IAHSS (full study guide) – Flashcards
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Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations in Chapter one? A. Propriety or for-profit. B. Not-for-profit. C. Government-supported. D. Individual healthcare.
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D. Individual healthcare.
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Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility. B. Mostly female staff. C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open.
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C. High percentage of technical and professional staff.
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Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of Directors. B. Department leaders. C. Assistant administrators. D. Vice presidents.
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A. Board of Directors
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Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility. B. All staff directly employed by the facility. C. Volunteers who donate their time. D. Contracted persons.
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B. All staff directly employed by the facility.
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Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? A. Strong and effective. B. A program that works in a small part of the facility. C. Generally effective. D. Strong and simple.
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A. Strong and effective.
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How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged. B. Encouraged. C. Encouraged but monitored. D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism.
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D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism.
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Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis. B. Risk assessments. C. Bench-marking. D. Evaluation surveys.
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C. Bench-marking.
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What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image. B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services. D. Cost-effectiveness.
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B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility.
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Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills. B. good communication skills. C. Tolerance. D. All of the above.
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D. All of the above.
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Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background. B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility. D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft.
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A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background.
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In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians. B. Nursing staff. C. Attending physician. D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so.
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D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so.
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Which of the following is not an example of an external costumer? A. Patients. B. Vendors. C. Employees. D. Regulatory agencies.
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C. Employees.
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Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public? A. Clean uniform. B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers. C. Well cared for uniform. D. Shined footwear.
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B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? A. Bad attitude. B. Dishonesty. C. Impoliteness. D. Confidence.
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D. Confidence.
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What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called? A. Employee relations. B. Confidentiality. C. Family interaction. D. Tense conversation.
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A. Employee relations.
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Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing? A. Carry signs. B. Protest management decisions. C. Block entrances to the building. D. Congregate outside the facility.
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C. Block entrances to the building.
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Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers' perceptions of their experience? A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation. B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated. C. Interaction is affected by body language. D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions.
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B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction. B. Less stress and hassle. C. Trying to impress your supervisor. D. More job success.
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C. Trying to impress your supervisor.
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Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though though the customer,s wants were not met. C. To make the customer think no one cares about the concern raised by the customer. D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling.
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A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling.
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Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer. B. Internal customer. C. Non-paying external customer. D. Anyone with whom you interact.
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D. Anyone with whom you interact.
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Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use while providing good customer service. A. Acknowledge the customer's needs. B. Use inappropriate body language. C. Provide alternatives. D. Say thank you.
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B. Use inappropriate body language.
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The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years. B. Every six months. C. Every year. D. Monthly.
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C. Every year.
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Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions. C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes. D. Active participation on teams can engage employees.
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C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes.
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Which of the following is NOT an ongoing or functional work team? A. A project team. B. A natural work team. C. A management team. D. A process improvement team.
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A. A project team.
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What is a misdemeanor? A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year. B. A violation of the municipal code. C. Any offense other than a felony. D. A violation of the state's penal code.
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C. Any offense other than a felony.
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To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources. B. Clearly defined boundaries. C. Access to people who know. D. Clearly defined purposes and goal. E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
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What is the definition of crowd control? A. Techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies. B. Allowing First Amendment activities. C. Allowing Demonstrations. D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies.
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D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies.
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Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming. B. Ending. C. Norming. D. Storming
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B. Ending.
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Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals. B. Lack of employee buy-in to teams. C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement. D. Any of the above.
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D. Any of the above.
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Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community. B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships. C. Improving communications. D. Using the security vehicle to go off site.
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D. Using the security vehicle to go off site.
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Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous. B. Routine. C. Conspicuous. D. Foot.
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C. Conspicuous.
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Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol. A. Hearing, documentation and memory. B. Observation, perception and memory. C. Perception, memory and documentation. D. Time, memory and perception.
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B. Observation, perception and memory.
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Which type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective. B. Directed. C. Vehicle. D. Routine.
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D. Routine.
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Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area. B. Get careless. C. Be a hero unnecessarily. D. Get separated from your equipment.
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A. Let employees know you are in the area.
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What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone. B. only patient information of interest to the security officer. C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. D. None of the above.
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C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer.
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What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction. A. Leave their offices, go out the closest door, and assemble in the street. B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed. D. Stay inside their office and out of the away.
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B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them.
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Security officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients. B. Visitors. C. Employees. D. Physicians. E. All the above.
