CDC 1C5 URE’s – Flashcards
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The theater air control system (TACS) design is based on the principle of ______ control and ________ execution
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centralized, decentralized
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The joint forces commander exercises operational control of his or her forces through the...
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service component commanders
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What is not an element of achieving integrations and interoperability between different units and services?
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flexible operations
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The main objective of conducting air operations is to contribute to the successful completion of the theater commander's campaign plan by engaging and defeating...
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hostile air,land,and sea forces
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Who delegates battle management responsibilities to theater air control system elements?
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joint forces air component commander (JFACC)
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The theater air control system performs key battle management, suveillance, identification, airspace management, and..
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weapons control functions
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What essential characteristic of the baselined deployable air operations center presents a well-defined and clearly understood capability to the joint forces commander?
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standardized
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What functional area within the air operations center produces the air tasking order?
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combat plans division
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Who is responsible for monitoring and executing the current air tasking order?
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combat operations division
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Which functional area within the air operations center evaluates bomb damage assessment?
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intelligence,surveillance,and reconnaissance division
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Which component liaison supports integration of aerospace operations with ground maneuver?
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battlefield coordination detachment
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Which support element evaluates the impact of terrestrial, oceanographic, and space weather on weapons, weapon systems, and operations on both friendly and enemy forces?
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weather support team
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Which support element of the AOC employs petroleum, oil, and lubricants personnel?
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logistics team
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What position within the AOC is responsible to the chief, combat operations for directing and supervising offensive combat operations?
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senior operations duty officer (SODO)
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What position in the air operations center(AOC) monitors ATO execution and evaluates the degree to which actual operations are meeting the objectives of the ATO?
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offensive duty officer (ODO)
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Which team within the combat operations division provides management oversight of the overall execution of theater air defense operations by coordinating with other TACS elements and monitoring the status of air defense assets?
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defensive operations team
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Within the AOC, who evaluates and recommends changes in the air defense activity and airspace management?
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defensive duty officer (DDO)
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Within the AOC, who is directly responsible for passive defense and active defense operations against theater missiles and surface-to-surface missiles?
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theater missile defense officer
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Within the AOC, who monitors the data link nets to ensure transfer and display of critical air defense information?
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interface control officer
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What is used as the core sensor data communications processor system for the AOC?
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air defense system integrator (ADSI)
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What correlates and fuses data from multiple sensors and intelligence sources to provide warfighters the situational awareness needed to be able to act and react decisively?
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common operational picture (COP)
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What piece of equipment at the AOC can transmit and receive voice and data signals up to 150 miles via line of sight,diffraction,and troposcatter?
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AN/TRC-170 microwave radio set
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Which TACS radar element is the primary command,control,and surveillance facility?
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control and reporting center (CRC)
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What function of the control and reporting center is responsible for the detection, tracking, and identification of airborne tracks?
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surveillance
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What function of the control and reporting center is responsible for controlling offensive and defensive counterair missions?
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weapons control
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What function of the control and reporting center provides safe passage advisories to airborne assets within their area of responsibility?
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airspace management
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The control and reporting center/control and reporting element is divided into ____ functional areas
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6
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Who is designated as the primary battle commander at the control and reporting center?
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unit commander
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Within the control and reporting center who ensures the commander is up to date on the current operational situtation?
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battle staff coordinator (BSC)
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Within the control and reporting center, who supervises the weapons section and allocates fighter resources?
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senior director
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In a control and reporting center (CRC), the track data coordinator is the?
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air surveillance officer
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What position is located within the AN/TPS-75 radar van and is responsible for maximizing radar presentations?
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electronic protection technician
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A standar control and reporting post has how many operations modules and radars?
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4 OMs and 2 radars
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The primary sensor for the modular control equipment is the..
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AN/TPS-75
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At the radar shelter, what performs target detection and tracking, noise and clutter filtering, radar status monitoring, and message processing?
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MCE interface group
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All link 11 modem functions are done by the..
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data terminal set
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Which panel manually assigns voice and data circuits to internal radios?
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radio patch panel
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To how many internal ultrahigh frequency radios does the voice communications access panel provide direct access?
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4
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The TACS unit that plans, coordinates, and directs tactical air support of ground forces is the..
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air support operations center (ASOC)
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Which TACS unit is responsible for advising the US Army ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of aerospace power?
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tactical air control party
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What is an airborne element of the TACS the provides coordination and final control for CAS missions as well as locating, identifying, and marking ground targets?
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forward air controller-airborne
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The wing commander's HQ facility, which includes a command post, command section, and battle staff, is located within the..
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wing operations center
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Which element is composed of a single officer or team of mission experts who fly on board airborne C2 platforms and function as the JFACC's representative?
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airborne command element
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Which radar combination is not possible?
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maritime and beyond-the-horizon radars
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What does HAVE QUICK make available to AWACS?
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an improved air-to-air and air-to-ground, jam resistant UHF voice communication capability
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The _______ radar antenna is electronically scanned in azimuth and mechanically positioned in elevation; Who uses the TDL SCDL?
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JSTARS radar antenna is electronically scanned in azimuth and mechanically positioned in elevation
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What is used by the JSTARS to broadcast data to Army common ground stations?
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surveillance and control data link
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What is not a mission responsibilty of NORAD?
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light intensity conflict
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How does NORAD use its resources to counter the flow of illegal drugs into North America?
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by detecting, tracking, and reporting suspected drug traffickers
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Which NORAD agency is the nerve center for aerospace defense operations?
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cheyenne mountain operations complex
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Which NORAD agency interacts closely with the three NORAD regions?
