CPT & HCPCS CODING CH 1-6 EXAM 1 – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
T/F Chapter 1: The current edition of CPT is pocket-sized and contains approximately 4,000 codes.
answer
false
question
T/F CPT is updated by CMS, and this occurs in May of each year.
answer
false
question
T/F A circle is used to denote an add-on code in CPT.
answer
false
question
True or False The semi-colon separates the main term, or common portion, of the CPT code from the additional, or unique portion, of the CPT code.
answer
true
question
T/F CPT was first published by the American Health Information Management Association. True or False
answer
false
question
HCPCS is the abbreviation for ______________________________________.
answer
Correct Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System
question
Category II codes are not mandatory and are considered ________________ codes.
answer
tracking
question
When a double triangle appears around information in the CPT manual, this means that the text is new or _______________.
answer
revised
question
When the plus symbol appears before a code number, this indicates to the coder that the code is considered a(n) ___________________ code.
answer
add-on
question
Clinical examples of the CPT codes for Evaluation and Management services are found in appendix ______ of the CPT manual.
answer
C
question
F/T Chapter 2: A CPT modifier is a three-digit code that is appended to a code to indicate that a service or procedure has been altered.
answer
false
question
T/F Modifiers are placed in item 24d of the CMS-1500 form.
answer
true
question
T/F Third-party payers use different instructions for reporting modifiers.
answer
true
question
T/F The CMS form contains three modifier fields. True or False
answer
false
question
T/F When reporting more than one modifier, the modifiers must be ranked according to whether or not the modifier will affect the fee for service.
answer
true
question
T/F A pricing modifier only increases the fee for the service
answer
false
question
T/F When reporting more than one statistical modifier, with no other pricing modifiers, the modifiers can be reported in any order, with the exception of the QT, QW, and SF modifiers.
answer
true
question
T/F Modifier 26 is used to indicate the professional component.
answer
true
question
T/F Modifier 52 indicates a reduced service.
answer
true
question
T/F Procedure codes for procedures performed on neonates and infants less than 4 kg should be modified with modifier 63.
answer
true
question
A statistical modifier, also known as a(n) __________________ modifier is used for informational purposes and does not affect the fee.
answer
informational
question
Using a CPT manual, select the correct modifier to use for the following case: Dr Smith completed a cholecystectomy on Mary Jones. Because of prolonged bleeding, the procedure took 65 minutes longer than usual. The modifier that should be reported is ____________.
answer
22
question
Using a CPT manual, select the correct modifier to use the following case: Dr Won, a radiologist, interpreted a cervical X-ray of the spine. The modifier that should be reported is ________________.
answer
26
question
Using a CPT manual, select the correct modifier to use the following case: Dr Woks, performed the postoperative care for a surgical patient. The modifier that should be reported is modifier _____________.
answer
55
question
Modifier _________ is used to report a decision for surgery.
answer
57
question
E4 is a modifier for what?
answer
lower right eyelid
question
F8 modifier is for what?
answer
right hand 4th digit
question
P1 is a modifier for what?
answer
normal healthy patient
question
P5 is a modifier for what?
answer
a moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the surgery
question
GC is a modifier for what?
answer
This service was performed in part by a resident under the direction of a teaching physician.
question
Evaluation and management codes are used to code surgical procedures.
answer
false
question
A new patient, as defined by CPT is a patient who has not received professional services from a physician, or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past 3 years. True or False
answer
true
question
A chief complaint is the reason for the patient encounter.
answer
true
question
T/F Social history includes information regarding the patient's and patient's family's marital status, occupation, sexual history, or other social factors.
answer
false
question
T/F A detailed examination is the highest level of examination and consists of a multi-system or complete examination of the single organ system.
answer
false
question
Information regarding major illnesses, surgeries, injuries, and hospitalizations is part of the _____________________________.
answer
past history of the patient
question
The objective portion of a "SOAP" note contains the:
answer
exam of the patient
question
Constitutional elements of an examination include all EXCEPT which of the following?
answer
inspection of the eyes
question
Medical decision making is based on all the following EXCEPT:
answer
examination of the patient
question
Which of the following is NOT considered a key component when selecting an evaluation and management code?
