Chapters 6, 24, and 25 – Flashcards
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Viruses have all the following except A. definite shape. B. metabolism. C. genes. D. ability to infect host cells. E. ultramicroscopic size.
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B. metabolism.
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Host cells of viruses include A. human and other animals. B. plants and fungi. C. bacteria. D. protozoa and algae. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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The core of every virus particle always contains A. DNA. B. capsomers. C. enzymes. D. DNA and RNA. E. either DNA or RNA.
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E. either DNA or RNA.
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Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of nucleic acid. B. type of capsid. C. presence of an envelope. D. biochemical reactions. E. nucleic acid strand number.
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D. biochemical reactions.
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Virus capsids are made from subunits called A. envelopes. B. spikes. C. capsomeres. D. prophages. E. peplomers.
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C. capsomeres.
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Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. spike. B. capsomere. C. envelope. D. capsid. E. core.
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D. capsid.
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Which of the following is correct about viruses? A. cannot be seen with a light microscope B. are procaryotic C. contain 70S ribosomes D. undergo binary fission E. can be grown on nutrient agar
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A. cannot be seen with a light microscope
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The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. D. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. E. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.
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C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.
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The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. adsorption to the host cells. B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D. assembly of nucleocapsids. E. replication of viral nucleic acid.
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B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
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Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. replication. B. assembly. C. adsorption. D. release. E. penetration
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D. release.
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In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A. nucleus, cytoplasm B. cytoplasm, cell membrane C. cell membrane, cytoplasm D. cytoplasm, nucleus E. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
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A. nucleus, cytoplasm
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The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.
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D. cytopathic effects.
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Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks
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C. plaques.
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Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.
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E. pocks.
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Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. latent B. oncogenic. C. prions. D. viroids. E. delta agents.
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A. latent
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Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. hepatitis B virus. B. measles virus. C. papillomavirus. D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.
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B. measles virus.
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Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. inclusions in the nucleus B. multinucleated giant cells C. inclusions in the cytoplasm D. cells round up E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Infectious protein particles are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes
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C. prions.
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Infectious naked strands of RNA are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes.
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A. viroids.
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Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is A. caused by a chronic latent virus. B. initiated by an oncogenic virus. C. caused by a viroid. D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. E. also called "mad cow disease".
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D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.
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The capsomers are made of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. lipids. D. protein. E. carbohydrate.
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E. carbohydrate.
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Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A. simple viruses. B. complex viruses. C. naked viruses. D. viroids. E. incomplete viruses.
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C. naked viruses.
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Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present? A. envelope B. nucleic acid C. capsid D. capsomers E. None of the choices are optional parts of a virus.
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A. envelope
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Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. digestive B. genitourinary C. nervous D. circulatory E. respiratory
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C. nervous
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When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent. B. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane. C. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. E. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.
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A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
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All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. they can be crystallized. B. they often have a geometric capsid. C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids. D. they can cause fatal diseases. E. they can cause mild diseases.
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C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids.
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Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding for the botulinum toxin. What term describes this process? A. Lytic phase B. Budding C. Adsorption D. Lysogenic conversion E. Latent phase
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D. Lysogenic conversion
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Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
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False
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Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
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False
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Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.
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True
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Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections.
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False
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The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of viruses.
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True
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Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
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False
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When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.
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True
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Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
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True
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No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States.
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True
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The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions.
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False
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Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the: A. Herpesviruses. B. Poxviruses. C. Adenoviruses. D. Papovaviruses. E. Parvoviruses.
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E. Parvoviruses
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Smallpox is a disease in which: A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs. B. virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts. E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.
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All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except: A. it causes gingivostomatitis. B. it causes cold sores and herpes keratitis. C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. D. it is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions. E. it causes herpetic whitlow in health-care workers.
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C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia
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Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes: A. genital lesions. B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. C. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. D. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is: A. shingles. B. paralysis. C. encephalitis. D. myocarditis. E. kidney failure.
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C. encephalitis
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Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2? A. Interferon B. Valacyclovir C. Acyclovir D. Famciclovir E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. Interferon
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Chickenpox: A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of the choices are correct
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E. All of the choices are correct
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Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the: A. nasal mucosa. B. finger. C. oral mucosa and tongue. D. eye. E. newborn.
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B. finger
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Varicella-zoster virus: A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with: A. herpes labialis. B. shingles. C. chickenpox. D. infectious mononucleosis. E. herpes keratitis.
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C. chickenpox.
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Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except: A. it infects the respiratory epithelium. B. it is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C. it multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland. D. it has a 30-50 day incubation. E. it can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.
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A. it infects the respiratory epithelium.
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Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. fever, and pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices are correct.
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C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.
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Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include: A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, and tinnitus. D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices are correct.
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D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.
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The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except: A. individuals with hypertension. B. organ transplant patients. C. infants infected in utero. D. AIDS patients. E. bone marrow transplant patients.
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A. individuals with hypertension.