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air warning center
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How many sectors are in the CONUS NORAD region?
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3
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If a region air operations center/ air defense sector becomes disabled, what system can partially substitute?
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AWACS
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What system consists of minimally attended radars that stretch across the northern areas of North America?
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north warning system
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Which system provides detection, tracking, and identification of aircraft at extended ranges (500 to 1800 nautical miles)?
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over the horizon backscatter
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What joint US Air Force and Federal Aviation Adminstration operation provides air radar surveillance?
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joint surveillance system
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The three CONUS sectors report to the..
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first AF/CONUS NORAD region
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The mission of the CONUS NORAD region AOC and assigned air defense sectors is to provide
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peacetime air sovereignty and limited wartime capability
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What is the mission of the Canadian region AOC and its air defense sectors?
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peacetime air sovereignty and wartime
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Within the air defense sector operations organization, which position directly supervises the three operational branches?
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mission crew commander
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Which region AOC/air defense sector operational position in Alaska and Canada coordinates electronic attack activities?
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air surveillance technician
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Which region AOC/ADS operational position is responisble for initializing the digital data links between the RAOC/ADS and ASOC?
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interface control coordinator
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Interceptor air bases,AWACS remote control center, and air weather service interface with ______?
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RAOC/ADS
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Which data source is programmed to assume the functions of any disabled US air defense sector?
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AWACS remote control center
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Region AOC/ADS maintain interface with the Cheyenne Mountain Operations Center using ____ _____ as primary and ______ as backup.
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data circuits, voice
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What unit within the hardened theater air control center is responsible for the execution of surveillance, warning, and defense functions?
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master control and reporting center
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What unit within the hardened theater air control center plans the day-to-day expenditure of air resources based upon the objecctives set forth by the air component commander?
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combat plans squadron
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What unit within the hardened theater air control center supervises the detailed execution of air operations orders and integrated tasking orders?
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combat operations squadron
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What master CRC position monitors missions and check-in scope to ensure prevention of inadvertent over flight of restricted/prohibited areas?
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mission crew commander/technician
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What master CRC position manages the common tactical picture and forwards the common operational picture?
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joint interface control officer
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How many remote radar heads are in the Iceland air defense system?
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4
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The Iceland air defense system recognized air-sea picture consists of what type of information?
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air,land,and sea surface,and subsurface information
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What are the three operations sections the Iceland air defense system mission crew commander supervises?
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weapons control,surveillance, and identification sections
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Properly positioning critical information is an objective of __ ______?
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C4 systems
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What C4 system component transforms information from formats that people can understand into formats that machines can understand?
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terminal devices
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What C4 system component is the means by which traffic is routed through a network of transmission media?
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switching
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Which of the following is a key to C4 system interoperability?
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standardization
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What performance characteristic of C4 systems is achieved through modular designs and microelectronics?
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mobility
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How is connectivity between all Global Command and Control System (GCCS) sites provided?
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defense information system network
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What application of theater battle management core system(TBMCS) associates mission taskings with targets and creates the ATO?
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theater air planning
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What are the three software versions of theater battle management core system?
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unit level, force level, and remote
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What picture does the air defense systems(ADSI) integrator create?
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recognized air picture
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What are the three seperate computers that are integrated in air defense systems integrator(ADSI)?
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tactical situation display, master database, router/forwarder
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How many simultaneous links is the ADSI router capable of performing?
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16
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How many tactical situation display workstations can be connected to each ADSI?
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50
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Which weapons system cannot be carried by the F-15 Eagle?
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AIM-54
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What are the two reasons for the expansion of the seat back angle on the F-16?
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pilot comfort and gravity force tolerance
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What unique strengths of the bomber force are cornerstones of America's airpower and force projection?
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payload,range,and responsiveness coupled with precision attack
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Which aircraft have variable geometry wings?
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B-1B lancer
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What is the unrefueled range of a B-52 Stratofortress?
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over 8,800 miles
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What is the Navy's all-weather, carrier-based tactical warning and control system aircraft?
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E-2C hawkeye
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What is used as a surveillance asset in support of counter drug missions?
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E-3 Sentry
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Which aircraft is used for on-scene intelligence collection,analysis, and dissemination?
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RC-135 RIVET JOINT
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Which aircraft has a primary mission of providing dedicated support to ground and air theater commanders?
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E-8C joint surveillance target attack radar system
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The ________ UAV provides persistent intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance information to the warfighter
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predator
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How many aircraft make up a fully operational Predator system?
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4
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What is not a sensor on the RQ-4A Global Hawk?
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target lock radar
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What is the minimum runway length requirement for C-17?
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3,000 ft
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What is not a mission of the C-130?
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aerial bombing
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What document provides the information necessary to plan,develop,manage,and conduct an effective 1C5X1 career field training program?
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career field education and training plan (CFETP)
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In what part of the career field education and training program is the specialty training standard (STS) found?
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part II
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What AFSC skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?
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5
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A 3-Level aerospace control and warning operator carries the title of...
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apprentice
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What identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the personnel data system?
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special experience identifier (SEI)
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What is a uniform system of five progressive readiness conditions?
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defense readiness conditions (DEFCON)
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Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates normal readiness? Which DEFCON indicates a state above normal readiness?
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5(FADE OUT),3(ROUNDHOUSE)
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Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates all forces are ready for a wartime situation?
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1(COCKED PISTOL)
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When an attack upon CONUS or Canada by hostile a/c considered probable, imminent, or taking place, the commander of NORAD declares an..
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air defense emergency
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Air defense warnings indicate..
