS? A. A breakdown of the project work activities B. A decomposition of the project scope C. Weekly deadlines for the project D. A topology of the project team’s responsibilities
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B. A WBS is a decomposition of the project scope. It serves as input to five key processes within a project: cost estimating, cost budgeting, resource planning, risk management planning, and activity definition.
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You are the project manager for the NQQ Project. You have been working with the project team to create the WBS and have now decomposed the project down to work packages. What is a work package? A. A unit of work that must be completed before the next unit can begin B. The smallest unit of work that can be performed by the team as a whole C. The smallest decomposed object in the WBS D. One of the three parts of any project: the introduction, the implementation, and the project wrap-up
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C. A work package is the smallest decomposed object within the WBS. Work packages can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled.
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You are working with your project team to decompose the project scope down the work packages. Some of the project team members are concerned that you’ll want to subdivide the deliverables to a very granular level rather than trust the project team to do their work. You assure them that this won’t happen, as you’re using the 8/80 Rule. What is the 8/80 Rule? A. How long a phase should last B. A heuristic that says a project should last more than 8 months or less than 80 days C. A heuristic that says a task should not last more than 80 hours or less than 8 hours D. A description of a collection of tasks within one phase
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C. The 8/80 Rule is a guide that says a project activity should not take less than 8 hours or last more than 80 hours.
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Gary is the project manager of a small project for his organization. You are serving as a project management consultant to this project. Gary tells you that because his project is so small, he doesn’t feel the need to create a WBS. You tell Gary that it’s in the project’s best interest for him to follow through and create the WBS. Why must Gary and the project team create a WBS? A. The WBS allows the project manager to work backward from the targeted date to assign tasks. B. The WBS allows the project manager to assign resources to tasks. C. The creation of the WBS ensures that all of the project deliverables are fully identified and decomposed so that the necessary resources may be obtained and assigned to the work. D. The WBS allows the project manager to assign multiple team members to multiple tasks to speed up the implementation.
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C. A WBS is deliverables-oriented decomposition of the project work. It is a process to ensure that all of the required deliverables are identified and broken down into manageable components so that resources and labor may be assigned to complete the project work.
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You are implementing a small network and would like to create a WBS. Todd, your assistant, does not want to create a WBS for such a small project. Why should you create a WBS for every project? A. To ensure maximum billable hours B. To ensure the project is complete and whole at finish C. To ensure Todd performs all of his responsibilities D. To work toward a definite deliverable
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B. A WBS, even on small projects, ensures that all tasks are complete and whole. It does not necessarily ensure maximum billable hours, nor does it promise work toward a definite deliverable—these would be accomplished through the project plan. The project manager is responsible for ensuring that Todd performs all of his duties, not the WBS.
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You are the project manager for your organization and are reviewing the requirements for your new project. The business analyst has completed the requirements and is consulting with you on what each requirement is and why it’s important to the project stakeholders. You would like to create a table that maps each requirement, its characteristics, when the requirements will be created, and other information. What type of a table would you like to create? A. RACI chart B. Roles and responsibility chart C. Requirements traceability matrix D. WBS dictionary
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C. A requirements traceability matrix is a table that the individual project requirements to the actual creation of the requirements. It can include information about the requirement, such as the owner, the phase when the requirement is expected to be created, and other information.
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You are the project manager for your organization, and you and the project team are creating your WBS for a software development project. You are mapping the WBS to phases within your project. Of the following, which one is the end result of a phase that can help in the WBS creation? A. Milestones B. Project management life cycle C. Deliverables D. Project funding
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A. Milestones are typically the end result of phases, and they show progress toward project completion. Once you have identified the project milestones, the project life cycle phases used in the WBS can become more clear and distinct.
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All of the following components are part of the scope baseline except for which one? A. Project charter B. Project scope statement C. Project WBS D. WBS dictionary
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A. The project charter is not part of the scope baseline. While you’ll need a project charter to authorize the project and identify the project manager, it’s not part of the scope baseline. The scope baseline includes the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.
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You are the project manager for your organization and are working with your project team to create the project scope statement. Part of the scope statement is to define the constraints and assumptions that you must work with in the project. Which one of the following is an example of a project assumption? A. A predefined schedule B. A predefined budget C. Interoperability of the software and existing hardware D. A requirement to include scalability in the hardware you add to operations
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C. Of all the choices presented, only the interoperability of the software and existing hardware could be an assumption. The predetermined budget and schedule are constraints, as is the scalability requirement. Assumptions are things that are believed to be true though they may not have been proven to be true.