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E. All the above.
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Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communication skills. B. Compassion. C. Ability to speak loudly. D. Ability to express care and understanding.
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C. Ability to speak loudly.
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When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? A. Rush to the affected unit and interview the parent. B. Call the National center for Missing and Exploited Children. C. Grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department. D. Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in.
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D. Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in.
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In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? A. Picking up or returning patient's valuables. B. Investigating lost or stolen property. C. Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility. D. All of the above.
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D. All of the above.
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Which is the most common location where missing patients are found. A. Hiding under the bed. B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance. C. In the gift shop. D. Looking for the morgue.
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B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance.
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Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? A. Be aware of the visitor's emotional state. B. Use sarcasim. C. Treat the visitor with respect. D. Show empathy.
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B. Use sarcasm.
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Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)" C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers. (ASHE).
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A. The Joint Commission.
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Generally, a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal. B. Observes and reports. C. Enters the area with the police. D. Leaves the area unattended.
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B. Observes and reports.
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Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life. B. Expense. C. Discomfort and restrictiveness. D. Avoiding or minimizing injury.
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D. Avoiding or minimizing injury.
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Which ofthe following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight. B. Portable radio. C. Handcuffs. D. CPR pocket mask.
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D. CPR pocket mask.
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Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? A. Short wait periods. B. Calm atmosphere. C. Food selection. D. Attire.
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C. Food selection.
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Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable. B. Must be prudent. C. Must be able to inflict pain. D. Must be defensible.
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C. Must be able to inflict pain.
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Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image. B. Posture. C. Attitude. D. Initiative. E. All of the above.
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E. All of the above.
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The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? A. Take an interest in the job. B. Look for ways to improve safety. C. Call a routine duty a waste of time. D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures.
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C. Call a routine duty a waste of time.
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Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? A. 57 percent. B. 49 percent. C. 89 percent. D. 94 percent.
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D. 94 percent.
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Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? A. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS) B. National Fire Protection Agency. (NFPA) C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) D. Department of Public Health.
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A. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS)
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Which of the following is NOT an IAHSS course. A. Basic certification for the healthcare security officer. B. Advanced certification for the healthcare security officer. C. Supervisory certification for healthcare security personal. D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
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D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
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When speaking with a patient, visitor or staff member, you should always be mindful of what characteristics of your speech? A. Timing, velocity and character. B. Tenor, vibration, and cannon. C. Tone, variation, and cadence. D. Tempo, variation and candor.
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C. Tone, variation, and cadence.
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What is the key factor in tactical deployment? A. Availability of other officers. B. Waiting for supervisor. C. Control of distance. D. Time.
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C. Control of distance.
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During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual. A. 2 to 4 feet. B. 4 to 6 feet. C. 6 to 10 feet. D. 10 feet or more.
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B. 4 to 6 feet.
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What is your primary goal on using tactical evaluation? A. To determine where to approach a subject. B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting. C. To determine if the design of a waiting room in conducive to security needs. D. To determine the level of threat.
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D. To determine the level of threat.
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Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? A. Crime prevention through environmental design. B. Crime prevention through experimental. Design. C. Campus prevention through environmental design. D. Critical performance through environmental design.
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A. Crime prevention through environmental design.
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What is the force continuum? A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force. B. The force that officers use on non-compliant persons. C. A form used to report on incidents involving use of force. D. None of the above.
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A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meet the continuing escalation of force.
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What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? A. To cause pain to a subject refusing your directions. B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject. C. To stop people running from you. D. To show fellow staff members you are effective at your job.
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B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impede a subject.
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Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or a behavioral patient care unit? A. 24/7 coverage. B. Supplementation by police. C. As-needed coverage D. Security has no role in these areas.
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D. Security has no role in these areas.
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All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? A. Eight. B. Three. C. Six. D. Four.
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C. Six.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? A. Impartiality. B. Impatience. C. Sensitivity. D. Confidentiality.
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B. Impatience.
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Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview? A. Leading. B. Open ended. C. Includes an option. D. Specific.
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A. Leading.
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Which governing body's legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape-recorded? A. Federal. B. City. C. Town. D. State.
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D. State.
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Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing children and Exploited Children? A. Provide things that healthcare organizations can do to "harden the target". B. Develop a profile of the typical kidnapper. C. Provide suggested training for nursing, security, and other personal. D. None of the above. E. All of the above.
