IMBA International Business Law – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
Law
answer
rules of order that dictate some minimum expectation for how to live in a society for civility and reduced chaos with reasonable protections of rights and minimal interference of others rights
question
Burden of Proof (2)
answer
obligation to prove one's assertion, always rests on plaintiff
question
Types of Law (2)
answer
criminal, civil
question
Main civil theories (2)
answer
tort law, contract law
question
types of Tort Law (3)
answer
intentional, negligence, strict liability
question
intentional torts (5)
answer
assault and battery, defamation, false imprisonment, trespassing, intentional infliction of emotional distress
question
negligence
answer
failure to use reasonable care under the circumstances
question
strict liability
answer
not intentional or negligent but still wrongdoing/harm done
question
sources of law in US legal system (6)
answer
state statutes, federal statutes, administrative, constitutional, common law, branches of government (checks and balances)
question
types of legal systems in international (4)
answer
common, civil, theocratic/Islamic, Socialist
question
Common law (US, UK, Canada, Australia, India)
answer
rely on previous court decisions through precedent
question
Civil law (France, Germany, Scandinavian Countries, Japan, Russia, South Africa)
answer
extensive codes and statutes derived from the Roman era
question
Islamic/Theocratic Law (Middle East)
answer
religion/religious texts are the rule of law
question
Socialist System Law (North Korea, Cuba)
answer
government controlled
question
International Doctrines (3)
answer
Comity, Act of State, Sovereign Immunity
question
Comity
answer
US will recognize judgments of other countries (because we want them to reciprocate and recognize our judgments)
question
Act of State
answer
do not interfere with government activities if they are within the boundaries of that country (Mexican company in US cannot fight eminent domain)
question
Sovereign Immunity
answer
will not sue foreign nations in a US court unless it makes sense to do so
question
Times when it makes sense to sue foreign nations in a US court (3)
answer
country waives their immunity, country engages in activity with direct impact on US, tort was committed within US borders
question
sources of International Law (3)
answer
customs, treaties/international agreements, international organizations
question
Essentials to a Binding Contract (5)
answer
Mutual Assent, Consideration, Capacity, Legality, Statute of Frauds
question
Mutual Assent (2)
answer
meeting of the minds between a promisor and promisee, determined by an offer/proposal and acceptance/approval of offer
question
Consideration (3)
answer
value given in exchange for both offeror and offeree, past consideration is No consideration, preexisting duty rule
question
preexisting duty rule
answer
if it is already the job, duty, responsibility, requirement, etc. of the person it is not consideration (firefighter or police officer)
question
instances where no consideration is given (2)
answer
promise of future gifts, can be a benefit for the offeror or detriment to the offeree
question
Capacity
answer
the ability or power to do, experience, or understand something
question
groups that lack capacity (3)
answer
minors, mentally incompetent, intoxicated persons
question
minors
answer
cannot avoid contracts for necessity items, can avoid/void contracts for luxury/non-essential items and receive full refund in return no matter what
question
mentally incompetence and intoxicated persons
answer
must make some restitution
question
Legality
answer
a contract must have the quality or state of being in accordance with the law
question
non-legal contracts (4)
answer
contracts to commit a crime/intentional torts, Sunday contracts (not necessarily anymore), usury violation, regulatory license violation
question
Statute of Frauds
answer
writing requirement for a contract
question
mutual assent under Common Law - binding offer (3)
answer
must have definite terms, the proposal must be communicated with only the intended offeree (ad in a paper is an invitation to offer, not an offer itself), there must be an objective intent to enter into a contract (reasonable offer)
question
mutual assent under Common Law - termination of offer (7)
answer
revocation, rejection, lapse of time, irrevocable offers, death, bankruptcy, destruction of subject matter
question
revocation (2)
answer
act by offeror, can terminate offer anytime before acceptance
question
rejection (3)
answer
act by offeree by saying no to offer, if the offeree then changes their mind and wants to accept they must now make a new offer, counteroffers are considered rejection and new offer
question
lapse of time (2)
answer
specified, unspecified
question
specified lapse of time
answer
exact amount of time is given to consider the offer and that time has elapsed
question
unspecified lapse of time
answer
reasonable but not exact amount of time is given to consider offer under the circumstances and that time has elapsed
question
irrevocable offers (under common law)
answer
require option contracts
question
option contract
answer
requires consideration in return for option to exercise or not in the future (offeree give $50 for 3 days to think about offer)
question
mutual assent under Common Law - acceptance (3)
answer
mirror image rule, mailbox rule
question
mirror image rule
answer
the acceptance must be exactly the same terms as the offer and any deviation makes it a counteroffer (or rejection and new offer)
question
mailbox rule
answer
timing rule that states an acceptance is valid upon dispatch from the offeree and not receipt of the offeror, only applies with consistent or faster medium of communication (mail and mail or mail and fax) and done correctly (proper address and postage, etc.)