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What is the name of the numbering sequence a project manager can use to identify the components of a WBS? A. Code of accounts B. Chart of accounts C. WBS dictionary index D. Project glossary
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A. A code of accounts is the numbering sequence project managers use in the WBS to identify the various components of the project scope decomposition.
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Sally is the project manager for the NAA Project in her organization. She is about to create the WBS based on the approved project scope for her project. She would like to include several key stakeholders in the creation of the WBS. What is the primary benefit of including the stakeholders in the WBS creation process? A. Including stakeholders ensures that all of the requirements are identified and captured. B. Including stakeholders ensures that the stakeholders know who the project manager is and who the project team members are. C. Including stakeholders ensures that the stakeholders see that all of the requirements have been identified and are accounted for in the project. D. Including stakeholders helps to promote shared ownership of the project.
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D. A valuable benefit of including stakeholders in the creation of the WBS is to promote the idea of shared ownership between the project team and the stakeholders.
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Which one of the following is not needed when creating a WBS? A. Project team members B. A preferred sequence of project activities C. A project scope D. Identified project deliverables
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B. The WBS is not concerned with the order of activities. Activity sequencing and scheduling, however, will be the process that helps the project manager determine the correct order and relationship of activities.
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You are the IT project manager for a project to install a new mail server. Which of the following best describes the best approach to creating the WBS? A. Create a sample WBS and give it the project team to complete. B. Work with the project team to create a sample WBS and give it to management. C. Work with the project team and the key stakeholders to create the WBS. D. A project of this size does not need a WBS.
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C. Creating a WBS is not a solo activity. The project manager should work with the project team and any key stakeholders to create a WBS.
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One of your primary concerns with the project scope is that the stakeholders may add requirements once the project is in motion. Why should the project scope be guarded against even simple additions? A. It adds additional team members to the project. B. It distracts the team members from the project. C. Additions, even simple ones, can greatly impact the success of a project. D. Additions, even simple ones, must be approved through the project sponsor.
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C. Additions to the project scope can have huge impacts on the deliverables of a project. Often additions are tossed into the plans without adequate foresight or care, so their consequences can throw a perfect plan off balance. Do not change the scope of an existing project unless it is absolutely required.
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15. What should signify the end of each phase? A. A milestone that has been reached B. A party for the project team C. A date that has been established within the WBS D. A definite deliverable result
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D. Just as each project produces a definite deliverable, so should each phase. A milestone does not necessarily signify a phase has ended, as there can be multiple milestones within each phase. A party for the project team (while always an excellent idea) does not prove that a phase has officially ended. Dates, while targets for completion, do not signify the end of a phase—the deliverable proves the end of a project phase.
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(CH5) You are the project manager for your organization. Management has asked that you create a detailed cost estimate for a new solution they’d like you to implement. What type of project estimating must account for every expense within a project before the work begins? A. Bottom-up estimating B. Top-down estimating C. Zero-based budgeting D. Parametric estimating
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A. Bottom-up estimating requires the project manager to account for all expenses within the project to arrive at a grand total for the project.
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You are the project manager of the JHN Project. You have estimated the project will cost $129 for each unit installed. There are 1,200 units on this project. What type of estimate is this? A. Bottom-up estimate B. Top-down estimate C. Analogous estimating D. Parametric Estimates
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D. This is an example of a parametric estimate. The units will cost $129 each; this is the parameter. As there are 1,200 units on the project, the estimate is calculated by multiplying the parameter of $129 by the total number of units needed, 1,200, for an estimate of $154,800.
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Harry is the project manager for his organization. Elizabeth, his manager, has asked that Harry create a bottom-up cost estimate for a new project. What is a bottom-up cost estimate? A. Last year’s budget plus 20 percent to equal the current year’s budget B. This year’s budget with a 20 percent plus or minus shift in the bottom line C. The process of working toward a zero balance as the bottom line in a budget D. The process of creating a detailed estimate for each work package in a WBS
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D. Bottom-up estimating is a process that requires the project manager to create a detailed estimate for each work package in the WBS. Every work package can be cost estimated, and it’s the sum of the work package’s cost estimates that help determine the bottom-up estimate.
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You are the project manager for your organization. Your current project is similar to a project you finished recently for your organization. You decide to base the current project cost estimate on the previous project. What type of cost estimating are you using in this instance? A. Analogous B. Parametric C. Definitive D. Rough Order of Magnitude
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A. This is an example of an analogous estimate. By creating an analogy between the current project and the previous project, the project manager can predict current costs. To use an analogous estimate, you must have accurate historical information.
