Chapter 10 Human Resources, Job Design, and Work Measurement

A) 7
5) A NASCAR pit crew consists of how many members?
A) 7
B) 5
C) 9
D) 10
E) 4
B) athletics
6) Most pit crew members have background experience in what area?
A) mechanical engineering
B) athletics
C) car mechanics
D) automobile race driving
E) No specific area—crew members come from all sorts of backgrounds.
B) both management and the employees are committed to the same objective
7) Which of the following best describes mutual commitment in an organization?
A) an instance in which management is committed to the employees and the employees are committed to management
B) both management and the employees are committed to the same objective
C) both management and the employees are committed, but to different objectives
D) management obtains the commitment of the employees to a stated objective
E) both management and the employees can rely on each other
B) reflected in reasonable, documented employment policies that are honestly and equitably implemented to the satisfaction of both management and employee.
8) Mutual trust is:
A) when employees have gained the trust of management.
B) reflected in reasonable, documented employment policies that are honestly and equitably implemented to the satisfaction of both management and employee.
C) when management has gained the trust of the employees.
D) when management recognizes that the employees are competent, motivated people both able and willing to perform at the level required to produce a quality product.
E) when management and the employees both agree on common objectives.
D) manage labor and design jobs so people are effectively and efficiently utilized.
9) The objective of a human resource strategy is to:
A) produce the demand forecast at the lowest possible labor cost.
B) match employment levels with demand.
C) achieve a reasonable quality of work life at low cost.
D) manage labor and design jobs so people are effectively and efficiently utilized.
E) hire the most diversified workforce possible.
C) follow demand exactly and hold employment constant.
5) The two most basic policies associated with employment stability are:
A) job enrichment and job enlargement.
B) employment for life and guaranteed minimum wage.
C) follow demand exactly and hold employment constant.
D) incentive plans and piece-rate plans.
E) full-time and part-time.
A) flextime
6) A manufacturing plant allows its engineers to come in at 7 A.M. plus or minus an hour but still requires them to work 8-hour days. Which of the following scheduling techniques is the firm employing?
A) flextime
B) constant employment
C) part-time status
D) flexible workweek
E) compressed workweek
D) flexible workweek
7) Working four shifts of ten hours each instead of five shifts of eight hours each is known as which of the following?
A) flextime
B) constant employment
C) part-time status
D) flexible workweek
E) flexwork
B) job specialization, job expansion, psychological components, and self-directed teams.
9) Four of the components of job design are:
A) employment stability, work schedules, work sampling, and motivation & incentive systems.
B) job specialization, job expansion, psychological components, and self-directed teams.
C) labor specialization and enrichment, motivation and incentive systems, employment stability, and work sampling.
D) ergonomics and work methods, method time measurement, work schedules, and incentive systems.
E) labor specialization, time studies, work sampling, and pre-determined time standards.
A) job enlargement
10) What is the behavioral approach to job design that involves giving the worker more tasks requiring similar skills?
A) job enlargement
B) job enrichment
C) job enhancement
D) job rotation
E) job involvement
E) autonomy
11) Which of Hackman and Oldham’s five job characteristics refers to providing a worker a say in the work methods that he/she wishes to utilize?
A) skill variety
B) job identity
C) job significance
D) feedback
E) autonomy
B) job enrichment
12) Which of the following terms implies an increase in responsibility and control in the vertical direction?
A) job rotation
B) job enrichment
C) job re-design
D) job enlargement
E) job satisfaction
E) The operator is allowed to move, for example, from one type of CNC machine to another.
13) Which of the following statements describes job rotation?
A) The job contains a larger number of similar tasks.
B) The job includes some planning and control necessary for job accomplishment.
C) The operator works on different shifts on a regular basis.
D) The operator’s schedule is flexible.
E) The operator is allowed to move, for example, from one type of CNC machine to another.
E) enriched jobs involve vertical expansion, while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion.
14) The difference between job enrichment and job enlargement is that:
A) enlarged jobs involve vertical expansion, while enriched jobs involve horizontal expansion.
B) enriched jobs enable an employee to do a number of boring jobs instead of just one.
C) job enlargement is more psychologically satisfying than job enrichment.