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the degree of probability that an airborne attack will be made against the aerospace defense area
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Air traffic control electronic devices are turned off to deny their use as homing devices by the enemy when..
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security of air traffic and navigation aids (SCATANA) is implemented
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Any unidentified targets detected in the cleared area under the conditions of security of air traffic and navigation aids will be...
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presumed to be hostile and subject to prompt interception
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Which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 110 degrees?
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southeast
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Which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 290 degrees?
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northwest
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An object at a bearing of 060degrees and a range of 135 miles would be reported as..
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ZERO SIX ZERO, ONE HUNDRED THIRTY-FIVE
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An object at a bearing of 005degrees and a range of 50 miles would be reported as..
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ZERO ZERO FIVE, FIFTY
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The reference lines by which latitude and longitude are determined are the..
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latitude = equator longitude = prime meridan
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What is the size of a major GEOREF block?
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15 degrees
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What is the size of a minor GEOREF square?
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1 degree
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The rows in a numerical GEOREF block are numbered from..
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00 to 59
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The MGRS is read from..The Lat/long is read from?
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left to right, and then up ; the lower to the higher numbers
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What size MGRS square is represented by the coordinates 17R DJ? 16R CJ 156653?
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100,000 meters , 100 meters
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What size MGRS square is represented by coordinates 13E DH 1427? 8S AE 13?
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1,000 meters, 10,000 meters
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During what phase do targeting personnel quantify the expected results of lethal and non lethal weapons employment against prioritized targets?
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weaponeering/allocation
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Who submits daily intelligence summaries (DISUM) to the national level?
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combatant commands
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How many different ATOs usually exist at any given time?
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3
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Who is the final authority for a theater where ROE are concerned?
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joint forces commander
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What is the normal mission of an intercept during peactime ROE?
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identify
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The word "radar" is an acronym that means ...
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radio detection and ranging
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What aspect of a target can radar not determine?
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type
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Which radar component allows a single antenna to serve for transmitting and receiving? Which radar component separates wanted from unwanted radio wave signals to a level where target information can be displayed?
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duplexer ; receiver
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The radar antenna's function during transmission is to..
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concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space
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The radar antenna's function during reception is to...
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collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiever
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The number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the..
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pulse repetition frequency
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What is the principle used in radar to detect a target by analyzing a change in frequency of a return signal?
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doppler shift
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What has many small antennas or slotted waveguides positioned on the face or side of a large wedge-shaped structure?
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phased-array radar
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How many IFF/SIF modes of operation are there?
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7
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The IFF/SIF mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is?
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mode C
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The mode of IFF/SIF interrogation is controlled by the..
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spacing of the two pulses generated by the coder
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The ___/___ pulses are transmitted after the radar pulse so the IFF/SIF return can be presented at a slightly different range than the _____ _____
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IFF/SIF ; radar return
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Which IFF/SIF codes can be selected by an a/c pilot?
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mode 1
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Which IFF/SIF codes are fixed for each airframe?
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mode 2
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Which IFF/SIF codes generated by an altimeter?
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mode C
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What does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code "7500" mean?
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hijacking
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What does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code "7600" mean?
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lost communications/radio out
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What does IFF/SIF mode 3/A code "7700" mean?
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emergency
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Which IFF/SIF mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile a/c?
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4
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Why might you receieve an IFF/SIF return from a target and not a radar return?
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the IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return
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What frequency range does the air route surveillance radar model 4 operate in?
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1,215 to 1,400 MHz
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How does the air route surveillance radar model increase its weather-processing capabilities?
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incorporating a completely separate weather channel and processing path
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What radar system is used in mobile applications?
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TPS-75
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What is the range of the TPS-75 radar antenna?
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240 NM
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What is the altitude limit of the FPS-117?
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100,000 ft
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The FPS-117 can frequency hop on up to how many preset frequencies?
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18
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What is the altitude limit of the FPS-124?
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15,000 ft
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What is considered a constant surface for weather purposes?
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A surface that consists of all land or all water
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(Refer to CDC vol. 2)Use figure 3-1 to answer the following question. A continental polar air mass would most likely be associated with..
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Wisconsin
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For the purpose of identifying clouds, the atmosphere is..
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divided into high, middle, and low sections
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What is area between two different air masses called?
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front
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Weather fronts are generally classified according to..
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relative motions of the air masses involved
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What type of front is formed when warm air moves up over a wedge of colder retreating air?
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warm
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The advancing or leading edge of a cold air mass is called a..
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cold front
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Concerning weather effects on radar, the combination of scattering and absoprtion is known as..
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attenuation
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The area of the atmosphere where weather occurs is known as the..
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troposphere
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What type of refraction causes energy waves to be curved upward?
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subrefraction
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How is radar performance affected during superrefraction, if at all?
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radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range
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Which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind sports?
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trapping
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When is a special weather report (SPECI) issued?
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when a significant weather change occurs
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In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does "M" under runway visual range indicate?
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less than
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In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), how is hail indicated?
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GR
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What element in the aviation routine weather report gives information about clouds and obscuring phenomena?
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sky condition
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Winds aloft are reported in..
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5,000-foot increments from 5,000 to 60,000 feet
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What type of telephone is a direct line without dialing capabilites?
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hot line
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The Defense Switched Network (DSN) system is basically..
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a long-distance telephone system
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Which frequencies are normally only useful for distances approximately within the line of sight?
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VHF and above
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What is the primary frequency band used to propagate tropospheric scatter and satellite communications(SATCOM)?
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ultrahigh frequency (UHF)
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Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone?
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half an inch
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What proword should be used before transmitting numerals or numbers?
