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Combo with Bio 101 and 4 others

question

What are the main energy products of respiration?
answer

ATP
question

In what kind of organisms does the process of respiration occur?
answer

All organisms, plants, animals, bacteria and protozoa.
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What are the three parts of respiration?
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Glycolysis->Transition->Krebs
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What is the beginning product of respiration?
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Glucose
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What is the end product of glycolysis?
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Pyruvic acid or Pyruvate C3H6O3
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What is the end product of anaerobic respiration?
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Lactic Acid
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What is the end product of fermentation?
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Carbon Dioxide and Ethyl alcohol (CO2, C2H5OH)
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Which is more efficient? Aerobic or anaerobic respiration?
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Aerobic Respiration yields 38 ATP’s, anaerobic yields 2 ATP
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How many molecules of ATP are generated in each of the three parts of respiration?
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Glycolysis-8 ATP’s Transition-6 ATP’s Krebs -24 ATP’s
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What part of respiration occurs in the cytoplasm what part occurs in the mitochondria?
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Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm, transition starts in the cytoplasm and ends in the mitochondrion. Krebs is completely in the mitochondrion.
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What happens to 60% of the energy released in respiration but not trapped in ATP?
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It is released as heat.
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How many molecules of ATP are generated in each of the three parts of respiration?
answer

Glycolysis-8 ATP’s Transition- 6 ATP’s Krebs —-24 ATP’s
question

The release of oxygen in photosynthesis is derived from what input material?
answer

Oxygen comes from the water molecule
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How many molecules of NADP are needed to supply hydrogens to the Calvin cycle
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Twelve (12) molecules of NADP are needed to supply the twelve hydrogens to the Calvin cycle
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How many water molecules are used up to manufacture a single glucose molecule?
answer

Six water molecules go into the glucose molecule another six are used to manufacture ATP, in all twelve molecules go in and six come out.
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How many ATPs’ are used in the Calvin cycle to manufacture a single glucose
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Eighteen (18) molecules of ATP are used up.
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What is the function of coenzyme A
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Coenzyme A is a non protein enzyme and its job is to take the two carbon fragment, Acetyl, into the mitochondrion
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How many ATPs are produced per cycle of the Krebs?
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Twelve ATPs are produced per cycle (per Acetyl) and two (2 Acetyls) cycles create twenty-four ATPs from each glucose
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How many carbons in Acetyl, Pyruvic acid, Lactic acid and Carbon Dioxide
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Acetyl – 2 carbons Pyruvic acid – 3 carbons Lactic acid – 3 carbons Carbon Dioxide – 1 carbon
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For each pair of protons and electrons how many ATPs are produced
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Three ATPs are produced
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What is the meaning of the statement “correlation does not imply causation”? A. Just because two variables vary in a similar pattern does not mean that changing one variable causes a change in the other. B. It is not possible to demonstrate a correlation between two variables. C. When a change in one variable causes a change in another variable, the two variables are not necessarily related to each other in any way. D. It is not possible to prove the cause of any naturally occurring phenomenon. E. Just because two variables vary in a similar pattern does not mean that they have any relationship to each other.
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A. Just because two variables vary in a similar pattern does not mean that changing one variable causes a change in the other.
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Which of the following issues would be least helped by application of the scientific method? A. developing more effective high school curricula B. evaluating the relationship between violence in videogames and criminal behavior in teens C. determining the most effective safety products for automobiles D. formulating public policy on euthanasia E. comparing the effectiveness of two potential antibiotics
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D. formulating public policy on euthanasia
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A relationship between phenomena that has been established based on large amounts of observational and experimental data is referred to as: A. a theory. B. a fact. C. an assumption. D. a conjecture. E. a hypothesis.
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A. a theory.
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Anecdotal evidence: A. is a more efficient method for understanding the world than the scientific method. B. tends to be more reliable than data based on observations of large numbers of diverse individuals. C. is a necessary part of the scientific method. D. is often the only way to prove important causal links between two phenomena. E. can seem to reveal links between two phenomena, but the links may not actually exist.
answer

E. can seem to reveal links between two phenomena, but the links may not actually exist.
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Statistical methods make it possible to: A. prove any hypothesis is true. B. determine how likely it is that certain results have occurred by chance. C. unambiguously learn the truth. D. reject any hypothesis. E. test non-falsifiable hypotheses.
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B. determine how likely it is that certain results have occurred by chance.
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An independent variable: A. can cause a change in a dependent variable. B. is generally less variable than a dependent variable. C. is plotted on the y-axis in a line graph. D. can be controlled less well than a dependent variable. E. is typically of greater interest to the experimenter than a dependent variable.
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A. can cause a change in a dependent variable.
question

You hear the males of a particular bird species calling in their natural environment and question why they call. You design an experiment to try to answer your question. You cage one male bird and record his calling rate in response to four treatments, varying the number of conspecific (of the same species) males and the number of conspecific females that the male subject can see. The treatments are: no conspecific birds; 10 conspecific males; 10 conspecific females; 5 conspecific males and 5 conspecific females. Your results are: the rate at which the male subject calls is the same across all four treatments. Which of the following is a null hypothesis that your experimental design could reject? A. Males of the species do not call. B. Males of the species call more often than do females. C. Males of the species call at a rate that is independent of the sex composition of the audience. D. Males of the species call less often than do females. E. Males of the species call when called to.
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C.Males of the species call at a rate that is independent of the sex composition of the audience.
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If a researcher collects data by using the same experimental setup as in another study, but using different research subjects, the process is considered: A. an uncontrolled experiment. B. intuitive reasoning. C. extrapolation. D. replication. E. exploration.
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D. replication.
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A _____________ is a pill that looks identical to a pill that contains the active ingredient in a scientific trial, but contains no active ingredient itself. A. tablet B. barbiturate C. placebo D. capsule E. treatment
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C. placebo
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Some have claimed that the herb echinacea reduces the likelihood of catching the common cold. In many hundreds of studies, this claim has been refuted. Assuming these studies were properly conducted, which of the following is a scientifically responsible claim that an echinacea advocate could make in support of further research on this subject. A. The effective dosage of echinacea was outside the range of the dosages given in the scientific studies. B. The investigators were paid off by the drug companies. C. The effective length of time needed for taking echinacea is longer than that provided in any of the scientific studies. D. All of the above are scientifically responsible claims that an echinacea advocate could make in support of further research on this subject. E. Only a) and c) are scientifically responsible claims that an echinacea advocate could make in support of further research on this subject.
answer

E. Only a) and c) are scientifically responsible claims that an echinacea advocate could make in support of further research on this subject.
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Which of the following is the BEST way to state the relationship between “data” and “results”? A. “Data” are the facts you collect from your experiment, while “results” are your interpretation of what the data mean. B. Any two scientists reporting the same “results” must have been using the same “data.” C. “Data” and “results” are two names for the same thing. D. The “data” section should always come before the “results” section in a scientific paper. E. Any two scientists examining the same “data” would draw the same “results.”
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A. “Data” are the facts you collect from your experiment, while “results” are your interpretation of what the data mean.
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Scientific theories do not represent speculations or guesses about the natural world. Rather they are hypotheses—proposed explanations for natural phenomena—that have been: A. found to be statistically significant. B. used to support the political stances of the scientists that have developed them. C. validated by the International Board of Scientific Theories. D. verified by at least one critical experiment. E. so strongly and persuasively supported by empirical observation that the scientific community views them as unlikely to be altered by new evidence.
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E. so strongly and persuasively supported by empirical observation that the scientific community views them as unlikely to be altered by new evidence.
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In controlled experiments: A. one variable is manipulated while others are held constant. B. all variables are held constant. C. all critical variables are manipulated. D. all variables are dependent on each other. E. all variables are independent of each other.
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A. one variable is manipulated while others are held constant.
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In a randomized, controlled, double-blind study: A. experimental subjects are blind-folded when given the experimental treatment. B. individuals will be assigned to an experimental or control group depending on whether they took part in a pilot study. C. all experimental variables are held constant. D. neither the experimenter nor the subject know whether the subject is in a control group or an experimental group. E. All of the above.
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D. neither the experimenter nor the subject know whether the subject is in a control group or an experimental group.
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An experimental condition applied to research subjects is called a: A. control. B. treatment. C. variable. D. randomization. E. placebo.
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B. treatment.
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Which of the following is the BEST description of a control group in an experiment? A. The control group is identical to each test group except for one variable. B. The control group is a test group that is chosen at random. C. There should be more than one control group in any experiment. D. The control group and the test groups may have several differences between them. E. There can be more than one difference between the control group and test groups, but not several differences or else the experiment is invalid.
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A. The control group is identical to each test group except for one variable.
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In a scientific study, the dependent variable is: A. a measurable entity whose value can be changed and set at the start of an experiment. B. an entity that cannot be measured directly; it must be calculated based on the value of another variable. C. a measurable entity whose value always fluctuates up and down, closely following changes in another variable. D. a measurable, non-controllable entity whose value is created by the process being observed. E. a variable in a study that is kept constant.
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C. a measurable entity whose value always fluctuates up and down, closely following changes in another variable.
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In a line graph, the value of the independent variable is: A. represented as long lines extending from the right side of the graph. B. represented on the x-axis. C. represented on the y-axis. D. represented as “slices in a pie.” E. represented as bars extending from the y-axis.
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B. represented on the x-axis.
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Visual displays, such as graphs, are used in scientific presentations because: A. they obscure embarrassing errors and mistakes in the data. B. they are the form in which data is recorded during an actual experiment. C. they allow for easier comparisons between data sets than do data tables. D. they condense large amounts of information into an easily digested form. E. Both c) and d) are correct.
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E. Both c) and d) are correct.
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If a report states, “the female subjects in the study are 5 feet 6 inches ± 3 inches,” this indicates that: A. 90% of the women are between 5 feet 3 inches and 5 feet 9 inches. B. the variation among all women is 3 inches in height. C. all of the women are between 5 feet 3 inches and 5 feet 9 inches. D. two thirds of the women are between 5 feet 3 inches and 5 feet 9 inches. E. the investigator is unsure of her data.
answer