D) job enrichment is suitable for all employees, whereas job enlargement is not.
E) enriched jobs involve vertical expansion, while enlarged jobs involve horizontal expansion.
A) feedback
15) When a worker obtains clear and timely information about his/her performance, his/her job includes which of the following characteristics?
A) feedback
B) skill variety
C) job identity
D) job significance
E) autonomy
E) All of the above are limitations of job expansion.
16) Which of the following is not a limitation of job expansion?
A) higher capital cost
B) higher wage rates
C) smaller labor pool
D) higher training costs
E) All of the above are limitations of job expansion.
D) Scanlon plan
17) Management and labor share the labor cost reductions in which of these compensation schemes?
A) bonus system
B) quota system
C) Scantron plan
D) Scanlon plan
E) measured day work plan
D) The Scanlon plan is based on team productivity.
18) Which of the following statements regarding incentive systems is FALSE?
A) Bonuses are often used at the executive levels.
B) About half of all American manufacturing firms use productivity incentives.
C) Profit-sharing systems provide some part of the profit for distribution to employees.
D) The Scanlon plan is based on team productivity.
E) Increasing use of cross-training has led to increasing use of knowledge-based pay systems.
C) designing tools and machines that facilitate human work.
3) One of the elements of ergonomics is
A) allocating work time based on economic studies.
B) the cost justification of technology.
C) designing tools and machines that facilitate human work.
D) assembly line balancing.
E) the establishment of time standards.
A) movement of capital
2) Which of the following is not analyzed using methods techniques?
A) movement of capital
B) body movement
C) movement of individuals
D) movement of material
E) crew activity
D) issues such as the movement of individuals or material.
3) Methods analysis focuses on:
A) the design of the machines used to perform a task.
B) establishing time standards.
C) reducing the number of skills needed for the completion of a task.
D) issues such as the movement of individuals or material.
E) evaluating training programs to see if they are efficient.
C) operations chart
4) Which of the following is used by methods analysis in analyzing body movement at the workstation level?
A) MTM chart
B) flow diagram
C) operations chart
D) process chart
E) improvement chart
C) an operations chart
5) The phrase, “designed to show economy of motion by pointing out wasted motion and idle time (delay),” describes which of the following?
A) a flow diagram
B) an activity chart
C) an operations chart
D) a process chart
E) a work sample
B) flow diagram
6) Methods analysis employs which of the following charts in its analysis of the movement of workers and materials?
A) micro-motion chart
B) flow diagram
C) activity chart
D) man-machine chart
E) movement chart
A) movement of people or material.
7) Flow diagrams are used to analyze:
A) movement of people or material.
B) utilization of an operator and machine.
C) body movements.
D) time taken by various activities.
E) unnecessary micro-motions.
B) utilization of an operator and machine.
8) Activity charts help analyze:
A) movement of people or material.
B) utilization of an operator and machine.
C) body movements.
D) activities that can cause injuries.
E) unnecessary micro-motions.
E) All of the above describe the visual workplace.
3) The visual workplace:
A) uses low-cost visual devices to share information.
B) is an effective means of rapid communication in a dynamic workplace.
C) replaces difficult-to-understand paperwork.
D) eliminates non-value-added activities by making problems and standards visual.
E) All of the above describe the visual workplace.
A) Andon
4) Which of the following is a visual signal at a machine that notifies support personnel about the machine’s status?
A) Andon
B) Endon
C) Indon
D) Ondon
E) Undon
A) 5.6 hours
22) Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.10, and the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time?
A) 5.6 hours
B) 50.0 hours
C) 4.9 hours
D) 5.1 hours
E) 4.5 hours
E) amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job.
23) Labor standards are defined as the:
A) preset activities required to perform a job.
B) amount of space required by a specific crew to perform the job.
C) standard set of procedures to perform the job.
D) standard labor agreements.
E) amount of time required to perform a job or part of a job.
E) all of the above
24) Labor standards can help to determine which of the following?
A) labor content of a product
B) staffing needs
C) incentive plans
D) efficiency
E) all of the above
A) Frederick Taylor.
25) Labor standards were pioneered by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth and:
A) Frederick Taylor.
