question

Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult's body: 30% 45% 60% 70%

answer

60%

question

Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body: 30% 20% 10% 4%

answer

4%

question

Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through? perspiration only feces only perspiration and expiration urine and feces

answer

perspiration and expiration

question

When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the: blood into the cells interstitial compartment into the cells interstitial compartment into the blood cells into the interstitial compartment

answer

interstitial compartment into the blood.

question

Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins? increased osmotic pressure decreased osmotic pressure increased hydrostatic pressure decreased hydrostatic pressure

answer

decreased osmotic pressure

question

Which of the following would cause edema? decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure increased capillary osmotic pressure decraesed capillary permeability increased capillary permeability

answer

increased capillary permeability

question

Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading? fluid excess fluid deficit increased sodium level decreased erythrocytes

answer

fluid deficit

question

Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration? Rapid, strong pulse low hematocrit increased urine output rough oral mucosa

answer

rough oral mucosa

question

Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid? Sodium Potassium Calcium Iron

answer

Sodium

question

Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia? Loss of the thirst mechanism Excessive sweating Excessive aldosterone secretion Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations

answer

Excessive sweating

question

Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia? skeletal muscle twitch and cramps oliguria elavated serum pH cardiac arrythmias

answer

cardiac arrythmias

question

Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone? increased movement of calcium ions into the bones increased activation of vitamin D increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract decreased reaborption of calcium in the kidneys

answer

increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract

question

Which of the following results from hypocalcemia? Low serum phosphate levels nausea and constipation skeletal muscle twitch and spasms weak cardiac contractions

answer

skeletal muscle twitch and spasms weak cardiac contractions

question

Which of the following causes tetany? increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) excess calium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex

answer

increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium

question

Which of the following is considered normal serum pH? 4.5-8 7.0 7.4 8

answer

7.4

question

When many excess hydrogen ions accumulated in the blood, what happens to serum pH? The pH decreases increases remains constant varies based on metabolism

answer

decreases

question

What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance? respiratory system buffer system in the blood kidneys brain

answer

kidneys

question

Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range? Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities all excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys the concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant the ratio-of carbonic acid to bicaronate ion must be 1.20

answer

the ratio-of carbonic acid to bicaronate ion must be 1.20

question

Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations? increased carbonioc acid decreased carbonic acid increased bicarbonate acid decreased bicarbonate acid

answer

increased carbonioc acid

question

Which condition is likely to cause of metabolic acidosis? slow shallow respirations prolonged diarrhea mild vomitting excessive fluid in the body

answer

prolonged diarrhea

question

What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate metabolic alkalosis metabolic acidosis respiratory alkalosis respiratory acidosis

answer

metabolic acidosis

question

Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis? pH is below normal range pH is above normal range bicarbonate level decreases bicarbonate level increases

answer

pH is below normal range

question

The direct effect of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the? Digestive system Urinary system Nervous system Respiratory system

answer

Nervous system

question

Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include? increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) decreased aldosterone slow, strong heart contraction peripheral vasodilation

answer

increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

question

Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema? metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis respiratory acidosis respiratory alkalosis

answer

respiratory acidosis

question

An anxiety attack caused by hyperventilation leading to increased PC02 decreased PC02 respiratory acidosis metabolic acidosis

answer

decreased PC02

question

One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants proportionally smaller body surface area higher metabolic rate smaller respiratory capacity greater surface area of expose mucous membranes

answer

higher metabolic rate

question

A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to hypokalemia hyperkalemia hyponatremia hypercalcemia

answer

hyperkalemia

question

Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result hypokalemia hypernatremia hyperchloremia hypovolemia

answer

hypovolemia

question

Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis? bradycardia and deep rapid breathing drowsiness and general lethargy increased nervous system irritability decreased urine pH

answer

increased nervous system irritability

question

Prolonged diarrhea results in loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis

answer

loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis

question

In the initial stage, vomiting results in metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis respiratory alkalosis None of the above

answer

metabolic alkalosis

question

Which two ions most important for acid-base balance in the body Ka+,Na+ Cl- and HCO3- Ca+,Na+ Na+,C1-