D. two thirds of the women are between 5 feet 3 inches and 5 feet 9 inches.
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The set of analytical and mathematical tools designed to help researchers gain understanding from the data they gather is called: A. experimentation. B. statistics. C. geometry. D. genetics. E. biology.
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B. statistics.
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In a series of studies, researchers found a statistically significant positive correlation between the number of fire fighters present at a fire and the amount of damage that the fire does. Which of the following is the BEST conclusion to be drawn from these studies? A. Statistical data must be put in its proper context to be understood. B. To more accurately estimate the effect of the number of fire fighters on the amount of damage, we would need to compare the amount of damage from fires of different sizes that are fought by similar numbers of fire fighters. C. Fire fighters make fires worse. D. Causation is not correlation. E. Fire fighters are effective in fighting fires.
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A. Statistical data must be put in its proper context to be understood.
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The atomic number of carbon is 6. Its nucleus must contain: A. 6 neutrons and 6 protons. B. 3 protons and 3 neutrons. C. 6 neutrons and no electrons. D. 6 protons and no electrons. E. 6 protons and 6 electrons.
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A. 6 neutrons and 6 protons.
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The second orbital shell of an atom can hold ___ electrons. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 8
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E. 8
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A covalent bond is formed when: A. two non-polar molecules associate with each other in a polar environment. B. a positively charged particle is attracted to a negatively charged particle. C. one atom gives up electrons to another atom. D. two atoms share electrons. E. two polar molecules associate with each other in a non-polar environment.
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D. two atoms share electrons.
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An element: A. is a substance that cannot be broken down chemically into any other substance. B. is an atom that has lost either a proton or an electron. C. must occur naturally on earth somewhere. D. is a component of an atom. E. All of the above are true.
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A. is a substance that cannot be broken down chemically into any other substance.
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The nucleus of an atom is usually made up of: A. protons, neutrons, and proteins that hold them together. B. protons, which have a positive electrical charge, and proteins, which hold them together. C. neutrons, which have no electrical charge. D. neutrinos, which have no electrical charge. E. protons, which a positive charge, and neutrons, which have no electrical charge.
answer

E. protons, which a positive charge, and neutrons, which have no electrical charge.
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Relative to protons: A. electrons have approximately the same mass. B. electrons have a significantly stronger positive charge. C. electrons have significantly greater mass. D. electrons have significantly less mass. E. None of the above; electrons have no mass.
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D. electrons have significantly less mass.
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The four most abundant elements in living organisms are: A. sodium, nitrogen, carbon, and silicon. B. carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and calcium. C. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and phosphorus. D. carbon, nitrogen, potassium, and oxygen. E. hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon.
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E. hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon.
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All matter on earth, both living and non-living, is made up of: A. carbohydrates. B. atoms. C. DNA. D. cells. E. phospholipids.
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B. atoms.
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Some atoms of an element contain more neutrons or fewer neutrons than the most commonly found “version” of the atoms for that element. These “alternate versions” of the standard atom are called: A. radioactive elements. B. atomic variants. C. decayed nuclei. D. isotopes. E. analogs.
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D. isotopes.
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Which of the following elements have four electrons in their outer shells? A. carbon and silicon B. nitrogen and phosphorus C. fluorine and chlorine D. oxygen and sulfur E. boron and aluminum
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A. carbon and silicon
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An atom can be changed into an ion by adding or removing: A. a neutron. B. an orbital shell. C. an electron. D. a proton. E. an isotope.
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C. an electron.
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Helium is not a reactive molecule because: A. its first-level shell is full with two protons. B. its second-level shell is full with two electrons. C. its first-level shell is full with two neutrons. D. its first-level shell is full with two electrons. E. Helium is a reactive molecule.
answer

D. its first-level shell is full with two electrons.
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Which of the following molecules is NOT formed by covalent bonding? A. NaCl B. H2 C. H2O D. CH4 E. O2
answer

A. NaCl
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One important difference between covalent and ionic bonds is that: A. in covalent bonds two atoms share electrons while in ionic bonds two atoms of opposite charge are attracted to each other. B. ionic bonds only occur among water-soluble elements. C. in ionic bonds two atoms share electrons, while in covalent bonds one atom gives one or more electrons to the other atom. D. in ionic bonds both protons and electrons can be shared while in covalent bonds only electrons can be shared. E. ionic bonds are much stronger than covalent bonds.
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A. in covalent bonds two atoms share electrons while in ionic bonds two atoms of opposite charge are attracted to each other.
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Water molecules form which type of bond with other water molecules? A. disulfide bridges B. ionic bonds C. hydrogen bonds D. covalent bonds E. atomic bonds
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C. hydrogen bonds
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The tendency of molecules to stick together, called cohesion, is stronger in water than in other liquids because: A. the polarity of water allows an oxygen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule. B. the polarity of water allows a hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule. C. the polarity of water allows a hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form an ionic bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule. D. the polarity of water allows a hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the hydrogen atom of another water molecule. E. the polarity of water allows a hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a covalent bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.
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B. the polarity of water allows a hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.
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The most abundant molecule in the cell is: A. cellulose. B. oxygen. C. water. D. carbohydrate. E. carbon dioxide.
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C. water.
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Why do coastal areas have milder, less variable climates than inland areas? A. Because water is a good solvent, it is able to dissolve the photons in light, reducing their ability to heat or cool the land. B. Large bodies of water have high salt concentrations and salt absorbs a large proportion of the light energy that would have warmed the land. C. Coastal areas are concentrated near the equator, which varies less than other parts of the globe in the angle at which the sun’s light hits it. D. Large bodies of water, especially oceans, can absorb huge amounts of heat from the sun during warm times of the year, reducing temperature increases on the land. Similarly, during cold times of year the ocean slowly cools, giving off heat that reduces the temperature drop on shore. E. None of the above. No one knows why coastal areas have milder, less variable climates than inland areas.
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D. Large bodies of water, especially oceans, can absorb huge amounts of heat from the sun during warm times of the year, reducing temperature increases on the land. Similarly, during cold times of year the ocean slowly cools, giving off heat that reduces the temperature drop on shore.
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Which of the following is NOT a property of water? A. It is less dense when frozen than when it’s a liquid. B. It is a good solvent because both polar and nonpolar molecules dissolve in it. C. It takes a lot of energy to raise the temperature of water. D. Water molecules stick to each other. E. A lot of energy must be withdrawn from water in order to lower its temperature.
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B. It is a good solvent because both polar and nonpolar molecules dissolve in it.
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Which of the following statements BEST explains the observation that there are more autism cases now than in the past? A. There are more parents who neglect their children, which is a cause of autism, now than in the past. B. Autism has been selected for in recent generations by natural selection. C. The vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella has been established as a significant cause of autism. D. Doctors are more aware of the condition and have better techniques for diagnosing and reporting it. E. All of the above are equally good explanations for the observation that there are more autism cases now than in the past.
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D. Doctors are more aware of the condition and have better techniques for diagnosing and reporting it.
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All of the following are branches of biology EXCEPT: A. ecology. B. evolution. C. geology. D. genetics. E. behavior.
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C. geology.
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Which of the following areas is NOT heavily influenced by biology? A. environmental issues B. agriculture C. criminology D. behavioral issues E. Biology heavily influences ALL of these areas.
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E. Biology heavily influences ALL of these areas.
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Which of the following is NOT of central importance to the study of biology? A. evolution B. the hierarchical organization of life C. the scientific method D. the technical application of research findings E. All of the above are of central importance to the study of biology.
answer

D. the technical application of research findings
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Carbohydrates: A. act as a relatively quickly available source of fuel. B. serve as carbon skeletons that can be rearranged to form other molecules that are essential for biological structures and functions like nucleic acids. C. in the form of oligosaccharides are often covalently bonded to proteins and lipids on the outer cell surface, where they serve as cell recognition signals. D. are a good source of sustained energy when they come in the form of polysaccharides. E. All of the above.
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D. are a good source of sustained energy when they come in the form of polysaccharides.
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Which of the following are all monosaccharides? A. glucose, fructose, and galactose B. starch, cellulose, and glycogen C. fructuse and cellulose D. glucose and maltose E. glycogen and glucose
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A. glucose, fructose, and galactose
question