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E. All of the above.
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Which of the following is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation? A. Event has been resolved. B. All leads are exhausted. C. The property was recovered. D. The situation was corrected.
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D. The situation was corrected.
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Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? A. Excessive use of force. B. False arrest. C. Malicious prosecution. D. All of the above.
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D. All of the above.
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A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these? A. Awareness, skills, know-how. B. Opinions, skills, knowledge. C. Outlook, skills, knowledge. D. Attitude, skills, knowledge.
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D. Attitude, skills, knowledge.
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Which of the following is in a medical record? A. Information about physical health. B. Information about family relationships. C. Information about sexual behavior. D. Information about substance abuse. E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
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A security officer should carry a notebook for all of the following reasons except which one? A. To write down all the facts for an incident report. B. To keep a list of emergency telephone numbers. C. To note safety hazards. D. To keep track of food orders.
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D. To keep track of food orders.
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A warrant is issued by whom? A. A law enforcement officer. B. a judicial officer. C. A prosecutor. D. A defense attorney.
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B. a judicial officer.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing? A. Gather information. B. Record information. C. Write the report. D. Examine the report.
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D. Examine the report.
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Define ADA. A. Americans with Discounts Act. B. Americans with Disabilities Act. C. America without Discomfort Act. D. Americans with Disabilities Action.
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B. Americans with Disabilities Act.
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When should reports be written? A. By the end of the week. B. By the end of the shift. C. By the end of the month. D. By the end of the next day.
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B. By the end of the shift.
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Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit? A. During meal delivery and consumption. B. Voluntary hospitalization. C. During the transportation of the patient. D. Involuntary hospitalization.
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B. Voluntary hospitalization.
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In any trial, who is the trier of law? A. The prosecutor. B. The defense attorney. C. The judge. D. The jury.
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C. The judge.
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In criminal law, how must guilt be determined. A. Beyond a reasonable doubt. B. By the preponderance of evidence. C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not. D. By the prosecutor..
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A. Beyond a reasonable doubt.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents.? A. Security incident report. B. Supplemental security report. C. Investigation security report. D. Auto accident report.
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C. Investigation security report.
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Which of the following does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). D. The Joint Commission.
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B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
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Which of the following is NOT a type of mental heath unit? A. Closed caption. B. Open. C. Closed. D. Outpatient.
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A. Closed caption.
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Which agency provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence? A. Centers for Medicare And Medicaid Services (CMS) B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS). C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). D. The Joint Commission.
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C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
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The general rule for keeping reports is how long? A. At least five to seven years. B. Permanently. C. At least ten years. D. At least three to five years.
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A. At least five to seven years.
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Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports? A. Administration. B. Human resources. C. Public relations. D. Nutrition services.
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D. Nutrition services.
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Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? A. Insurance company. B. Corporate attorney. C. Law enforcement. D. Newspaper.
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D. Newspaper.
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The average length of a patient stay in an acute care hospital is how long? A. 25 to 30 days B. 3 to 6 days. C. 10 to 12 days D. 15 to 20 days.
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A. 25 to 30 days
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Who is the patient's advocate during a hospital stay? A. Physician. B. Social services. C. Admitting clerk. D. Nurse.
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D. Nurse.
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The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is a division of which of the following? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Services (OSHA)" C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) D. Long term acute care (LTAC) hospital.
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C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS
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Which of the following are credentialed to admit patients to the hospital? A. Interns. B. Attending physicians. C. Hospitalists. D. Residents
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B. Attending physicians.
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Which type of unit takes a patient who no longer requires specific medical treatment on an inpatient basis but cannot be returned home? A. Transition unit. B. Intensive care unit. C. Medical surgical unit. D. Step-down unit.
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A. Transition unit.
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Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? A. Heroin, marijuana, methadone. B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone. C. Codeine, Vicodin, Oxycontin. D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax.
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B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone.
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Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? A. Housekeeping. B. Licensed pharmacist. C. Pharmacy secretary. D. Pharmacy technician.
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B. Licensed pharmacist.
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Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? A. Anything that one can inject, inhale, or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition. B. Remedies or cures. C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter. D. Controlled substances.
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C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter.
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Which of the following is NOT true about video surveillance? A. Should be recorded at all times. B. Should be fully functional at all times. C. Dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance. D. Should be monitored if possible.
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C. Dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance.
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In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted? A. 1970. B. 1972. C. 1968. D. 1984.