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Cytomegalovirus: A. is among the most common of human infections. B. is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C. can be sexually transmitted. D. is commonly carried in the latent state. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except: A. it replicates in T lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue. B. it causes roseola in infants. C. it appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults. D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma. E. it is transmitted by saliva.
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D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.
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Hepatitis B virus: A. is principally transmitted by blood. B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D. has many chronic carriers. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct
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Hepatitis B infection: A. has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks. B. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer. D. is due to a flavivirus. E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
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Which is incorrect about warts? A. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet. D. Are usually cancerous. E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.
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D. Are usually cancerous.
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All of the following pertain to genital warts, except: A. are not common in the United States B. are sexually transmitted C. often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix D. includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata E. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis
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A. are not common in the United States
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Polyomaviruses: A. cause common asymptomatic to mild infections. B. cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. C. cause problems in renal transplant patients. D. include the JC virus and BK virus. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses? A. They cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals. B. They are-single stranded DNA viruses. C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus. D. They cause a disease known as fifth disease. E. Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum
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C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus.
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Fifth disease: A. is caused by Parvovirus B19. B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta. D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B? A. Recombinant interferon B. Heptavax vaccine C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) D. Recombivax vaccine E. All of the choices may be recommended.
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E. All of the choices may be recommended.
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Which is not correct about genital warts? A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC. B. They are strongly associated with cancer of the penis. C. Treatment can involve laser surgery. D. It is the most common STD in the United States. E. They are strongly associated with cancer of the cervix.
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A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC.
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Which is incorrect about smallpox? A. There is an effective vaccine. B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food. C. The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure. D. The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent. E. The last case was seen in 1977.
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B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food.
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Which is incorrect about viral diseases? A. Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells. B. Viral diseases can be zoonoses. C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm. D. Some viruses are teratogenic. E. Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.
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C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm.
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Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus.
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FALSE
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Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
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TRUE
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Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.
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TRUE
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Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives.
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TRUE
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Burkett lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases.
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TRUE
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The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is: A. catalase. B. reverse transcriptase. C. hyaluronidase. D. neuraminidase. E. kinase.
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D. neuraminidase.
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Reye's syndrome involves: A. aspirin use. B. a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox. C. fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney. D. children, adolescents, and young adults. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Influenza vaccines include all the following, except: A. inactivated intramuscular vaccine. B. usually incorporates three different strains. C. attenuated, nasal drops vaccine. D. provides lifelong immunity. E. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.
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D. provides lifelong immunity.
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Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of: A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.
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B. mumps.
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Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with: A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.
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D. measles (rubeola).
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This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella
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A. croup
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Which is incorrect about rabies? A. is a zoonotic disease B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation D. average incubation in human is one week E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, paralysis
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D. average incubation in human is one week
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Coronaviruses cause: A. fever, rash, nasal discharge. B. meningitis. C. measles. D. croup. E. common cold and SARS.
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E. common cold and SARS.
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Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS): A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress. B. began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China. C. is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. D. is not highly transmissible. E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.
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All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except: A. have an immunodeficiency B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood C. get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
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E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
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Documented transmission of HIV involves: A. mosquitoes. B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C. respiratory droplets. D. contaminated food. E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
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All of the following pertain to HIV, except: A. attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors B. viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus C. it has reverse transcriptase D. causes Kaposi sarcoma E. can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities
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D. causes Kaposi sarcoma
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A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A. leukemia. B. Hodgkin's lymphoma. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. melanoma. E. colon cancer.
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C. Kaposi's sarcoma.
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Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A. Rabies B. Dengue fever C. Norwalk virus D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
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A. Rabies
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All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except: A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing B. transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water C. can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E. there are effective vaccines to prevent polio
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A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
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Spongiform encephalopathies are: A. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. caused by prions. D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Strussler-Scheinker syndrome. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through: A. intravenous drug use. B. homosexual sex. C. blood transfusion. D. heterosexual sex. E. blood products.
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D. heterosexual sex.
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Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS? A. North America B. Sub-Saharan Africa C. Southeast Asia D. Carribbean E. Western Europe
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B. Sub-Saharan Africa
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Which is incorrect about measles? A. Koplik spots appear before the characteristic rash. B. Humans are the sole reservoir. C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine. D. It is also known as rubeola. E. It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.
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C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.
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Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus? A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B. Parainfluenza C. Mumps D. Measles E. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections
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A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
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All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except: A. The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain. B. Treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering. C. The virus is transmitted through fecal-oral means. D. Most infections do not result in paralysis. E. Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954.
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A. The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.
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Cocksackieviruses: A. are paramyxoviurses. B. are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia. C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease. D. are a retrovirus. E. replicate in helper T cells.
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C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease.
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What does AIDS stand for? A. aids induced diseases B. aids in disguises C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes
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C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
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Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis.
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TRUE
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In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.
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TRUE