answer
coordination of care
question
A chronological description of the patient's present illness is the ______________.
answer
history of present illness
question
A complete PFSH includes:
answer
past patient history, family history, social history
question
Which of the following codes would NOT be reported for an inpatient hospital encounter?
answer
99213
question
Which of the following would be reported in a clinic?
answer
99214
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE in regard to an emergency department service code?
answer
A distinction is made between new and established patients.
question
An E and M nursing facility service involving an annual nursing facility assessment which requires a detailed interval history, comprehensive examination and medical decision making that is of low to moderate complexity is reported with code _______________.
answer
99318
question
A home visit E and M service that involved a problem focused history and examination of a new patient and straightforward medical decision making would be reported with code _____________.
answer
99341
question
A smoking and tobacco use cessation counseling visit of 15 minutes would be reported with code _______________.
answer
99407
question
Dr Jones is the admitting physician for patient Sally Smith. On the first day of hospitalization Dr Jones completes a comprehensive history and examination, and the medical decision making is of moderate complexity.
answer
99222
question
Mr Hinds is a patient in the ICU who is listed in critical condition. Because of his condition, Dr Jones spends 1 hour in the evaluation of the patient and this is documented in the chart. During this time, Dr Jones reviewed X-rays that were taken, reviewed ECGs, and performed ventilation management
answer
99291
question
Define the term observation status.
answer
The patient has NOT been admitted to the hospital as an inpatient, but needs to be admitted under "observation" for assessment.
question
List and define the 3 Rs that are used for consultation codes.
answer
Request-dr receives request from another dr to see patient Render-dr renders an opinion Response or Report-dr responds to initial/requesting dr via written report
question
Differentiate between the hospital discharge codes 99238 and 99239.
answer
99238 is for discharge day 30 minutes or less 99239 is for discharge day more than 30 minutes
question
T/F Anesthesia is administered to patient to relieve pain and to perform surgery. True or False
answer
true
question
T/F Medicare requires the use of the CPT anesthesia codes to bill for anesthesia services. True or False
answer
true
question
T/F When locating CPT codes for anesthesia, the main terms to reference would be "Surgery", then "Anesthesia".
answer
false
question
T/F The American Medical Association publishes the Relative Value Guide for the anesthesia codes. True or False
answer
false
question
T/F Anesthesiologists bill for their services separately from the surgery charges. True or False
answer
true
question
A certified registered nurse anesthetist is a registered nurse with ___________ months of additional training in anesthesiology.
answer
36
question
When an anesthetic agent is administered directly into the bloodstream, it is known as ________________.
answer
injection
question
The history and exam performed by the anesthesiology staff is part of which component of care?
answer
preoperative care
question
During the administration of anesthesia, the case was complicated by emergency conditions. They type of code to report this occurrence with an addition to the anesthesia code would be __________________.
answer
qualifying circumstance code
question
An anesthesiologist performed a history and physical exam that took 20 minutes to complete. The procedure required 80 minutes of anesthesia time. The time units used by the insurance company are calculated in 20 minute increments. How many units of time would be reported for this procedure?
answer
4
question
Select the appropriate anesthesia CPT code(s). Patient: Tom Smith Age: 6 months Anesthesia: General Procedure: Hernia repair, lower abdomen
answer
00834
question
Select the appropriate anesthesia CPT code(s). Anesthesia: General Procedure: Closed reduction of femur, lower one-third
answer
01340
question
Select the appropriate anesthesia CPT code(s). Diganosis: Morbid obesity Anesthesia: General Procedure: Gastric bypass and restriction
answer
00797
question
Select the appropriate anesthesia CPT code(s). Anesthesia: General Procedure: Second-degree burn excision with skin grafting for TBSA of 8 percent
answer
01952
question
Select the appropriate anesthesia CPT code(s). Anesthesia: General Procedure: Amniocentesis
answer
00842
question
Select the appropriate anesthesia CPT code(s). Anesthesia: Regional Procedure: Corneal transplant
answer
00144
question
T/F The Surgery chapter of the CPT manual is arranged by body system and types of procedures.