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A. 1970.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method? A. Fraudulent prescription. B. Falsify a patient's chart. C.keep unused drugs after surgery. D. Obtain a prescription from your physician.
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D. Obtain a prescription from your physician.
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Which of the following is true of behavioral patients in emergency departments? A. Often have longer lengths of stays due to placement issues. B. Must be managed with both situational control and empathy. C. Are often placed in retrofitted areas. D. All of the above.
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D. All of the above.
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Which of these actions is a HIPPA violation? A. You observe a victim being brought into the emergency department suffering from a gunshot wound. You hear medical staff comments about the victim's condition. You tell the paramedic from the ambulance about the victim's condition. B. You are on duty signing in visitors at the hospital. You have a patient census for reference. You leave to direct a visitor and leave the patient census in plain view for passers-by. C. You have finished your shift and throw the old patient census in the trash. D. All of the above.
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D. All of the above.
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Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients? A. Age and ethnicity. B. Reputation of the healthcare organization. C. Short wait periods. D. Drug and alcohol impairment.
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D. Drug and alcohol impairment.
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Which statement best describes the ways to secure the medical records department? A. Keep the doors locked. B. Require all medical records to be signed out. C. Only allow physicians to access the department. D. Use one of the following access control systems: Lock and key, combination locks, badge readers with access cards, bio-metrics.
answer
D. Use one of the following access control systems: Lock and key, combination locks, badge readers with access cards, bio-metrics.
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Who needs to be trained about the facility's system for protecting children from abduction? A. Mothers, husbands, significant others, and family. B. Nursing on affected units. C. Security. D. All facility employees E. all of the above.
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E. all of the above.
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Why are departments and units that provide care for infant and pediatric patients of special concern to security officers? A. They are where the most crime happens in a hospital. B. Children are kidnapped from hospitals every day. C. In addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility. C. Infant and pediatric units are the busiest units in every hospital.
answer
C. In addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility.
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Why is it important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor? A. So they can help law enforcement put out a description. B. To design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child. C. To convince the facility to hire more security. D. So they can use the information to talk to security departments in other healthcare facilities.
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B. To design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child.
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Why it is important that a medical record be kept secure and confidential. A. If released, it may influence a person's ability to obtain credit, gain admission to educational institutions, and gain employment. B. If released, the spouse may divorce the patient. C. If released, the physician may refuse to treat the patient. D. It is not important and may be released to anyone.
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A. If released, it may influence a person's ability to obtain credit, gain admission to educational institutions, and gain employment.
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Which of the following is a physical environment consideration, as defined by the joint Commission? A. Staffing competency. B. Medical records. C. Life safety. D. Patient privacy.
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C. Life safety.
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Which standard of the Occupational Safety and Healthcare Administration (OSHA) directly affects healthcare? A. Hearing protection. B. Hazard communication. C. Electrical safety. D. Fire safety.
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B. Hazard communication.
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An MSDS is what? A. A Material Safety Definition Sheet. B. A Material situation Definition System. C. A Material Safety Data Sheet. D. A Material System Data Sheet.
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C. A Material Safety Data Sheet.
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Which agency publishes the Life Safety Code? A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B. The Joint Commission. C. Environmental Protection Agency. (EPA). D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
answer
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
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Which of the following is NOT a recommended method of building a good relationship with law enforcement? A. Demonstrating a professional approach. B. Allowing entry into a crime scene. C. Preparing complete and accurate documentation. D. Offering assistance whenever feasible.
answer
B. Allowing entry into a crime scene.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of a way law enforcement can help healthcare security personnel? A. Information exchange. B. Crime prevention. C. Response to requests for assistance. D. Taking over the. Situation when not asked.
answer
D. Taking over the. Situation when not asked.
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Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). C. The Joint Commission. D. National Fire Protection Agency.
answer
C. The Joint Commission.
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Good working relationships are based on which of the following? A. Mutual respect and an. Understanding of each agency's basic function. B. Willingness to allow others to do the job. C. The need for assistance due to low staffing. D. Policies and procedures.
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A. Mutual respect and an. Understanding of each agency's basic function.
