Health test 2

Which of the following will always occur when you establish a program of regular aerobic exercise?
A) You will lengthen your life.
B) Your sense of well-being will improve.
C) Your body will become more attractive.
D) Your heart and lungs will become stronger.
2. The fitness dimension that is considered basic to whole-body fitness is
A) flexibility.
B) muscular strength.
C) muscular endurance.
D) cardiorespiratory endurance.
Which of the following, when performed regularly, can most effectively increase your energy level, improve your circulation, and strengthen your resistance to disease?
A) napping
B) meditation
C) weight lifting
D) jogging or brisk walking
Physical fitness as defined in your text is
A) the ability to engage in vigorous tasks and leisure activities.
B) full functionality of all parts of the body.
C) the ability to exercise without pain most days of the week.
D) a set of attributes that relates to the ability to perform physical activity.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding cardiorespiratory endurance? It is
A) produced by short bursts of intense movement at regular intervals.
B) the ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles.
C) the ability to perform repeated muscle contractions without fatigue.
D) the body’s alternative means of energy production when there is insufficient oxygen.
6. When you exercise to the point that the oxygen demands of the muscles cannot be met, you have developed
A) the overload state.
B) cardiorespiratory endurance
C) aerobic energy production
D) anaerobic energy production
After oxygen deprivation occurs, to continue the activity, your body must use _________ energy production.
A) static
B) aerobic
C) anaerobic
D) pulmonary
Anaerobic literally means
A) without strength.
B) without oxygen.
C) exhaustion.
D) empty.
Which of the following is the best example of anaerobic activity?
A) jogging
B) walking
C) sprinting
D) bicycle touring
Which of the following BEST explains why a veteran distance runner can go farther and at a faster pace than a beginning runner? The…
A) veteran runner has stronger muscles.
B) beginning runner’s cardiorespiratory system is not as developed as the veteran runner’s.
C) veteran runner has received more specialized training.
D) beginning runner has a less efficient distribution of body weight.
Your ability to maintain posture, lift, push, and pull are examples of
A) muscular fitness.
B) aerobic fitness.
C) flexibility fitness.
D) agility fitness.
Gradually increasing the resistance that muscles have become accustomed to is the basis for the __________ principle.
A) inertia
B) overload
C) anaerobic
D) specificity
The strength-building exercise method that involves exerting force against immovable objects is called
A) isotension.
B) isokinetic.
C) isometric.
D) isotonic.
Cybex, Mini-Gym, and Biodex are machines used in which form of resistance training?
A) isometric
B) isotonic
C) isostatic
D) isokinetic
Dumbbells and barbells are used in which form of strength training?
A) isotonic
B) ballistic
C) isokinetic
D) isometric
Muscular endurance is best developed by increasing
A) variety.
B) resistance.
C) repetitions.
D) range of motion.
One advantage of isokinetic exercise is that
A) it encourages the user to work at maintaining balance while exercising.
B) the sound and feel of the exercise projects a “tough” image.
C) muscles are overloaded through the entire range of motion.
D) it is inexpensive and many individuals can participate.
Carolina can move her shoulder joint through her natural range of motion. She has
A) a highly developed cardiorespiratory system.
B) flexibility at that particular joint.
C) good muscular strength.
D) muscular endurance at that joint.
The BEST combination of effectiveness and low risk for maintaining flexibility is a regular program of
A) static stretching.
B) ballistic stretching.
C) running and walking.
D) tai chi chuan or similar discipline.
Body composition is an important concern because
A) the information helps to identify people who do not exercise.
B) of the high incidence of obesity in the United States.
C) without body composition data, certain exercises may do more harm than good.
D) a body composition assessment should accompany all exercise programs.
Cardiorespiratory endurance can best be achieved through all of the following EXCEPT
A) rollerblading.
B) cross-country skiing.
C) skating.
D) golf.
According to the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommendations for achieving cardiorespiratory fitness, the mode of activity should be
A) intermittent and use mostly small muscles.
B) anaerobic in nature and regular intervals.
C) activities that develop flexibility.
D) any continuous physical activity that uses large muscles.
According to the ACSM, which activity would NOT meet the requirement for developing cardiorespiratory fitness?
A) cycling
B) softball
C) dancing
D) step training
One of the recommendations for helping you to continue with an exercise program is to
A) make all components as consistent as possible.
B) train in silence to help you concentrate.
