Chapter 10 – Federal Civil Litigaion Flow Chart and other Rules – Flashcards

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Rule 3, Rule 8(a), Rule 9
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Complaint
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Rule 4
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Summons
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Rule 12(b)
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Preliminary Motions; A complaint in federal court can be dismissed involuntarily under this rule.
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Rule 8, Rule 12(a)
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Answer
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Rule 7(a)
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Reply to Counterclaim
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Rule 12(c)
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Motion for Judgment on the Pleadings (after pleadings closed)
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Rule 33
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Interrogatories
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Rule 34
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Request to Produce
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Rule 35
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Request for Physical or Mental Examination; not self-executing - the requesting party must file a motion to request it and an order must be entered granting the request.
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Rules 30, 31
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Depositions
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Rule 36
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Request for Admission
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Rule 37
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Motion to Compel
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Rule 56
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Motion for Summary Judgment (during/after discovery)
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Rule 16
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Pretrial Conference; Pretrial Order or Scheduling Order
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Plaintiff's/Defendant's Case
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Direct Testimony & Exhibits, Cross-Examination, Rebuttal
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Plaintiff's Case
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Motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law (jury trials only)
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Defendant's Case
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Motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law (both jury trials and nonjury trials)
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Rule 50
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Motion for Judgment as a Matter of Law (Rule#?)
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Plaintiff's Case
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Motion for Judgment on Partial Findings (nonjury trials only)
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Rule 52(c)
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Motion for Judgment on Partial Findings (Rule #?)
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Rule 59(e)
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Motion to Amend Judgment
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Rule 59(a)
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Motion for New Trial
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28 U.S.C. ss 1345, 1346
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The United States, its agencies, or its officers are parties if named either as a plaintiff or as a defendant in the lawsuit.
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28 U.S.C. s 1331
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A case involves a federal question if it is a "civil action arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States."
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28 U.S.C. s 1332
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A case involves diversity of citizenship if it is a civil action "where the matter in controversy exceeds the sum or value of $75,000, exclusive of interest and costs, and is between . . . citizens of different states."
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28 U.S.C. s 1367
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Supplemental Jurisdiction
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28 U.S.C. s 1441
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As a general rule, any case filed in a state court may be removed by the defendant to federal court if the federal court could have excercised original jurisdiction over the case when it was filed initially.
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28 U.S.C. s 1441(c)
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provides that when a federal question claim is joined with a "separate and independent" claim that could not be removed if it were filed alone, the entire case may be removed to federal court; and the federal court may decide all issues or, in its discretion, may decide the federal question issue and remand all issues in which state law predominates.
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30
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When removal is possible, notice of removal generally must be filed in the federal court within _____ days after the defendant receives service of the state court claim.
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28 U.S.C. s 1446
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Once the notice of removal has been filed, the state court may take no further action in the case unless the federal court determines that removal jurisdiction does not exist and remands the case to state court.
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Rule 14
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Third-party defendants may be served anywhere outside the state so long as it is within a 100-mile radius of the place (courthouse) where the case is filed.
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Rule 19
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Compulsory joinder - Covers situations in which additional parties must be joined once the jurisdictional requirements are met (Necessary and Indispensable Parties); Indispensable defendants may be served anywhere outside the state so long as it is within a 100-mile radius of the place (courthouse) where the case is filed.
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28 U.S.C. s 1391 (2003)
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Under this there are three basic methods to determine whether venue exists in a particular federal judicial district.
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Rule 20
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Permissive joinder - More than one plaintiff or more than one defendant may be joined in a single suit (1) if their claims arise from the same transaction or occurrence; and (2) if their claims present common question of law or of fact that will apply to all of them.
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Rule 24
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Intervention - Allows a person who was not an original party to the suit to enter the suit upon her own initiative.
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Rule 24(a)
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Intervention of right
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Rule 24(b)
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Permissive Intervention
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Rule 22
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Interpleader actions
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Rule 23
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allows a class action to be filed if certain requirements are met
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Rule 23(b)(3)
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the most common of the three types of class actions permitted is provided by this rule; Its requirements are (1) that the questions of law or fact which are common to the class predominate over any questions which affect individual members only; and (2) that a class action is superior to other, available methods to adjudicate the controversy fairly and efficiently; members of a class action under this rule may "opt out" of the class if they wish to do so, which is not true of other types of class actions.
