Financial Institutions – Flashcards

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An Investment bank is financial institution that?
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helps corporations raise funds.
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The Glass-Steagall Act
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1)Separated commercial and investment banking 2)made it illegal for a commercial bank to buy or sell securities on behalf of its customers.
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Investment banks sell___ securities to the public, and brokerage firms sell___ securities to the public.
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new; existing
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The primary function of investment banks is to?
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help corporations issue new securites
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which is not an activity of investment banks?
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Underwriting new securities of federal government bonds
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Tasks tat investment bankers perform when acting as underwriters to sell securities to the public include:
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1)pricing the security 2)preparing the filings required by the securities and exchange commission. 3)arranging for the security to be rated
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Investment banks find it less difficult to price securities if the firm has prior issues currently selling in the market, called?
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Seasoned issues
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The process of underwriting a stock or bond issue requires that the investment bank
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Purchase the entire issue at a predetermined price and then resell it in the market
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SEC registration is
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not required for securities that are sold through a private placement
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By law, investors must be given a portion of the registration statement before they can invest in a new security. This document is called a ________.
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Prospectus
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Investment banks advertise upcoming securities offerings with block ads in the Wall Street Journal. Such an ad is called a ________.
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Tombstone
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Most investment banks are attached to
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large brokerage houses
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From an investment banker's perspective, the best outcome occurs when a new issue is ________.
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fully subscribed
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Investment banks may lose ________ if new securities issues are ________.
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future business; oversubscribed
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Often investment bankers will form a group, each one buying only a portion of the new securities to be issued. Such a group is called an underwriting ________.
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syndicate
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In a ________ agreement, the investment banker makes no guarantee regarding the price the issuing firm will receive, but agrees to sell the securities on a commission basis.
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best eefforts
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Private placements
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1) do not require the services of investment bankers. 2) need not be registered with the SEC
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The buyers of private placement securities are most likely to be ________.
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1) insurance companies 2) pension funds and mutual funds
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Which of the following statements about private placements are true?
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1) private placements are more common for the sale of bonds than for stocks 2)investment bankers, though not required for a private placement, often facilitate the transaction.
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Investment bankers have been active in the mergers and acquisitions market since the 1960s. Their contributions have included
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A) helping firms that want to acquire another firm locate a firm to pursue. B) helping would-be acquirers solicit shareholders through a tender offer. C) helping target firms ward off undesired takeover attempts.
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Which of the following is not a step in the process by which an investment bank assists in the sale of a company or corporate division?
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forming a syndicate of purchasers
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________ perform their main function in the primary market for securities and ________ perform their main function in the secondary market.
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Investment banks; securities brokers and dealers
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Which of the following best explains the difference between brokers and dealers?
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Brokers are pure middlemen; dealers make markets by standing ready to buy and sell at given prices.
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Securities dealers
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A) sell securities out of their inventories to customers who want to buy. B) buy securities, which they add to their inventories, from customers who want to sell. C) are largely responsible for the health and growth of small businesses in the United States.
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By making a market in thinly traded stocks, securities dealers solve the ________ trading problem, which is of particular benefit to ________ businesses.
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nonsynchronous; small
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Which of the following is not a service securities brokers offer their clients
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providing insurance against loss of value of the securities
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An instruction to a securities agent to buy or sell the security at the current market price is called a ________.
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market order
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An instruction to a securities agent to sell a stock when it reaches a specific price is a ________.
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stop loss order
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An instruction to a securities agent to purchase a stock as long as its price does not exceed a specified level is a ________.
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limit order
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To take advantage of anticipated stock price decreases, an investor would use ________
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a short sell
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Which of the following statements about cash management accounts (CMAs) are true?
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A) The cash management account was developed in 1977 by Merrill Lynch. B) The advantage of brokerage-based cash management accounts is that they make it easier to buy and sell securities.
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A full-service broker offers its clients all of the following except
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low transaction fees
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A ________ is a specialized firm that finances young, start-up companies.