C) make it enjoyable.
D) train alone.
To improve your cardiorespiratory fitness, you should exercise at least ____ times per week.
A) two to four
B) three to five
C) four to seven
D) one to five
Twenty-year-old Roger wants to begin an exercise program. As a young adult in good health with no weight problems, to achieve significant aerobic conditioning benefits he should try to bring his heart rate during exercise to a sustained level of about ________ beats per minute.
A) 220
B) 200
C) 160
D) 130
The ACSM recommends that a healthy adult exercise at an intensity level of
A) 50 percent of his maximum heart rate.
B) between 55 and 80 percent of his maximum heart rate.
C) between 40 and 75 percent of his maximum heart rate.
D) between 65 and 90 percent of his maximum heart rate.
The phenomenon by which aerobic exercise strengthens the heart, lungs, and blood vessels is called
A) maximum heart rate.
B) the training effect.
C) the target heart rate.
D) cardiorespiratory fitness.
To achieve a training effect, one must exercise at which one of the following intensity levels?
A) target heart rate
B) maximum heart rate
C) minimum heart rate
D) 50 percent of maximum heart rate
Training at a level above your target heart rate will probably
A) endanger your health.
B) significantly raise your maximum heart rate.
C) produce fatigue before much cardiorespiratory benefit occurs.
D) reduce the time needed to improve cardiorespiratory fitness.
Which of the following statements about training at a level below your target heart rate is most accurate? It will
A) burn some extra calories.
B) produce no health benefits.
C) lower your target heart rate.
D) lengthen the time needed to achieve a training effect.
Sean is exercising aerobically and wants to determine if he is training in his target heart rate range. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) He should find an easily accessible artery, such as the carotid, to determine heart rate.
B) He should use his thumb to feel for his pulse.
C) He should count the number of beats he feels in a fifteen-second period.
D) He should wear a heart rate monitor.
The ACSM recommends that exercise periods should last at least ________ minutes.
A) 20-90
B) 15-30
C) 10-45
D) 40-60
The American College of Sports Medicine recognizes resistance training in its fitness guidelines as
A) not being recommended for most people.
B) important for strengthening the limbs.
C) not being important to overall fitness.
D) important to achieving overall fitness.
According to the ACSM, the goal of resistance training is to
A) improve cardiorespiratory endurance.
B) improve overall muscle strength and muscle endurance.
C) allow an individual to become a competitive lifter.
D) improve overall joint flexibility.
Robyn wants to increase her flexibility. What recommendation should she follow during stretching? She should
A) bounce during each stretch to increase her range of motion.
B) hold her breath, then exhale slowly through the stretch.
C) warm up with slow, rhythmic movements prior to stretching.
D) stretch beyond the point of pain to allow for greater flexibility.
Stretching should occur
A) before warming up.
B) before cooling down.
C) after warming up and after cooling down.
D) before warming up and before cooling down.
One of the main benefits of a cooldown period after exercise is to
A) permit the heart to return to a resting state more rapidly.
B) reduce the risk of stiff and sore muscles.
C) reduce the risk of heart attack.
D) reduce sweating
Which of the following is TRUE regarding low back pain?
A) It tends to happen to many adults.
B) It is usually caused by postural problems.
C) It usually requires medical intervention.
D) It usually is an uncommon occurrence among adults.
People between the ages of 45 and 65 most commonly experience which of the following physical changes?
A) significant immune suppression issues
B) loss of some cognitive functions
C) gradual degeneration of joint tissues
D) an inability to maintain an activity at one’s target heart rate
Which of the following conditions should Sue, who is postmenopausal, be most concerned about?
A) a decrease in adipose tissue
B) loss of calcium from the bone
C) an unsatisfying sexual relationship with her partner
D) trouble remembering what day it is
Which of the following is TRUE regarding women and calcium?
A) Women tend to consume a sufficient amount of calcium.
B) Premenopausal women should take the recommended amount of 1,000-1,300 mg of calcium per day.
C) Postmenopausal women need to take between 800 and 1,000 mg of calcium per day.
D) Along with calcium, women need adequate vitamin E to aid in the absorption of calcium.
Although the exact mechanism is unknown, osteoporosis occurs when
A) the bones lose calcium.
B) women experience menopause.
C) undetected fractures spread to other sites in the bone.
D) vitamin D is drawn from the bones for use elsewhere in the body.