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Rule 23(c)(1)
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Within 90 days after a complaint in a class action suit is filed, the plaintiff must file a motion with the court to determine whether the case can be maintained as a class action. This is called "certifying the class."
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Rule 7
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Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, only three pleadings are allowed: a complaint, an answer, and a reply to a counterclaim (if a counterclaim has been filed).
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Rule 3
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All civil actions in federal court are commenced by filing a complaint.
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Rule 8
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A short, concise statement of the claim(s) or defenses showing the the pleader is entitled to relief. This statement is the heart of the complaint and may be presented in several, separate paragraphs.
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Rule 11
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Under this rule, the attorney's signature indicates that the attorney has made reasonable inquiry and believes the allegations are well grounded in fact.
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Rule 10
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If the complaint refers to documents a copy of that document should be attached to the complaint as an exhibit.
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Rule 4(d)
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As a general rule, the plaintiff's attorney must send to each defendant a summons, a copy of the complaint, a form for waiver of service, and a notice of the consequences for failure to waive service.
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30, (60), 60, (90)
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If the waiver of service is signed and returned to the plaintiff's attorney within _____ days after it was sent (_____ days if the defendant is located in a foreign country), the defendant is given additional time (_____ days after the request for waiver was sent or _____ days after the request for waiver was sent if the defendant is located in a foreign country) in which to answer or to otherwise respond to the complaint.
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120
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Either a signed waiver of service of summons (or service of the summons) must be obtained within _____ days after the complaint is filed; otherwise, the action is subject to dismissal without prejudice.
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Rule 5
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After the action has been commenced, all pleadings, motions, notices, and so on are served upon all adverse parties or, if adverse parties are represented by counsel, upon their attorneys by U.S. mail.
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Rule 12
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The bases for preliminary challenges to a complaint in federal court are found substantially in this rule.
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Rule 12(b)(1)
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Lack of subject matter jurisdiction.
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Rule 12(b)(2)
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Lack of personal jurisdiction. In state court, this may be called a special appearance.
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Rule 12(b)(3)
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Improper venue.
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Rule 12(b)(4)
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Insufficiency of process.
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Rule 12(b)(5)
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Insufficiency of service of process.
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Rule 12(b)(6)
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Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted. In state court, this may be called demurrer.
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Rule 12(b)(7)
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Failure to join a Rule 19 indispensable party.
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Rule 12(e)
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Motion to make more definite and certain, when the complaint is so lacking in facts or is so vague that it is difficult to tell whether a claim has been stated or not.
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Rule 12(f)
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Motion to strike "from any pleading any insufficient defense or any redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous matter."
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14
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At least _____ days' notice must be given under Rule 6(d) for hearings in federal court.
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Rule 12(a)
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By signing a waiver of service, the defendant has 60 days after the waiver was sent to her (90 days if in a foreign country) to file an answer.
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21
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Without a signed waiver, the answer is due _____ days after service of summons.
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Rule 6
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Time is calculated by omitting the day of service and by including the last day of the period unless the last day is a Saturday, a Sunday, a holiday, or a day when the clerk's office is inaccessible. In that event, the last day for filing becomes the next day that the office is open.
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Rule 13
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A counterclaim is the pleading used by a defendant to state a claim against a plaintiff, which typically is filed with the defendant's answer in a combined pleading labeled Answer and Counterclaim. A counterclaim is either compulsory or permissive.
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21, (60)
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The proper responsive pleading is an answer to counterclaim (or answer to crossclaim), which must be filed within _____ days after service (_____ days for the United States).
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Rule 15
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If the pleading is one to which the opponent must respond (such as the complaint), this rule allows the pleading to be amended without court permission at any time before the responsive pleading is served.
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21
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If the pleading is one to which no response is required (such as an answer to a complaint that is not accompanied by a counterclaim or crossclaim), the pleading my be amended without court permission within _____ days after it is served.
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Rule 55(a)
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If the claim is for a sum certain (an amount not subject to reasonable dispute), the clerk of the federal court may enter default judgment upon submission of an affidavit concerning the amount due.