answer

Cl- and HCO3-

question

The biocarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. Balance of carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by liver and pancreas lungs and kidneys lungs and plasma proteins kidneys and bone marrow

answer

lungs and kidneys

question

Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves blocking normal nerve conduction increasing the permeability of nerve membranes blocking movement of calcium ions decreasing phosphate ion levels

answer

increasing the permeability of nerve membranes

question

Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions permeability of nerve membranes increases insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction low phosphate ion levels prevent muscles contraction excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle

answer

insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction

question

Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na+ levels ADH Aldosterone Serum H+ levels Serum K+ levels

answer

Aldosterone

question

The control center for thirst is located in kidneys thalamus medulla hypothalamus

answer

hypothalamus

question

Three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH hypothalamus, metabolic changes by the digestive system, lymphatic system filtration buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate neural feedback, increase heart rate, decrease in calcium intake modification of water intake, increase capillary permeability, decrease in blood colume

answer

buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate

question

Hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has very low level of this ion Sodium Phosphate Calcium Potassium

answer

Potassium

question

In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to a deficient sodium level a excess phosphate level an excess sodium level an exessively low phosphate leve

answer

a excess phosphate level

question

Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of "milk-alkali syndrome" which can cause Hyponatremia Hyperkalemia Hypercalcemia Hypovolemia

answer

Hypercalcemia

question

Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug? Additional, mild, unwanted effects Unusual, unexpected mild effects Serious, possibly life-threatening effects Reduction of the allergic response

answer

Serious, possibly life-threatening effects

question

What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use? Trade name Chemical name Proprietary name Generic name

answer

Generic name

question

Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action? Oral Intramuscular Sublingual Intravenous

answer

Oral

question

Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to: immediately increase the blood level of the drug. prevent gastric irritation. ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood. cause more rapid excretion of the drug.

answer

prevent gastric irritation

question

What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects? Antagonism Beneficial Synergism Potentiation

answer

Synergism

question

At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion? Liver Kidneys Circulating blood Lymphoid tissue

answer

Liver

question

In traditional Asian medicine, acupoints are usually located: over pain or other sensory receptors. where blood vessels branch. over joints. on designated meridians.

answer

on designated meridians.

question

Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by: chiropractors. naturopaths. homeopaths. osteopaths.

answer

osteopaths.

question

Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify: those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used. those typical side effects associated with this drug. the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug. the maximum shelf life of the medication.

answer

those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.

question

After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the: lungs. pancreas. kidneys. large intestine.

answer

kidneys.

question

A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may: 1. stimulate activity in those cells. 2. inhibit activity in those cells. 3. change specificity and attach to other cells. 4. be disabled by macrophages. a.1, 2 b. 2, 3 c. 3, 4 d. 1, 3, 4

answer

a.1, 2

question

A placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule: a.that does not contain an active drug. b. that contains a small amount of active drug for use in clinical trials. c. that contains a different drug to be used for its psychological effect. d. that contains high amounts of a drug to determine the maximum dose allowed.

answer

a.that does not contain an active drug.

question

The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as: a. registered massage therapy. b. naturopathy. c. physiotherapy. d. reflexology.

answer

c. physiotherapy.

question

A medical history should include all: 1. legally prescribed drugs. 2. vitamin or mineral supplements. 3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items). 4. herbal treatments. a. 1 only b. 1, 3 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4

answer

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

question

Antagonistic drugs may be used to: a.increase the effectiveness of selected drugs. b. prolong the action of a drug. c. act as an antidote when necessary. d. speed up the excretion of a drug.

answer

c. act as an antidote when necessary.

question

The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent: a. undesirable side effects. b. development of resistant microbes. c. an allergic response. d. proper metabolism and excretion of drug.

answer

b. development of resistant microbes.

question

The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by: a. nociceptors. b. myelinated A delta fibers. c. unmyelinated C fibers. d. any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold.

answer

b. myelinated A delta fibers.

question

In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord? a. Reticular formation b. Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic tract d. Relevant dermatome

answer

c. Spinothalamic tract

question

According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked: a. at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses. b. by the stress response. c. by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord. d. by referring the pain to other parts of the body.