Glucose that circulates in your blood has one of three fates: it is used to fuel cellular activities, it can be converted into fat, or it can _______. A. be stored temporarily as glycogen B. be converted into starch C. be converted into fructose and linked together D. serve as a buffer E. be broken down into simple sugars
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A. be stored temporarily as glycogen
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Glycogen belongs in the class of molecules known as: A. amino acids. B. monosaccharides. C. proteins. D. polysaccharides. E. nucleic acids.
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D. polysaccharides.
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Sucrose (table sugar) and lactose (the sugar found in milk) are examples of: A. simple sugars. B. polyunsaccharide sugars. C. disaccharides. D. monosaccharides. E. naturally occurring enzymes.
answer

C. disaccharides.
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All lipids are: A. polymers of fatty acids. B. not soluble in water. C. triglycerides. D. polar. E. hydrophilic.
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B. not soluble in water.
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An unsaturated fatty acid is one in which: A. carbon-carbon double bonds are present in the hydrocarbon chain. B. not all of the carbons in the hydrocarbon chain are bonded to hydrogen atoms. C. there are an odd number of subunits in the hydrocarbon chain. D. there are an even number of subunits in the hydrocarbon chain. E. carbon-carbon double bonds are not present in the hydrocarbon chain.
answer

A. carbon-carbon double bonds are present in the hydrocarbon chain.
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Which statement about phospholipids is FALSE? A. They are hydrophilic at one end. B. They contain glycerol linked to fatty acids. C. They are a major constituent of cell membranes. D. They are hydrophobic on one end. E. Because their phosphate groups repel each other, they are used as organisms’ chief form of short-term energy.
answer

E. Because their phosphate groups repel each other, they are used as organisms’ chief form of short-term energy.
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Which of the following is a common role that sterols play in the human body? A. They are used as energy storage molecules. B. They are important components of cell membranes. C. They are used as primary fuel molecules for cellular metabolism. D. When eaten in the diet, they help prevent heart disease by lowering blood pressure. E. None of the above is true about sterols.
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E. None of the above is true about sterols.
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All of the following are roles played by protein in the body EXCEPT: A. structural support. B. muscular contraction. C. protection against invading organisms. D. oxygen transport. E. transmission of electrical impulses.
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E. transmission of electrical impulses.
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All of the following are components of a single amino acid EXCEPT: A. an alpha carbon. B. a variable side chain. C. a nitrogen-containing amino group. D. a carboxyl group. E. All of the above are components of a single amino acid.
answer

E. All of the above are components of a single amino acid.
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In dietary terms, a “complete” protein is one that: A. contains all 20 amino acids. B. contains all of the essential amino acids. C. can serve in a variety of cellular functions, like as an enzyme, oxygen transporter, etc. D. contains carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids as well. E. stays intact as it travels through your digestive system.
answer

B. contains all of the essential amino acids.
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Which of the following statements is NOT true of amino acids? A. They come in polar, non-polar, and electrically charged forms. B. They combine to form polypeptides. C. They combine to form proteins. D. They are organic molecules possessing both carboxyl and amino groups. E. They are distinguished from each other by variation in their carboxyl groups.
answer

E. They are distinguished from each other by variation in their carboxyl groups.
question

A polypeptide chain is a linear polymer of amino acids. Peptide bonds are present between which of the two following groups? A. the carbon atom of the carboxyl group and the oxygen atom double-bonded to it B. the carbon atom of the carboxyl group and the adjacent carbon atom of the chain’s backbone C. the carbon atom of the carboxyl group and the nitrogen atom of the amino group D. the carbon atom of the carboxyl group and the OH bound to it E. All of the above are true.
answer

C. the carbon atom of the carboxyl group and the nitrogen atom of the amino group
question

The secondary structure of a protein refers to: A. the linear assembly of amino acids into a chain. B. the way two or more polypeptides bind to each other. C. the twisting of the amino acid chain into a corkscrew-like shape or into a zigzag folding pattern. D. the configuration of the folded protein when bound to other proteins. E. None of the above is correct.
answer

C. the twisting of the amino acid chain into a corkscrew-like shape or into a zigzag folding pattern.
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Enzymes: A. catalyze reactions that release energy, but not those that consume energy. B. sometimes increase the amount of energy necessary to initiate a reaction. C. reduce the energy released by a reaction by one of four different mechanisms. D. are always consumed by catalyzing a reaction. E. increase the rate at which a reaction occurs.
answer

E. increase the rate at which a reaction occurs.
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Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true? A. Enzymes are permanently changed when they take place in a chemical reaction. B. Enzymes are proteins. C. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. D. Enzymes often induce shape changes in the molecules to which they bind. E. Enzymes help initiate chemical reactions.
answer

A. Enzymes are permanently changed when they take place in a chemical reaction.
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Phosphate groups are important components of: A. triglycerides. B. nucleic acids. C. amino acids. D. structural polysaccharides. E. All of the above are correct.
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B. nucleic acids.
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DNA is made of: A. nucleotides. B. four interconnected carbon rings. C. amino acids. D. glucose molecules. E. fatty acids.
answer

A. nucleotides.
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An amino acid is to a polypeptide as: A. testosterone is to a steroid hormone. B. a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid. C. triglycerides are to fats. D. a phospholipid is to a plasma membrane. E. glycogen is to glucose.
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B. a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid.
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Which type of macromolecule is an informational molecule? A. DNA B. fatty acid C. protein D. polysaccharide E. monosaccharide
answer

A. DNA
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Which of the following nucleotide bases are present in equal amounts in DNA? A. thymine and cytosine B. adenine and guanine C. adenine and cytosine D. thymine and guanine E. adenine and thymine
answer

E. adenine and thymine
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Phenylketonuria is an inherited disorder. Affected individuals have a defective enzyme called phenylalanine hydroxylase. The substance these individuals cannot break down is a(n): A. protein. B. carbohydrate. C. nucleic acid. D. lipid. E. amino acid.
answer

E. amino acid.
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Which of the following would influence the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction? A. substrate concentration B. temperature C. pH D. presence of inhibitors or activators E. All of the above influence enzymatic rate.
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E. All of the above influence enzymatic rate.
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Which of the following is NOT true of ALL cells? A. They eliminate wastes. B. They assimilate nutrients. C. They move by means of flagella or cilia. D. They have DNA as their genetic material. E. They synthesize new cellular material.
answer

C. They move by means of flagella or cilia.
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Which statement is NOT part of modern cell theory? A. All living organisms consist of one or more cells. B. The first cell arrived on earth from outer space. C. Cellular reactions include both energy-releasing and biosynthetic types. D. Cells contain hereditary information that passes from one generation of cells to the next. E. Cells arise from other cells.
answer

B. The first cell arrived on earth from outer space.
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Which of the following is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Golgi apparatus B. ribosome C. centriole D. lysosome E. peroxisome
answer

B. ribosome
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Prokaryotic organisms lack: A. replicator molecules (DNA or RNA). B. cell membranes. C. metabolism. D. organelles. E. All of the above.
answer

D. organelles.
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What are the two distinct “faces” of the phospholipids that make up the surface membrane of a cell? A. a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail B. a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail C. a phosphate group head and two fatty acid tails D. Both a) and c) are correct. E. Both b) and c) are correct.
answer

D. Both a) and c) are correct.
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Which cellular structure makes it possible for a cell to differ structurally and biochemically from its surroundings? A. nucleolus B. nucleus C. plasma membrane D. cell wall E. endoplasmic reticulum
answer

C. plasma membrane
question

Beta-blockers do all of the following EXCEPT: A. block signaling through adrenaline receptors. B. reduce outward symptoms of anxiety. C. bind to the cytoplasmic side of a receptor protein. D. reduce high blood pressure. E. reduce the effects of adrenaline on the heart.
answer

C. bind to the cytoplasmic side of a receptor protein.
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Which of the following is the most important factor governing a cell’s particular type of interaction with other cells A. the type of animal the cell came from B. the location of the cell within an organism C. whether the cell is either an animal cell or a plant cell D. the pattern of proteins on the cell’s surface E. whether the cell is either eukaryotic or prokaryotic
answer

D. the pattern of proteins on the cell’s surface
question

The net movement of molecules from locally concentrated regions to uniform distributions is best described as: A. active transport. B. passive transport. C. diffusion. D. enthalpy. E. concentration gradient.
answer

C. diffusion.
question

Which of the following BEST defines diffusion? A. net movement of particles between cells B. net movement of fluids from the environment into and out of an organism C. net movement of particles from a cell into the extracellular matrix D. net movement of particles from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration E. net movement of particles from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration
answer