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venture capital firm
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Which of the following provides funds to companies not yet ready to sell securities to the public
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venture capital firms
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Venture capital firms are usually organized as ________.
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limited ppartnerships
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Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of venture capital firms?
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funding just one or a small number of firms
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The sources of venture capital funding have
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shifted from wealthy individuals to pension funds and corporations
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A typical venture capital firm has a ________ number of investors who each contribute a ________ amount of money to the fund.
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small; large
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Which of the following statements about venture capital funding is not correct?
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Firms hope to exit a start-up firm in 3-5 years.
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The 20-year average return of venture capital firms has been about ________.
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20%
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Which of the following is an advantage to a private equity buyout?
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The CEOs frequently have more time and flexibility to enact changes need to turn around subpar companies.
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When taking a particular course of action for a private equity firm, the CEO of a privately held company needs to convince ________ that it is a good decision.
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the managing partners
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Which of the following is a description of a private equity firm?
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A) Public shares are retired. B) A public company goes private. C) The firm is no longer subject to controls and oversight required of publicly held companies
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If borrowers with the most risky investment projects are more likely to seek bank loans than borrowers with the safest investment projects, banks face the problem of ________.
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adverse selection
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Because borrowers, once they have a loan, are more likely to invest in high-risk investment projects, banks face the
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moral hazard
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Banks' attempts to solve adverse selection and moral hazard problems help explain loan management principles such as
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A) screening and monitoring of loan applicants. B) collateral and compensating balances. C) credit rationing
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In one sense, ________ appears surprising since it means that the bank is not ________ its portfolio of loans and thus is exposing itself to more risk.
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specialization in lending; diversifying
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Provisions in loan contracts that proscribe borrowers from engaging in specified risky activities are called ________.
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restrictive covenants
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Banks attempt to screen good credit risks from bad to reduce the incidence of loan defaults. To do this, banks
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A) specialize in lending to certain industries or regions. B) write restrictive covenants into loan contracts. C) expend resources to acquire accurate credit histories of their potential loan customers.
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Lines of credit and long-term relationships between banks and their customers
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A) reduce the costs of information collection. B) make it easier for banks to screen good risks from bad. C) enable banks to deal with moral hazard contingencies that are neither anticipated nor specified in restrictive covenants.
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Compensating balances
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A) are a particular form of collateral commonly required on commercial loans. B) are a required minimum amount of funds that a borrower (i.e., a firm receiving a loan) must keep in a checking account at the bank. C) allow banks to monitor firms' check payment practices, which can yield information about their borrowers' financial conditions.
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Credit rationing occurs when a bank
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A) refuses to make a loan of any amount to a borrower, even when she is willing to pay a higher interest rate. B) restricts the amount of a loan to less than the borrower would like
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Because larger loans create greater incentives for borrowers to engage in undesirable activities that make it less likely they will repay the loans, banks
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ration credit, granting borrowers smaller loans than they have requested.
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When banks offer borrowers smaller loans than they have requested, banks are said to ________.
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ration credit
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Liabilities that are partially, but not fully, rate-sensitive include ________.
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checkable deposits
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If a bank has more rate-sensitive liabilities than rate-sensitive assets, then a(n) ________ in interest rates will ________ bank profits.
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increase; reduce
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The difference between rate-sensitive liabilities and rate-sensitive assets is known as the ________.
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gap
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Duration gap analysis
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is a complement to basic gap analysis that accounts for the effect of interest rate changes on market value.
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Duration analysis involves comparing the average duration of the bank's ________ to the average duration of its ________.
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assets; liabilities
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To use the concept of duration to analyze the effect of changes in interest rates on the market value of an asset, a bank manager would multiply
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the negative of the duration of the asset by Δi /(1 + i).
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If a bank has a duration gap of 2 years, then a rise in interest rates from 6 percent to 9 percent will lead to
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a fall in the market value of its net worth of 5.66 percent.