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Rule 55(b)(2)
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The court may require a hearing to prove damages before the default judgment is entered.
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Rule 55(c)
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Even though a default judgment is entered, the defendant can move to have it set aside.
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Rule 60(b)
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Entered default judgment can be moved to be set aside for good cause.
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Rule 26(g)
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When discovery procedures are used improperly (purely to harass, to delay, or to increase costs), the discovering attorney may be subject to court sanction.
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Rule 26(f)
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In general, counsel for parties must meet to establish an overall discovery plan.
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Rule 26(a)
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Within 14 days of counsel for parties meeting to establish an overal discovery plan, they must make certain disclosures before any formal discovery occurs.
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Rule 29
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Under this rule counsel for parties may agree to increase the number or depositions or interrogatories or to extend the time to answer discovery requests under Rules 33, 34, and 36 if it does not conflict with other rules.
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90
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At least _____ days before trial, parties must disclose expert witnesses, including their opinions, data, exhibits, qualifications, amount received for testifying, and so forth.
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30
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At least _____ days before trial, parties must discloses all witnesses who will or may be called at trial and must provide a list of exhibits that will or may be used.
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14
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Within _____ days after witnesses have to be disclosed, parties may file objections regarding depositions to be used, objections regarding admissibility of materials identified in support of a claim or defense.
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25
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No party may serve more than ______ interogatories, including subparts, without (1) a stipulation to serve more or (2) permission of the court.
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30
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Rule 33 requires the responding party to answer interrogatories within _____ days of their service.
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30
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The responding party must either comply with the request to produce or file appropriate objections within _____ days of service.
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Rule 34(c)
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Provides that nonparties can be required to produce documents and things under Rule 45 supoena procedures, but not under Rule 34 request to produce.
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Rule 45
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A nonparty can be served with a subpoena duces tecum, which is an order "to appear and bring with you" those items listed on the subpoena.
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30
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Answers or objections to requests for admissions are due in _____ days or the requests are deemed admitted.
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Rule 30
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Oral depositions
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Rule 31
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Depositions upon written questions
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once
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No witness may be deposed more than ________ except by stipulation or court order.
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10
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Depositions are limited to a maximum of ______ per side except by stipulation or court order.
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Rule 32(d)(3)(B)
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The deposition proceeds roughly in the same way as examination and cross-examination of witnesses at trial, except that attorneys often agree to reserve certain types of objections for trial (other than form of the question, form of the answer, or similar irregularity - which cannot be reserved until trial).
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Rule 26
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Generally provides that parties may discover anything (not privileged) which is relevant to the subject matter of the action or which is reasonably calculated to lead to admissible evidence. A person cannot be required to disclose privileged matters at a deposition.
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Federal Rule of Evidence 501
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A person cannot be required to disclose privileged matters at trial in federal question cases or state privilege rules in diversity cases.
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Rule 26(c)
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If the person wants to resist the time, place or method of discovery or wants to resist an entire area or line of questioning, a protective order under this rule may be the better solution.
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29 U.S.C. s 1292
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A discovery order may be appealed under interlocutory Appeals Act if it presents a "controlling question of law" in the case, if immediate appeal will expedite the litigation, and if the appellate court agrees to accept the appeal.
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Rule 32
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Governs the use of depositions taken under Rule 30 and Rule 31. The first question to be answered is whether the deposition statement would be admissible if the deponent were testifying at trial.
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Rule 32(a)(1)
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Subject to its admissibiltiy, the deposition statement of any trial witness may be used to impeach that witness's credibility.
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Rule 32(a)(2)
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Subject to its admissibiltiy, the deposition statement of an adverse party - including depositions of officers or directors if the adverse party is a corporation - may be used for any purpose at trial.
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Rule 32(a)(3)
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Subject to its admissibiltiy, the deposition statement of any party or nonparty may be used for any purpose if (a) the witness is dead; (b.) the witness is more than 100 miles from the place of trial; (c.) the witness is too ill to testify; (d.) the witness is outside the subpoena range of the court; or (e.) exceptional circumstances exist to justify use of the deposition rather than live testimony.
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Rule 41(a)(1)
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The first dismissal is without prejudice; but if the plaintiff re-files the complaint and then voluntarily dismisses a second time, the second dismissal is with prejudice.