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FIGURES
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Which proword states "proceed with your message"?
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GO AHEAD
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What are the methods of calling used in radio communications?
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full and abbreviated
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In which method of calling are the call signs of the calling and called stations only given once?
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full
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During good communication conditions and after contact has been firmly established _________ calls are allowed.
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abbreviated
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Who may impose MINIMIZE worldwide on all users of DOD communications?
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joint chiefs of staff
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The main guideline for including a report in the Air Force Operational Reporting System is it must be..
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essential to command and control of aerospace forces
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Reports within the Air Force Operational Reporting System that contain infromation on a combat loss are classified a minimum of..
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secret
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What type of operational report-3 (OPREP-3) is used for incidents or events that do not merit Headquarters USAF attention, but are of interest to the MAJCOM?
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HOMELINE
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Commanders situation reports(SITREPs) must be submitted no later than..
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0200Z
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The Chief of Staff, United States AF and subordinate commanders use ________ data assessing their effectiveness in meeting their responsibilites.
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Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)
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How is the unit's designed operational capability(DOC) statement used?
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to summarize unit taskings and requirements
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What category level (C-level) indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission?
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C-4
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Which measured resource area normally drives a unit's overall category level (C-level)?
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the lowest of the four MRAs
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What is a major US goal for the United States message text format system standards?
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allied adoption of USMTF standards
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How many major structural components make up the United States message text (USMTF) system?
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3
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What is the only portion of a message that is governed by United States message text system rules?
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main text
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What are the three categories of checklists?
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normal, emergency, and quick reaction
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Whose responsibility is it to ensure that only the current checklist is used?
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individual mission crew member
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Why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as it is completed?
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prevents you from missing critical steps
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What are three steps involved in tracking maintenance?
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determining a target exists, initiating a track on the target, and tracking continuity preserved
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What is a data trail?
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a series of consecutive radar returns, following a pattern in regard to direction and speed
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What would you not do if you began to lose radar returns on a track?
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drop the track
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When voice telling tracks, what do you not do?
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tell the heading in degrees relative to true north
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Which information would you not transmit over unsecure radios?
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mode 1 and 2 codes
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What type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?
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lateral
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What tell priority is an emergency track?
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3
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What is a definition of situation awareness?
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perception of what is going on around you
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What document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?
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operations order
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What flowchart would you use to systematically go through a sequence of identification methods to classify airborne tracks?
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ID matrix
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To correlate with a flight plan, within how many minutes of the planned time must an aircraft be at a reporting point?
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5
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What modes are normally associated with only military aircraft?
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1,2 and 4
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What identification is given to a track that meets some but not all hostile criteria?
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suspect
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What NORAD instruction specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification,categorization,and classification of air traffic?
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NORAD instruction 10-15
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How long is the identification process normally?
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2 or 5 minutes
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What identification investigation process is the most common method used to identify tracks?
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flight plan correlation
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What is the final step in the ID process?
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classification
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During safe passage procedures, when are corridors for returning a/c established to provide safe entry?
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when one or more unit(s) is/are not under site control
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The purpose for using brevity code words is to...
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make radio/telephone (RT) procedures brief and standardized
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Which brevity word do you use to denote known enemy a/c?
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bandit
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Which brevity code word do we use to indicate a precautionary launch of aircraft for survival?
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flush
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The brevity code representing a request for bearing and range information is...
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bogey dope
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What tactics term indicates changing from approach speed and altitude to attack speed and altitude?
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transition
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What tactics term indicates ordnance release is authorized?
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cleared hot
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What tactics terminology means no ordnance remaining on the a/c?
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winchester
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What type of mission includes those operations to gain and maintain air superiority?
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counterair
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The type of combat air patrol(CAP) that positions friendly fighter aircraft between the friendly forces and the expected enemy threat is the...
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barrier
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What is the call sign for search and rescue helicopters that pick up survivors?
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jolly green
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What is the call sign for aircraft that escort the rescue helicopter and provides protection for the downed aircrew?
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sandy
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What type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?
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stern
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What type of attack is designed to provide the interceptor with the most direct approach to the target?
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cutoff
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What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?
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tactical
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What type of control is informative and not directive in nature?
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broadcast
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What type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar capability?
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advisory
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What are the three tenets used by electronic warfare to be effective?
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control, exploit, and enhance
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What tenet of electronic warfare is used as a force multiplier?
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enhance
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The use of electronic or mechanical devices to reduce the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems we know as electronic...
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attack(EA)
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What mission includes the actions taken to protect personnel, facilities, and equipment from any electronic warefare employment that may degrade,neutralize, or destroy friendly combat capability?
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electronic protection
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What application of electronic warfare confuses or misleads the enemy?
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deception
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What program is designed to reduce the time interval between recognition of a new threat and establishment of an operational capability to cope with it?
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quick reaction capability
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Which method does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a radar?
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when reflecting or absorbing the radar
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What is an advantage of a spot jammer?
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all the power of the jammer can be concentrated in one place
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What is an advantage of a barrage jammer?
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it covers a wide band of frequencies simultaneously
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What is an advantage of a repeater jammer?
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it creates many false targets, which cause confusion, doubt, and delay
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Mechnical devices jam a radar by...
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reflecting or absorbing the radar signal
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What are the three basic chaff drops?
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continuous, random, burst
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What does not affect chaff's screening ability?
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range
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Small aircraft containing a propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and change altitude are known as?
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decoys
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What are designed to home in on a radar signal?
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missiles
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What is the term we use to describe features designed into a radar system that degrade or eliminate the effectiveness of electronic attack?