answer

a. at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses

question

What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action? a. Pain threshold b. Referred pain c. Phantom pain d. Pain tolerance

answer

d. Pain tolerance

question

What is the definition of endorphins? a. Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors b. Transmitters for sensory impulses c. Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system d. Pain-causing chemical mediators

answer

c. Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system

question

Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of: a. referred pain. b. phantom pain. c. chronic pain. d. subjective pain response.

answer

a. referred pain.

question

A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache. a.tension b.sinus c. migraine d. intracranial

answer

c. migraine

question

Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia? a. It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness. b. The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord. c. The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord. d. The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.

answer

b. The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.

question

Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain? a. Depression and debilitation b. A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort c. Fatigue and lower pain tolerance d. Severe but short term

answer

d. Severe but short term

question

What is the role of nociceptors? They are: a. pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means. b. spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin. c. responsible for the state of arousal with pain. d. useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.

answer

a. pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.

question

Intractable pain is best defined as: a. pain that is perceived as occurring in an amputated limb. b. severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication. c. pain perceived as coming from a source other than the actual source. d. pain coming from a specific dermatome.

answer

b. severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication.

question

Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed. b. Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses. c. Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure. d. Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.

answer

c. Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.

question

Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating: a. severe pain. b. pain caused by inflammation. c. intracranial pain. d. pain in young infants.

answer

b. pain caused by inflammation.

question

Which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site? a. Acetaminophen b. Morphine c. Codeine d. Intravenous general anesthesia

answer

a. Acetaminophen

question

Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and: a. phantom pain as a result of amputation. b. pain associated with the treatment of the disease. c. pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes. d. pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves.

answer

b. pain associated with the treatment of the disease.

question

Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as: a. neuropathic pain. b. central pain. c. neurogenic pain. d. referred pain.

answer

a. neuropathic pain.

question

Pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a specific area of the body is referred to as: a. chronic pain. b. central pain. c. cardiovascular pain. d. ischemic pain.

answer

d. ischemic pain.

question

Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain? a. It usually initiates a physiological stress response. b. It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety. c. It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain. d. It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.

answer

c. It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.

question

A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an: a. intracranial headache. b. intrameningeal headache. c. migraine headache. d. cerebral headache.

answer

a. intracranial headache.

question

Neutrophils: a.are phagocytic cells. b. produce histamine. c. produce antibodies. d. are elevated during an allergic response.

answer

a.are phagocytic cells.

question

Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response? a. Thelper cells b. Macrophages c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes

answer

b. Macrophages

question

Humoral immunity is mediated by: a.natural killer cells. b.T lymphocytes (T cells). c. B lymphocytes (B cells). d. neutrophils.

answer

c. B lymphocytes (B cells).

question

A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that: a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. b. it is slower than the primary response and doesnt change the antibody levels. c. it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies. d. it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.

answer

a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.

question

Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination? a.Active natural b.Active artificial c. Passive natural d. Passive artificial

answer

b.Active artificial

question

When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called: a. cytotoxic hypersensitivity. b.immune complex hypersensitivity. c. type I hypersensitivity. d. type IV hypersensitivity.

answer

c. type I hypersensitivity.

question

The role of memory cells is to: a.change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation. b. immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen. c. recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response. d. bind complement to the antibody.

answer

c. recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.

question

Which statement applies to contact dermatitis? a.It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance. b. It may result from ingested foods. c. Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body. d. A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.

answer

d. A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.

question

Which of the following causes anaphylaxis? a. A severe, systemic allergic reaction b. Type III hypersensitivity c. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity d. Immune complex deposits in many tissues

answer

a. A severe, systemic allergic reaction

question

Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation? a. Agglutination b. Double immunodiffusion test c. Western blot test d. Sedimentation rate test

answer

c. Western blot test

question

Incompatible blood transfusions result in: a. hemolysis of erythrocytes. b. a type I immune response. c. deposits in multiple organs. d. immune deficiency.

answer

a. hemolysis of erythrocytes.

question

An autoimmune disease is: a. excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material. b. an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment. c. an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs. d. failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

answer

d. failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.

question

Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by: a. a chronic allergic condition. b. development of an immune-deficient state. c. a deficiency of T lymphocytes. d. immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

answer

d. immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.