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What should a project manager do to an IT implementation to accurately predict the total cost of the project? A. List all of the expenses and add them up using best- and worst-case scenarios for each expense. B. List all of the expenses, including labor, and add them up using an average-case scenario for each expense. C. Divide the project into phases and assign a dollar amount to each phase. D. Divide the project into phases and estimate a dollar amount for each milestone within a phase.
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C. The project manager should not create one grand total for a project. In order for the project manager to see a true picture of the work, she should segment the project into phases and assign each phase a dollar amount based on the work to be completed within it.
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What is a fully burdened workload? A. It is when an employee has reached his maximum number of hours allotted for any given project. B. It is when a consultant has reached her maximum number of hours allotted for billable time for a project or task within the project. C. It is the prediction of the number of hours required by staff to complete each phase of the project. D. It is the record of the number of hours required by staff to complete each phase of the project.
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C. A fully burdened workload is the prediction of the actual hours required by the team members to complete a given project. This process allows the project manager to predict the financial obligations corresponding to time and create a sense of urgency as to when each task must be completed.
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Why should an IT project manager use most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic scenarios when calculating the time required for a task? A. Some staff members will take longer than other staff members to do the same type of work. B. Each staff member will have a dollar amount assigned to the work hour. The optimistic and pessimistic scenarios can predict which staff member is the most valuable. C. The most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic scenarios allow an IT project manager to predict the average time expense required to complete a task. D. The most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic scenarios allow an IT project manager to predict the average amount of labor required to complete a task.
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C. The most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic scenarios allow a project manager to predict the average amount of time the team member requires to complete a task. The project manager uses this value to assign a dollar amount to the work to be completed.
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Ronald is the project manager for his organization and is completing a project for a customer. Ronald and his project team have completed the project scope, and they could turn the project deliverables over to the customer and close the project, but they still have $12,500 in the project budget. Ronald decides to add some features to the software that would make the software better and to consume the remaining budget. This scenario is an example of which term? A. Scope creep B. Value-added change control C. Configuration management D. Gold plating
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D. This is an example of gold plating. Gold plating happens when the project manager or team adds deliverables that were not in the project scope in an effort to consume all of the project budget.
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You are the project manager for your organization, and you’ll need to procure servers and workstations from the vendor. You’d also like the vendor to install the operating system on each of the workstations based on an image you’ve created. In your procurement process, you’ve specified that the vendor must provide a fixed quote for the work. What is a primary advantage of an IT project manager requiring a vendor to deliver a fixed quote? A. It locks the vendor into the project. B. It prevents the vendor from adding any additional features to the implementation. C. It allows the project manager to use the quote for up to one year. D. It allows the project manager to incorporate the quote into a proposed budget.
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D. A fixed quote allows the project manager to use that dollar amount in a budget to predict the funds required to complete a project. It can also be used to determine which vendor will actually be awarded the job based on the price and hours to complete the work.
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What is the budget at completion (BAC)? A. It is the total amount of the budget for each phase of the project. B. It is the amount of the total project before the project is done. C. It is the amount of each phase as the phase is completed. D. It is the grand total of the project once the project has been completed.
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B. The budget at completion (BAC) is the predicted amount of the entire project before the project has been completed.
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You are the project manager for your organization. Management has asked that you use PERT for estimating the time it takes to complete the project. Using PERT, what time would you record for an activity that has an optimistic time of 25 hours, a most likely time of 44 hours, and a pessimistic time of 76 hours? A. 44 hours B. 46 hours C. 48 hours D. 76 hours
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B. The Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) is a time-estimating formula that accounts for the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates. The formula is P+O+(4ML)/6. In this example, the closest result if 46 hours.
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What is the difference between a three point estimate and a PERT estimate? A. PERT uses a weighted average of the most likely, whereas the three-point estimate is really just an average of all three estimates. B. PERT uses an average model to predict the most likely duration for time or costs, whereas a three-point estimate uses a straight average for the duration or costs. C. PERT and three-point estimates are actually the same model. D. PERT is used for time and cost estimates, whereas three-point estimates are used only for time.
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A. PERT does use a weighted average to predict the cost or time of an activity. It’s considered weighted because the formula is P+O+(4ML)/6. The three-point estimate is just an average of the pessimistic, optimistic, and most likely estimates.
