High Acuity Nursing Test 3 – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
Monro-Kellie Hypothesis
answer
-States that the cranial vault is rigid and fixed. -Any increase in one compartment requires a decrease in the other, otherwise there will be an increase in ICP
question
3 compartments of Cranial Vault
answer
Blood, Brain Tissue, and CSF
question
Arousal
answer
An individual's ability to respond to environmental stimuli, such as opening the eyes to speech or turning the head toward a noise. "Wakefulness" or "Alertness"
question
Awareness (Content)
answer
A higher level of functioning then arousal A patient's orientation to person, place, and time The ability of a patient to respond to questions appropriately "Responsiveness"
question
Cerebral Perfusion Pressure should be?
answer
Greater than 70mmHg
question
AEIOU
answer
Mnemonic for Impaired Consciousness: Alcohol, Epilepsy, Insulin, Opiates, Uremia
question
TIPSS
answer
Mnemonic for Impaired Consciousness: Tumor, Injury, Psychological, Stroke, Sepsis
question
Decorticate Posturing
answer
-Abnormal Flexion of extremities -Indicates cerebral hemispheric dysfunction
question
Decerebrate Posturing
answer
-Abnormal Extension of extremities -Indicates brainstem dysfunction -More ominous sign
question
2 Components of Consciousness
answer
Arousal and Awareness (or Content)
question
What aspect of mentation does the Glasgow Coma Scale assess?
answer
Arousal
question
Doll's Eye Movements
answer
Eyes will remain fixed in the midposition as the head is turned
question
Cheyne-Stokes Breathing
answer
Rhythmic waxing and waning in the depth of respirations followed by a period of apnea Indicates a bilateral lesion in the cerebral hemispheres, cerebellum, midbrain or upper pons
question
Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation
answer
Regular, rapid respirations (> 24) that increase in depth Indicates a lesion in the low midbrain or upper pons
question
Apneustic Breathing
answer
Prolonged inspiration, with a pause at the point where the respiration is at its peak, lasting for 2 or 3 seconds. Indicates a lesion in the mid or lower pons
question
Cluster Breathing
answer
Clusters of irregular breathing with periods of apnea that occur at irregular intervals Indicates a lesion in the lower pons or upper medulla
question
Ataxic Breathing
answer
Completely irregular, with deep and shallow random breaths and pauses. Indicates a lesion in the medulla
question
Aphasia
answer
Total loss of ability to understand or express speech AKA Global Aphasia
question
Receptive Aphasia
answer
Inability to understand written or spoken words
question
Expressive Aphasia
answer
Inability to write or use languatge appropriately
question
Dysphasia
answer
Difficulty with comprehending, speaking, or writing
question
Dysarthria
answer
An impairment of the muscles that control speech, characterized by slurred, muffled, or indistinct speech.
question
Agnosia
answer
Cortical impairment that results in the inability to recognize or interpret familiar sensory information although there is no impairment of sensory input or dementia.
question
Delerium
answer
Acute-onset confusional cognitive disorder characterized by attention deficits, FLUCTUATING mental status, and either disordered thinking or altered LOC.
question
Broca's Aphasia
answer
An expressive aphasia characterized by nonfluent, telegraphic speech with outbursts of profanity, uninhibited speech, and word finding difficulty, which reflects impaired memory for language.
question
Wernicke's Aphasia
answer
-A receptive aphasia characterized by fluent, well-articulated speech with intact tone but inappropriate speech content that is unintelligible because of poor word choices. -The patient may make up new words.
question
The diagnostic procedure of choice for a Non Traumatic Acute Brain Injury
answer
MRI
question
Apraxia
answer
The inability to carry out a purposeful movement although movement, coordination, and sensation are intact.
question
What is PET scanning useful for evaluating?
answer
Cerebral Blood Flow
question
Evoked Potentials
answer
A sensory response to a stimulus
question
What does brain tissue oxygen monitoring (pbt02) measure?