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The basic structure of a typical healthcare organization resembles a a. Circle b. Pentagon c. Pyramid d. Straight line
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b. Pyramid
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The most primary overriding concern of any security department should be a. Its image b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility c. The goals and mission if the entity employing the security services d. Cost-effectiveness
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b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility
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Which accreditation body provides standards to address Environment of Care, Emergency Management, and Life Safety in the healthcare environment? a. The Joint Commission (TJC) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA) d. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE)
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a. The Joint Commission (TJC)
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According to IAHSS Hospital Crime Survey, assaults have a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remained the same d. Become less violent
answer
a. Increased
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What are the two types of criminal acts? a. Burglaries and Felonies b. Misdemeanors and Felonies c. Larceny and Misconduct d. Misdemeanors and Larceny
answer
b. Misdemeanors and Felonies
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Business offices are often measured by: a. Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) b. The admission process c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days) d. The physician survey
answer
c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days)
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Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services? a. Well staffed during the day b. Isolated at night c. Mix of certified and non-certified employees d. Located in the center of the facility
answer
b. Isolated at night
question
Which of the following defines property risk: a. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards b. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment c. The healthcare organizations inability to perform one or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies
answer
d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies
question
What three components make up the Access Control Triad? a. Identification systems, staff education & training, badging b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards c. Staff education & training, video surveillance, physical security safeguards d. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, staff education & training
answer
b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards
question
What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used? a. Helmets and preventative maintenance programs b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections c. Supervisor inspections and helmets d. Battery maintenance and inspections
answer
b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System? a. Assuring the safety of responders and others b. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives c. Assuring efficient use of resources d. Assuring constant communication between agencies
answer
d. Assuring constant communication between agencies
question
Standard precautions are a set of precautions that the CDC had called for in order to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions? a. Blood and body fluids b. Mucous membranes c. Non-intact skin d. Sweat
answer
d. Sweat
question
Which is the best method to control a bomb threat? a. Wait for the threat to come in and see what happens b. Call the public health department to handle c. Relax because it is probably a hoax d. Prepare before the threat is received
answer
d. Prepare before the threat is received
question
The Joint Commission (TJC) requires how many disaster drills each year? a. Three b. One c. Two d. Six
answer
c. Two
question
The measurable indications that workplace violence programs should include are: a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers b. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected officials, prior incidents c. Employee surveys, environmental considerations, prior incidents d. Employee surveys, independent reviewers, engineering input
answer
a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers
question
Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor? a. Simple assault b. Trespass c. Burglary d. Vandalism
answer
c. Burglary
question
According to statistics published by the National Association of Security Companies, how many states have NO regulations for security officers? a. Twelve b. Ten c. Five d. Eight
answer
b. Ten
question
Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. The Joint Commission (TJC) d.National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
answer
c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
question
The Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards addresses how many areas? a. Seven b. Six c. Four d. Eight
answer
a. Seven
question
Which of the following is the definition of an interview? a. Questioning a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect c. Questioning a suspect under the circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under the control of the officer d. Questioning family members of a suspect
answer
b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect
question
Hostage situations have which of the following characteristics? a. Events with no predictable chronology b. People being held against their will c. Release contingent upon demands d. Each of these
answer
d. Each of these
question
What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning? a. Planning and Preparation b. Planning and Response c. Preparation and Response d. Preparation and Documentation
answer
a. Planning and Preparation
question
How many room sweeps are suggested to properly conduct a bomb search? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
answer
a. 4
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the seven signs of terrorism? a. Surveillance b. Communication c. Test of security d. Acquiring supplies and assets
answer
b. Communication
question
The fourth stage of a fire - after the incipient stage, smoldering stage, and the flame stage - is what? a. Heat stage b. Extinguished stage c. Burning stage d. Fuel stage
answer
a. Heat stage
question