B) Eli Whitney.
C) Henry Ford.
D) Alan Smith.
E) GE.
E) government laws and regulations
26) Which of the following is not a method used to set labor standards?
A) historical experience
B) time studies
C) predetermined time standards
D) work sampling
E) government laws and regulations
A) Average observed time × Performance rating factor
27) Normal time for a stopwatch study is equal to which of the following?
A) Average observed time × Performance rating factor
B) Average observed time + Performance rating factor
C) Average observed time / Performance rating factor
D) Average observed time – Performance rating factor
E) Performance rating factor / Average observed time
C) 10 hours
28) Suppose that the allowance factor for a job is 0.5 and the normal time is 5 hours. What is the standard time?
A) 5 hours
B) 2.5 hours
C) 10 hours
D) 7.5 hours
E) cannot determine with the given information
A) 125%
29) A worker completed a task 10 times during a period in which a typical trained employee completes the task 8 times. What is the worker’s performance rating?
A) 125%
B) 150%
C) 100%
D) 112.5%
E) cannot be determined with the given information
E) All of the above are uses of labor standards.
30) Which of the following is NOT a use of labor standards?
A) labor content of items produced
B) cost and time estimates prior to production
C) crew size and work balance
D) basis of wage-incentive plans
E) All of the above are uses of labor standards.
A) historical experience
31) Which of the following techniques may NOT provide reliable and accurate labor standards?
A) historical experience
B) methods time measurement (MTM)
C) time studies
D) work sampling
E) predetermined time standards
B) time studies
32) Timing a sample of a worker’s performance and using it as a basis for setting a standard time describes which of the following?
A) predetermined time standards
B) time studies
C) work sampling
D) methods time measurement
E) left-hand, right-hand charting
D) four times as large.
33) A manager who is conducting a time study now needs an accuracy of ±0.1 minutes, rather than ±0.2 minutes as in the past. Because of this change in accuracy, the new required sample size becomes:
A) one-fourth as large.
B) one-half as large.
C) twice as large.
D) four times as large.
E) one-tenth larger.
A) average observed time multiplied by a performance rating factor.
34) In time studies, normal time is:
A) average observed time multiplied by a performance rating factor.
B) larger than standard time.
C) determined by historical experience.
D) converted to standard time by the performance rating factor.
E) one hour later during the summer months.
A) the closer is normal time to standard time.
35) The smaller the percentage established for allowances:
A) the closer is normal time to standard time.
B) the closer is average observed time to normal time.
C) the larger is the performance rating factor.
D) the larger is the required sample size.
E) the larger is the number of observations in the work sampling.
C) 4 – 7%
36) In time studies, personal time allowances are often established in which of the following ranges?
A) 0 – 2%
B) 3 – 5%
C) 4 – 7%
D) 6 – 10%
E) 10 -15%
B) 8.88 minutes
37) The average observed time for a given job is 10 minutes. The performance rating is 80%, and allowances are set by contract at 10%. What is the standard time?
A) 8.80 minutes
B) 8.88 minutes
C) 10.00 minutes
D) 19.00 minutes
E) 19.80 minutes
B) 1.96 min.
38) The data below represent time study observations for an assembly operation. Assume a 7% allowance factor. What is the normal time for element 3?

Observations (times in minutes)
Element Performance Rating 1 2 3 4 5
1 100% 1.5 1.6 1.4 1.5 1.5
2 90% 2.3 2.2 2.1 2.2 2.4
3 115% 1.7 1.9 1.9 1.4 1.6
4 100% 3.5 3.6 3.6 3.6 3.2

A) 1.7 min.
B) 1.96 min.
C) 2.11 min.
D) 10.1 min.
E) 11.2 min.

C) 96
39) The accuracy of a labor standard is to be within ± 5%, and the confidence level is 95%. The standard deviation of the sample is 2 and the mean is 8. What sample size should be used?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 96
D) 127
E) 68
E) MTM
40) Which of these is the most common predetermined time standard?
A) CSD
B) TMU
C) RCH
D) SAE
E) MTM
B) 100; 64
41) A work sampling study requires an acceptable error level of 10 percent and z = 2 for 95.45 percent confidence. The adequate sample size is ________ if the sample proportion is thought to be as large as 50 percent, but ________ if the sample proportion is thought to be about 20 percent.