answer
Brain regional oxygen partial pressure
question
Nystagmus
answer
A condition in which the eyes make repetitive, uncontrolled movements
question
Formula for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)
answer
MAP - ICP = CPP Systolic BP + 2(Diastolic BP) / 3 = MAP
question
Cushings Triad
answer
-Bradycardia, Irregular Respirations, and Widening Pulse Pressure (Increase in systolic blood pressure with a Decrease in diastolic blood pressure), -Classic syndrome that indicates Increased ICP
question
Seizures and delirium may occur with sudden discontinuation of which class of drugs?
answer
Benzodiazepines
question
Which disorders of mentation are common in the critically ill population?
answer
Delirium and Altered level of consciousness
question
Dementia
answer
A slow, insidious onset of memory impairment that follows a log-term, progressive course over a period of months to years.
question
3 Facts about Delirium
answer
-Preventable -Occurs in 20-50% of ICU Patients -Associated with higher in-hospital mortality
question
Septic Encephalopathy
answer
A particular type of delirium that can be an early sign of sepsis (systemic infection).
question
Coma
answer
A persistent state of unresponsiveness from which the patient cannot be aroused
question
Persistent Vegetative State (PVS)
answer
When the patient maintains arousal but has lost awareness components of consciousness.
question
Brain death
answer
The irreversible cessation of all brain activity, including brainstem function.
question
Tonic Phase of a Seziure
answer
-Characterized by a sudden loss of consciousness and sharp tonic muscle contractions where muscles become rigid, arms and legs extend, and the jaw is clenched. -The patient often develops apnea during this phase
question
Clonic Phase of a Seziure
answer
Characterized by alternating contraction and relaxation of the muscles in all of the extremities along with hyperventilation. -The eyes often roll back and there is increased lacrimation (tears)
question
Postictal Period
answer
-Occurs immediately following a seizure, characterized by transient impairment of mentation and sensorium. -The person slowly becomes more aware of the surroundings, but does not remember the seizure.
question
Reversal Agent (Antidote) for benzodiazepine overdose
answer
Romazicon (Flumazenil)
question
Status Epilepticus
answer
-Refers to seizures that are continuous for more than 5 minutes or seizures that recur without a recovery of consciousness -Medical Emergency
question
Stroke
answer
An acute neurologic deficit that occurs when impaired blood flow to a localized area of the brain results in injury to brain tissue.
question
Ischemic Stroke
answer
Caused by an interruption of cerebral blood flow by a thrombus or embolus
question
Hemorrhagic Stroke
answer
Bleeding in the brain that accumulates and compresses the surrounding brain tissue
question
Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
answer
-Brief episodes of focal neurologic deficits that usually resolve in a few minutes or hours and do not cause permanent brain injury. -AKA "Mini Stroke" -Increases the risk of having a real stroke
question
What are the 2 major classifications of Stroke?
answer
Hemorrhagic and Ischemic
question
What is the most important modifiable risk factor for Stroke?
answer
Hypertension
question
Modifiable risk factors for Stroke
answer
-Hypertension, hypotension, and dehydration in the elderly, coronary heart disease, dyslipidemia (high cholesterol) Physical INactivity, Heavy use of alcohol, and smoking. -Elimination of some or all of these risk factors reduces the risk of stroke.
question
Nonmodifiable risk factors for Stroke
answer
Advancing age, male gender, African- American race, and family history of stroke.
question
What is the most common manifestation of Stroke?
answer
Numbness and weakness of the face and arm
question
During administration of TPA, how frequently should neurological assessments be made?
answer
Every 15 minutes
question
Homonymous Hemianopsia
answer
Refers to the loss of the same visual fields in both eyes, essentially causing right or left visual field blindness.
question
Asteragnosia
answer
The inability to identify an object by active touch of the hands without other sensory input such as visual or sensory information.