question
consideration under Common law
answer
any modification of a real estate contract requires new consideration
question
statute of frauds under Common law (4)
answer
real estate contract, long term contract (not completed in under a year), promise to pay debt of another, certain marriage contracts (if there is a performance component with the vow - I'll give you a Porsche if you marry me)
question
type or writing acceptable under Common law
answer
almost anything works (napkin, post it note, printer paper, email, etc.) but must have clear/legible definite terms and signature of party to be charged
question
parol evidence rule
answer
all terms must be in the completed writing because no testimony of oral modifications can be submitted during trial if not in writing
question
performance of common law contracts (3)
answer
perfect, substantial, insignificant
question
perfect performance
answer
face amount of contract is due if the performance is carried out exactly to the terms in the contract
question
substantial performance
answer
if there is a good faith attempt at performance but still a technical breach occurs because not all terms in contract are met then the price can be adjust given the problem
question
insignificant performance
answer
if there is a substantial breach of contract which leaves the breached upon party with no recovery then there is no liability to pay
question
damages/remedies under common law
answer
compensatory damages/remedy of resale as a recourse to make the innocent party whole (if a contract for $400,000 and buyer walks away, but can still sell for $385,000 then can only sue buyer for remaining $15,000), no punitive damages are allowed because the goal is not to punish the guilty party but to make the innocent party whole
question
Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) (5)
answer
rules and codes developed in the 1950's for sales of goods contracts, every state adopted except for Louisiana, does not apply to services or real estate (that would be under common law), for mix of service and goods contract apply UCC or Common depending on which is dominant portion of contract in financial terms
question
mutual assent under UCC - offer
answer
definite terms with a few exceptions
question
exceptions for definite terms under UCC (4)
answer
price term can be left open and determined to be fair market value, delivery date can be left open and determined to be at a reasonable time given the circumstances, can have an open delivery location and if it is the first time doing business and do not specify that dictates buyer pickup at seller location, must agree on quantity
question
mutual assent under UCC - irrevocable offer (2)
answer
firm offer must be made by merchant in that industry (someone who typically deals in that industry) in writing, no consideration is required for extra allotted time to think about offer
question
mutual assent under UCC - acceptance (2)
answer
no mirror image rule, battle of the forms, mailbox rule applies
question
battle of the forms (2)
answer
if there are only minor deviations or discrepancies between the offer and acceptance then UCC says contract is valid, last shot rule applies
question
last shot rule
answer
the last revision to come through as an acceptance is in effect as long as an objection does not take place
question
consideration under UCC
answer
modifications to goods contracts without consideration is acceptable as long as both parties act in good faith
question
statute of frauds under UCC (3)
answer
sales of goods over $500 must be in writing to be enforceable, signature of party to be charged is required unless using written confirmation rule, parol evidence rule is followed
question
exceptions to statute of frauds of $500 requirement under UCC (3)
answer
specially manufactured goods, admitting terms under oath, partial performance (take the portion accepted out of the statute and make it binding)
question
written confirmation rule (2)
answer
party not being charged can send a confirmation letter/email that satisfies the requirement as long as the party to be charged does not object within a reasonable amount of time, this must occur between merchants in writing that outlines the terms
question
seller responsibilities for performance under UCC (2)
answer
comply with perfect tender rule, cure rights
question
perfect tender rule
answer
protects the buyer by allowing them to insist on perfect performance
question
cure rights (4)
answer
allows seller opportunity to correct any defect or discrepancy within timeframe of original deal (if any time left), requires buyer notify seller of problem/why rejection of goods is occurring, does not apply if seller delivers at last minute and order is incomplete or incorrect, if last minute and offer is lacking portion and seller offers buyer something that better than originally offered then more time can be granted but buyer can still reject order
question
buyer responsibilities for performance under UCC (2)
answer
pay, inspection rights
question
inspection rights of buyer
answer
able to inspect goods prior to payment unless it is a cash on demand contract
question
buyers options if portion of order is incorrect (3)
answer
reject entire order, accept entire order regardless of error, accept correct portion and reject incorrect portion
question
risk of loss rules under UCC (2)
answer
carrier contracts, non-carrier contracts
question
carrier contracts (2)
answer
shipment contracts, destination contracts
question
shipment contracts (2)
answer
in-transit risk is on buyer, seller must get goods to carrier and then risk is transferred
question
destination contracts
answer
in-transit risk is on seller until delivery is made directly to buyer
question
non-carrier contracts (2)
answer
merchant seller, non-merchant seller
question
merchant seller
answer
risk is on seller even if buyer is late because the seller is a merchant and can rely on inventory insurance
question
non-merchant seller
answer
risk is on buyer upon tender of delivery (when it is made available to buyer) even if they do not show up
question
warranty law under UCC (4)
answer
title, express, implied, disclaimers
question
warranty of title
answer
proves that goods are not stolen or encumbered
question
express warranty (3)
answer
representation of fact about a product will perform as represented, puffery or sales talk does not qualify as an express warranty, model or warranty book presented must match actual product sold
question
implied warranted (2)
answer
merchantability, fitness
question
merchantability
answer
good if fit for ordinary purpose
question
fitness (for particular purpose)
answer
not restricted to just merchants (as merchantability is), seller must know buyer's particular purpose, buyer relies on seller's opinion, seller provides inadequate product recommendations/sale
question
disclaimers (2)
answer
as is, limited warranty, full or lifetime warranty
question
as is disclaimer
answer
voids any breach of merchantability or fitness warranty claims
question
limited warranty disclaimer
answer
cannot limit the merchantability or fitness on new products but can limit the duration of said warranty
question
seller remedies (if buyer is in breach) under UCC (2)
answer
resale, lost profits
question
resale
answer
recoup the difference between original contract price and resale price
question
lost profits
answer
more for inventory vs. one item with resale
question
buyer remedies under (if seller is in breach) UCC
answer
cover
question
cover
answer
sue for the amount of higher costs due to sudden breach
question
Convention for International Sale of Goods (CISG) (3)
answer
created in the 1980's for international sale of goods, influenced by the UCC but not does not/cannot follow it exactly, adopted by about 84 countries
question
mutual assent under CISG - offer
answer
ads can be deemed as offered because typically these sellers have the inventory of multiple items to sell, firm offers do not have to be in writing and can be merchant to merchant, price cannot be open but must be specified, quantity always must be specified
question
mutual assent under CISG - acceptance (3)
answer
does not follow mirror image rule, follows battle of the forms, mailbox rule is not followed but instead acceptances are valid upon receipt largely due to time zone issues in international transactions
question
statute of frauds under CISG -
answer
no writing requirements, parol evidence rule not followed
question
why no writing requirements under CISG
answer
largely due to cultural differences in international transactions (many countries allow or expect verbal agreements/oral contracts) but many international contracts will still have some written component because of the large price involved
question
performance under CISG
answer
does not follow perfect tender rule, can only reject contract if there is a fundamental breach, buyer has inspection rights, cure rights are extended
question
cure rights under CISG
answer
seller must be notified of the problem, cure is extended beyond original contracted date of delivery to be reasonable and flexible given the nature of international deals
question
warranty law under CISG
answer
all apply (title, express, implied, merchantability, fitness)
question
risk of loss under CISG
answer
all fall under carrier contracts and Incoterms given international/mutlimodal travel
question
what to do is UCC or CISG is not specified (4)
answer
UCC if both companies are American based, If one is American and one if foreign then CISG applies, if a disagreement on which law controls judge will appoint CISG, CISG is evidence of trade customs and thus controls customs in a country and if a dispute arises over conflict of a peculiar law custom of the CISG can be an influencing factor