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You are the project manager for your organization and are trying to determine if you should buy or build a solution. You’ve determined that your project team could build the solution for $23,500 and the monthly maintenance on the solution will be $1,200. A vendor reports that they can build the solution for $17,000 but the monthly maintenance fee with the vendor will be $1,800. Should you buy or build this solution? A. Build the solution if you’ll keep it less than 11 months. B. Buy the solution if you’ll keep it more than 11 months. C. Buy the solution if you’ll keep it less than 11 months. D. Build the solution if you’ll replace it in less than 11 months.
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C. To determine the make or buy, you’ll first find the difference between the in-house solution and the vendor’s solution. In this example the difference is $6,500. Then you’ll find the difference of the monthly support for each solution, which is $600. The $6,500 is divided by $600, which tells you how long you’ll need to use the in-house solution to equate to the cost of the vendor’s solution. In this example, it’s nearly 11 months, which means you should buy the solution if you’ll keep it for less than 11 months or build the solution if you’ll keep it for more than 11 months.
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You are the project manager of a project to install 8,500 workstations in an organization. You have estimated that the optimistic cost of the labor for each workstation will be $99, the most likely cost will be $149, and the worst-case cost for each workstation will be $225. What cost will you record for your cost estimate per workstation? A. $149 B. $225 C. $158 D. It depends on the person doing the installation
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C. If you use the three-point estimate approach in this example, you will record the cost estimate as $158 per workstation.
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Which one of the following is an example of an estimate using a parametric model? A. The current project is similar to the past project, so the project manager will base the current estimate on the previous project. B. Each item in the WBS must be cost-estimated to create the project cost estimate. C. There are 7,100 network drops, and each drop will cost $175. D. The organization is charged a set fee for all the connections to a server.
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C. A parametric model is a value that can serve as a parameter to determine the project costs. In this example, the 7,100 network drops at $175 each is an example of a parametric model.
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(CH6)You are the project manager for your organization and are creating the project schedule. You know that a project schedule is composed of all the following components except for which one? A. The network of all of the tasks within the project B. The assignment of resources C. The budget for the project D. The reflection of the WBS
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C. While the project budget is important, it is not part of the project schedule. A project schedule is the compilation of all of the tasks to be completed within a project and the assignment of resources, and it should reflect the entries
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John is the project manager for his organization, and he’s creating the project management plan. He is reviewing the project scope baseline with his project team so that they’ll understand the requirements and direction of the project. Which of the following is the correct definition of the project scope baseline? A. It is all the work, and only the required work, to meet the project objectives. B. It is the combination of the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary. C. It is the combination of the project requirements, the project scope, and the WBS. D. It the consideration of the project requirements, assumptions, and constraints that affect the project planning.
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B. The project scope statement is composed of three documents: the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary. These three documents serve as the guideline for all future project decisions.
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You are the project manager for your organization, and you’re creating with your project team the project management plan. Which project management plan defines how the project deliverables will be inspected by the project team? A. Process improvement plan B. Scope management plan C. Risk management plan D. Quality management plan
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D. Quality control is the process that requires the project team to inspect the project work for the existence of quality. The quality management plan defines how quality control should be used, how errors are managed, and what techniques will be implemented. The process improvement plan defines how the project management processes used within the project can be measured and then improved upon. The scope management plan defines how the project scope, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary will be created and managed. The risk management plan defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, and monitored and controlled throughout the project.
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Which project management plan defines integrated change control? A. Quality management plan B. Scope management plan C. Change control plan D. Risk management plan
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B. The scope management plan defines how changes to the project scope may be allowed to enter the project. When a change is proposed, the project manager, the change control board, and even the project team will examine the change to see its effect on the entire project. The examination of the effect on all areas of the project is called integrated change control. The quality management plan and the risk management plan do not define integrated change control, but these knowledge areas can be affected by a proposed changed. There is no change control plan.
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You are the project manager for your organization. Management has approved the project scope, and they’ve asked you and your project team to begin creating a project network diagram. What is a project network diagram? A. An expansion of the WBS B. An expansion of the Gantt chart C. A sequential mapping of the project work D. A topology of a project phase
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C. A network diagram is a fluid mapping of the entire project, not just one phase. A network diagram is not an extension of the Gantt chart or the WBS.
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You are the project manager for your organization, and you’re working with your project team to create the WBS. You and the project team are examining each deliverable of the project and are subdividing the deliverables into smaller elements. Once you’ve created the WBS, what document can you create next in your project planning? A. Activity list B. Project network diagram C. Risk management plan D. Schedule management plan
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A. Once you and your project team have created the WBS, you can then create the activity list. The activity list is based on the work packages; recall that work packages are the smallest item in the WBS. The activity list is a separate document in the project management plan and precedes the project network diagram. The risk management plan and the schedule management plan may not exist at this point of project planning, though their existence wouldn’t affect the need for the activity list at this time.