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fixes
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The ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to another frequency is what we call..
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frequency agility
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Frequency agility is most sucessful against a ________ ________ ______ jammer.
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manually tuned spot
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Which technique improves the signal-to-jamming ratio and extends burn-through range?
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power add
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What is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed?
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alert other crew members
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______ uses the intersection of two or more radar EA strobes to determine the position of a jammer?
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triangulation
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Why is it important to locate the position of a jammer?
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so you can direct interceptor aircraft to it to neutralize the jammer
question
Which type of communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?
answer
sweep-through
question
Which type of communications jamming produces a signal consisteing of audio tones that somewhat resemble the wail of a bagpipe?
answer
stepped-tone
question
Which type of communications jamming may be mistaken for a receiver or atmospheric interference?
answer
noise
question
What are the most common types communications jamming?
answer
spark, sweep-through, stepped tone, noise
question
When experiencing communications jamming, what must you not do?
answer
consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming
question
When can you use enemy frequencies?
answer
as a last resort and with the concurrence of you intelligence officer
question
What do you do when you first discover that your communications are being jammed?
answer
keep operating in the normal manner
question
What is the preferred way of submitting an electromagnetic interference report?
answer
electronic message
question
Within what time frame must you report electromagnetic interference(EMI) incidents?
answer
within 24 hours
question
What tool can be used to determine the bandwidth, relative amplitude, and modulation of electromagnetic interference?
answer
spectrum analyzer
question
What are the types of electromagnetic interference(EMI) reports?
answer
initial, supplemental,closing
question
What electromagnetic intereference(EMI) report do you use to request engineering installation group quick fix interference reduction capability technical assistance?
answer
supplemental
question
What is not a factor for tactical data link system compatibility?
answer
service branch
question
What timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the link 11 environment?
answer
polling
question
What data link transmission methods are used across great distances?
answer
high frequency and SATCOM
question
Which communications medium is used by link 11 participants for beyond-the-horizon nets?
answer
high frequency
question
What TDL is capable of operating in the full duplex mode and is primarily used between ground-based units?
answer
link 11B
question
What TDL supports ATC, air intercept control, air support operations, precisions course direction, and automatic aircraft landing?
answer
link 4A
question
Which TDL is used for control and coordination of surface-to-air(SAM) missile systems?
answer
ATDL-1
question
MCE equipped units and the USMC tactical AOC link with NATO air defense ground environment using...
answer
link-1
question
What piece of equipment is used at the AOC to monitor and interface on a near-real-time basis with tactical units?
answer
air defense system integrator (ADSI)
question
The modular control equipment data links consist of link 11,....
answer
link 11B, link 4A, link 16, ATDL-1, and link-1
question
What TDLs are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?
answer
link 11B and link 16
question
What Navy a/c is capable of capable of using link 11, link 4a, and link 16?
answer
E-2C
question
The USMC F/A-18 is capable of using which data links?
answer
link 4A & link 16
question
What document contains specific voice coordination frequencies used for troubleshooting and coordinating data-link operations?
answer
operations order(OPORD) annex K
question
_____ ____ _____ is the primary feed to support generation of the common tactical picture?
answer
joint data network
question
Who plans and manages the multi-TDL network?
answer
joint interface control officer (JICO)
question
What is the designation of a unit that forwards between link 16 and link 11/11b?
answer
forwarding JTIDS unit
question
Which data link transmission methods are used close together?
answer
landlines and UHF
question
The proper employment of EW involves various applications of _______, _______, _______, ______, & ________
answer
detection, denial, deception, disruption, destruction
question
Actual hands-on task performance training best describes which type of training?
answer
Qualification
question
Which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force?
answer
Air Force enlisted classification directory (AFECD)
question
A defense readiness conditions (DEFCON) indicates..
answer
the state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations.
question
Who is the authority for the emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the forty-eight contiguous states?
answer
Commander, NORAD
question
How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?
answer
8
question
The Global Area Reference System 15 minute by 15 minute quadrant is made up of how many characters?
answer
6
question
Which character designates the keypad number when using the Global Area Reference System?
answer
7th
question
A radar can use the radio waves to determine the distance or range to the target by..
answer
the amount of time that it takes a radio wave to go out, strike an object, and come back
question
How many microseconds after the last framing pulse is a transmission sent out when the special position identification (SPI) feature is selected in Modes 2 or 3?
answer
4.35
question
Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) codes can be selected by an aircraft's pilot?
answer
Mode 1
question
What allows a pilot to transmit a response that will result in a special display at your console?
answer
Special pilot identification (SPI)
question
When used in conjunction with radar, identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) can help improve?
answer
tracking continuity
question
Which frequency range does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?
answer
1,215-1,400 megahertz
question
How many 2º elevation beams does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) use?
answer
10
question
How many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?
answer
48
question
The FPS-117 can frequency-hop on up to how many preset frequencies?
answer
18
question
The FPS-124 will process and forward up to how many reportable tracks per scan?
answer
20
question
A constant surface for weather purposes is considered a/an..
answer
surface that consists of all land or all water.
question
Clouds are normally found in which basic forms?
answer
Stratus and cumulus.
question
Which type of front is characterized by a wedge of air being forced aloft?
answer
Occluded
question
How is radar performance normally affected during normal refraction?
answer
Performance of the radar is generally undisturbed
question
How are calm winds reported in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?
answer
00000KT
question
In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does "M" under runway visual range (RVR) indicate?
answer
Less than
question
When more than one type of precipitation is present, which precipitation does the intensity element refer in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?
answer
First precipitation element
question
The Defense Switched Network (DSN) system is basically a/an..
answer
long-distance telephone system.
question
Which piece of equipment is used to secure communications on secure terminal equipment (STE)?
answer
FORTEZZA card
question
Which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?
answer
Flash
question
The best transmission method for high frequency (HF) is..
answer
Sky Wave
question
The only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the..
answer
high frequency (HF) band.
question
What are the hopping pattern and hopping rate in a HAVE QUICK system determined by?
answer
Word of the Day
question
When transmitting a message over a radio, which type of pause is greater when speaking?
answer
ideas
question
Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?
answer
Half an inch
question
When are abbreviated calls authorized?
answer
During good communications conditions and after contact has been firmly established
question
Within the air operations center (AOC), who facilitates the resolution of dual track designation and identification conflicts that are a result of system interoperability problems or operator error?
answer
Track data coordinator
question
Within the control and reporting center (CRC), who is responsible for detecting, updating, classifying, and identifying all airborne tracks within the specified area of responsibility (AOR)?
answer
Surveillance Technician
question
To how many internal ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radios does the internal radio equipment provide for command and control (C2) operations?
answer
4
question
During what operations does the air support center normally control airspace just short of the fire support coordination line?
answer
Linear
question
At the air support center, what type of operations focus on creating specific effects on multiple decisive points?
answer
Nonlinear
question
What is an element of the theater air control system (TACS) that assists the land commander in planning, requesting, and coordinating close air support and suppression of enemy air defense missions?
answer
Tactical air control party (TACP)
question
What gives the airborne warning and control system (AWACS) the ability to detect targets flying lower than the E-3 without interference from radar returns from the ground?
answer
Pulse Doppler radar
question
What type of command is North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD)?
answer
bi-national
question
Within North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD), which defense operations center uses a variety of radars, cameras, alert aircraft, and Army air defense artillery assets to protect our leaders and national infrastructures?
answer
Joint Air Defense Operations Center (JADOC)
question
Within North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD), which position overseas all sections of operations and reports to the director of operations?
answer
Mission crew commander (MCC)
question
What unit within the hardened theater of air control center (TACC) supervises the detailed execution of air operations orders and air tasking orders (ATO)?
answer
Combat operations division (COD)
question
What Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC) position make sure battle staff directives (BSD) are received, posted, disseminated, and updated as required?
answer
Mission crew commander technician (MCCT)
question
What Master Control And Reporting Center (MCRC) position updates the recognizable air picture by dropping duplicate, local tracks, and associating local and data link tracks?
answer
Data system technician (DST)
question
Which is an objective of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems?
answer
Properly positioning critical information.
question
Which of these is a key to command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) system interoperability?
answer
Standardization
question
What performance characteristic of command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems is achieved through modular designs and microelectronics?
answer
Mobility
question
By dispersing key facilities, command, control, communications, computers, and intelligence (C4I) systems become more..
answer
survivable
question
What is the primary mission of the Global Command and Control System (GCCS)?
answer
Support the command and control (C2) function of the president and the secretary of defense
question
How is connectivity between all Global Command and Control System (GCCS) sites provided?
answer
Defense Information System Network (DISN)
question
What application of Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS) associates mission taskings with targets and creates the air tasking order (ATO)?
answer
Theater air planning
question
What picture does the air defense systems integrator (ADSI) create?
answer
Recognized air picture (RAP)
question
What is not one of the three separate computers that are integrated in the air defense systems integrator (ADSI)?
answer
...
question
How many tactical situation display (TSD) workstations can be connected to each air defense systems integrator (ADSI) ?
answer
50
question
The Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) processes, integrates, displays, and distributes data from radars, data links, and other command and control agencies to maintain situational awareness and support
answer
air interdiction (AI) operations
question
What is the primary component of the Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) operator workstation?
answer
Situation display
question
Which unit uses the Battle Control System-Korea (BCS-K) to control all United States air assets over Korea?
answer
Master Control and Reporting Center (MCRC)
question
Which command is responsible for developing the Battle Control Center-CENTAF (BC3) system?
answer
Air Combat Command (ACC)
question
The Battle Control Center-CENTAF (BC3) system performs all of the following theater battle management functions except..
answer
resource management
question
How many Joint Range Extension Application Protocols (JREAP) are used to transmit and receive Link 16 messages?
answer
3
question
For platforms connecting by long-haul communication networks the joint range extension provides...
answer
inter-zone, intra-zone, reach back, and reach forward Link 16 abilities
question
Which unit uses the ground mobile gateway system to process information from multiple tactical data links?
answer
Air support operations center (ASOC)
question
Who is responsible for coordinating air support and providing airspace de-confliction for tasked aircraft using the ground mobile gateway (GMG) system?
answer
Fighter duty technicians (FDT)
question
What type of operations begins to take priority when friendly forces initiate hostilities or when the enemy's air attack is nullified?
answer
Offensive counterair (OCA)
question
What type of mission comprises both active and passive defense measures?
answer
Defensive counterair (DCA)
question
Which of the following are primary weapons for defensive counterair (DCA) operations?
answer
Fighter aircraft, Air defense artillery, Surface-to-air missiles
question
Dominance of a nation's airspace is crucially dependent on..
answer
timely and accurate information
question
What aircraft have proved the key to successful defensive and offensive air operations in numerous conflicts?
answer
Airborne early warning aircraft
question
Who collects real-time intelligence information on systems posing threats to the personnel recovery mission?
answer
Personnel recovery coordination cell
question
Which aircraft provides navigation assistance, route sanitization, and armed escort for the recovery vehicle during personnel recovery operations?
answer
Rescue escort aircraft (RESCORT)
question
Who is responsible for initiating rescue efforts in the objective area until rescue forces arrive?
answer
On-scene commander
question
What type of mission is a form of aerial maneuver that destroys, disrupts, diverts, or delays the enemy's surface military potential before it can be used effectively against friendly forces?
answer
Air interdiction (AI)
question
Which type of target is less-efficient use of air power during air interdiction (AI) missions?
answer
Artillery battery
question
In what type of mission are strike aircraft employed to seek out and destroy ground-based electromagnetic emitters?
answer
Suppression of enemy air defense (SEAD).
question
Which aircrafts were modified or have been specially designed to increase their effectiveness against enemy air defenses and are thought of as suppression of enemy air defense aircraft?
answer
F-15 and F-16
question
Which mission is conducted against enemy forces in close proximity to friendly forces?
answer
Close air support (CAS)
question
Once aircraft are assigned to close air support, who determines which targets they are to attack?
answer
Ground commanders
question
What type of missions are responsible for providing national and theater command authorities with timely, reliable, high quality information about an enemy or potential enemy?
answer
Reconnaissance (RECCE)
question
Which is not considered a reconnaissance mission?
answer
Combat
question
What is the weapons load of the F/A-22 for its primary air-to-air role?
answer
6 AIM-120s and 2 AIM-9s
question
What are the two reasons for the expansion of the seat back angle on the F-16?
answer
Pilot comfort and gravity force tolerance
question
What was the first Air Force aircraft specially designed for close air support (CAS) of ground forces?
answer
A-10 Thunderbolt II
question
What unique strengths of the bomber force are cornerstones of America's airpower and force projection?
answer
Payload, range, and responsiveness coupled with precision attack
question
Which aircraft have variable-geometry wings?
answer
B-1B Lancer
question
What is the Navy's all-weather, carrier-based tactical warning and control system aircraft?
answer
E-2C Hawkeye
question
Which of these permits surveillance and can fly a mission profile approximately eight hours without refueling?
answer
E-3 Sentry
question
Which aircraft has a primary mission of providing dedicated support to ground and air theater commanders?
answer
E-8C Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System (JSTARS)
question
What is the minimum runway length requirement for a C-17?
answer
3,500 ft
question
Which is not a mission of the C-130?
answer
Aerial bombing
question
Which procedure assigns a track number to a target and begins processing it for identification and reporting purposes?
answer
Initiation
question
Which action would you not do if you began to lose radar returns on a track?
answer
Drop the track
question
Which person would a surveillance technician coordinate with if a track did not reappear?
answer
Air surveillance technician
question
Which of the following parameters must be used when voice telling tracks?
answer
Preface the altitude with its source
question
Which type of tell provides reports from lower echelon units to higher echelon units?
answer
Forward
question
Which type of tell provides adjacent stations with track information on approaching tracks?
answer
Lateral
question
Which tell priority is an emergency track?
answer
3
question
Which option best defines situation awareness?
answer
Perception of what is going on around you
question
Which document provides detailed circumstance and criteria for track identification?
answer
Operations order
question
To correlate with a flight plan, within how many minutes of the planned time must an aircraft be at a reporting point?
answer
5
question
During peacetime, which method of identification may be used to classify tracks as friendly based on a specified ground speed or computed true air speed behavior?
answer
Track behavior
question
Which modes are normally only associated with military aircraft?
answer
1, 2 and 4.
question
Which North American Aerospace Defense (NORAD) instruction specifies the responsibilities and procedures for identification, categorization, and classification of air traffic?
answer
NORAD instruction 10-15
question
How many steps are in the identification process once a track is established?
answer
2
question
What identification investigation process is the most common method used to identify tracks?
answer
Electronic methods
question
What is the final step in the identification process?
answer
Classification
question
At which time do aircrews learn the present safe passage procedures?
answer
After becoming airborne/takeoff
question
The purpose for using brevity code words are to..
answer
make radio/telephone (RT) procedures brief and standardized.
question
Which brevity word would you use to positively denote known enemy aircraft?
answer
Bandit
question
Which "NATO" term represents electronic communications jamming?
answer
Chatter
question
Which tactics terminology is a directive to detect, identify, and engage?
answer
Delouse
question
Which tactics terminology indicates ordnance release is authorized?
answer
Cleared hot.
question
Which tactics terminology indicates a simulated or actual launch of an infrared missile?
answer
Fox 2
question
Which tactics terminology indicates the missile has been defeated?
answer
Trashed
question
Which type of tactic would employ infrared weapons systems?
answer
Stern
question
Which type of attack is designed to provide the interceptor with the most direct approach to the target?
answer
Cutoff
question
What is the standard level of control for the execution of operational and training missions?
answer
Tactical
question
Which type of control is informative and not directive in nature?
answer
Broadcast
question
Which type of control uses a radio monitor mode when the controlling agency loses radar capability?
answer
Advisory
question
Who approves the joint force air component commanders course of action?
answer
Joint forces commander
question
The air operations center normally establishes an air tasking order planning cycle for how many hours?
answer
72-96
question
How many series of air tasking orders are in various stages of progress at any time?
answer
5
question
Who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi-service force environment to the combat plans division?
answer
Army
question
Which mission set of the air tasking order contains the desired mean point of impact for maximum effectiveness?
answer
Ground target location
question
Who designates the airspace control authority?
answer
Joint forces commander
question
How is the operational tasking data link normally disseminated?
answer
Classified message
question
Who is the final authority for a theater where rules of engagement (ROE) are concerned?
answer
Joint forces commander
question
Which type of tactic is performed during peacetime rules of engagement when an intercept is run on an aircraft entering United States airspace?
answer
Stern attack
question
What supplements numerous procedures and airspaces usages contained in other portions of the air tasking order?
answer
Special instructions
question
Special instructions are published..
answer
baseline, weekly, and daily
question
Which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?
answer
Directed energy
question
The usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems are known as an electronic..
answer
attack (EA)
question
What responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?
answer
Electronic support (ES)
question
Which electronic warfare (EA) mission includes the actions taken to protect personnel, facilities, and equipment from any effects of friendly, neutral, or enemy use of the electromagnetic spectrum?
answer
Electronic protection (EP)
question
Which activity of the electromagnetic spectrum is used to confuse or delay adversary action?
answer
Disruption
question
Which activity in control of the electromagnetic spectrum manipulates or distorts the adversary?
answer
Deception
question
Which characteristics does a jamming transmitter use to jam a radar?
answer
(1) Blocking the radar's receiver with high-concentrated power. (2) Masking some or all targets appearing on the radar's indicator. (3) Creating many false targets.
question
The advantage of a spot jammer is..
answer
all the power of the jammer can be concentrated in one place.
question
Which of the following is an advantage of a barrage jammer?
answer
Can sequentially jam several radars operating at different frequencies
question
An advantage of a repeater jammer is..
answer
it creates many false targets, which cause confusion, doubt, and delay.
question
The characteristic that determines which frequency the chaff will jam is the strip's
answer
thickness
question
Which of the following does not affect chaff's screening ability?
answer
Range
question
Small aircrafts containing a propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and change altitude are known as
answer
decoys
question
Which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared (IR) receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against IR seeking missiles?
answer
Flares
question
Which term do we use to describe features designed into a radar system that degrade or eliminate the effectiveness of electronic attack (EA)?
answer
Fixes
question
Two separate transmitters and/or receivers operating on different frequencies, but using a common antenna system, are used for
answer
diplexing
question
Which technique improves the signal-to-jamming (S/J) ratio and extends the burn-through (detection) range?
answer
Power add
question
The use of electronic protection (EP) may degrade the ability of a radar by
answer
limiting its range or reducing its sensitivity
question
What is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed?
answer
Alert other crew members
question
When would you not mention anything about an electronic attack (EA)?
answer
Over nonsecure radios or telephones.
question
Which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack (EA) strobes to determine the position of a jammer?
answer
Triangulation
question
The type of communications jamming you probably will encounter more frequently than others are..
answer
spark
question
Which type of communications jamming causes a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?
answer
Sweep-through
question
Which type of communications jamming produces a signal consisting of audio tones that somewhat resemble the wail of a bagpipe?
answer
stepped tone
question
Which of the following options is not an effective jamming measure?
answer
Continuous or stream jamming
question
When experiencing communications jamming, what must you not do?
answer
Consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming
question
When your communications are being jammed, what should you remember to do when you go to an alternate frequency?
answer
Change your call sign
question
When can you use enemy frequencies?
answer
As a last resort and with the concurrence of your intelligence officer
question
What must you not do when using "radio discipline" as a countermeasure?
answer
Speak quickly so as to pass as much information as possible
question
What is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar circuits, but concerns the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse..
answer
Meaconing
question
Which tool can be used to determine the bandwidth, relative amplitude, and modulation of electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
answer
Spectrum analyzer
question
Which electromagnetic interference (EMI) report does the engineering installation squadron (EIS) or the MAJCOM designated point of contact submit?
answer
Supplemental
question
Which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the Link 11 environment?
answer
Polling
question
Which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?
answer
High frequency (HF) and satellite communications (SATCOM)
question
Which message format is used by Link 16?
answer
J-series
question
Which communications medium is used by Link 11 participants for beyond-the-horizon nets?
answer
High frequency (HF)
question
What is the tactical data link (TDL) for airborne platforms that uses ultra high frequency (UHF) radio for line-of-sight nets?
answer
Link 11
question
What tactical data link (TDL) is capable of operating in the full duplex mode and is primarily used between ground-based units?
answer
Link 11B
question
What provides both transmission security and communications security for message security on the Link 16 network?
answer
Secure data unit
question
Which tactical data link (TDL) is used for control and coordination of surface-to-air missile systems?
answer
Army Tactical Data Link (ATDL)-1
question
Modular control equipment (MCE) equipped units and United States Marine Corps (USMC) tactical air operations centers (TAOC) link with the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) air defense ground environment (NADGE) through the usage of
answer
LINK-1
question
The modular control equipment (MCE) data links consist of Link 11,..
answer
Link 11B, Link 16, Army tactical data link-1 (ATDL-1), and Link-1
question
Which airborne asset is employed to provide surveillance, early warning, tracking, and identification of aircraft?
answer
Airborne warning and control system (AWACS)
question
Which tactical data links (TDL) are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?
answer
Link 11B and Link 16
question
Which Navy aircraft is capable of using Link 11 and Link 16 data links?
answer
E-2C
question
Which document contains specific voice coordination frequencies used for troubleshooting and coordinating data-link operations?
answer
OPORD annex K
question
Which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link operations?
answer
Operational tasking data link (OPTASKLINK)
question
When designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to allow overlapping coverage and to also prevent multiple instances of track duplication?
answer
Data link filter plan
question
What is the unit designation that forwards between a Link 16 and Link 11/11B data link?
answer
Forwarding joint tactical information data system unit(FJU)
question
Which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from one or more C2 interface units?
answer
Data update request (DUR)