question
Triple H therapy
answer
-Induced Hypertension, Hypervolemia, and Hemodilution -Used to prevent and control cerebral vasospasm
question
3 primary mechanisms of injury associated with traumatic brain injury (TBI)
answer
1. Acceleration/Deceleration 2. Rotational 3. Penetrating
question
Acceleration injury
answer
Occurs when the brain suddenly and rapidly moves along a linear path in one direction
question
Deceleration injury
answer
Occurs when the brain stops moving within the cranial vault
question
Rotational injury
answer
Occurs when the head rotates on its axis, resulting in shearing force injury to the brain and axons.
question
Penetrating injury
answer
Occurs when a foreign object (e.g., bullet, knife) invades the brain.
question
Primary Injury
answer
Occurs from direct mechanical injury caused by the force of the impact from the trauma event.
question
Secondary Injury
answer
-Occurs in response to the primary injury, arising from local tissue and systemic responses to the primary injury -Involves ischemia, neuronal death, inflammation and cerebral swelling
question
4 types of skull fractures
answer
Basilar, Open, Linear, and Depressed Think "BOLD"
question
Linear Fracture
answer
A simple fracture involving the entire bony thickness without bone movement.
question
Depressed fracture
answer
-A fracture in which a high energy force depresses the skull inward. -Usually causes bone fragmentation with fragments potentially tearing through the dura and into brain tissue.
question
Open Skull Fracture
answer
A fracture in which the scalp has been lacerated, creating a communication between the skull and the outside environment.
question
Basilar fractures
answer
A fracture that develops at the base of the skull.
question
Accumulation of CSF can result in what condition?
answer
Hydrocephalus
question
Focal Injuries
answer
Occur in a well defined area of the brain and may be the result of hematomas.
question
Diffuse Injuries
answer
Occur in several areas of the brain and may occur with concussion and diffuse axonal injury.
question
Concussion
answer
A Mild Traumatic Brain Injury (MTBI)
question
The presence of dizziness, headache, and confusion for long periods of time after concussion is known as:
answer
Postconcussive Syndrome
question
Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI)
answer
Occurs when shearing forces disrupt the structure of neurons and their nearby blood vessels.
question
What should be done if the patient's GCS is 8 or less?
answer
Intubation
question
Controlling which factors will optimize cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
answer
Venous Return Blood Pressure Temperature
question
Mannitol reduces ICP through which action?
answer
Increases reabsorption of water by the renal tubules
question
The single most important indicator of progression of brain injury is:
answer
Change in mental status exam
question
Unstable Spinal Injury
answer
When the vertebral structures are unable to support the injured area.
question
Paraplegia
answer
-The result of injury to the thoracolumbar region (T2 to L1) -Causes loss of motor and sensory function of the lower extremities -Upper extremity function remains intact-
question
Tetraplegia
answer
-The result of injury to the cervical or thoracic regions (C1 to T1) -Muscle function depends on the specific segments involved -AKA Quadriplegia
question
Which region of the spine is most vulnerable to injury?
answer
Cervical
question
Spinal Shock
answer
-Occurs 30 to 60 minutes after the injury -Manifests as the absence of all reflex activity, flaccidity, and loss of sensation below the level of the injury. -Usually subsides within 24 hours but may last 7 to 20 days
question
Which Spinal Cord Injury (SCI) requires long term mechanical ventilation?
answer
C1-C2
question
The main cause of complications or death after Spinal Cord Injury (SCI) is related to which condition?
answer
Respiratory Complications
question
Brown-Sequard Syndrome
answer
-Characterized by paralysis and proprioception on the same side as the injury and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side -Caused by damage to one half of the spinal cord
question
Shock
answer
Circulatory failure that creates an imbalance between tissue oxygen supply (delivery) and oxygen demand (consumption).
question
4 stages of Shock
answer
Initial, Compensatory, Progressive, and Refractory.
question
When shock develops, the body attempts to meet the crisis through which mechanisms?