E. net movement of particles from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration
question

In aquatic environments, water moves _____________. A. down the water-concentration scale B. against the water-concentration gradient C. up the water-concentration scale D. down the water-concentration gradient E. up the water-concentration gradient
answer

D. down the water-concentration gradient
question

You are bored at a lunch meeting and surreptitiously place a raisin in your glass of water. The raisin swells to twice its original size. Relative to the water, the raisin must have been: A. hypertonic. B. isotonic. C. hypotonic. D. mesotonic. E. osmotic.
answer

A. hypertonic.
question

You measure the concentration of a polar molecule inside and outside of a cell. You find that the concentration is high and gradually increasing inside the cell. You also measure the ATP concentration inside the cell and find that it is dropping. What would be your best hypothesis for the process that is occurring? A. facilitated diffusion B. active transport C. endocytosis D. passive transport E. simple diffusion
answer

A. facilitated diffusion
question

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria, and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar, which _______________ converts to ATP, the “fuel” used by all living things. A. speciation B. adaptation C. denaturation D. cellular respiration E. eutrophication
answer

D. cellular respiration
question

Life gains most of its energy from: A. water. B. sunlight. C. sugar molecules. D. oxygen. E. carbohydrate molecules.
answer

B. sunlight.
question

A cyclist rides her bike up a very steep hill. Pick from the following choices the one that properly describes this example in energetic terms. A. Potential energy in food is converted to kinetic energy as muscles push the cyclist up the hill. B. Kinetic energy is highest when the cyclist is at the crest of the hill. C. The cyclist produces the most potential energy as she cruises down the hill’s steep slope. D. Gravity provides a source of potential energy. E. Both a) and d) are correct.
answer

E. Both a) and d) are correct.
question

Within the study of thermodynamics, a closed system is defined as a system in which energy does not come in and energy does not go out. Which of the following is considered a closed system? A. the universe B. the earth C. an ocean D. a living organism’s body E. All of the above are examples of closed systems.
answer

A. the universe
question

Each ATP molecule is composed of three separate subunits. Which of the following is NOT a proper description of one of these subunits? A. three carbon-nitrogen rings B. an adenine C. a five-carbon sugar D. a triphosphate group E. a ribose
answer

A. three carbon-nitrogen rings
question

The phosphate groups in ATP: A. are covalently bonded to each other. B. represent a significant source of stored energy. C. are negatively charged. D. release energy when separated from the rest of the molecule. E. All of the above are correct.
answer

E. All of the above are correct.
question

Which of the following is NOT a product of photosynthesis? A. glucose B. oxygen C. sugars D. carbon dioxide E. None of the above; all are products of photosynthesis.
answer

D. carbon dioxide
question

A green plant can carry out photosynthesis if given nothing more than: A. water. B. light. C. water, light, and air. D. water and light. E. air.
answer

C. water, light, and air.
question

Which by-product of photosynthesis was important in altering the atmosphere of the earth so that aerobic organisms could evolve? A. air B. methane gas C. nitrogen D. carbon dioxide E. oxygen
answer

E. oxygen
question

Carotenoids: A. are primary pigments in certain plants and algae chloroplasts that fix carbon in place of chlorophyll. B. are the organelles in a leaf cell in which photosynthesis occurs. C. are the stacks of thylakoid membranes in a chloroplast. D. are the organelles in a leaf cell in which respiration occurs. E. are accessory pigments in chloroplasts that protect the chlorophyll by absorbing excessive light energy.
answer

E. are accessory pigments in chloroplasts that protect the chlorophyll by absorbing excessive light energy.
question

Chlorophyll b and the carotenoids are important as receptors of light energy because they: A. can absorb green light. B. transform this energy into chemical energy. C. respond to wavelengths different from the wavelengths that chlorophyll a responds to. D. can respond to infrared and ultraviolet light. E. have their own photosystems.
answer

C. respond to wavelengths different from the wavelengths that chlorophyll a responds to.
question

The most effective portion(s) of the visible spectrum in driving photosynthesis is (are): A. the violet-blue portion. B. the yellow-green portion. C. the red-orange portion. D. Both a) and b) are correct. E. Both a) and c) are correct.
answer

E. Both a) and c) are correct.
question

Biologically speaking, a pigment: A. is a molecule that absorbs carbon dioxide. B. is a cell that fixes carbon. C. is a molecule that absorbs a photon. D. is a molecule that releases oxygen. E. is a cell that absorbs a photon.
answer

C. is a molecule that absorbs a photon.
question

During photosynthesis, visible light has enough energy to directly: A. excite electrons. B. synthesize NADPH. C. convert ADP into ATP. D. reflect light in the red spectrum. E. split a water molecule into hydrogen and oxygen.
answer

A. excite electrons.
question

What are the resulting products of the splitting of water in photosynthesis? A. electrons, oxygen, and hydroxide ions B. electrons, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen ions C. electrons and oxygen only D. electrons, oxygen, and photons E. electrons, oxygen, and hydrogen ions
answer

E. electrons, oxygen, and hydrogen ions
question

Oxygen gas produced during photosynthesis originates as: A. oxygen atoms are released by the metabolism of carbohydrates. B. oxygen atoms contained in carbon dioxide are released when the carbon is fixed. C. a by-product of nitrogen-fixing bacteria. D. a molecule of chlorophyll oxidized by a photon. E. oxygen atoms contained in water molecules.
answer

E. oxygen atoms contained in water molecules.
question

The carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis enters the plant through the: A. stroma. B. stomata. C. grana. D. thylakoid. E. roots.
answer

B. stomata.
question

Cellular respiration is the process by which: A. oxygen is produced during metabolic activity. B. light energy is converted into kinetic energy. C. oxygen is used to transport chemical energy throughout the body. D. energy from the chemical bonds of food molecules is captured by an organism. E. ATP molecules are converted into water and sugar.
answer

D. energy from the chemical bonds of food molecules is captured by an organism.
question

An inherited disease results from abnormal mitochondria passed from mother to child. Using your knowledge of the function of mitochondria within human cells, which of the following is the most likely description of the symptoms of this disease? A. extreme sensitivity to UV light, resulting in skin cancer at a very young age B. fragile bones and arthritis C. extreme muscle weakness D. color blindness E. inability to absorb iron, resulting in extreme anemia
answer

C. extreme muscle weakness
question

Cellular respiration is an efficient process that captures approximately 35% of the energy in glucose. From 1 molecule of glucose, it yields: A. 3 to 4 ATP, depending on the tissue and organism. B. 10 to 12 ATP, depending on the tissue and organism. C. exactly 40 ATP, in every tissue and organism. D. 30 to 32 ATP, depending on the tissue and organism. E. exactly 35 ATP, in every tissue and organism.
answer

D. 30 to 32 ATP, depending on the tissue and organism.
question

A person’s unique DNA is carried within some of the cells and tissues of their body. These include all of the following EXCEPT: A. intestines B. blood. C. skin cells. D. saliva. E. All of the above contain a person’s DNA.
answer

E. All of the above contain a person’s DNA.
question

Double-stranded DNA that contains a high G-C content requires a higher temperature in order to separate the two DNA strands. This is because: A. G-C base pairing involves three hydrogen bonds while A-T pairing involves only two. B. high G-C content makes the DNA less flexible. C. DNA with a high G-C content forms a tighter double helix. D. All of the above are correct. E. Only a) and b) are correct.
answer

A. G-C base pairing involves three hydrogen bonds while A-T pairing involves only two.
question

Most genes come in alternative forms called: A. chromosomes. B. gametes. C. dominants. D. alleles. E. recessives.
answer

D. alleles.
question

In order for translation to occur: A. the nuclear membrane must dissolve. B. transcription must be occurring simultaneously. C. a cell must contain a cell wall to which translational protein receptors are bound. D. there must be large numbers of free amino acids present in the cytosol. E. the DNA must produce large numbers of free amino acids.
answer

D. there must be large numbers of free amino acids present in the cytosol.
question

The term “gene expression” refers to: A. which amino acid is “called for” by a particular codon B. the role and function of the protein coded for by a gene C. the total number of genes in an organisms D. the presence or absence of genes in a particular cell E. None of the above describes what “gene expression” means.
answer

E. None of the above describes what “gene expression” means.
question

A frameshift mutation: A. leaves the amino acid sequence unchanged. B. results from an insertion or deletion in a DNA sequence. C. substitutes a purine for a pyrimidine only. D. is the result of an unequal crossing-over. E. substitutes a pyrimidine for a purine, or vice versa.
answer

B. results from an insertion or deletion in a DNA sequence.
question

A mutation that involves the addition, subtraction, or substitution of a single base is known as A. an inversion. B. polypoloidy. C. a chromosomal aberration. D. a basic mutation. E. a point mutation.
answer

E. a point mutation.
question

Animal cells have “counters” that keep track of how many times a cell has divided. These counters are called: A. odometers. B. telomeres. C. chromosomes. D. nuclei. E. centromeres.
answer