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You and the project team have identified the critical path and are now reviewing the available float in your project network diagram. All of the following statements about float are incorrect except for which one? A. Every project will have float. B. Only complex projects will have float. C. Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without increasing the project costs. D. Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without causing the project to be late.
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D. Float is the amount of time an activity’s completion can be delayed without delaying the project end date. Not every project will have float, though most projects do—including simple or complex projects. Float is not directly related to the cost of the project work.
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You are the project manager for your organization and have been assigned a new project team. Many of the project team members haven’t worked with each other before, so you elect to do some team building exercises to help the team learn and trust one another. What project management plan defines this process of team development? A. Project management plan B. Quality management plan C. Team leadership plan D. Project human resource plan
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D. Team development is part of the project human resource plan. It’s essential for project team members to learn to trust one another, work well together, and become a cohesive team unit for the execution of the project. Team development is not defined in the quality management plan, and there is no team leadership plan. While it’s true that the human resource plan is part of the project management plan, the project management plan is not the best choice for this question.
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What law states that work will expand to fill the amount of time allotted to it? A. Law of Diminishing Returns B. Moore’s Law C. Parkinson’s Law D. Murphy’s Law
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C. When project team members and project managers add time to their time estimates, they’ll likely succumb to Parkinson’s Law: work expands to fill the time allotted to it. The Law of Diminishing Returns states that you can’t exponentially add labor to an activity to reduce the amount of time the work will take to complete. In addition, the cost of the labor may exceed the fixed yield of the work, and the continuous addition of workers may eventually be counterproductive to the completion of the work. Moore’s Law is based on a statement Intel’s Gordon Moore said about a computer’s processing speed doubling every 18 months. Murphy’s Law states that if anything can go wrong, it will.
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You are the project manager of a web server and web site upgrade. You have assigned Mark the task of creating the web pages and Janice the task of developing the web pages. Mark and Janice can begin work on their assigned tasks at the same time. What type of relationship do these tasks have? A. FS B. SS C. FF D. SF
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B. These tasks can use SS dependency, which means “start to start.” The FS dependency is the most common, which means “finish to start.” The FF dependency means the tasks must be “finish to finish,” and the last dependency is “start to finish.”
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Phil is the project manager of a network upgrade. All of the client workstations are to be replaced, and this task has been assigned to Steve, Harry, and Beth. Once the physical workstations are in place, Sam will release an automated script to deploy an operating system to each of the new workstations. What type of relationship best describes these two tasks? A. FS B. SS C. FF D. SF
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A. FS. Because the tasks involving the replacement of workstations must be completed before the script can run, the dependency used is FS, or “finish to start.”
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You are the project manager of the NHQ Project and are working with your team to create risk responses. One risk, managing an electrical component in your project work, is deemed too dangerous to handle internally, so you and the project team elect to hire a vendor to manage this portion of your project. What type of risk response is this? A. Sharing B. Mitigation C. Avoidance D. Transference
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D. The best answer to this question is the transference risk response. You have transferred the risk of the dangerous electrical work to a vendor to manage for you. When you do transference, you’re usually hiring someone and there’s a fee associated with the risk response. Sharing is a positive risk response where you share the positive risk with another entity, usually through a partnership agreement. Mitigation consists of steps that you take to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk event. Avoidance consists of actions to avoid the risk from entering the project, such as a reduction in the project scope or workarounds.
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Why should a project manager avoid assigning specific dates to tasks when at all possible during the creation of the network diagram? A. Dates cannot change; tasks can. B. Dates require the activity to happen at a specific time. C. Tasks assigned to dates do not consider successor tasks. D. Tasks assigned to dates do not consider both successor and predecessor tasks.
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D. Tasks assigned to dates do not consider successor and predecessor tasks. This becomes a huge problem when upstream tasks are delayed by several days; the task assigned to a specific date does not change to reflect the changes of the tasks upstream. Whenever possible, do not assign tasks to a specific date. Examples include when a particular resource is available or a consultant is scheduled to be present.