How does exercise help to prevent osteoporosis? It
A) maintains flexibility, the loss of which leads to osteoporosis.
B) triggers the appetite for calcium-containing foods.
C) increases the body’s output of estrogen.
D) helps to sustain bone growth.
Women who exercise regularly and whose diets include the recommended amounts of calcium and vitamin D will have fewer problems with __________________.
A) arthritis
B) menopause
C) osteoporosis
D) joint degeneration
A) is a form of arthritis that develops as we age.
B) is a form of osteoporosis that occurs mainly in men.
C) occurs most often in the shoulder and wrist.
D) has no genetic predisposition
Scientists now believe that most people’s problems with osteoarthritis are caused by
A) improper stretching and warm-up prior to exercise.
B) injuries that were never allowed to heal properly.
C) congenital joint defects.
D) inherited tendencies.
Your knee begins to ache periodically from arthritis. If you seek medical treatment for it, the doctor’s main goal will be to
A) make you more comfortable.
B) eliminate the cause of the knee pain.
C) repair any damage the arthritis has caused.
D) prevent the arthritis from spreading to other joints.
A lifelong jogger has developed osteoarthritis in his hips. Which of the following is his doctor most likely to recommend as initial treatment?
A) hip replacement surgery
B) anti-inflammatory drugs and continued activity
C) painkillers and immobilizing the legs for one to two weeks
D) anti-inflammatory drugs and stopping all running and most walking
A reduction in the size of muscle fibers, related to the aging process is called
a) isokentic
B regression
C) sarcopenia
D) isometric
According to the United States Department of Health and Human Services’ policy on physical activity, which of the following statements is the most TRUE?
A) At least 100 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can produce major health benefits.
B) An equivalent combination of moderate and vigorous physical activity can be used to achieve significant health benefits.
C) Fifty minutes of vigorous physical activity per week can produce major health benefits.
D) There is no such thing as too much physical activity.
What recommendation should Tom, who is 56 years old, follow when beginning an exercise program?
A) He should train at the higher end of his target heart rate.
B) He should have a complete physical exam that includes a stress test.
C) He should begin to exercise by himself after reading a “how to” exercise book.
D) His exercise program should focus on physical conditioning.
Which of the following fitness programs would be LEAST appropriate for older adults?
A) bicycling
B) water aerobics
C) golf
D) full-court basketball
You should always see a doctor before starting a new exercise program if you
A) have a chronic disease.
B) are over 35.
C) have not exercised in two years.
D) previously suffered an exercise-induced injury.
Max enjoys jogging five days per week, but now he often has pain in his knees, despite several shoe changes. He wants to reduce the pain and still stay in good shape. Which of the following is the best option for Max now?
A) Rest for one week and then continue as before.
B) Eliminate the jogging and take up new forms of exercise.
C) Cut the number of weekly runs from five to three.
D) Replace some of his runs with low-impact activities.
Sports drinks might be preferred to water for fluid replacement during a prolonged and intense fitness activity because they
A) are absorbed by the system more quickly than water.
B) also supply electrolytes and carbohydrates.
C) satisfy thirst more effectively than water.
D) stay fresh longer than water.
The improvement of your aerobic fitness capacity has been associated with a decreased risk of developing which types of cancer?
A) pancreatic and lung
B) breast and lung
C) breast and colon
D) breast and bone marrow
Protein, fats, and carbohydrates differ from the other basic nutrients in that they alone provide the body with
A) enzymes.
B) calories.
C) amino acids.
D) structural elements.
Various combinations of saccharides form
A) fats.
B) vitamins.
C) proteins.
D) carbohydrates.
The main role of carbohydrates is to
A) provide energy.
B) provide structural elements.
C) facilitate metabolic processes.
D) facilitate the absorption of other nutrients.
According to the USDA, how many teaspoons of sugar per day should be consumed for a 2,000 calorie diet? No more than ______ teaspoons.
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 20
What are starches? They are
A) simple carbohydrates whose main contribution to the diet is bulk.
B) complex carbohydrates that represent an important energy source.
C) simple carbohydrates that are commonly added to commercially prepared foods.
D) complex carbohydrates that provide no nutritional value.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding starches? They
A) are the sole source of energy for the brain and nervous system.
B) are found in honey, molasses, and syrup.
C) are among the least important sources of dietary carbohydrates.
D) contain significant portions of vitamins and minerals.