B. telomeres.
question

In DNA replication, when the DNA molecule separates into two strands: A. it is possible to reconstruct perfectly all the information on the missing strand because one strand carries all the information needed to construct its complementary strand. B. the rebuilding process begins, in which an enzyme connects the appropriate complementary base to the exposed base. C. the mitotic phase begins. D. All of the above are correct. E. Only a) and b) are correct.
answer

E. Only a) and b) are correct.
question

Somatic cells can include: A. kidney cells. B. heart cells. C. sperm cells. D. All of the above are correct. E. Both a) and b) are correct.
answer

E. Both a) and b) are correct.
question

The rate at which mitosis occurs varies dramatically for different types of cells. The most rapid cell division occurs: A. in the blood and the heart. B. on the skin. C. in the blood and the cells lining the various tissues of organs. D. in the gametes. E. in the heart and the brain.
answer

C. in the blood and the cells lining the various tissues of organs.
question

Mitosis results in: A. daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes but different combinations of alleles. B. gametes. C. daughter cells with the same number and composition of chromosomes. D. daughter cells with twice as much genetic material and a unique collection of alleles. E. eight daughter cells.
answer

C. daughter cells with the same number and composition of chromosomes.
question

In order for a eukaryotic cell to undergo reproduction and divide, certain steps must be successfully completed. Which of the following choices is NOT one of these necessary steps? A. There must be proper packaging and segregation of the replicated DNA. B. There must be proper reshuffling of the genetic material in order to provide diversity within the gametes. C. There must be replication of the DNA within the nucleus. D. There must be proper division of the cytoplasm. E. All of the choices above are necessary steps in eukaryotic cellular replication.
answer

B. There must be proper reshuffling of the genetic material in order to provide diversity within the gametes.
question

Chemotherapy is one common treatment for cancer. Which of the following are aspects of chemotherapy? A. Drugs that interfere with cell division are administered to the patient. B. Chemotherapy drugs circulate throughout the entire body. C. Chemotherapy drugs disrupt normal systems that rely on the rapid and constant production of new cells. D. All of the above are correct. E. Only a) and c) are correct.
answer

D. All of the above are correct.
question

Cancer cells are different from other cells in that they have lost their “contact inhibition.” “Contact inhibition” means: A. DNA replication in most cells stops when the double helix comes in contact with particular enzymes. B. most cells stop dividing when they have reached 50 cell divisions. C. DNA replication in most cells doesn’t begin until the double helix comes in contact with particular enzymes. D. most cells stop dividing when they bump up against other cells or collections of cells. E. most cells don’t begin to divide until they bump up against other cells or collections of cells.
answer

D. most cells stop dividing when they bump up against other cells or collections of cells.
question

Which of the following are features that distinguish cancer cells from normal cells? A. Normal cells undergo cytokinesis; cancer cells do not undergo cytokinesis. B. Normal cells have contact inhibition; cancer cells have no contact inhibition. C. Normal cells metastasize; cancer cells do not metastasize. D. Normal cells can divide a finite number of times; cancer cells can divide indefinitely. E. Both b) and d) are correct.
answer

E. Both b) and d) are correct.
question

In humans, the haploid number, n, equals: A. 2n. B. 44. C. 23. D. 46. E. n.
answer

C. 23.
question

During meiosis, chromatin: A. reduces the incidence of crossing over. B. unwinds to allow synapsis between homologous pairs of chromatids. C. condenses, becoming more tightly coiled. D. binds to the metaphase plate, enabling chromosome division. E. unwinds to allow tetrads to form.
answer

C. condenses, becoming more tightly coiled.
question

When ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP, what happens?
answer

One phosphate is removed.
question

Photosynthesis is the process by which __________________ use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar.
answer

plants, some bacteria, and some protistans
question

The three different known biochemical pathways organisms will use to photosynthesize include which of the following?
answer

C3, C4, CAM
question

A molecule of chlorophyll increases in potential energy:
answer

when one of its electrons is boosted to a higher-energy excited state upon being struck by a photon of light.
question

The word anabolism refers to constructive, build-up, or synthesis reactions while the word catabolism refers to destructive, breakdown, or digestive reactions. What does it mean to say that in a cell, catabolism fuels anabolism?
answer

Cellular respiration (catabolism) forms the ATP that is used to power anabolic reactions.
question

Which of the following products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are later employed in the Calvin cycle?
answer

NADPH and ATP
question

Life gains most of its energy from:
answer

sunlight.
question

In studying the way energy is handled in the universe, one scientist summarized: “Not only can’t you get something for nothing, but you can’t even break even!” Which of the following do these two statements best summarize?
answer

the first and second laws of thermodynamics
question

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is constant; it can ____________________, but not _______________.
answer

be transferred and transformed; created or destroyed
question

How many phosphates do ADP & ATP each have?
answer

2, 3
question

Carbon dioxide and oxygen move into and out of plants through:
answer

stomata.
question

During cellular respiration, most of the energy contained within the bonds of food molecules is captured in:
answer

the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.
question

According to the clip, what is the main function of chloroplasts?
answer

harvest light energy to make sugars and other plant tissue
question

Potential energy is to kinetic energy as ______________ is to _____________.
answer

water held behind a dam, water power being used to turn electric turbines
question

Energy used in cellular respiration can originate from:
answer

carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
question

The graphs above show data relating to seasonal differences in the amount of pigment molecules present in leaves and how this is related to leaves changing colors. What can you conclude from these graphs?
answer

The colors of leaves in the fall are a consequence of reduced amounts of chlorophylls a and b in the leaves.
question

All alcoholic beverages are produced as the result of:
answer

cellular respiration by yeast occurring in the absence of oxygen.
question

When a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light, exciting an electron, the chlorophyll molecule:
answer

gains potential energy.
question

Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
answer

a covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
question

Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
answer

some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy.
question

In which digestive phase do energy-rich molecules actually enter the bloodstream and tissues of the body?
answer

absorption phase
question

What scientist(s) first demonstrated in the laboratory that organic compounds could be synthesized in an abiotic environment?
answer

Urey and Miller
question

If formerly interbreeding organisms are prevented from the production of fertile offspring, ____________ has occurred.
answer

reproductive isolation
question

Why do birds eat gravel?
answer

The gravel collects in the stomach where it helps to grind up the food they eat.
question

In the koala, the cecum:
answer

is the location of symbiotic bacteria that help digest plant matter.
question

Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
answer

some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy.
question

The classic “Miller experiments,” performed in the 1950s by Harold Urey and Stanley Miller, were the first to show that:
answer

simple organic molecules, such as amino acids, could form spontaneously in the laboratory under chemical conditions mimicking those of primitive Earth.
question

Which digestive enzymes are secreted in the stomach?
answer

pepsin
question

During C4 photosynthesis:
answer

plants are able to continue producing sugars even when they must close their stomata to reduce water loss during hot days
question

Cows have large bacterial floras in their digestive system. Which of the following best explains why cows have microbes in their rumen?
answer

The microbes break down the cellulose in the plants that cows eat.
question

Desert plants reduce water loss by ____________.
answer

closing stomatas
question

Horses and donkeys can breed and produce sterile offspring known as mules. Horses and donkeys remain separate species because of this hybrid sterility, which is:
answer

a postzygotic barrier to reproduction.
question

The six groups of nutrients needed in the human diet are:
answer

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water.
question

The Biological Species Concept:
answer

defines a species as any group of actually or potentially interbreeding species that produce viable offspring.
question

The graphs above show data relating to seasonal differences in the amount of pigment molecules present in leaves and how this is related to leaves changing colors. What can you conclude from these graphs?
answer

The colors of leaves in the fall are a consequence of reduced amounts of chlorophylls a and b in the leaves.
question

According to the clip, what is the main function of chloroplasts?
answer

harvest light energy to make sugars and other plant tissue
question

_________________ produces new species and _________________ takes them away.
answer

Speciation ; extinction
question

Most mammals (including humans) prefer the taste of fats to carbohydrates and proteins. Why?
answer

The caloric content of a gram of fat is more than double that of a gram of protein or carbohydrate.
question

Much of what is known about the history of the origin of life came from:
answer

the study of fossils.
question

Potential energy:
answer

is contained in matter placed in certain positions or arrangements.
question

Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
answer

some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy.
question

Glycolysis:
answer

occurs in all cells.
question

Which by-product of photosynthesis was important in altering the atmosphere of the earth so that aerobic organisms could evolve?
answer

oxygen
question

Which of the following products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are later employed in the Calvin cycle?
answer

NADPH and ATP
question

All alcoholic beverages are produced as the result of:
answer

cellular respiration by yeast occurring in the absence of oxygen.
question

Bubbles come from the leaves of an Elodea plant when it is put under water because:
answer

oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
question

A green plant can carry out photosynthesis if given nothing more than:
answer

water, light, and air.
question

Life gains most of its energy from:
answer

sunlight.
question

The carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis enters the plant through the:
answer

stomata.
question

Fermentation reactions generally occur under conditions of:
answer

low oxygen concentrations.
question

Chlorophyll b and the carotenoids are important as receptors of light energy because they:
answer

respond to wavelengths different from the wavelengths that chlorophyll a responds to.
question