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You are the project manager for your organization and are about to begin the procurement process. You have decided that you want the vendor to provide a fixed price for the materials your project will need. You create the SOW for the work. What other document should you send to the vendors? A. RFP B. RFI C. IFB D. PO
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C. When you want the vendor to provide a fixed fee for their services or materials, you ask for a bid or quote. In this example, you’d send an IFB—an invitation to bid document. An RFQ, request for quote, would have been a correct choice too. A request for proposal asks the vendor to provide much more than just a fee for their work. A request for information is not a document asking for a price, just for additional details about the work and services the vendor can provide. A purchase order is not the best document choice here, because this implies you’re purchasing from the vendor, when you actually just want a quote or bid from the vendor.
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Why must lag times be scheduled between tasks in a project network diagram? A. Lag times allow the team to take a break. B. Lag times reflect instances when task overruns are anticipated. C. Lag times reflect weekends and holidays. D. Lag times allow other events to be completed before successor tasks can begin.
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D. Lag times allow other events to be completed before successor tasks can begin. For example, a dependent task is to mail a survey to all of the network users. Before the successor task, analyzing the user surveys, can happen, there must be time allotted for the users to respond to the survey. It’s not an actual task, but it still requires times within the diagram.
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(CH7) 1. When creating a project team, why must the project manager know the skills of each of the prospective team members? A. It helps the project manager determine the budget of the project. B. It helps the project manager determine how long the project will take. C. It helps the project manager determine if he wants to lead the project. D. It helps the project manager assign tasks.
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D. The project manager should know in advance of the WBS creation the skills of the team members so that she can assign tasks fairly. A skills assessment also helps the project manager determine what skills are lacking to complete the project.
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You are the project manager for your organization and you’re creating the project team. Of the following, which two are methods the project manager can use to assess internal skills? A. Prior projects B. Reports from other project teams C. Recommendation of management D. Projects the project manager has worked on
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A, C. Experience is always one of the best barometers for skills assessment. If the prospective team member has worked on similar projects, that person should be vital for the current implementation. Recommendations from management on team members can aid a project manager in assigning tasks and recruiting new team members.
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When requesting an internal résumé to recruit team members, why must the project manager use extreme caution? A. Résumés have the connotation of getting, or keeping, a job. B. Résumés have the connotation of pay raises. C. Résumés have the connotation of relocating users. D. It is illegal, within the U.S., to ask for a résumé once the individual has been hired.
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A. Résumés can show the skill sets of prospective team members, but they have a tendency to imply getting or keeping a job. In lieu of résumés, project managers can use a listing of accomplishments and skills to determine the talent of recruits.
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Jane is the project manager for her organization, and management has instructed her to create some team development exercises. Of the following, which one is not an example of team development? A. Training for the project work B. Industry certifications C. Team events such as rafting D. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning
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B. Industry certifications are a valuable source for proving that individuals are skilled and able to implement the technology. Certifications on their own, however, do not provide team development.
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Marty is the project manager for his company, and he believes that he’ll need to train the project team. Management is concerned about the cost of the training. Marty tells management that this training isn’t really an expense for the project. When is training considered an expense? A. When the cost of training is beyond the budget of an organization B. When the time it takes to complete the training increases the length of the project beyond a reasonable deadline C. When the training experience does not increase the ability of the team to implement the technology D. When the training experience does not increase the individual’s salary
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C. Training is an expense rather than an investment when the result of the training does not increase the team’s ability to complete the project. A factor in determining if training should be implemented or not is the time of training and its impact on a project’s deadline.
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The project team is in disagreement over which OS to use on a new server. The project manager tables the issues and says the decision can wait until next week. This is an example of which project management negotiating technique? A. Confrontational B. Yielding C. Coercive D. Withdrawal
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D. This is an example of withdrawal. While this method often is failure to effectively come to a decision, it can be effective when a decision is not needed immediately. This approach can allow the team to “cool off” on the decision and move on to other pressing matters.
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As a project manager, you need to manage your project team, but you also need to lead your project team to finish the project. You need reliable, dedicated workers on your project team. What is the best way to create reliable, hard-working teams? A. Fire the team members who do not perform. B. Set an example by being reliable and hard working. C. Promise raises to the hardest-working team members. D. Promise vacation days for all that are hard working.
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B. A leader leads best by doing. By setting the example of being hard working, reliable, and available to your team members, you will show them the type of workers you hope they are as well. Leading by fear, or through an iron-fist mentality, should not be an option in today’s workplace.
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How is camaraderie created on a team? A. By years of working together B. By creating an us-against-them mentality C. By the experiences of the team as a whole D. By creating friendships on the team
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C. Camaraderie is an element that can’t be forced upon a team. Years of working together, friendships, and us-against-them mindsets do not create camaraderie. The experience of the team as a whole is where camaraderie stems from.