Which of the following is TRUE of fats?
A) They provide more energy than other nutrients.
B) Consumption of fats stimulates the appetite.
C) They interfere with vitamin absorption.
D) They have little nutritional value.
The recommended consumption of fats is _________ percent of daily calories.
A) 10 to 14
B) 15 to 19
C) 20 to 34
D) 35 to 39
Which of the following is FALSE regarding saturated fats? They are
A) solid at room temperature.
B) fats that are difficult for the body to use.
C) found primarily in animal products.
D) manufactured by the body.
John enjoys foods that are high in trans-fatty acids. What impact will these fats have on his cholesterol? They
A) will have no effect on his cholesterol.
B) have the tendency to raise the “good cholesterol” in his blood.
C) have the tendency to reduce the total cholesterol in his blood.
D) have the tendency to raise the “bad cholesterol” in his blood.
The most serious risk of a diet high in cholesterol is
A) an increased risk of obesity.
B) its link to digestive disorders.
C) an increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
D) its tendency to decrease the appetite for other nutrients.
Which of the following oils contains the highest percentage of saturated fats?
A) peanut
B) coconut
C) safflower
D) vegetable
Which of the following is TRUE of cholesterol? It
A) is produced by our own bodies.
B) appears in both animal and vegetable fats.
C) is non-essential for body functions.
D) has no impact on heart disease when consumed in high amounts in the diet.
Which of the following is a cholesterol-free food?
A) peanut butter
B) skim milk
C) shellfish
D) eggs
Nutritionists recommend that people restrict their dietary intake of cholesterol to ________ per day.
A) 350 mg
B) 400 mg
C) 300 mg or less
D) 500 mg or less
If you are trying to limit your cholesterol intake, you will need to restrict your intake of
A) peanut oil.
B) shellfish.
C) margarine.
D) olive oil.
The so-called essential amino acids receive their names from the fact that they
A) must be obtained from the diet.
B) supply the body’s central functions.
C) are the ones most important to good health.
D) are manufactured by the body without any dietary source.
Protein’s primary role is to
A) maintain the chemical balance of blood.
B) produce enzymes and hormones.
C) promote tissue growth and maintenance.
D) supply energy.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding complete protein foods? They
A) can be found in milk and cheeses.
B) contain all nine essential amino acids.
C) can be found in meats and eggs.
D) contain all 20 essential amino acids.
Protein provides _________ calories per gram of energy.
A) 9
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
How does your body use the protein you eat?
A) It is stored in body tissues to provide the primary source of glucose for metabolism.
B) It is broken down into its amino acids, which are mainly used in tissue building.
C) It is dispersed to all the cells of the body to regulate energy production.
D) Most of it is absorbed by the bones to provide their structural strength.
What is the role of vitamins? They
A) serve as structural elements.
B) facilitate the action of enzymes.
C) provide fuel for energy.
D) store other nutrients.
The two basic classes of vitamins are
A) organic and inorganic.
B) enzymes and coenzymes.
C) water-soluble and fat-soluble.
D) A through C, and D through K.
Fresh vegetables should not be overcooked because
A) minerals are lost.
B) they lose too much flavor.
C) the fiber they contain breaks down.
D) the water-soluble vitamins leach out.
John is taking a megadose of vitamin C from a dietary supplement source. Why might this behavior be harmful to his health? It can
A) increase his risk of heart disease.
B) cause kidney stones.
C) weaken his immune system.
D) increase his risk urinary tract problems.
The best way to ensure adequate intake of vitamins is to
A) cut back on fats.
B) use plenty of dairy products.
C) eat a variety of foods.
D) take a multivitamin supplement.
Elise is pregnant and wonders about the value of vitamin supplements. Which of the following is her doctor MOST likely to recommend?
A) Supplements offer no benefit; a normal diet is sufficient.
B) She might benefit from some vitamin supplements and folic acid in particular.
C) She should avoid vitamin supplements because of the risk of vitamin toxicity.
D) She must supplement her dietary intake with fat soluble vitamins.
What is the function of the minerals you consume in your diet?
A) They are used entirely to provide structure to such tissues as bones and teeth.
B) They serve both as structural elements and to regulate some body processes.
C) Their main purpose is to assist in the transport of ions.
D) They mainly regulate the consumption of glucose.
Trace elements are
A) minerals that appear in relatively small amounts in body tissues.