Theodor Engelmann broadcast light that had been passed through a prism onto a mat of algae. This exposed different parts of the algae to different wavelengths of light. When he added aerobic bacteria to the system, he noted that the largest groups of bacteria aggregated in the areas of the algae illuminated by the blue and red light. What did Engelmann discover from this experiment?
answer

Bacteria aggregated in the area in which the most oxygen was being released.
question

Photons excite electrons in chlorophyll. These electrons are then trapped by the primary electron acceptor. How does the photosystem replace the trapped electrons?
answer

The photosystem replaces its light-excited electrons by extracting electrons from water.
question

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria, and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar, which _______________ converts to ATP, the “fuel” used by all living things.
answer

cellular respiration
question

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is constant; it can ____________________, but not _______________.
answer

be transferred and transformed; created or destroyed
question

Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
answer

a covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
question

Which of the following is NOT a product of photosynthesis?
answer

carbon dioxide
question

During the Krebs cycle:
answer

the products of glycolysis are further broken down, generating additional ATP and the high-energy electron carrier NADH.
question

Which of the following energy-generating processes is the only one that occurs in all living organisms?
answer

glycolysis
question

Aerobic bacteria:
answer

lack mitochondria.
question

In photosynthesis, both the first and the second photosystems:
answer

generate energy storage molecules.
question

If a thylakoid were punctured so that its interior was no longer separated from the stroma, which of the following processes would be most directly affected?
answer

the synthesis of ATP
question

In the late summer, cooler temperatures have which of the following effects on some trees?
answer

Chlorophyll production decreases.
question

An inherited disease results from abnormal mitochondria passed from mother to child. Using your knowledge of mitochondria’s function within human cells, which of the following is the most likely description of the symptoms of this disease?
answer

extreme muscle weakness
question

During electron transport in photosynthesis, the inner compartment of the thylakoid membrane becomes:
answer

more acidic than the stroma.
question

Fermentation reactions generally occur under conditions of:
answer

low oxygen concentrations.
question

Why are leaves green?
answer

Chlorophyll molecules mainly absorb light in the blue-violet and red-orange part of the electromagnetic spectrum. Chlorophyll does not absorb much green light, which is reflected to our eyes.
question

Bubbles come from the leaves of an elodea plant when it is put under water because:
answer

oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
question

Which of the following statements is most correct concerning the movement of materials through the stomata?
answer

Water and O2 move out, CO2 moves in.
question

A molecule of chlorophyll increases in potential energy:
answer

when one of its electrons is boosted to a higher-energy excited state upon being struck by a photon of light.
question

File this one under “confusing plant terminology.” Both a plant’s stoma and its stroma are important in photosynthesis. What’s the difference between stoma and stroma?
answer

Stoma is the singular of stomata, the gas exchange pores in the leaf of the plant, while stroma is the fluid that fills the inner space of a chloroplast.
question

Anaerobic mammals:
answer

do not exist.
question

Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
answer

a covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
question

The C4 mechanism of carbon fixation is an advantage for plants that live in:
answer

hot, dry climates.
question

Humphrey Bogart said in Casablanca that some things “don’t amount to a hill of beans in this crazy world.” But a “hill of beans” does have energetic value, both as food and as a tall hill. In what form(s)is/are the energy in this bean hill?
answer

Both a) and c) are true.
question

During the Krebs cycle:
answer

the products of glycolysis are further broken down, generating additional ATP and the high-energy electron carrier NADH.
question

Carbon dioxide and oxygen move into and out of plants through:
answer

stomata.
question

In studying the way energy is handled in the universe, one scientist summarized: “Not only can’t you get something for nothing, but you can’t even break even!” Which of the following do these two statements best summarize?
answer

the first and second laws of thermodynamics
question

In plant cells, chloroplasts:
answer

Both b) and d) are correct.
question

What are the two major sources of electrons needed to drive the proton-pumping channels in chemiosmosis?
answer

Both a) and b) are correct.
question

Which of the following is NOT true about cellular respiration?
answer

Carbohydrates, like starch, are broken into simple sugars and then enter the electron transport chain.
question

By weight, the bulk of a plant’s organic material is derived from:
answer

carbon dioxide.
question

According to the clip, where are the light-harvesting organelles found within plants?
answer

near the surface of the leaves
question

Which of the following foods can be used to produce ATP in cellular respiration?
answer

carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
question

All alcoholic beverages are produced as the result of:
answer

cellular respiration by yeast occurring in the absence of oxygen.
question

Life gains most of its energy from:
answer

sunlight.
question

When ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP, what happens?
answer

One phosphate is removed.
question

When a chlorophyll molecule absorbs light, exciting an electron, the chlorophyll molecule:
answer

gains potential energy.
question

Photosynthesis is the process by which __________________ use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar.
answer

plants, some bacteria, and some protistans
question

The electrons at the very end of both photosystems are eventually picked up by an electron carrier to become:
answer

NADPH.
question

Desert plants reduce water loss by ____________.
answer

closing stomatas
question

The three different known biochemical pathways organisms will use to photosynthesize include which of the following?
answer

C3, C4, CAM
question

Which of the following would be a typical product of the dark reactions of photosynthesis?
answer

3-phosphoglycerate acid (3-PGA)
question

Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
answer

some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy.
question

The water released during cellular respiration is called:
answer

metabolic water.
question

The high degree of molecular organization in living cells is:
answer

attained and maintained only as long as energy fuels the organization.
question

A pigment that absorbs all wavelengths of visible light appears:
answer

black.
question

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is constant; it can ____________________, but not _______________.
answer

be transferred and transformed; created or destroyed
question

In your body, when energy is released from the breakdown of a molecule such as glucose:
answer

some of it may be harnessed by building the unstable high-energy bonds that attach phosphate groups to ATP.
question

Fill in the blanks. CAM plants close stomata when ________ are _______ and __________ is ________.
answer

temperatures, high, humidity, low
question

In photosynthesis, gaseous molecular oxygen (O2) is released. This comes from a compound that goes into photosynthesis. Which compound is it?
answer

water (H2O)
question

During electron transport in photosynthesis, the inner compartment of the thylakoid membrane becomes:
answer

more acidic than the stroma.
question

Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
answer

a covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
question

The most effective portion(s) of the visible spectrum in driving photosynthesis is (are):
answer

the violet-blue portion.
question

All of the following statements regarding C4 plants are correct EXCEPT:
answer

Rubisco is no longer necessary to make glucose.
question

The first cells evolved in an atmosphere that lacked free _____________. Their metabolism resulted in the accumulation of ________________ in the atmosphere.
answer

oxygen; carbon dioxide
question

A green plant can carry out photosynthesis if given nothing more than:
answer

water, light, and air.
question

About how many mitochondria might you expect to find in a single human skin cell?
answer

hundreds or thousands
question

What is the first step in CAM photosynthesis?
answer

Plants open their stomata at night to take in carbon dioxide.
question

Which of the following sequences accurately represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?
answer

H2O → NADPH → Calvin cycle
question

Three different metabolic pathways are responsible for the production of ATP. What are they?
answer

glycolysis, the reactions on the electron transport chain, and the Krebs (citric acid) cycle
question

The graphs above show data relating to seasonal differences in the amount of pigment molecules present in leaves and how this is related to leaves changing colors. What is the independent variable presented in these graphs?
answer

Time at which the amount of pigment in the leaves was measured.
question

Time at which the amount of pigment in the leaves was measured.
answer

the products of glycolysis are further broken down, generating additional ATP and the high-energy electron carrier NADH.
question

Which by-product of photosynthesis was important in altering the atmosphere of the earth so that aerobic organisms could evolve?
answer

oxygen
question

Most plant leaves contain yellow and orange carotenoids as well as green chlorophylls. Why then are most leaves greenish?
answer

There is a much greater concentration of chlorophylls than carotenoids in plant leaves.
question

Photons excite electrons in chlorophyll. These electrons are then trapped by the primary electron acceptor. How does the photosystem replace the trapped electrons?
answer

The photosystem replaces its light-excited electrons by extracting electrons from water.
question

What is the source of the electrons that replace those lost by chlorophyll a in the photosystems?
answer

water
question

Potential energy:
answer

is contained in matter placed in certain positions or arrangements.
question

Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
answer

some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy.
question

Glycolysis:
answer

occurs in all cells.
question

Which by-product of photosynthesis was important in altering the atmosphere of the earth so that aerobic organisms could evolve?
answer

oxygen
question

Which of the following products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are later employed in the Calvin cycle?
answer

NADPH and ATP
question

All alcoholic beverages are produced as the result of:
answer

cellular respiration by yeast occurring in the absence of oxygen.
question

Bubbles come from the leaves of an Elodea plant when it is put under water because:
answer

oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis.
question

A green plant can carry out photosynthesis if given nothing more than:
answer

water, light, and air.
question

Life gains most of its energy from:
answer

sunlight.
question

The carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis enters the plant through the:
answer

stomata.
question

Fermentation reactions generally occur under conditions of:
answer

low oxygen concentrations.
question

Chlorophyll b and the carotenoids are important as receptors of light energy because they:
answer

respond to wavelengths different from the wavelengths that chlorophyll a responds to.
question

Theodor Engelmann broadcast light that had been passed through a prism onto a mat of algae. This exposed different parts of the algae to different wavelengths of light. When he added aerobic bacteria to the system, he noted that the largest groups of bacteria aggregated in the areas of the algae illuminated by the blue and red light. What did Engelmann discover from this experiment?
answer

Bacteria aggregated in the area in which the most oxygen was being released.
question

Photons excite electrons in chlorophyll. These electrons are then trapped by the primary electron acceptor. How does the photosystem replace the trapped electrons?
answer

The photosystem replaces its light-excited electrons by extracting electrons from water.
question

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria, and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar, which _______________ converts to ATP, the “fuel” used by all living things.
answer

cellular respiration
question

The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is constant; it can ____________________, but not _______________.
answer

be transferred and transformed; created or destroyed
question

Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
answer

a covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
question

Which of the following is NOT a product of photosynthesis?
answer

carbon dioxide
question

During the Krebs cycle:
answer

the products of glycolysis are further broken down, generating additional ATP and the high-energy electron carrier NADH.
question

Which of the following energy-generating processes is the only one that occurs in all living organisms?
answer

glycolysis
question

Aerobic bacteria:
answer

lack mitochondria.
question

In photosynthesis, both the first and the second photosystems:
answer

generate energy storage molecules.
question

Biology is ______.
answer

The study of living things
question

Biological literacy is the ability to:
answer

-use the process of scientific inquiry to think creatively about real- world issues that have a biological component – communicate ideas about biology to others – integrate ideas about biology into your decision making
question

Science is self- correcting. This means that :
answer

Science actively seeks to disprove its own theories and hypothesis
question

A null hypothesis:
answer

is the premise that no difference exists between a treatment and control groups
question

The proposal explanation for a phenomenon is BEST described as:
answer

A hypothesis
question

A scientific theory is one that:
answer

is the result of all scientific experiments
question

Which of the following is the BEST description of a control group in an experiment?
answer

The control group is identical to each test group except for one variable
question

An element:
answer

is a substance that cannot be broken down chemically into any other substance
question

The four most abundant elements in living organisms are:
answer

Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and Phosphorus
question

Which of the following elements have four elections in their outer shells?
answer

Carbon and silicon
question

If you were going to build a large macromolecule or polymer it needs to be strong. What type of chemical bond do you think would work best for building macromolecules?
answer

Covalent
question

Carbohydrates
answer

-Act as a relatively quickly available source of fuel -serve as carbon skeletons that can be rearranged to form other molecules that are essential for biological structures and functions like nucleic acids. -on the plasma membrane serve as cell recognition signals
question

Which of the following is not an important biological function of lipids?
answer

-Insulation -regulation of growth and development -energy storage -protection of internal organs and tissues
question

The message on a DNA molecule is
answer

used to make proteins
question

Which of the following statement about enzymes is NOT true?
answer

Enzymes are permanently changed when they take place in a chemical reaction
question

Which of the following nucleotide bases are present in equal amounts of DNA?
answer

Adenine and Thymine
question

Prokaryotic organisms lack:
answer

organelles
question

According to the theory of endosymbiosis, the origin of chloroplasts probably involved:
answer

engulfing of small photosynthetic prokaryotes by larger cells
question

Which of the following statements about chitin is incorrect?
answer

Humans easily digest chitin as a quick form of energy
question

Which of the following is the most important factor governing a cell’s particular type of interaction with other cells
answer

The pattern of proteins on the cell’s surface
question

Which of the following BEST summarizes the differences between osmosis and diffusion?
answer

Osmosis deals only with water
question

Which of the following is NOT a way in which the cell’s surface membrane interacts with the exterior environment?
answer

The cellular surface organizes the interior organelle organization of the cell
question

What cell type in animals has a flagellum?
answer

The sperm cell
question

Which of the following is NOT a function of the plant vacuole?
answer

Photosynthesis
question

Which one of the following statements best represents the relationship between respiration and photosynthesis?
answer

Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration releases it.
question

Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy?
answer

A covalent bond linking phosphate molecules
question

Every time a source of energy is converted from one form to another:
answer

Some of the energy is converted to heat, which is one of the least usable forms of kinetic energy
question

Which of the following is NOT a product of photosynthesis?
answer

Carbon Dioxide
question

Chlorophyll b and the carotenoids are important as receptors of light energy because they:
answer

respond to wavelengths different from the wavelengths that chlorophyll a responds to
question

Aerobic training can cause our bodies to produce more mitochondria in cells. Why is this beneficial?
answer

Chemical reactions in the mitochondria provide energy for exercise
question

Bubbles come from the leaves of an Elodea plant when it is put under water because:
answer

oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis
question

The carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis enters the plant through the:
answer

Stomata
question

Cellular respiration is the process by which:
answer

energy from the chemical bonds of food molecules is captured by an organism
question

Animal fats and plant oils are sometimes used as sources of fuel for automobile engines. How is energy harvested from these molecules?
answer

They contain long chains of hydrocarbons that, when broken, release the energy stored in the bonds linking the atoms together.
question

Energy used in cellular respiration can originate from:
answer

carbohydrates, proteins, fats.
question

Fermentation reactions generally occur under conditions of:
answer

low oxygen concentrations
question

A ______ is a pill that looks identical to a pill that contains the active ingredient in a scientific trial, but contains no active ingredient itself.
answer

placebo
question

All matter on earth, both biotic and abiotic, is made up of:
answer

Atoms
question

An atom can be changed into an ion by adding or removing:
answer

An electron
question

There are three principal types of bonds that hold multiple atoms together. These are:
answer

Covalent bonds, ionic bonds, and hydrogen bonds.
question

Which of the following facts supports the claim that the mitochondria developed from bacteria that were long ago phagocytosed into eukaryotic cells?
answer

Mitochondria have their own DNA
question

Which of the following is NOT an important structural feature on the surface membrane of an animal cell?
answer

Cell Wall
question

Which of the following BEST defines diffusion?
answer

net movement of particles from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration
question

Sugar and CO2 are dissolved in water to make carbonated soft drinks. Which of the following is the solute?
answer

The sugar and the CO2
question

_____ are found in all metabolically active cells and are involved primarily in transporting materials within, into, and out of cells.
answer

Vesicles
question

Life gains most of its energy from:
answer

sunlight
question

Photosystems:
answer

are arrangements of light-catching pigments within chloroplasts
question

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
answer

in the cellular cytoplasm
question

If a marathon runner is in the last 2 miles of a full-length marathon, the runner is most likely making ATP by:
answer

anaerobic cellular respiration
question

Alcoholic beverages are produced as a result of
answer

glucose breakdown by yeast occurring in the absence of oxygen
question

DNA is now often used as evidence in criminal trials. It is particularly useful because it can be found in
answer

Hair, Saliva, Bone, Dead skin cells
question

In any DNA molecule, the number of guanine bases will :
answer

always be equal to the number of cytosine bases
question

The complementary base pairs in a DNA molecule are stabilized by:
answer

-the electrostatic interactions of the charged backbone -a covalent bond
question

from DNA to protein involves which series of events?
answer

Transcription; translation
question

One of the four nucleotide bases in DNA is replaced by a different base in RNA. Which base is it, and what is it replaced by?
answer

Thymine, replaced by Uracil
question

An important difference between mRNA and DNA is
answer

mRNA contains uracil instead of thymine, which is found in DNA
question

Which of the following molecules is NOT DIRECTLY involved in translation?
answer

DNA
question

In asexual reproduction, daughter cells inherit their DNA from ____.
answer

A single parent
question

The purpose of mitosis is to enable existing cells
answer

to generate new, genetically identical cells
question

Somatic cells can include
answer

Kidney cells, heart cells, liver cells
question

Using a light microscope, it is easiest to see chromosomes:
answer

during mitosis and meiosis because the condensed chromosomes are thicker and therefore more prominent
question

The human genome is made up of:
answer

46 Chromosomes
question

Crossing over takes place during
answer

meiosis
question

The egg cells of a horse contain 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the horse’s somatic cells?
answer

64
question

Whether it is egg or sperm being produced through meiosis, under normal circumstances, each gamete ends up with:
answer

Equal amounts of cytoplasm
question

Which of the following statements is NOT correct of human sex chromosomes?
answer

All diploid cells have both an X and a Y chromosome
question

In some species, sex is determined by environmental, rather than genetic factors. this is true of:
answer

sea turtles
question

How many human traits are controlled by a single gene?
answer

over 9,000
question

Which of the following did Gregor Mendel never see?
answer

a chromosome
question

The law of segregation states that
answer

alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes
question

Which of the following statements about dominant traits is correct?
answer

They usually suppress the expression of the recessive trait
question

An individual with two individual alleles for a particular gene is said to be:
answer

homozygous for that gene
question

The test- cross
answer

-makes it possible to determine the genotype of an individual of unknown genotype who exhibits the dominant version of a trait – is a cross of an individual whose genotype for a trait is not known with an individual homozygous- recessive for the trait – sometimes requires the production of multiple offspring in order to reveal the genotype of an individual whose genotype is unknown
question