question
types of intellectual property (3)
answer
trademark, patent, copyright
question
trademark
answer
unique marks to a brand that are valuable to the company due to brand recognition/loyalty
question
length of trademark (3)
answer
has to the potential to last a lifetime or longer due to renewability, first filing is good for 6 years, each subsequent filing is good for 10 years
question
infringement of trademark (3)
answer
requires company policing the marks in order to avoid abandonment and report infringements, Circled R is a registered trademark on the federal level, TM is trademark on the state level
question
patent
answer
protections for inventions of product, services, and processes
question
length of a patent (3)
answer
exclusive rights on a patent are granted to the inventor for 20 years, the patent application is made available to the public making the information accessible to competitors (to stimulate competition), royalties are still due to original patent owner for duration of patent
question
requirements for a patent (3
answer
inventor must be able to show the invention is novel, has utility, is non-obvious (to someone experienced in that industry)
question
trade secret law
answer
if the aspect is extremely valuable companies should pursue trade secret law versus patents to avoid public divulging of information and require employees to sign confidentiality and non-compete agreements
question
copyright
answer
protection of artistic efforts such as written or performed works
question
length of copyright
answer
good for the lifetime of the artist plus 70 years
question
reach of copyright
answer
further than most think, commercial use (such as in a bar or store) can be subject to licensing fees or otherwise copyright violations, doctrine of fair use
question
doctrine of fair use
answer
using copyrighted materials for educational purposes is not considered infringement
question
international intellectual property rights - patents (3)
answer
Paris convention of 1883, World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), EU single filing
question
Paris convention of 1883
answer
each country taking part has to give same protection to outside patents that they gave to their own residents, date of intial filing in home country is effective date applied when transferring to/filing in another country
question
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) (3)
answer
agency of the United Nations, created uniform application process, headquartered in Switzerland 186 countries (wide recognition)
question
EU single filing (2)
answer
single filing process for 34 countries and one court for patent disputes
question
international intellectual property rights - copyrights (2)
answer
Berne Convention of 1886, 2002 Copyright Treaty
question
Berne Convention of 1886
answer
did not have to file with any entity but simply include a Circled C on artistic work to get protection from infringement
question
2002 Copyright Treaty
answer
WIPO takes on copyright filing responsibilities
question
international intellectual property rights - Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
answer
part of the World Trade Organization, all member countries must recognize all three IP (trademarks, copyrights, patents), all patents must be protection for at least 20 years, all copyrights must be protected for at least 50 years plus the lifetime
question
antitrust law goals (3)
answer
full and fair competition, no collusion, no/reduced restraints on trade
question
1890 Sherman Antitrust Act
answer
government involvement in industry sparked by robber Barron's but especially Rockefeller wanting to be the only provider in oil industry
question
Section 1 of 1890 Sherman Antitrust Act: Restraints of Trade (2)
answer
Illegal Per Se, Rule of Reason Test
question
illegal per se
answer
violation of law
question
types of illegal per se activities (3)
answer
horizontal price fixing agreements, horizontal market or territory allocation, group boycotts
question
rule of reason test
answer
permissible or lawfully allowed activities
question
types of activities that pass the rule of reason test (3)
answer
vertical market or territory agreement, vertical mandatory resale pricing agreement, exclusive dealing contracts (tied to quality)
question
price discrimination rules
answer
prohibit sales below cost except if it is a going out of business sale, a grand opening sale, sale of perishables
question
Robinson Patman Act
answer
treat all retailers the same except when pricing to meet competition or cost justification
question
horizontal agreements
answer
agreements between competitors at the same level of the supply chain
question
vertical agreements
answer
agreements between members up and won the supply chain (between manufacturers, wholesalers, retailers, etc.)
question
Section 2 of 1890 Sherman Antitrust Act: Antimonopoly Provisions
answer
wrongful attempts to monopolize, innocent attainment of a monopoly, merger activity
question
wrongful attempts to monopolize
answer
62% market share can be considered a monopoly
question
innocent attainment of a monopoly (2)
answer
very good high capital areas, powerful patent
question
merger activity (3)
answer
horizontal between competitors which can be damaging to consumers, vertical along the supply chain, conglomerate diversification through mergers
question
Antitrust law on the international level (2)
answer
stop collusion that restricts competition, stop abuse from any dominant market share holder
question
export controls
answer
quotas which set restrictions on the number of exports
question
import controls
answer
tariffs/duties, non-tariff barriers
question
examples of tariffs/duties (2)
answer
dumping fees, countervailing duties that make up for subsidized goods/industries
question
examples of non-tariff barriers (2)
answer
quotas, embargoes
question
risks of international trade (3)
answer
restrictions on repatriation of profits, moratorium, political risks
question
moratorium
answer
prohibit payment to a country or individual/company within a country
question
international trade commission
answer
court of international trade
question
homeland security (4)
answer
border and transportation authority, emergency preparedness and response, science and technology, information analysis and infrastructure protection
question
border and transportation authority (4)
answer
secret service, FEMA, coast guard, customs and border protection
question
commerce department
answer
international trade administration
question
international trade administration
answer
US bureau of industry and trade, looks at national security and policy, enforces US export controls
question
Employment Law in US (5)
answer
employment at will doctrine, title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, fair labor standards act (FLSA), equal pay act of 1963, age discrimination act
question
employment at will doctrine
answer
employer can fire employee for any reason including no reason at all
question
exceptions to employment at will doctrine (2)
answer
if employee has jury duty, if employee has filed for protected benefits such as worker's compensation
question
title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
answer
prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of the neutral factors of race, religion, sex (including orientation/transgender beginning in 2012), national origin, or color in terms of hiring, firing, and terms or conditions of employment
question
exception to title VII
answer
Bona fide occupational qualification
question
Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ)
answer
work requirement reasonably necessary to the normal performance of a job, such as being a certain age or gender, or having the ability to lift a certain amount of weight (would not hire a male to oversee a girl's locker room or a Jewish Rabbi to preach at a Catholic church, etc.)
question
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
answer
reviews claims by disenfranchised employees who may be victims of discrimination under Title VII
question
new vs. old law regarding sexual harrassment
answer
old law stated that it had to involve a loss of benefit (sleep with me or lose your job), new law states it can be a loss of benefit and/or simply creating a hostile work environment (men making lewd comments but no physical threats toward women)
question
fair labor standards act (FLSA) (2)
answer
prohibits child labor, stipulates overtime pay
question
equal pay act of 1963 (3)
answer
females should make the same salary as males, failed due to misconstrued meaning of how the act was defined in terms of similarity between male and female counterparts in the workplace (had to have the exact same job, years of service, etc.), now determined that pay can be different if there is a reasonable factor other than sex
question
age discrimination act of 1967
answer
labor law that forbids employment discrimination against anyone at least 40 years of age in the United States
question
benefits in US (4)
answer
worker compensation, unemployment benefits, social security, occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)
question
worker compensation
answer
form of insurance providing wage replacement and medical benefits to employees injured in the course of employment, through no fault of their own, in exchange for mandatory relinquishment of the employee's right to sue his or her employer for the tort of negligence
question
unemployment benefits
answer
payments by an employer to a laid off worker
question
social security (2)
answer
paid by taxpayers and matched by employers, includes 4 programs
question
programs under social security (4)
answer
retirement, medicare, disability, death
question
occupational safety and health administration (OSHA)
answer
main federal agency charged with the enforcement of safety and health legislation through inspections
question
international employment law (3)
answer
job security in Europe, EU Employment Discrimination Prohibitions of 2000, international labor organization (ILO)
question
job security in Europe (4)
answer
excellent and sturdy job security, employee participation in management decisions, attractive severance packages for employees which often deters firms from firing people frivolously, termination must be for a cause due to wrongful termination suits being more prevalent
question
EU Employment Discrimination Prohibitions of 2000
answer
counterpart but broader than title VII in US
question
international labor organization (ILO) (5)
answer
after WWI (1919), first push to look at working conditions focusing on safety issues, became an agency of the UN, US became involved in 1934 to stress the communication between workers and employers, national labor relations act (NLRA) of 1935
question
national labor relations act (NLRA) of 1935 (7)
answer
also known as the Wagner Act, allows private employees the right to form a union and engage in collective bargaining, formation of unions are by vote and majority rules, collective bargaining systems require that the employers negotiate with a union representative, while employees have the right to engage in strike activities employers also have the right to engage in lock out activities and/or hire permanent replacements, employees must pay dues and support union except for Right to Work Statute state employees, Europe is more unionized than US especially in Scandinavian countries
question
Right to Work Statute
answer
allow state employees the right to work without mandatory union membership/dues requirements
question
different methods of resolving international disputes (4)
answer
settlement agreements, mediation, arbitration, litigation
question
settlement agreement (2)
answer
resolution between disputing parties about a legal case, there is often a good incentive to settle disputes without lawyers when dealing with cross border deals
question
mediation (3)
answer
third party mediator will attempt to intervene into a dispute and make parties discuss differences in order to arrive at an agreement, mediators judgement is a non-binding agreement allowing parties to continue dispute through arbitration or litigation, mediators do not require law degrees/licenses
question
arbitration (4)
answer
third party arbitrator or arbitration panel will allow each side to represent their case and make a binding judgement that is enforceable the same as any court judge's verdict, arbitrators typically do not have law degrees but are usually specialists or experts in the industry in which the dispute is taking place, arbitration clause is in contract dictates that litigation is not an option, usually cheaper than litigation
question
litigation
answer
if a settlement cannot be reached either one their own or through mediation or arbitration then a law suit can be commenced,
question
steps to commence a lawsuit (5)
answer
prepare summons and complaint, forward summons and complaint to sheriff's office for sheriff or deputy to deliver to defendant, answer is prepared by defendant, discovery tools like depositions are used to gather evidence in preparation for trial, trial commences
question
summons and complaint (2)
answer
summons is the order to appear before a judge, complaint is the list of allegations
question
trial process (7)
answer
jury selection, opening arguments, offering of evidence/calling of witnesses (always starts with plaintiff), closing arguments, jury instructions, jury deliberation, judge verdict
question
jury selection (2)
answer
12 fair and impartial jurors, challenges by lawyers can be for cause or peremptory
question
challenge for cause
answer
a request that a prospective juror be dismissed because there is a specific and forceful reason to believe the person cannot be fair, unbiased or capable of serving as a juror
question
peremptory challenge (2)
answer
a defendant's or lawyer's objection to a proposed juror, made without needing to give a reason, each side gets 2
question
judge verdict
answer
can keep, overturn, or adjust (remittitur or additur) jury's decision
question
jurisdiction
answer
over subject matter, over individuals
question
subject matter jurisdiction
answer
be in the right court given the issues/circumstances (divorce is in family court, etc.)
question
jurisdiction over the individuals
answer
sheriff's deputy serves papers, long-arm statute can be invoked, state versus federal
question
long-arm statute
answer
allows for a state court to obtain personal jurisdiction over an out-of-state defendant on the basis of certain acts committed by an out-of-state defendant, provided that the defendant has a sufficient connection with the state
question
state courts jurisdiction
answer
general jurisdiction
question
general jurisdiction
answer
court's authority to hear all kinds of cases, which arise within its geographic area
question
federal courts jurisdiction
answer
limited jurisdiction to hear cases involving disputes between diversity of citizenship that are over $75,000
question
venue
answer
proper venue is either where the cause of the litigation occurred (site of accident or breach of contract, etc.) or the place of the defendant
question
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) (1946-1986) (3)
answer
precursor to WTO, established to boost international recovery through trade after WWII, 8 meetings were held in the 40 years with topics ranging and growing away from just trade while growing membership from 23 to 102 members
question
World Trade Organization (WTO)
answer
GATT became WTO in 1995, currently has 164 member countries, responsible for encouraging/facilitating/regulating trade between members
question
functions of the WTO (5)
answer
trade negotiations, implementation and monitoring, dispute settlements, outreach, building trade capacity
question
principles of trading system (5)
answer
trade without discrimination, freer trade through negotiation, predictability through binding and transparency, promoting fair competition, encouraging development
question
criticisms of WTO (6)
answer
undemocratic, tramples labor and human rights issues, destroying environment, increasing hunger, increasing inequality, increasing international opposition
question
North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) (5)
answer
effective January 1 of 1994, includes Mexico/US/Canada, extension on previous Canada/US free trade area, distinguished/enforceable intellectual property rights, purpose to foster trade by eliminating trade barriers
question
NAFTA Successes (5)
answer
dollar/peso exchange rate stabilized, auto manufacturers moved to mexico instead of china, US reliance on middle-eastern and Venezuelan oil declined, tariffs reduced import prices and inflation risk, consolidated auto manufacturing drives down costs
question
NAFTA Advantages (6)
answer
quadrupled trade, decreased cost of trade, promotes economic growth, decreased prices of goods and services, job creation, US FDI in Canada and Mexico at least tripled
question
NAFTA Disadvantages (5)
answer
manufacturers moved to Mexico, reduced wages, Mexican farmers put out of business, negative environmental impact, deforestation
question
Trans-Pacific Partnership (TTP)
answer
trade agreement among twelve of the Pacific Rim countries and the US
question
purpose of TTP (4)
answer
open markets, set high standard trade rules, address issues in global economy, reduce barriers to trade
question
TTP impact of trade (4)
answer
manufacturing, food and agriculture, natural resources and energy, services
question
pros of TTP (3)
answer
increase economic growth/jobs for member nations, effect on US through increase in agriculture exports and help machinery industry, raise current standards in China
question
cons of TTP (3)
answer
lack of transparency in agreement, strict patent laws will significantly affect pharmaceutical industry, investor-state dispute settlements (ISDS)
question
European Union (EU)
answer
a politico-economic union of 28 member states that are located primarily in Europe with a developed internal single market through a standardised system of laws that apply in all member states to ensure the free movement of people, goods, services, and capital within the internal market
question
fundamental purpose of EU
answer
promote greater social, political and economic harmony among member nations of Western Europe because those economies that are interdependent are less likely to engage in conflict
question
EU institutions (8)
answer
European Commission (like US executive branch), The Council of the EU (like the US Senate), European Parliament (like US House of Representatives), European Council (more like Guidance), European Court of Justice (like US judicial branch), Economic and Social Committee, Committee of Regions, European Court of Auditors
question
successes of the EU (8)
answer
quick implementation of the Euro/monetary policy, created one of the largest economies in the world, free trade, largest suppliers of development and humanitarian programs, helps underdeveloped countries, free movement of people helps with labor shortages, consumer benefits, increased travelling and tourism
question
criticisms of the EU (7)
answer
claims of devaluing the heritage and culture of individual nations, lack of separation of powers leaves room for abuse, common agricultural policy, use of Euro lowers economic growth of more developed countries due to lack of individual monetary policy, free movement of people and safety concerns, regulated labor markets are not addressing high unemployment in regional areas, more developed/wealthy nations at disadvantage
question
United Nations (UN)
answer
intergovernmental organization to promote international co-operation, replacement for the ineffective League of Nations
question
purposes of the UN (4)
answer
peacekeeping, peacebuilding, humanitarian assistance, conflict prevention
question
UN security council (4)
answer
part parliament/part secret diplomatic conclave, investigate disputes/situations that might lead to international friction to determine if it is likely to endanger maintenance of international peace and security, unique ability as only UN body with authority to take legal action whenever peace is threatened, UN members agree to accept and carry out decisions made by SC
question
successes of the UN (5)
answer
world food program (ending famine), vaccinations, world intellectual property organization (WIPO), protecting Galapagos Islands, world peace
question
failures of the UN (3)
answer
Rwanda Genocide, abuse in the Congo, Iraq oil for food program
question
UN Impact on trade (2)
answer
peace leads to stability which leads to expansion of business interests and trade, UN global compact
question
criticisms of the UN (14)
answer
bureaucratic processes, undemocratic security council, lacking local partnerships, overlapping agencies, poor internal governances/transparency/accountability, reactive vs. preventative, irrelevant, report writing vs. implementation, bloated and inefficient, dominated by the rich, job lobbying, marginalized G77, too much funding from too few, not enough funding
question
Brexit (3)
answer
Britain's Exit from the EU, referendum on June 23 2016, vote for leaving won 52% to 48%
question
why people wanted referendum (3)
answer
feel EU was not addressing issues occurring since 2008 in southern Europe, rise of nationalism, UK faced loss where both parties had endorsed remaining with EU but many members had gone in opposition
question
breaking down vote (geographically and demographically) (2)
answer
Northern Ireland and Scotland voted majority to stay while England and Wales voted just over majority to leave (but the capital cities of England and Wales voted majority to stay), most young and educated people voted majority to remain but turnout of young people was lower
question
problems with leaving for emigrants/immigrants, etc. (2)
answer
there is a large majority of UK residents that live or have moved abroad in EU countries that now face the risk of deportation but most did or could not vote, there are a large number of other EU residents in the UK that face the same threat but had no right to vote on the issue
question
Article 50 and Brexit (5)
answer
any country in EU is allowed to leave as long as it is in accordance with the country's constitution (holding a referendum satisfies this), exiting country must notify European Council to engage in negotiations and arrangements, treaties cease to apply, exiting country can not be a part of any negotiations if agreements are not met, countries that want to then reenter must invoke article 49 and redo the entry process
question
current status of Brexit (2)
answer
in November the High Court ruled that Article 50 cannot be invoked without Parliament, there will be an appeal of the High Court's ruling on Dec. 3rd
question
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) (2)
answer
began April 9th 1949 to deter Soviet aggression towards various elected governments through a large and supportive alliance, currently has 28 members
question
original purposes of NATO (3)
answer
deter Soviet expansion, forbid revival of nationalist militarism in Europe through strong North American presence, encourage European political integration
question
NATO during and after the Cold War
answer
during = massive retaliation and detente, after = war in Yugloslavia
question
evolution of NATO's functions/relevance (5)
answer
wider definition of defense, changes in security environment coupled with new tasks, focusing more on partnerships and cooperation, peacekeeping operations enforced, military focuses on more efficient deployable troops and learner operations
question
NATO's impact on Russia (5)
answer
Eastern Atlantic partnership council, heightened awareness of possible conflicts, NATO-Russia Council, Russian pride vs. need for coalition, propaganda war, NATO enlargement is seen as encroachment and disrespectful of security concerns and promises made
question
EU reaction to Russian annexation of Crimea (3 sanctions and 1 Russian countersanction)
answer
restricted access to Western financial markets/services, embargo on exports to Russia of high-tech and oil exploration/production, embargo on exports to Russia of military/dual-use goods, Russia banned food imports from Western nations
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New