B) any nutrients that appear in very small amounts in body tissues.
C) any nutrients with a comparatively small molecular structure.
D) vitamins that support the synthesis of minerals.
Jenna is concerned about her iron intake. How can she help her body efficiently utilize iron? She should eat foods that are
A) high in iron only.
B) high in protein and iron.
C) rich in vitamin C, along with iron-rich foods.
D) high in complex carbohydrates.
The trace minerals, or micronutrients, include
A) iron, zinc, and iodine.
B) folate, niacin, and biotin.
C) thiamin, riboflavin, and calcium.
D) sodium, potassium, and phosphorus.
The major minerals, or macronutrients, include
A) zinc, iodine, and fluoride.
B) iron, copper, and manganese.
C) sodium, magnesium, and potassium.
D) molybdenum, chromium, and selenium.
We can survive for months without most nutrients, but without water we can live only
A) less than two days.
B) less than one week.
C) less than ten days.
D) less than two weeks.
Insoluable fiber is best described as fiber that
A) can absorb water from the intestinal tract
B) turns into a gel in the intestinal tract and binds to the liver bile
C) consists of only oat bran, psycillum, and rice bran
D) causes abnormal depletion of fluid from the body
Which nutrient provides the medium for temperature control and plays a role in all biochemical reactions?
A) fat
B) water
C) protein
D) carbohydrate
What are the major benefits of fiber in your diet? It
A) provides important structural material for both red and white blood cells.
B) improves the breakdown of food in the gut by introducing a grinding effect.
C) improves the passage of food through the digestive tract and lowers blood cholesterol.
D) contains tough molecules that increase the strength of cell walls in the digestive tract.
Dietary fiber is classified as
A) water-soluble or fat-soluble.
B) soluble or insoluble.
C) animal or vegetable.
D) true fiber or bran.
A friend has heard that by adding oat bran to her diet, she can lower her cholesterol level. What can you tell her about this?
A) Early studies yielded positive claims for oat bran, but later studies have shown that it does not lower cholesterol.
B) Oat bran in breads and muffins can lower cholesterol, but it does not have the same effect in hot or cold cereal.
C) Two to three servings per week of oat bran can help lower cholesterol, but larger amounts cause diarrhea.
D) Oat bran can lower cholesterol, but a large daily serving is needed to have much effect.
A balanced diet is one that
A) includes about equal amounts of each food group.
B) includes foods in proportions recommended by the USDA.
C) takes about an equal number of calories from each food group.
D) limits fats and sugars to no more than two to three servings per day.
Of the following, which is the MOST important contribution of vegetables to our diets? They provide
A) protein.
B) simple sugars.
C) fatty acids.
D) complex carbohydrates.
Prevention of certain cancers can be gained by consuming a diet rich in
A) bread, cereal, rice, and pasta.
B) fruits and vegetables.
C) milk and cheese.
D) meats.
The recommended number of daily servings from the milk group for adults is _______.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
The milk group does NOT provide ________________ as a part of primary nutrition in adults.
A) complex carbohydrates
B) a high-quality protein source
C) a high-quality calcium source
D) protection from osteoporosis
The USDA’s recommended daily serving of meat is _________ ounces.
A) 5.5
B) 6.5
C) 7.5
D) 8.5
Which of the following can be used as a meat substitute?
A) green leafy vegetables
B) yellow vegetables
C) eggs
D) rice
Which of the following foods should be served fresh and properly prepared?
A) meats
B) fruits
C) breads
D) vegetables
Which of the following is TRUE regarding higher grade cuts of meat? They
A) have been cured with flavor-enhancing substances.
B) generally have a lower fat content than poultry and fish.
C) have more marbling throughout the muscle fiber than lower grade cuts.
D) have been stored properly.
Why is whole grain bread considered healthier than white bread?
A) White bread is higher in fat than whole grain bread.
B) The process of enriching white bread introduces harmful chemicals.
C) There is little nutritional difference between the two.
D) Nutrients that are lost during the preparation of white bread remain in whole grain bread.
How many ounces of grains should adults eat daily?
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
The most effective source of dietary iron is
A) red meat.
B) dairy products.
C) iron supplements.
D) yellow vegetables.
According to the USDA guidelines, Americans should consume how much sodium per day?
A) less than 2,300 mg
B) 2,400 mg-2,500 mg
C) 2,600 mg-2,800 mg
D) 2,900 mg-3,000 mg
Which of the following is TRUE regarding fast food restaurants?