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Why is the WIIFM principle a good theory to implement with project management? A. It shows the team how the success of the project is good for the whole company. B. It shows the team how the success of the project is good for management. C. It shows the team how the success of the project will make the company more profitable. D. It shows the team how the success of the project will impact each team member personally.
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D. WIIFM, the “What’s In It For Me” theory, personalizes the benefits of the project for each team member. By demonstrating what the individual will gain from the project, you help increase that team member’s sense of ownership and responsibility to the project.
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You are the project manager for your organization and will manage 23 people as part of your project team. Management has encouraged you to create subteams for this implementation project. What is a subteam? A. A specialized team that is assigned to one area of a large project or to a geographical area B. A specialized team that will be brought into the project as needed C. A collection of individuals that can serve as backup to the main project team D. A specialized team responsible for any of the manual labor within a project
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A. Subteams are not less important than the overall project team. Subteams are collections of specialists who will be responsible for a single unit of the project plan, or a geographical structure.
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What is the key to working with multiple subteams? A. A team leader on each subteam B. Multiple project managers C. Communication between team leaders and the project manager D. Communication between team leaders, the project manager, and the project sponsor
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C. When working with multiple subteams, the project manager and the team leader of each subteam must have open communications. The subteams should follow the change of command through each team leader, to the project manager, and the project manager to the project sponsor.
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12. Of the following, which is a good team-building exercise? A. Introductions at the kickoff meeting B. A weekly lunch meeting C. A team event outside of the office D. Team implementation of a new technology over a weekend
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C. A good team-building exercise is something out of the ordinary that gels the ability of the team to work together. Luncheons and introductions at meetings are standard fare that don’t always bring a team closer together.
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Why should a project manager conduct interviews for prospective team members? A. To determine if a person should be on the team or not B. To learn what skills each team member has C. To determine if the project should be initiated D. To determine the skills required to complete the project
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A. Interviews of prospective team members allow the project manager to determine if those people have assets to offer to a project. Because the team members are prospective, the project manager can conduct a typical interview using formal or informal approaches to ascertain the level of skills from each prospect.
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What is the purpose of conducting interviews of existing team members? A. To determine if the project should be outsourced B. To determine the length of the project C. To determine the tasks each team member should be responsible for D. To determine if additional project roles are needed
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C. By interviewing the project team members, the project manager can determine which project team should be responsible for specific tasks in the project. This interview process can help the project manager determine skills that are present and which skills may need to be acquired to complete the project work.
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When a project manager sends a vendor an RFP, what is he asking for? A. A Request for Proposal so that a decision can be made based on price B. A Request for Proposal so that a decision can be made based on the proposed solution to the WBS C. A Request for Proposal so that a decision can be made based on the proposed solution for the SOW D. A Request for Proposal so that a decision can be made based on the proposed schedule
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C. An RFP is a request for a proposal to the statement of work. The RFP typically means the buyer is open to recommendations and solutions from the seller. The decision to buy is not made on cost alone.
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(CH8) You are the project manager of the NYQ Project. You suspect that some project team members aren’t interested in the project. What is the best path to make others develop a passion for the project? A. Offer bonuses if the project is completed on time. B. Remind the team members the project is essential to their careers. C. Become passionate about the project yourself. D. Remind the team members that mistakes they make on the project will be documented.
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C. The best method you can use to make others become passionate about a project is to become passionate about it yourself. Your excitement and desire for success is contagious. Bonuses for completing a project on time are a fine tool but may result in rushed work. Implying threats of job loss is no way of inspiring passion for your project team; in fact, it may have the inverse effect.
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Why must the project manager have authority over a project? A. To ensure the team will complete the work as dictated B. To ensure the actions required to complete the project will be enforced C. To ensure the budget required to complete the project is available D. To ensure the organization realizes your potential as an effective manager
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B. A project manager needs authority over a project to ensure that the team will complete the tasks to finish the project. Because a project manager is responsible for the success or failure of a project, she should also be given a level of authority to ensure her success.
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3. What management theory suggests that people will perform better when they are offered a reward that motivates them? A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation B. McClelland’s Theory of Needs C. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs D. McGregor’s Theory of X and Y
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A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation states that performance can be promoted through motivating agents, which are often rewards. Hygiene agents, such as a paycheck and benefits, are needed before motivating agents are effective.
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Complete this sentence: A successful relationship between the team members and the project manager should be _____________. A. Orderly B. Symbiotic C. Symbolic D. Relaxed
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B. The relationship between the project team and the project manager should be mutually beneficial.