question

Distinguishing clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus include: a. inflammation in multiple organs. b. lack of a specific diagnostic blood test. c. acute onset and nonprogressive course. d. typical skin rash on the chest and back.

answer

a. inflammation in multiple organs.

question

Which of the following are the target cells for HIV? a. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes) b. B lymphocytes c. Natural killer cells d. Macrophages

answer

a. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4 lymphocytes)

question

A diagnosis of HIV positive means that: a. the number of T lymphocytes in the circulating blood is decreased. b. significant opportunistic infection is present in the body. c. the individual has AIDS. d. the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

answer

d. the virus and its antibodies are present in the blood.

question

HIV infection impairs: a. humoral immunity. b. cell-mediated immunity. c. both humoral and cell-mediated immunity. d.neither type of immunity.

answer

c. both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

question

immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as: a. opportunistic. b. prophylactic. c. abnormal. d. transient.

answer

a. opportunistic

question

19. Serious infections frequently occurring in patients with AIDS include: 1. tuberculosis. 2. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. 3. influenza. 4. tetanus. a. 1, 2 b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 3, 4

answer

a. 1, 2

question

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins or molecules? a. They are genes on chromosome 6. b.All members of a family have identical MHCs. c. They alert the immune system to virus-infected cells. d.A close match is essential for successful tissue transplants.

answer

b. All members of a family have identical MHCs.

question

CD4-positive helper T cells function by: a.direct cytotoxic action. b. facilitating all immune system activity. c. producing immunoglobulins. d.inactivating allergens.

answer

b. facilitating all immune system activity.

question

Host-versus-graft disease refers to: a.hyperacute rejection of tissue. b.T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells. c.infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy. d.transplant rejection by the recipients immune system.

answer

d.transplant rejection by the recipients immune system.

question

Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients? a.Kaposis sarcoma b.Wasting syndrome c. Lymphoma d. Polyarthritis

answer

d. Polyarthritis

question

Which of the following characteristics apply to HIV? 1. It contains two strands of DNA. 2. It tends to mutate frequently to form new strains. 3. The incubation period is extremely short. 4. It is inactivated by heat and many disinfectants. a.1, 2 b.1, 3 c.2, 4 d.3, 4

answer

c.2, 4

question

In cases of HIV infection, the window period refers to the time between: a. entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations. b. entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood. c.entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count. d. diagnosis of HIV positive and diagnosis of AIDS.

answer

b. entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood

question

Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They: a. activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes. b. destroy antigens quickly. c. increase the rate of mitosis in tumors. d. cause immediate pain.

answer

a. activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.

question

What does seroconversion mean in relation to HIV and AIDS? a. The virus has been identified in the blood and body fluids. b. Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood. c. HIV was found in lymphocytes. d. Active infection has developed in the patient.

answer

b. Antibodies for HIV have been identified in the blood.

question

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive? a. No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range. b. Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others. c. Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others. d.Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.

answer

c. Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.

question

The term tolerance refers to: a. surveillance and destruction of new cancer cells by the immune system. b. the ability of the immune system to ignore self cells. c. the ability of T and B lymphocytes to work together. d. the role of lymphoid tissue in the body defenses.

answer

b. the ability of the immune system to ignore self cells.

question

Which of the following statements applies to the complement system? a. It is activated by IgE. b. It blocks the inflammatory response. c. It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated. d. It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.

answer

c. It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated.

question

Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE? a.They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids. b.They are produced in the red bone marrow. c. They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body. d. IgA binds to allergens.

answer

a.They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids.

question

Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency? a.Hypoplasia of the thymus b.Delayed hypersensitivity c. Immunosuppressive drugs d. Atrophy of the lymph nodes

answer

b.Delayed hypersensitivity

question

Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV-infected mothers? a. Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth. b. There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery. c.Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies. d. Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies.

answer

d. Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies.

question

The most common cause of death in patients who have AIDS is: a. HIV encephalopathy. b. tuberculosis. c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. d. Candida infection.

answer

D Candida infection.

question

Tissue transferred between two genetically identical twins is referred to as a/an: a.allograft. b.syngraft. c. isograft. d. autograft.

answer

c. isograft.

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