A) Their foods have a high fat density.
B) They have ignored customer requests to offer low fat products.
C) Their foods have no nutritional value.
D) They are not concerned with providing healthy food options for children.
Probiotics are
A) living bacteria that are thought to help prevent disease and boost the immune system.
B) food additives that may increase the risk of certain cancers when consumed in large amounts.
C) additives found in most fast foods that inhibit the absorption of vitamins A and C.
D) substances in fatty acids that are suspected of causing arterial wall damage.
Which of the following is the clearest example of a functional food?
A) Egg Beaters (an egg-white-based, no-cholesterol product)
B) skim milk
C) garlic
D) genetically engineered vegetables
Having met specific criteria, statements authorized by the FDA that a food has an effect on a health related condition are known as health
A) proxies.
B) claims.
C) warranties.
D) guarantees.
Which of the following is TRUE of dietary supplements? They
A) are free from requirements to substantiate their effectiveness.
B) can make direct claims about their effectiveness.
C) can be inhaled as well as taken orally.
D) are harmless substances.
Lactose intolerance is an example of a(n)
A) immune response to milk products.
B) adverse reaction to milk products that does not involve the immune system.
C) food allergy.
D) deficiency in the immune system’s tolerance to milk products.
In the United States, nutritional information labels are required on all
A) food products.
B) food products that contain additives.
C) food products for which nutritional claims are made or to which nutrients are added.
D) food products that contain fat, sodium, or carbohydrates.
You want to sell products from your farm with the USDA Certified Organic seal. What techniques are you allowed to use on your farm?
A) sewage sludge fertilizer
B) vitamin supplementation
C) genetic engineering
D) irradiation
The standard nutrition label on a processed food product will always contain the following EXCEPT
A) calories from fat.
B) calories per serving.
C) total fat per serving.
D) percentage daily value of protein per serving.
When a product is labeled “fat free,” it means that it contains no
A) more than 0.5 percent fat per serving.
B) fat that can be detected by any measure.
C) fat that is of any nutritional significance.
D) more than 5 percent of the fat of the non-fat-free version.
Most Americans should increase their consumption of which of the following?
A) sodium
B) cholesterol
C) simple carbohydrates
D) complex carbohydrates
People are considered obese when their body weight exceeds the recommended weight for their height by______percent.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
People gain weight when they
A. eat high-fat foods
B. snack between meals
C. avoid strenuous physical activity
D. consume more calories than they need
How are the terms overweight and obesity used differently?
A) people who are 1-19 percent above their desired weight are called overweight, while those 20 percent or more above their desired weight are called obese
B) n
D) both terms mean the same thing
Sandy’s desirable weight is 150 pounds, but she is now about 280. She would be classifed as
A) overweight
B) midly obese
C) morbidly obese
D) severly obese
The body mass index is
A) based on popular body images
B) n
C) a height/ weight index in metric units
D) n
Ashley is 5’1 and weights 135 pounds. according to the body mass index chart, she is considered
A) healthy
B) overweight
C) obese
D) morbidly obese
Which of the following is true regarding insurance company height/weight tables? They are
A) an excellent method for determining body composition
B) n
C) no longer considered the best way to determine whether body weight is acceptable
D) n
WHR assessment procedure was developed
A) to accurately measure the proportions of lean tissue to fat tissue
B) n
C) n
D) In response to the growing concern over the relationship between the amount of fat in the abdominal cavity and the abdominal cavity and the development of serious health problems
Skinfold measurements, elsectrical impedance and hydrostatic weighing are all measures of
A) body composition
B) obesisty
C) n
D) n
When an individual expends more calories than are taken in, this is referred to as
A) n
B) Positive caloric balance
C) n
D) negative caloric balance
The normal range of body fat for young adult men is______percent
A) 10-15
B) 15-19
C) 20-25
D) 25-30
Which of the following is FALSE regarding a skinfold measurement?
A) n
B) n
C) One key site on the body is necessary to accurately determine the percentage of body fat
D) These measurements are taken using a speacil device known as a capliper
Which of the following methods of body fat measurements involves measuring the thickness of the subcutaneous fat layer?
A) skin fold measurement
B) n
C) n
D) hydro static weighing
Which of the following best explains the causes of obesity?