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Rule 41(b)
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A complaint in federal court can be dismissed involuntarily under Rule 12(b) and it can be dismissed involuntarily under this rule for failure to prosecute the claim or for disobedience of a court order.
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21
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The party opposing a motion for summary judgment must be given _____ days' notice of the hearing and is permitted to file a resistance to the motion, together with opposing affidavits.
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14
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Movant filing a motion for summary judgment has _____ days to file a reply, if a reply is warranted, to the resistance filed by the party opposing the motion for summary judgment.
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Rule 50(a)(1)
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The judge grants judgment as a matter of law if there is no legally sufficient evidentiary basis for a reasonable jury to have found for that party with respect to that issue.
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Rule 16(b)
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Even if the judge in federal court does not conduct a pretrial conference, she must issue a scheduling order within 120 days after the complaint is filed.
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Rule 16(f)
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Any party (or the lawyer for any party) may be subject to sanctions if he or she fails to participate in the pretrial conference, participates in bad faith, or fails to comply with progression deadlines or with any other requirement established by the pretrial order.
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Rule 50(a)
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At the close of the plaintiff's case, the defendant may make a motion for judgment as a matter of law if the defendant believes that the plaintiff failed to prove (offer evidence on) any element which is necessary for an ultimate verdict in favor of the plaintiff. As a cautionary procedural measure, the defendant's attorney may make this motion without regard to his assessment of the outcome. By making this motion, even if he thinks that it may be overruled, he preserves his client's right to raise the issue on appeal. At the close of all evidence, either or both the plaintiff and the defendant may make a motion for judgment as a matter of law under this rule, which replaces the motion for directed verdict under previous federal rules.
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Rule 51
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At the close of all evidence, any party may file written request(s) with the trial judge that a specific jury instruction be given to the jury.
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Rule 49(a)
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A special verdict requires a special, written finding for each fact in the case.
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10, 10
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A motion for new trial must be filed within _____ days of the entry of judgment (Rule 59) and may be accompanied by supporting affidavits, giving the adverse party _____ days after the motion for new trial to file opposing affidavits.
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10
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A motion to alter or amend judgment must be filed within ____ days after the judgment is entered.
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Fed. R. App. P. 4(a)(4)
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An appeal of right is initiated by filing a notice of appeal with the clerk of the federal trial court, which must be done either (1) within 30 days after entry of the final judgment or order in the case (2) within 30 days after motions under Rules 50, 52, or 59 are denied (including denial of a motion for a new trial under Rule 59). This period is enlarged to 60 days if the United States or any of its officials or agencies is a party. If a party can show excusable neglect, the period can be extended for an additional 30 days after the expiration date or for an additional ten days after the order of extension, whichever is later.
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14
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Once a notice of appeal is filed, any other party also may file a notice of appeal (called a cross-appeal) within _____ days after the first notice of appeal is filed or within any time period set by Fed. R. App. P. 4, whichever is later.
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Fed. R. App. P. 7
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When a notice of appeal is filed, the appellant also must pay a docket fee under Fed. R. Appl. P. 3(e) and may be required to a bond for costs, which is called an appeal bond.
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Fed. R. App. P. 10
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A transcript of the record must be ordered by the appellant within 10 days after filing the notice of appeal.
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Fed. R. App. P. 11
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The transcript must be prepared by the court reporter of the federal trial court and filed in the court of appeals court within 30 days after the transcript of the record is ordered.
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Fed. R. App. P. 31
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Requires the appellant's brief to be filed and served within 40 days after the date on which the record is filed in the court of appeals.
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30
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The appellee has _____ days to file her brief, running from the date of service of the appellant's brief.
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14
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If the appellant files a reply brief to the appellant's brief the reply brief must be filed and served within _____ days after the appellee's brief.
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Fed. R. App. P. 40
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If the losing party on appeal disagrees with the federal court of appeals decision, she may request a rehearing.
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Rule 52(a)
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Findings of fact are set aside only if they are "clearly erroneous."
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Rule 69
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Allows the judgment creditor to conduct post-trial discovery if the judgment creditor believes that the judgment debtor may have concealed assets or may have transferred assets for less than their fair market value (a fraudulent conveyance).
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