The four phases in Emergency Management are: a. Funding, Mitigation, Recovery, Rescue b. Preparedness, Recovery, Mitigation, Rescue c. Recovery, Response, Mitigation, Safety d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
answer
d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
question
Which is the most common source of identity theft from healthcare facilities? a. Computer records b. Unattended purses and wallets c. Discarded paperwork d. Hearing the information and copying it
answer
b. Unattended purses and wallets
question
Which of the following defines vulnerability? a. The act of being physically wounded b. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage c. Possibility of a loss d. The act of being attacked
answer
b. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage
question
The security department is considered which type of department? a. Support b. Clinical c. Direct Patient Care d. Service
answer
a. Support
question
The areas with the highest potential for hostage taking are: a. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy b. ICU, PCU, Obstetrics, Administration c. Engineering, Administration, Finance, Obstetrics d. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Admitting
answer
a. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy
question
Which of the following do NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
answer
b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
question
The best way to avoid loss of patient valuables is: a. Lock them up b. Inventory them c. Place into a safe with double lock and key d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the facility
answer
d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the facility
question
Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) b. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA) c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) d. Department of Public Health (DPH)
answer
a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
question
You cannot effectively patrol a facility unless you are: a. Are looking good b. Are prepared c. Are finished eating d. Have your radio
answer
b. Are prepared
question
Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. The Joint Commission (TJC) d. National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
answer
The Joint Commission (TJC)
question
Which of the following is a physical environment consideration, as defined by the Joint Commission? a. Staffing competency b. Medical records c. Life safety d. Patient privacy
answer
c. Life safety
question
Security officers face sanctions under criminal law if they violate the constitutional or civil rights of a party or engage in criminal acts. The sanctions are in which two areas? a. Constitutional and Civil Rights b. Judicial and Constitutional Rights c. Civil and Judicial Rights d. Civil and Personal Rights
answer
a. Constitutional and Civil Rights
question
Which answer best describes security's role in a workplace violence program? a. Security is the sole department responsible for the workplace violence program b. Security has virtually no role in the workplace violence program c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines d. State and federal governments dictate the role of security in workplace violence programs
answer
c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines
question
A protection order is designed to do what? a. Provide a legal mechanism to enforce no contact between victim and assailant b. Begin the process of reconciliation between victim and assailant c. Protect the physical well being of the victim d. Both A and C
answer
d. Both A and C
question
Which of the following best describe de-escalation techniques: a. Do not provide limits b. Do not spend time listening to the individual c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy d. Both A and B
answer
c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy
question
Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance? a. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected b. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity c. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected d. Needed response by police and fire may be delayed
answer
c. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected
question
Who should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks or streets? a. Administration b. Security c. Facility personnel d. Local law enforcement
answer
d. Local law enforcement
question
During a disturbance, which of these is a critical action to be taken by the facility? a. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary b. Lock all doors so no one can leave or enter c. Allow free access to building as if business as usual d. Validate those entering the building only
answer
a. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary
question
Which of these is an example of an internal event that could affect your medical center? a. Loss of electricity b. Major vehicle accident c. Severe weather d. Wild land fires
answer
a. Loss of electricity
question
Which of these is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization's emergency program? a. Health department b. Sheriff's office c. Local fire department d. Local TV station
answer
d. Local TV station
question
Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a critical area of the emergency management plan? a. Communication b. Food c. Mortuary d. Decontamination
answer
a. Communication
question
Which of these are required in exercising the organization's emergency management plan? a. Monthly testing b. Two exercises yearly c. An exercise with actual patients d. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter
answer
b. Two exercises yearly
question
Which of these is an operational function of security officers during emergency situations? a. Patient treatment b. Crowd control c. Spokesperson to the media d. Initiation of facility evacuation
answer
b. Crowd control
question
Which of the following categories is NOT part of a bomb threat plan? a. Establishing authority b. Searching for the bomb c. Pretension d. Receiving the threat
answer
c. Pretension
question
What is the most common delivery of a bomb threat? a. Called into the media b. By phone at the facility c. By email at the facility d. Delivered in person to the facility
answer
b. By phone at the facility
question
Which of the following is NOT a question on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist? a. What does the bomb look like? b. Where is the bomb? c. What is your name? d. How old are you?
answer
d. How old are you?