A) n
B) Research indicates that genetic makeup is the main cause of most obesity
C) Although no defintive cause is known, it is believed that several factors play a role
D) n
Which of the following BEST describes the influence of genetics on obesity?
A) Body type is the only known obesisty factor that is strongly affected by genetics
B) n
C) There are many possible genetic influences on obesity
D) n
The body’s appetite controls are mainly located in the
A) n
B) stomach
C) n
D) hypothalmus
The appetite center controls
A) when you eat
B) how much you eat
C) n
D) n
Which of the following BEST summarizes the set point theory?
A) n
B) each person’s body regulates its use of energy to maintain a certain weight
C) the boy begins to store fat when eating reaches a certain point
D) n
Changes in the body’s metabolic rate due to a lack, or abundance, of calories is known as
A) adiopose recession
B) n
C) n
D) adaptive thermogensis
What is the percentage of people who go on a diet and gain all of their weight back within a year of going off the diet?
A) n
B) 75 percent
C) 50 percent
D) n
_____ is equal to tobacco as a threat to American’s health and disproportionately affects women of color and lower socioeconomic classes
A) n
B) Obesity
C) Stroke
D) n
Many researchers believe that overfed infants become overweight later in life because
A) they develop more fat cells than infants who are not overfed do
B) n
C) n
D) Their fat cells grow in size
Your body’s energy needs are based on your diet, your activities and your,
A) n
B) basal metabolism
C) n
D) endocrine function
Consuming about ____ calories more then needed results in a weight gain of one pound of fat
A) 2,200
B) 1,500
C) 3,500
D) 2,700
Why do the body;’s energy requirements decrease with age? Because
A) basal metabolic rate declines with age
B) n
C) Aging results in a gradual loss of muscle tissue
D) n
Which of the following is not related to basal metabolic rate?
A) age
B) n
C) n
D) gender
The amount of energy our bodies require for the digestion, absorption, and transportation of food is known as the _________ of food.
A) thermic effect
B) thermic metabolism
C) n
D) n
According to experts, you should set a goal to lose no more than ______ pounds per week
A) 5
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Effective and lasting weight loss requires
A) a diet that significantly reduces calorie intake
B) n
C) n
D) a lifestyle change that includes healthy eating and regular exercise
Which of the following is FALSE regarding a balanced diet supported by portion control?
A) is best undertaken with a nutritionist and physians knowledgeable in diet management
B) n
C) reflects a naturally sound program that offers some probability of success
D) n
Why is a diet based on portion control a better idea tan so-called low-calorie or fad diets?
A) People can consume more of the foods that they enjoy with portion control
B) n
C) Portion control typically cuts more calories from a real meal
D) n
People use fad diets in an attempt to achieve
A) n
B) n
C) rapid weight loss
D) making dieting easier and more enjoyable
Dehydration, electrolyte loss, and possible kidney problems are complications associated with which fad diet?
A) The Atkins Diet
B) Eating Thin for Life
C) n
D) n
Many prescription and over the counter diet drugs achieve their purpose by
A) n
B) n
C) stimulating excretion
D) suppressing appitite
The problem with the over the counter appetite suppressant phenylpropanolamine (PPA) is
A) its association with higher risk of stroke
B) n
C) interferes with digestion for most people
D) n
Which of the following substances was found in many herbal supplements until it was banned in 2003?
A) phenylpropanolamine
B) ephedrine
C) aristolochia fungchi
D) n
gastroplasty achieves its effectiveness and anti-obesity surgery by
A) reducing the sixe of the stomach
B) n
C) shortening the path of food through the digestive tract
D) n
A moderately obese, college-age friend of yours wants ti try liposuction to solve her problem with obesity. Why is this a bad idea?
A) cosmetic then behavoir change
B) high risk
C) more body sculpt than weiht loss
D) All of the choices are true
You are dangerously obese and you are a complusive eater. The most effective surgical procedure to enable you to lose weight would be
A) n
B) n
C) body wrapping
D) gastric bypass surgery
Tim is thin and he wants to gain weight for football. he doe not have an eating disorder. the best way for Tim to proceed would be to:
A) eat only high-fat foods and lift weights
B) combine a balanced diet with strength training
C) n
D) n
They key to maintaing a healthy weight is
A) caloric expenditure through regular exercise
B) regular counseling sessions
C) n
D) n
Which of the following is the most effective tool for eliminating fat from the body?
A) dieting
B) n
C) physical activity
D) n

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