A) 50; 20
B) 100; 64
C) 100; 16
D) 20; 50
E) 200; 80
B) 16.0 minutes
42) Sample observations of a claims processor made over a 160-hour work month reveal that the worker produced a total of 384 completed claims forms. The performance rating was 80%. The worker was idle 20% of the time (so that idle time should be subtracted from the total time when computing the average observed time). The allowance factor is 8%. What is the normal time per unit?
A) 0.42 minutes
B) 16.0 minutes
C) 17.4 minutes
D) 20.0 minutes
E) 21.7 minutes
C) 17.4 minutes
43) Sample observations of a claims processor made over a 160-hour work month reveal that the worker produced a total of 384 completed claims forms. The performance rating was 80%. The worker was idle 20% of the time (so that idle time should be subtracted from the total time when computing the average observed time). The allowance factor is 8%. What is the standard time per unit?
A) 0.42 minutes
B) 16.0 minutes
C) 17.4 minutes
D) 20.0 minutes
E) 21.7 minutes
C) 0.00001 hour.
44) A time measurement unit, or TMU, is:
A) the same as a Therblig.
B) 0.00001 minute.
C) 0.00001 hour.
D) the duration of the easiest GET motion.
E) an historical experience standard.
D) were named by Frank Gilbreth.
45) Therbligs:
A) were invented by Frederick W. Taylor.
B) were used during the scientific management era, and are no longer in use.
C) are hyperactive rodent-like pets, whose name is associated with time standards.
D) were named by Frank Gilbreth.
E) are .0006 minutes in length.
C) basic physical elements of motion as used in methods time measurement exercises.
46) Therbligs are:
A) the smallest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises.
B) the largest unit of time used in methods time measurement exercises.
C) basic physical elements of motion as used in methods time measurement exercises.
D) the full range of motions required to complete a job as used in methods time measurement exercises.
E) the smallest amount of time required to complete a job.
E) therbligs.
47) Predetermined time standards are an outgrowth of basic motions called:
A) mini-movements.
B) micro-motions.
C) SAE standards.
D) TMUs.
E) therbligs.
C) They can only be determined after work actually takes place.
48) Among the advantages of predetermined time standards are all EXCEPT which of the following?
A) Unions accept them as fair.
B) They are available before a task is actually performed.
C) They can only be determined after work actually takes place.
D) They can be established in a laboratory setting.
E) No performance ratings are necessary.
C) work sampling
49) What is a technique for estimating the percent of time a worker spends on various tasks?
A) stopwatch time study
B) simultaneous motion study
C) work sampling
D) standard elemental (historical) times
E) predetermined (published) time standards
E) 246
50) A bank manager wants to determine the percent of time the bank’s tellers are working and idle. He decides to use work sampling, and his initial estimate is that the tellers are idle 20% of the time. Approximately how many observations should be taken to be 95% confident that the results will not be more than 5% away from the true result?
A) 6
B) 16
C) 44
D) 210
E) 246
C) the percent of time spent on various tasks.
51) The tally sheet data from a work sampling study provides information regarding:
A) the number of wasted motions.
B) the level of difficulty in a motion.
C) the percent of time spent on various tasks.
D) the quality of the work environment.
E) the number of micro-motions involved.
D) the time spent observing the employee is relatively short.
52) An advantage of work sampling is that:
A) no observation is required.
B) it involves study of the equipment only.
C) a performance rating is necessary.
D) the time spent observing the employee is relatively short.
E) it is more effective than time studies when task times are short.
A) it tends to be less accurate, particularly when task times are short.
53) A disadvantage of work sampling is that:
A) it tends to be less accurate, particularly when task times are short.
B) it observes several workers simultaneously.
C) it is more expensive than time-study methods.
D) it is more intrusive than time-study methods, and therefore generates more complaints.
E) All of the above are disadvantages of work sampling.
E) all of the above
1) Ethical work environment decisions by managers may be guided by which of the following?
A) state agencies
B) trade associations
C) insurers
D) employees
E) all of the above