question
What is the recommended distance to evacuate in case of a bomb threat? a. Radius of 100 to 200 feet b. Radius of 200 to 300 feet c. Radius of 300 to 600 feet d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
answer
d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
question
Which of the following is NOT a reason terrorists use suicide bombers? a. Lack of an outfitted army b. Final way to have their views hears c. Most successful way of inflicting damage d. Affects the least people
answer
d. Affects the least people
question
Which of the following prohibits the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government? a. US Code of Federal Regulations b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration c. The Joint Commission d. US Department of Homeland Security
answer
a. US Code of Federal Regulations
question
What does the acronym ROARR stand for? a. Remember, Observe, Act, Record, React b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend c. Retreat, Order, Alert, Remember or Record d. None of the above
answer
b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend
question
Fire creates heat through many methods, Which of these is NOT a method by which fire spreads? a. Radiation b. Osmosis c. Conduction d. Convection
answer
b. Osmosis
question
What does the acronym NFPA stand for? a. National Federation of Protective Agencies b. Northern Fire and Police Association c. National Fire and Protection Agency d. None of the above
answer
d. None of the above (National Fire and Protection Association)
question
PASS is an acronym that describes what process? a. How to activate a fire alarm b. How to respond to a fire c. How to evacuate a building d. How to use a fire extinguisher
answer
d. How to use a fire extinguisher (pull, aim, squeeze, sweep)
question
A class A fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Ordinary combustible materials c. Electrical fire d. Grease fire
answer
b. Ordinary combustible materials (paper, wood, fabric)
question
A class C fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Paper fire c. Electrical fire d. Wood fire
answer
c. Electrical fire
question
A class D fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Flammable metals fire c. Electrical fire d. Wood fire
answer
b. Flammable metals fire
question
There are several external organizations that healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain a safe environment. What is the common mission among them? a. Provide training to healthcare employees b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety c. Conduct a proactive risk assessment twice a year d. Regulate MRI safety
answer
b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety
question
Identify the object of the Safety Management Program. a. To improve organizational performance b. To minimize accidents and injuries c. To reduce or control costs for Workers' Compensation d. To assist in compliance documentation e. All of the above
answer
e. All of the above
question
When incidents expand, authority for performance of these functions may need to be delegated: Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who perform these four management functions called? a. Deputy staff b. Director staff c. Command staff d. General staff
answer
d. General staff
question
Depending on the type and size of the incident or event, the Incident Commander may need to designate personnel to provide information, safety, and liaison services for the entire organization. What are these personnel called? a. Deputy staff b. Director staff c. Command staff d. General staff
answer
c. Command staff
question
Which position is the only one always staffed in Incident Command System applications? a. Operations Section Chief b. Incident Commander c. Information Officer d. Branch Director
answer
b. Incident Commander
question
In an Incident Command System, which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources? a. Finance/Administration b. Logistics c. Operations d. Planning
answer
c. Operations
question
In an Incident Command System, which Command Staff position is the conduit for information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event? a. Information Officer b. Liaison Officer c. Resource Officer d. Safety Officer
answer
a. Information Officer
question
Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System? a. Common terminology b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel c. Span of control abilities d. Unity of command
answer
b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel
question
Which of the following is NOT a common type of identity theft? a. Theft of personal items b. Social engineering c. Cyber crime d. False identity
answer
d. False identity
question
Which of the following describes when the criminal uses the victim's personal information to create or open new financial accounts in the victim's name? a. Account hijacking b. Credit card fraud c. Database hacking d. Computer viruses
answer
a. Account hijacking
question
What is the best way to deter identity theft? a. Duplicate information sources b. No photocopying of information c. Preventative education d. Not using credit cards
answer
c. Preventative education
question
What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms? a. A needs assessment b. The type of weapon c. Which state your facility is in d. How large a staff in the security force
answer
a. A needs assessment
question
Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection? a. Generally, the boundary of the property b. Footprint of the actual structure c. Inside the structure d. Footprint of the inside of the structure
answer
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
question
Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets? a. Manual, Office, Classroom, Storage, Passage b. Classroom, Electronic, Storage, Privacy, Passage c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage d. Keyless, Office, Storage, Privacy, Passage
answer
c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage
question
Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system? a. Signage b. Magnetic locks c. Magnetic swipe cards d. Fences
answer
a. Signage
question
Which of the following describes the middle zone in the theory of protection? a. Generally, the boundary of the property b. Footprint of the actual structure c. Inside the structure d. Footprint of the inside of the structure
answer
b. Footprint of the actual structure
question
Which of the following describes the inner zone in the theory of protection? a. Generally, the boundary of the property b. Footprint of the actual structure c. Footprint of the inside of the structure d. Inside the structure that is being protected
answer
d. Inside the structure that is being protected
question
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance? a. Call for medical, security backup, or police assistance, if required b. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control c. Step up to the person(s) d. Notify your supervisor or appropriate facility personnel per policy