answer
true
question
T/F Diagnostic procedures are completed to treat an established diagnosis. True or False
answer
false
question
T/F Unbundling of codes is an accurate manner in which to report two procedures that are performed on the same date of service. True or False
answer
false
question
T/F Fine needle aspiration is a type of aspiration by which a fine needle is inserted into the body site and then fluid is drawn from the site. True or False
answer
true
question
T/F A biopsy is a procedure in which a sampling of tissue is removed for pathological examination. True or False
answer
true
question
A(n) ________________ repair would be used to report a layered closure or to report extensive cleansing of a wound that is heavily contaminated.
answer
intermediate
question
A(n) ________ graft is a type of graft where tissue is taken from one part of a person's body and grafted to another part of the same person's body.
answer
autogenous
question
Cryosurgery, electrosurgery, and chemosurgery are all forms of _______________.
answer
destructions
question
Dr Smith performed an incision and removal of a foreign body on the left arm int he subcutanous layer of the skin. The correct code to report is ____________.
answer
10120
question
Which code is used to report a 12.8 cm simple repair of superficial wound of the neck?
answer
12005
question
A procedure, completed to clean a wound site, that involves the removal of dirt or foreign objects along with tissue that may be necrotic or damaged is called ___________________.
answer
debridement
question
A cutting instrument, called a(n) _________________, is used for debridements and for skin grafting.
answer
dermatome
question
Common sites for skin tags include the axillae, ___________, and inguinal areas.
answer
neck
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Diagnosis: Lesion on left upper arm area Procedure: Excision of 1 cm lesion, total excised diameter was 1.5 cm. Pathology: Malignant
answer
11602-LT
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Procedure: Fine needle aspiration with imaging guidance
answer
10022
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Diagnosis: Multiple lacerations Procedures: 2.2 cm intermediate repair of laceration of arm, 3.5 cm complex repair of laceration of forehead, and 3.4 cm intermediate repair of laceration of scalp
answer
13132 and 12032
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Diagnosis: Second- and third-degree burns of 15% of total body surface Procedure: Subsequent dressing and debridement of partial-thickness burns
answer
16030
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Procedure: Removal of tissue expander
answer
11971
question
T/F Chapter 6 When imaging guidance is used to complete an injection made into a joint or bursa, additional CPT code(s) should be assigned to report the imaging guidance if the imagine guidance is not included in the primary CPT code .
answer
true
question
T/F The application of force to a limb using felt that is appllied to the skin is known as skeletal traction.
answer
false
question
Reduction, also known as _________________ , is completed to realign a bone.
answer
manipulation
question
ORIF is the abbreviation for ______________________________________________.
answer
open reduction internal fixation
question
A(n) ____________________ is an endoscopic instrument used to visualize the interior structures of a joint.
answer
arthroscope
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Procedure: Deep, open bone biopsy of femur
answer
20245
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Diagnosis: Fracture of greater humeral tuberosity Procedure: Closed treatment with reduction of fracture
answer
23625
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Procedure: Arthrodesis of metacarpophalangeal joint with internal fixation
answer
26850
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Sharon Jones was in a motor vehicle accident and sustained a fracture of the ulna that required the placement of an external fixation device. Today, Dr Bones is removing the external fixation device under anesthesia.
answer
20694
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Diagnosis: Trigger finger Procedure: Incision of tendon sheath
answer
26055
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Radical resection of a malignant tumor of the soft tissue of the pelvis and hip area, 4 cm
answer
27049
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Shoulder arthroscopy with lysis of and resection of adhesions
answer
29825
question
Select the appropriate surgery CPT code(s). Endoscopic plantar fasciotomy
answer
29893
question
When modifier 22, unusual procedural services, is reported, an insurance company may require a special report to be completed. List two items that would be reported on the special report.
answer
Complete description of procedure performed. The reason the service fell outside the parameters of the CPT code description. The time, effort, and equipment used during the procedure. The complexity of the case, describing the patient's condition and symptoms occurring during the procedure. The preop and postop diagnoses. Pertinent physical findings that impacted the case and procedure. Any diagnostic or therapeutic services that were rendered in association with the procedure. Concurrent diagnosis(es), symptoms, and problems that were present. The anticipated follow-up care.