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If a decline in interest rates causes the market value of a bank's net worth to rise, then the bank must have a ________.
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positive duration gap
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One problem with duration gap analysis is that it
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is calculated assuming that the yield curve is flat.
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One problem with basic gap analysis is that it
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is calculated assuming interest rates on all maturities change by equal amounts.
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A bank manager concerned about interest income who expects interest rates to rise and who knows the bank currently has a positive gap should ________ rate-sensitive assets and ________ rate-sensitive liabilities.
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increase; decrease
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A bank manager concerned about interest income who expects interest rates to fall and who knows the bank currently has a positive gap should ________ rate-sensitive assets and ________ rate-sensitive liabilities.
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decrease; increase
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The certainty equivalent for risk-averse people who buy insurance is the
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insurance premium they pay.
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The problem of ________ occurs when those most likely to get large insurance payoffs are the ones who want to purchase insurance the most.
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moral hazard
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To prevent adverse selection, health and life insurance companies may do all the following except
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charge the same premiums to all policyholders.
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Some automobile owners will drive faster knowing that they are covered by health and automobile insurance. This behavior creates the problem of ________.
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moral hazard
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In the case of an insurance policy, ________ occurs when the existence of insurance encourages the insured party to take risks that increase the likelihood of an insurance payoff; ________ occurs when those most likely to get large insurance payoffs are the ones who want to purchase insurance the most.
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moral hazard; adverse selection
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To prevent the moral hazard problem, health and life insurance companies may write policies
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A) for which premiums increase dramatically once the policyholder is discovered to have contracted an illness. B) containing provisions which either reduce or eliminate benefits to persons who contract prespecified illnesses. C) limiting the amount the companies will pay in the event that claims are submitted by policyholders
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Insurance management tools that give policyholders incentives to avoid accidents insured against include ________.
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A) deductibles B) risk-based premiums C) coinsurance
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Which is not a management practice for reducing the problems of adverse selection and moral hazard in insurance?
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reinsurance
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Insurance companies employ underwriters
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to control the risk incurred on their behalf by agents
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________ companies get a tax advantage; most new insurance companies organize as ________ companies.
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Mutual insurance; stock
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(I) A majority of life insurance companies are organized as mutual companies. (II) State governments have the major responsibility for regulating insurance companies
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(I) is false, (II) true
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Which of the following do not help people during their retirement?
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term life insurance
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A term life insurance policy provides
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insurance benefits only.
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Which of the following is true of life insurance companies?
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1) Payouts to policyholders are relatively predictable. 2)They primarily hold long-term assets that are not particularly liquid.
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Of the following financial intermediaries, which holds the least liquid assets?
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life insurance companies
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The largest share of life insurance companies' assets are ________.
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corporate bonds
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The federal regulatory agency responsible for regulating the activities of life insurance companies is
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none of the above; there is no such federal regulatory agency
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Which of the following is not a feature of the Terrorism Risk Insurance Act of 2002?
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Government pays 50 percent of losses in excess of $100 billion
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Insurance companies' attempts to minimize adverse selection and moral hazard explain which of the following insurance practices?
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A) risk-assessment screening B) risk-based premiums C) restrictive provisions
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Insurance companies' attempts to minimize adverse selection and moral hazard explain which of the following insurance practices?
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A) collection of information and screening of potential policyholders B) risk-based premiums C) cancellation of insurance
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Insurance companies' attempts to minimize adverse selection and moral hazard explain which of the following insurance practices?
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A) collection of information and screening of potential policyholders B) risk-based premiums C) deductibles and coinsurance
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If automobile insurance companies were prevented from charging risk-based premiums, but could selectively screen potential policyholders, the likely effect would be to
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decrease the number of young men obtaining insurance coverage relative to young women.
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The fact that insurance companies charge young males higher automobile insurance premiums than young females is an example of
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A) risk-based premiums. B) an attempt to minimize adverse selection
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Insurance management tools that give policyholders incentives to avoid accidents insured against include ________.
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A) deductibles B) risk-based premiums C) coinsurance
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Clauses in life insurance policies that eliminate death benefits if the insured person commits suicide are an example of a ________.
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restrictive provision
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The fastest growing financial intermediary is ________.
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pension plans
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A company's pension plan promises employees a specific amount of income when they retire. However, the plan does not have the assets to meet these future obligations to employees. This plan represents a defined-________ plan that is ________.
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benefit; underfunded
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Social Security is a
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"pay-as-you-go" system.
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The Social Security system is an example of a public pension plan that is ________.
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underfunded
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Which of the following is not a proposal for insuring that sufficient funds will be available to provide Social Security benefits to future retirees?
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Provide more generous annual cost of living increases.
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Fraudulent practices and other abuses of private pension funds led Congress to enact the ________.
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Employee Retirement Income Security Act
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Keogh plans and IRAs are
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individual pension plans
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Private pension plan assets are invested mainly in ________.
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stock
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Which of the following pensions does not promise employees a specific retirement benefit?
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defined-contribution plan
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All insurance is subject to several basic principles, including all of the following except that
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the insured is to profit as a result of insurance coverage
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A basic product of life insurance companies is ________.
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A) disability insurance B) annuities C) health insurance
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________ is an insurance product that will help if you live longer than you expect. For an initial fixed sum or stream of payments, the insurance company agrees to pay you a fixed amount for as long as you live.
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An annuity
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The broad categories of life insurance products including which of the following?
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A) term B) whole life C) universal life
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Which life insurance policy usually requires the insured to pay a level premium for the duration of the policy, and the overpayment accumulates as a cash value that can be borrowed by the insured at reasonable rates?
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whole life
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What insurance protects against liability for harm the insured may cause to others as a result of product failure or accidents?
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casualty insurance
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A credit default swap, or CDS, is essentially
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insurance against default on a financial instrument.
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Between 1995 and 2009, the amount of credit default swaps (CDSs) exploded, along with the marketing of securitized mortgages. By their peak in 2008, there were about ________ of CDSs outstanding.
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$62 trillion
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During the 2007-2009 financial crisis, state and local governments now found their interest costs rising. Which of the following were causes of this?
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A) lower tax revenues because of the weaker economy B) weakened value of monoline insurance guarantees on their debt
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Mutual funds hold about ________ of financial intermediaries' total assets.
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one-sixth
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________ intermediation means that small investors can pool their funds with other investors to purchase high face value securities.
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Denomination
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Mutual funds offer investors all of the following except
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greater-than-average returns.
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At the end of 2009 there were over ________ separate mutual funds with total assets over ________.
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7,000; $11 trillion
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Most mutual funds are structured in two ways. The most common structure is a(n) ________ fund, from which shares can be redeemed at any time at a price that is tied to the asset value of the fund. A(n) ________ fund has a fixed number of nonredeemable shares that are traded in the over-the-counter market.
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open-end; closed-end
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Which of the following is an advantage to investors of an open-end mutual fund?
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The fund agrees to redeem shares at any time
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The net asset value of a mutual fund is
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determined by subtracting the fund's liabilities from its assets and dividing by the number of shares outstanding.
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________ funds are the simplest type of investment funds to manage.
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Index
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The majority of mutual fund assets are now owned by
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individual investors.
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Capital appreciation funds select stocks of ________ and tend to be ________ risky than total return funds.
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companies expected to grow rapidly; more
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From largest to smallest in terms of total assets, the four classes of mutual funds are
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equity funds, bond funds, money market funds, hybrid funds.
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Measured by assets, the most popular type of bond fund is the ________ bond fund
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strategic income
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People who take their money out of insured bank deposits to invest in uninsured money market mutual funds have ________ risk because money market funds invest in ________ assets.
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low; short-term
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The largest share of assets held by money market mutual funds is
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U.S. government securities
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Which of the following is a feature of index funds?
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A) They have lower fees. B) They select and hold stocks to match the performance of a stock index. C) They do not require managers to select stocks and decide when to buy and sell.
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A deferred-load mutual fund charges a commission
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when shares are redeemed by the investor
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Over the past twenty years, mutual fund fees have ________, largely because ________.
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fallen; SEC fee disclosure rules have led to greater competition
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When investors switch between funds within the same fund family, mutual funds may charge
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exchange fee
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The largest share of total investment in mutual funds is in
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stock funds
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The near collapse of Long Term Capital Management was caused by
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a sharp increase in the spread between corporate bonds and Treasury bonds.
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Conflicts arise in the mutual funds industry because ________ cannot effectively monitor ________
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shareholders; investment advisers
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Late trading is the practice of allowing orders received ________ to trade at the ________ net asset value.
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after 4:00 PM; 4:00 PM
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Market timing
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takes advantage of arbitrage opportunities in foreign stocks.
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Late trading and market timing
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A) allow large, favored investors in a mutual fund to profit at the expense of other investors in the fund. B) hurt ordinary investors by increasing the number of fund shares and diluting the fund's net asset value.
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Which of the following is not a proposal to deal with abuses in the mutual fund industry?
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Increase the number of dependent directors.
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________ means the investors can convert their investment into cash quickly at a low cost.
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Liquidity intermediation
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Mutual fund companies frequently offer a number of separate mutual funds called ________.
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complexes
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Equity funds can be placed in which class according to the Investment Company Institute?
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A) capital appreciation funds B) world funds C) total return funds
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Government bonds are essentially default risk-free, ________ returns.
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but will have relatively low
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________ funds combine bonds and stocks into one fund.
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Hybrid
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All ________ are open-end investment funds that invest only in money market securities.
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Money market mutual funds
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When one party to a transaction has incentives to engage in activities detrimental to the other party, there exists a problem of
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moral hazard
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Although the FDIC was created to prevent bank failures, its existence encourages banks to
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take too much risk
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Deposit insurance
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A) attracts risk-prone entrepreneurs to the banking industry. B) encourages bank managers to take on greater risks than they otherwise would C) reduces the incentives of depositors to monitor the riskiness of their banks' asset portfolios.
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The possibility that the failure of one bank can hasten the failure of other banks is called the
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contagion effect.
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If the FDIC decides that a bank is too big to fail, it will use the ________ method, effectively ensuring that ________ depositors will suffer losses.
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purchase and assumption; no
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If the FDIC uses the purchase and assumption method to handle a failed bank,
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all deposits will be paid in full.
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The result of the too-big-to-fail policy is that ________ banks will take on ________ risks, making bank failures more likely.
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large;greater
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The too-big-to-fail policy
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1) exacerbates moral hazard problems 2) treats large depositors of small banks inequitably when compared to depositors of large banks.
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The primary difference between the "payoff" and the "purchase and assumption" methods of handling failed banks is that the FDIC
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B) guarantees all deposits, not just those under the $250,000 limit, when it uses the "purchase and assumption" method. C) is less likely to use the "payoff" method when the bank is large and it fears that depositor losses may spur business bankruptcies and other bank failures.
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Regulators attempt to reduce the riskiness of banks' asset portfolios by
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A) limiting the amount of loans in particular categories or to individual borrowers. B) prohibiting banks from holding risky assets such as common stocks.
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Banks do not want to hold too much capital because
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A) they do not bear fully the costs of bank failures. B) higher returns on equity are earned when bank capital is smaller, all else equal.
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The increased integration of financial markets across countries and the need to make the playing field equal for banks from different countries led to the Basel Accord agreement to
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standardize bank capital requirements internationally
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Under the Basel plan,
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A) assets and off-balance sheet activities are assigned to various categories to reflect the degree of credit risk. B) a bank's total capital must equal or exceed 8 percent of total risk-weighted assets.
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Of the following assets, the one which has the highest capital requirement under the Basel Accord is
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commercial paper.
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Which of the following is not true regarding the Basel 2 proposal to reform the original 1988 Basel Accord?
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It has been well received by banks and national regulatory agencies.
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Ways in which bank regulations reduce the adverse selection and moral hazard problems in banking include
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A) a chartering process designed to prevent crooks from getting control of a bank. B) restrictions that prevent banks from acquiring certain risky assets, such as common stocks. C) high bank capital requirements to increase the cost of bank failure to the owners
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Regular bank examinations and restrictions on asset holdings indirectly help to ________ the adverse selection problem because, given fewer opportunities to take on risk, risk-prone entrepreneurs will be ________ from entering the banking industry.
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reduce; discouraged
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The legislation that separated commercial banking from the securities industry is known as the ________.
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Glass-Steagall Act
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The Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980
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A) approved NOW accounts nationwide. B) imposed uniform reserve requirements. C) mandated the phase out of interest-rate ceilings on deposits.
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As a way of stemming the decline in the number of savings and loans and mutual savings banks, the Garn-St. Germain Act of 1982 allowed
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money market deposit accounts.
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Moral hazard and adverse selection problems increased in prominence in the 1980s
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A) as deregulation opened up more avenues for savings and loans and mutual savings banks to take on more risk. B) following a burst of financial innovation in the 1970s and early 1980s that produced new financial instruments and markets, thereby widening the scope for risk taking.
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The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991
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A) reduced the scope of deposit insurance in several ways. B) limited the FDIC's ability to use the "too-big-to-fail" policy. C) requires the FDIC to intervene earlier when a bank gets into trouble.
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Which of the following is least likely to accompany financial consolidation and the development of large, complex banking organizations?
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Moral hazard problems will become less important.
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World Bank research on the effects of deposit insurance concludes that
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adoption of explicit government deposit insurance is associated with a higher incidence of banking crises.
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Just prior to the 2007 financial crisis, mortgage loans known as NINJA loans were issued to borrowers. What is a NINJA loan?
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A loan issued to borrowers with no income, employment, nor assets to speak of.
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Which of the following categories is not part of the Dodd-Frank legislation of 2010?
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capital requirements
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In an effort to control the use of derivatives by financial institutions, the Dodd-Frank legislation of 2010 requires ________.
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standardized derivatives products
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An SIV, or structured investment vehicle, is an off-balance-sheet entity that shields a sponsoring institution from risk. What happened to some of these SIVs when they ran into financial problems?
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Troubled SIVs became an asset of the sponsoring institution -- the off-balance-sheet status was meaningless.
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What role did the credit-rating agencies play leading up to the start of the financial crisis in 2007?
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Inaccurate ratings provided by credit-rating agencies helped promote risk taking throughout the financial system
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Which of the following statements is false?
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Bank capital is an asset on the bank balance sheet.
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A bank's balance sheet
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A) shows that total assets equal total liabilities plus equity capital. B) lists sources and uses of bank funds.
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Which of the following statements is false?
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Checkable deposits are the primary source of bank funds.
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The share of checkable deposits in total bank liabilities has
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shrunk over time.
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Because passbook savings are ________ liquid for the depositor than checking accounts, they earn ________ interest rates.
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less; higher
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Which of the following are not checkable deposits?
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A) savings accounts B) small-denomination time deposits
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Large-denomination CDs are ________, so that like a bond they can be resold in a ________ market before they mature.
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negotiable; secondary
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Bank loans from the Federal Reserve are called ________ and represent a ________ of funds.
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discount loans; source
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Which of the following are reported as assets on a bank's balance sheet?
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loans
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Because of their ________ liquidity, ________ U.S. government securities are called secondary reserves.
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high; short-term
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Which of the following are not reported as assets on a bank's balance sheet?
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checkable deposits
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The most important category of assets on a bank's balance sheet is
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loans.
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Which of the following bank assets are the least liquid?
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mortgage loans
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Which of the following bank assets are the most liquid?
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reserves
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A bank's largest source of funds is its
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nontransaction deposits.
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In general, banks make profits by selling ________ liabilities and buying ________ assets.
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short-term; longer-term
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When a $10 check written on the First National Bank is deposited in an account at the Second National Bank, then
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A) the liabilities of the First National Bank decrease by $10. B) the liabilities of the Second National Bank increase by $10.
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Holding all else constant, when a bank receives the funds for a deposited check,
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A) cash items in process of collection fall by the amount of the check. B) bank assets remain unchanged.
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Which of the following are primary concerns of a bank manager?
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A) maintaining sufficient reserves to minimize the cost to the bank of deposit outflows B) extending loans to borrowers who will pay high interest rates, but who are also good credit risks C) acquiring funds at a relatively low cost, so that profitable lending opportunities can be realized
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Bankers' concern regarding the optimal mix of excess reserves, secondary reserves, borrowings from the Fed, and borrowings from other banks to deal with deposit outflows is an example of
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liquidity management
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When $1 million is deposited at a bank, the required reserve ratio is 20 percent, and the bank chooses not to hold any excess reserves but instead makes loans, then in the bank's final balance sheet,
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reserves increase by $200,000.
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Banks can protect themselves from the disruption caused by deposit outflows by
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A) holding excess reserves. B) selling securities. C) "calling in" loans.
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In general, banks would prefer to meet deposit outflows by ________ rather than ________
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borrowing from the Fed; selling loans.
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Which is the least costly way for a bank to handle deposit outflows?
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Hold excess reserves.
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A bank can reduce its total amount of loans outstanding by
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A) "calling in" loans; that is, by not renewing some loans when they come due. B) selling loans to other banks
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Which of the following statements is an accurate description of modern liability management?
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A) Greater flexibility in liability management has allowed banks to increase the proportion of their assets held in loans. B) New financial instruments enable banks to acquire funds quickly Only A and B of the above have occurred since 1960.
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Banks fail when the value of bank ________ falls below the value of ________, causing the bank to become insolvent.
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assets; liabilities
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A bank failure is more likely to occur when
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A) a bank holds less in U.S. government securities. B) a bank suffers large deposit outflows. C) a bank holds less equity capital.
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The largest source of bank income is
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interest on loans.
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Of the following, the largest operating expense for a bank is
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salaries and employee benefits.
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On a bank's income statement, the provision for loan losses is an ________ item and represents the amount of ________ in the bank's loan loss reserves.
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expense; increase
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Net profit after taxes per dollar of equity capital is a basic measure of bank profitability called
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return on equity.
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Net profit after taxes per dollar of assets is a basic measure of bank profitability called
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return on assets
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The amount of assets per dollar of equity capital is called the
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equity multiplier
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For a given return on assets, the lower the bank capital is,
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the higher the return for the owners of the bank will be.
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In the absence of regulation, banks would probably hold
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too little capital, increasing the return on equity.
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An argument that supports a regulated minimum capital requirement is that banks that hold too little capita
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impose costs on other banks because they are more likely to fail
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Examples of off-balance-sheet activities include
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A) loan sales. B) foreign exchange market transactions. C) trading in financial futures.
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The danger of banks engaging in activities such as trading in financial futures and interest-rate swaps is that these activities allow banks to
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engage in speculation.
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When a bank sells all or part of the cash stream from a specific loan,
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1) it removes the loan from its balance sheet. 2) it usually does so at a profit.
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Discount loans are also known as ________.
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advances
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Bank capital
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A) is raised by selling new equity. B) is a cushion against a drop in the value of its assets. C) comes from retained earnings.
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With large banks beginning to explore ways in which the liabilities on their balance sheets could provide them with reserves and liquidity, this led to
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A) the expansion of overnight loan markets. B) the development of negotiable CDs. C) the ability of money center banks to acquire funds quickly.
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In recent years, the interest paid on checkable and time deposits has accounted for around ________ of total bank operating expenses, while the costs involved in running the bank have been approximately ________ of total operating expenses.
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30%; 50%
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