answer
c. Step up to the person(s)
question
Which of the following are examples of schedule I substances? a. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone c. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine) d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
answer
b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
question
Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? a. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone d. Tylenol, Aspirin, Xanax
answer
d. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
question
Which of the following are examples of schedule III substances? a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
answer
c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
question
Which of the following are examples of schedule IV substances? a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax d. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
answer
c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
question
Which of the following are examples of schedule V substances? a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine) c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
answer
b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine)
question
Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by which of the following? a. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)
answer
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
question
Which of the following should be protected by bollards? a. Sidewalks b. Curbs c. Hydrants d. Trees
answer
c. Hydrants
question
When placing a person in handcuffs: a. Place cuffs really tight b. Place hands behind the back c. Place hands with palms together d. Do not double lock them
answer
b. Place hands behind the back
question
Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the business office? A. Registration B. Environmental Services C. Cashier D. Accounts Recievable
answer
B. Environmental Services
question
The act of a patient using someone else's information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called what? A. Medication-seeking patient B. Suspicious activity C. Identification hijacking D. Medical identity theft
answer
D. Medical identity theft
question
True or False: Escorts for valuables and cash should be at the same time each day and should follow the same route through the facility. A. True B. False
answer
B. False
question
Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/ financial services area? A. Patrol B. Customer relations C. Refunding payment D. Investigations
answer
C. Refunding payment
question
A security threat to the facility usually involves which sources? A. Internal and External B. Organized groups C. Only internal D. Only external
answer
A. Internal and External
question
Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for which department? A. Plant Services B. Housekeeping C. Radiology D. Laboratory
answer
C. Radiology
question
Employees of which department are found all over the facility and often unlock all the doors to the department they are working in at the time? A. Radiology B. Materials management C. Bio-medical engineering D. Housekeeping
answer
D. Housekeeping
question
Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool? A. Security inspections and surveys B. Security patrol and incident reports C. Law enforcement crime statistic reports and analyses D. Irregular patrols by untrained personnel
answer
D. Irregular patrols by untrained personnel
question
Which of the following is NOT a common type of physical barrier? A. Walls B. Fencing C. Chains D. Lighting
answer
D. Lighting
question
What is the most important piece of equipment a security officer carries? A. Handcuffs B. Baton C. Two-way radio D. Keys
answer
C. Two-way radio
question
Which of the following is the traditional style of uniform? A. Business casual B. Polo shirt and slacks C. Suits D. Military or police
answer
D. Military or police
question
Which agency governs radio transmissions? A. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) B. The Joint Commission (TJC) C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
answer
A. Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
question
Medical identity theft, in which a criminal uses another's identity to receive treatment, can result in what? A. Medical costs charged to the identity theft victim, who did not receive the treatment B. Potential insurance issues for the person whose personal information was used C. A potentially dangerous situation by creation of a "stealth" patient with conflicting information D. All of the above
answer
D. All of the above
question
The Job Action Sheet, or job description, is the key to the Incident Command System's scalability and ease of use. Which of the following does the Job Action Sheet NOT tell responding personnel? A. What they are going to do B. When they are going to do it C. Who they will report to after they have done it D. How long they are expected to maintain their function
answer
D. How long they are expected to maintain their function
question
What is the most important concept to remember about MRI safety? A. The magnet is always on. It is never off. It is always a magnet. B. The MRI uses radio frequencies C. Security should never enter zone 1 D. A controlled quench can be preformed by the technologist
answer
A. The magnet is always on. It is never off. It is always a magnet.
question
A class B fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? A. Flammable liquid fire B. Paper fire C. Electrical fire D. Wood fire
answer
A. Flammable liquid fire
question
Where can terrorism occur in the world? A. Only in the Middle East B. Only in Third World countries C. Anywhere in the world D. Only in the United States
answer
C. Anywhere in the world
question
Which phase of emergency management includes activities (such as training, exercises, and the acquisition of emergency equipment and supplies) that prepare the facility foe an emergency? A. Mitigation B. Preparedness C. Response D. Recovery
answer
B. Preparedness
question
What is the Constitutional foundation or grounds for most arrests, searches, and seizures? A. Probable cause B. Reasonable suspicion C. Search and seizure D. Stop and frisk
answer
A. Probable cause
question
Proprietary security officers operate under which authority to act? A. Agent of the owner B. Conservator of the peace C. Contractual authority D. Sworn officer of peace
answer
A. Agent of the owner
question
How many federal laws regulate private security? A. Fifteen B. Ten C. Four D. Zero
answer
D. Zero
question
Why are security cameras NOT allowed to be placed in a locker room? A. Hard to install without being seen B. No probable cause C. Invasion of privacy D. Must search the area first
answer
C. Invasion of privacy