answer
Releasing cortisol, norepinephrine, and epinephrine
question
3 parameters used to evaluate the patient's acid base balance during shock?
answer
Arterial pH, Serum Lactate, and Base Excess/Base Deficit
question
What is a major adverse effect of intravenous vasopressor therapy?
answer
Tissue Ischemia and Necrosis
question
Hypovolemic Shock
answer
Develops when inadequate circulating volume results in inadequate Cardiac Output caused by an absolute or relative fluid volume deficit
question
Clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock develop when the patient has lost what percent of fluid volume?
answer
25%
question
Cardiogenic shock
answer
Most commonly results from failure of the left ventricle to pump sufficient oxygenated blood into the coronary arteries and systemic circulation -Impaired cardiac contractility and cardiac output
question
Autonomic dysreflexia (AD)
answer
A potentially life-threatening complication that involves an EXAGGERATED SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSE and occurs in patients with a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 level. -Symptoms include Headache, Hypertension, Sweating above the level of spinal injury, Goosebumps, Bradycardia
question
Distributive Shock
answer
Involves impaired oxygenation related to altered blood flow distribution
question
Septic shock
answer
-Sepsis is the body's response to an infection, usually of bacterial origin, and septic shock is the severe form of sepsis. -Form of distributive shock.
question
Clinical manifestations of Neurogenic Shock
answer
Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia with an absence of sweating below the injury level.
question
Anaphylactic shock
answer
Results from a severe type I hypersensitivity IgE/mast cell response whereby vasodilatory mediators are released from mast cells
question
Clinical manifestations of Anaphylactic shock
answer
Hypotension, upper airway obstruction, urticaria (hives), and pruritus (itching)
question
Obstructive shock
answer
Mechanical barriers to blood flow that block O2 delivery
question
3 common causes of Obstructive Shock
answer
Pulmonary Embolism (PE), Tension Pneumothorax, and Cardiac Tamponade.
question
Clinical Manifestations of Tension Pneumothorax
answer
Decreased cardiac output, Chest pain, and Air hunger with Respiratory distress, Tracheal Deviation
question
Becks Triad
answer
-Elevated Right Arterial Pressure, Hypotension, Muffled Heart Sounds -Indicates a possible Cardiac Tamponade
question
Neurogenic shock
answer
-Occurs in patients with an injury above T6. -Causes Vasodilation below the level of the injury. Blood pools in the lower extremities. -Symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, decreased Cardiac output, and Hypothermia with the loss of the ability to sweat below the level of injury
question
Circle of Willis
answer
A connecting junction that provides collateral blood flow to each side of the brain
question
ICP is usually less than what amount?
answer
15mmHg
question
Autograft
answer
-Transplantation of tissue from one part of a person's body to another part of the body. -Ideal situation for tissue compatibility and graft survival.
question
Heterograft
answer
Transplantation of tissue between 2 different species. AKA "Xenograft" -Usually used for temporary transplantation -Tissue rejection usually occurs rapidly
question
Allograft
answer
Transplantation of tissue between members of the same species. AKA "homograft"
question
Isograft
answer
Transplantation of tissue between identical twins. AKA "Syngraft"
question
Which aspects are included in the definition of brain death?
answer
-Irreversible -Loss of brainstem function -Glasgow Coma Scale of 3
question
How are organs preserved for transport?
answer
-Preservation solution -Cold Packing
question
The chart must contain which required documentation for organ recovery?
answer
-Signed or Recorded consent form -Time of death declaration -Date of death declaration
question
Somatic Symptom Disorders
answer
Characterized by physical symptoms suggesting medical disease, but without demonstrable organic pathology or known pathophysiological mechanism to account for them.
question
Dissociative Disorders
answer
Defined by a disturbance of or alteration in the usually integrated functions of consciousness, memory, and identity.
question
Dissociation
answer
The splitting of of clusters of mental contents from conscious awareness, a mechanism central to hysterical conversion and dissociative disorder.