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Of the following, which are two skills that a project manager must have to be successful? A. Public speaking abilities B. Organizational skills C. Ambition for a successful career D. Passion for the project
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B, D. A successful project manager does not have to be an effective public speaker, though it may help. Ambition for a successful career is not necessarily an asset required of the project manager. Organizational skills and a real passion for the project, however, are two attributes every project manager requires.
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McClelland’s Theory of Needs suggests that people are driven by one of three needs. Which one of the following is not one of the three needs in McClelland’s theory? A. Power B. Affiliation C. Reward D. Achievement
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C. Reward is not one of the three needs of McClelland’s Theory of Needs. His theory states that people are driven by power, affiliation, or achievement.
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Of the following, which decision-making process is reflective of the directive decision? A. A project manager who makes the decision with no team input B. A project manager who makes a decision based on team members’ counsel and advice C. A project manager who allows the team members to arrive at their own decision D. A project manager who allows the team members to arrive at their own decision with his approval
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A. When a project manager makes a decision with no team input, but based on his own experience, research, or intuition, he is making a directive decision.
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Of the following, which decision-making process is reflective of the consultative decision? A. A project manager who makes the decision with no team input B. A project manager who makes a decision based on team members’ counsel and advice C. A project manager who allows the team members to arrive at their own decision D. A project manager who allows the team members to arrive at their own decision with her approval
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B. A consultative decision allows the project manager and the project team to work together to make a decision. This is ideal for situations where the project manager may not be well versed in the technology but must make a decision to safeguard the project.
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Why is disagreeing considered to be an effective part of team discussions? A. It keeps the team competitive among itself. B. It allows the project manager to “pit” team members against each other to keep the project moving. C. It shows that the project team is thinking and considering alternate solutions. D. It allows team members to become passionate about their decisions.
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C. Some disagreements in a team meeting are healthy as it shows the team is working toward the best solutions. Compromise and openness to different ideas are fantastic components to any project.
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10. Of the following, which is not a method you should employ when working with “evaders” during a team discussion? A. Have each team member offer her opinion on the topic, and then write the suggestion on the whiteboard. B. If possible, allow team members to think about the problem and then e-mail their proposed solution to you. C. Have the evader listen to all of the comments and then make his decision. D. Call directly on the evader team members first when asking for suggestions.
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C. Evaders are team members who avoid confrontations and do not want to contradict any other team member. By allowing the team member to wait until he’s heard all of the other team member’s suggestions, his true opinion may be masked by the desire to agree with the majority of opinions.
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You are a project manager for an application development project. You have eight team members who are all adding opinions about the web connectivity feature of the application. Of the following statements, which one most likely came from a team member with the aggressive personality type? A. I’ve done this before so I know it works. B. We could model our application after a project we’ve made before. C. I agree with Susan. D. I think we should take two different approaches and let the users decide which is most effective.
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A. Aggressive team members are typically experienced but have no qualms about stressing their ability to always be right.
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How often should a project manager meet with the entire project team? A. On a regular basis, as warranted by the size and duration of the project B. As directed by management C. At least weekly D. At least monthly
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A. Project managers should determine a schedule that is appropriate for the project. A team that meets too often will waste valuable work time. A team that meets infrequently will miss an opportunity to discuss and resolve issues on the project.
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Of the following, which is the best choice for conducting meetings when the project team is dispersed geographically? A. Have the entire project team travel to a central location to discuss the project. B. Have the team leaders from each subteam travel to a central location to conduct the project. Team leaders would then report the results to the team when they return from the trip. C. Have the project manager travel to each location and meet with the project team there. D. Use videoconference software to link to all of the different teams to discuss the project.
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D. Videoconference software is an excellent solution for all of the team members to participate in a discussion of the project without losing days to and incurring expenses for travel.
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Why should project team meetings have minutes recorded? A. It allows management to have a record of each meeting. B. It allows the project sponsor to have a record of the meeting without having to attend. C. It allows the project manager to maintain a record of what was discussed. D. It allows subteams to have details on what is happening in the other subteams’ meetings.
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C. Minutes need to be kept in team meetings so that the project manager has a record of the discussion of the meeting. It allows the project manager another avenue to document the details of the meetings.
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Of the following, which two are attributes of a successful project manager? A. Experience working with technology B. Experience working with the project team C. Experience working with the project sponsor D. Experience as a traditional manager
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A, D. A project manager who has experience either in working with technology or in the role as a traditional manager has an advantage over unproven project managers. Technical experience and a traditional management background, is a great combination for any IT project manager.

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