A situation in which the heterozygote offspring of two homozygous individuals show a phenotype intermediate between those of the parents is called:
answer

incomplete dominance
question

A population is
answer

a group of individuals of the same species that live in the same general location and have the potential to interbreed
question

Evolution is defined as:
answer

a change in the frequency of alleles in a population over time
question

The appropriate unit for defining and measuring genetic variation is the:
answer

population
question

All of the following statements are true about mutations EXCEPT
answer

the mutation rate can be affected by genetic drift
question

A storm washed five female and five male tiger beetles from the mainland to a small island that had no previous population of tiger beetles. In tiger beetles, having six spots (A) is dominant to having four spots (a). All ten beetles had six spots, bot one male and one female were heterozygous for the four-spot trait. If six of the beetles died randomly without reproducing, the ration of the genotype could be quite different in subsequent generations. This change in allele frequencies would be an example of:
answer

genetic drift
question

Select from the choices below the statement that best describes the effect of the migration of individuals into a population.
answer

Migration of individuals into a population generally increases the genetic variability within a population
question

For a population to evolve through natural selection:
answer

its members must possess inheritable variation
question

Which of the following is the best measure of an organisms’ fitness?
answer

the number of fertile offspring it produces
question

Natural selection results from interactions
answer

individual organisms and their enviorment.
question

Artificial selection is likely to produce population- level changes most quickely in organisms with:
answer

A short generation time
question

Under the right conditions, which type of selection is most likely to lead to the formation of new species?
answer

disruptive
question

From an evolutionary perspective, behavior can be viewed best as:
answer

a trait that can be acted on by natural selection
question

Species that are only distantly related but occupy similar enviorments often come to resemble each other through a process known as:
answer

convergent evolution
question

During the breeding season, the sight of a red belly on any other stickleback triggers aggressive behavior in a male stickleback. This is called:
answer

A fixed action pattern
question

Which of the following best illustrates an instinctive behavior in cats?
answer

hunting and killing
question

Kin selection is best defined as:
answer

selection for a behavior that lowers an individual’s own chances of survival or production, but raises those of a relative
question

When one vervent monkey grooms another, the monkey being groomed has its fitness improved because
answer

the groomer is removing parasites
question

When individuals of any species find themselves in an enviorment that differs from the environment to which they are evolutionarily adapted, we observe that:
answer

They engage in behaviors better fit to the environment the species evolved in than the enviornment the individual organisms find themselves in
question

Which of the following is the best way to distinguish male from female?
answer

Male produce motile gametes
question

The sex with the greater energetic investment in reproduction will be _____ when it comes to mating
answer

more discriminating
question

Chemicals released by an individual into the environment that trigger behavioral responses in other individuals are called
answer

Pheromones
question

Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between artificial and natural selection?
answer

Natural selection acts without the input of humans; artificial selection requires human input.
question

Which of the following statments about Charles Darwin is FALSE?
answer

He was enthusiastic about unleashing his theory of natual selection on the world as soon as he though of it
question

“Survival of the fittest” may be a misleading phrase to describe the process of evolution by natural selection because:
answer

survival matters less to natural selection than reproductive success does
question

Phase 1 of the creation of life on earth was ____. Phase 2 was the formation of self-replication, information-containing molecules. Phase 3 was the development of a membrane, which enabled metabolism and created the first cells
answer

the formation of small molecules containing carbon and hydrogen
question

The biological species concept is primarily based on
answer

reproductive isolation
question

Horses and Donkeys can breed and produce sterile offspring known as mules. Horses and donkeys remain separate species because of this hybrid sterility, which is:
answer

A postzygotic barrier to reproduction
question

_____ isolating mechanisms include hybrid mortality and hybrid infertility
answer

prezygotic
question

In captivity, tigers and lions have been known to interbreed producing hybrids, known as ligers. Why does this NOT make them the same species, according to the biological species concept?
answer

Captivity is not a natural condition
question

Wolves and bears are placed in the same taxonomic order. Therefore, they most also be classified in the same:
answer

Phylum
question

The morphological species concept:
answer

groups species based on similar phenotype
question

Speciation that occurs when there is a geographic isolation is called _____ speciation
answer

allopatric speciation
question

Which of the following senarios would best facilitate adaptive radiation?
answer

A population of birds becomes stranded on an island
question

All mammals have hair because they inherited that trait from a common ancestor. Features that are inherited from a common ancestor are called:
answer

homologous features
question

Analogous features are problematic when constructing evolutionary trees because:
answer

They are the result of natural selection rather than common ancestry
question

To which one of the following is the bat’s wing NOT homologous?
answer

The dragonfly’s wing
question

The pace of evolution in which there is little change for long periods of time interrupted by short periods with major changes is called
answer

punctuated equilibrium
question

____ produces new species and ____ takes them away.
answer

Speciation; exinction
question

Which of the following is NOT correct about all animals?
answer

all have true tissues
question

Why is the amniotic egg considered a key evolutionary innovation?
answer

It greatly increases the survival probabilities of eggs in a terrestrial environment
question

Which of the following are chordates
answer

frogs, humans, fish, lampreys
question

Sharks have ____ skeletons, while sunfish have _____skeletons
answer

cartilaginous; bony
question

Birds are _____, while turtles are _____.
answer

endotherms, ectotherms
question

Which of the following series of events correctly describes the evolutionary history of the vertebrates, from the earliest to latest in time?
answer

lungs – jaws – four limbs – hair
question

The most specious group of exant animals are the ______.
answer

invertebrates
question

What is the major developmental characteristic that shows the close relationship between echinoderms and chordates?
answer

in both groups, the gut develops back to front
question

The molluscan class Cephalopoda includes all of the following kinds of animals EXCEPT:
answer

cuttlefish
question

Two important features that distinguish mammals from any other type of animal are:
answer

hair and mammary glands
question

Which of the following is an example of echinoderm?
answer

Starfish
question

Members of which of the following groups exhibits radial symmetry?
answer

Cnidaria
question

As adults, sponges of the phylum Porifera are sessile, meaning that they ____.
answer

live attached to a solid structure and do not more around
question

The ferns possess all of the following EXCEPT
answer

Seeds
question

The most common term for the action of transerring pollen grains from an anther onto a stigma is
answer

pollination
question

Which of the following is NOT an example of a gymnosperm?
answer

ferns
question

In angiosperms the _____ are the specialized reproductive organs whose main function is to bring together the sperm and egg
answer

flowers
question

The ____ are the most diverse group of plants living today
answer

angiosperms
question

Which of the following is NOT an example of an angiosperm
answer

pine trees
question

Flowering plants have evolved to attract animals to assist them in pollination. Which of the following animals is not a common pollinator of flowering plants?
answer

bats, hummingbirds, moths, bumblebees
question

Why are insectivorous plants (plants that eat insects) most common in boggy areas?
answer

because insects tend to live in boggy areas
question

The cell wall of fungi is made of _____
answer

chitin
question

Of the group mentioned below, the fungi are most closely related to:
answer

animals
question

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about microbes?
answer

Microbes are not genetically diverse
question

Which of the following is NOT one of the kingdoms included within the Eukarya domain?
answer

Archaea
question

Bacteria reproduce by ____, which creates ____ exact daughter cell clones of the original parent cell
answer

binary fission; two
question

Which of the following statements about the archaeal genome is correct?
answer

The archaeal genome is primarily composed of genes that cannot be found in either of the other domains of life, making them unique
question

How did mitochondria originate in protists?
answer

They derived from bacterial cells that were taken via in endocytosis and later specialized
question

The first eukaryotes were
answer

protists
question

The basic structure of a virus consists of:
answer

Genetic information in the form of DNA or RNA enclosed within a protein coat
question

Viral DNA is replicated by:
answer

using the host’s metabolic machinery and energy
question

Many scientists do not consider viruses to be living organisms. Why is this?
answer

Because they are dependent on their host’s metabolic machinery for replication
question

Which of the following types of organisms is immune to viral infection?
answer

Protists, Fungi, Birds, Plants
question

When preserving areas to act as reservoirs for biodiversity, corridors are important because
answer

they increase gene flow between the areas they connect
question

All of the following phrases could characterize a population EXCEPT
answer

Several species
question

Life histories are based on:
answer

rate of growth and development, age at death, age of reproduction and number of reproductive events, the amount of energy available to and individual at birth
question

Mutations that cause sickness and death after reproduction:
answer

Can be passed on to future generations
question

“Ecology” is defined as:
answer

The study of the relationships between all living organisms and their enviorments
question

an ecosystem
answer

consists of all of the living and nonliving things functioning together in an area