question
Hysteria
answer
A polysymptomatic disorder that usually begins in adolescence (rarely after the 20's), chiefly affects women, and is characterized by recurrent multiple somatic complaints that are unexplained by organic pathology. It is thought to be associated with repressed anxiety.
question
Munchausen Syndrome
answer
A pattern of behavior in which individuals fabricate or embellish their histories and signs and symptoms of illness.
question
Factitious Disorder
answer
Involves conscious, intentional feigning (faking) of physical or psychological symptoms.
question
Illness Anxiety Disorder
answer
An unrealistic or inaccurate interpretation of physical symptoms or sensations, leading to preoccupation and fear of having a serious disease.
question
Conversion Disorder
answer
A loss of or change in the body function that cannot be explained by any known medical disorder or pathophysiological mechanism.
question
Primary Gain
answer
When a person may avoid stressful obligations, may postpone unwelcome challenges, and is excused from troublesome duties.
question
Secondary Gain
answer
Relieves conflict within the family as concern is shifted to the ill person and away from the real issues.
question
Amnesia
answer
Pathologic loss of memory; a phenomenon in which an area of experience becomes inaccessible to conscious recall.
question
Dissociative Fugue
answer
A sudden, unexpected travel away from customary place of daily activities, or by bewildered wandering, with the inability to recall some or all of one's past. -Individual may not be able to recall personal identity and sometimes assumes a new identity
question
Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)
answer
The existence of two or more personalities in a single individual. Formerly known as multiple personality disorder.
question
Depersonalization
answer
A disturbance in the perception of oneself A feeling of unreality or detachment from one's body
question
Derealization
answer
An alteration in the perception of the external environment An experience of unreality or detachment with respect to one's surroundings
question
Integration
answer
A blending of all the personalities into one
question
Dissociative Response
answer
A defense mechanism to protect the ego in the face of overwhelming anxiety
question
Personality
answer
The totality of emotional and behavioral characteristics that are particular to a specific person and that remain somewhat stable and predictable over time.
question
Paranoid Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such that their motives are interpreted as malevolent.
question
Schizoid Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings.
question
Schizotypal Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as by cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior.
question
Histrionic Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking.
question
Narcissistic Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy.
question
Avoidant Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation.
question
Dependent Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation.
question
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control, at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
question
Borderline Personality Disorder
answer
A pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self image, and affects, and marked impulsivity.
question
Splitting
answer
An inability to integrate and accept both positive and negative feelings about someone or something. A primitive ego defense mechanism that is common in people with borderline personality disorder.
question
Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
answer
A persistent pattern of angry mood and defiant behavior that occurs more frequently than is usually observed in individuals of comparable age and developmental level. Interferes with social, educational, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
question
Temperament
answer
Personality characteristics that define and individuals mood and behavioral tendencies. The sum of physical, emotional, and intellectual components that affect or determine a person's actions and reactions
question
Conduct Disorder
answer
A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age appropriate societal norms or rules are violated. Behaviors include aggression, destruction of property, deceitfulness, theft, and serious violations of rules
question
Sexuality
answer
The constitution and life of an individual relatie to characterstices regarding intimacy. Reflects the totality of the person and does not relate exclusively to the sex organs or sexual behavior.
question
Exhibitoinistic Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the exposure of one's genitals to an unsuspecting individual.
question
Fetishistic Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the use of either non living objects or specific non genital body parts.
question
Frotteuristic Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal involving touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person.
question
Pedophilic Disorder
answer
Sexual Arousal from prepubescent or early pubescent children equal to or greater than that derived from physically mature persons.
question
Sexual Masochism Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the act of being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer.
question
Sexual Sadism Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of of another individual.
question
Transvestic Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal from dressing in the clothes of the opposite gender.
question
Voyeuristic Disorder
answer
Recurrent and intense sexual arousal involving the act of observing an unsuspecting individual, in the process of disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity.