question

Plasma is closest in composition to

answer

interstitial fluid

question

What is most abundant plasma protein?

answer

albumin

question

What is a large protein involved in molecule transportation, osmotic pressure and it's also a stock of amino acids? Albumin lactic acid steroids

answer

albumin

question

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the

answer

hematocrit

question

Which of the following is a function of the blood

answer

all of the answers are correct

question

Which of the following statements about blood is false

answer

the normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0

question

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood

answer

45 percent

question

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called

answer

whole blood

question

Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from

answer

a superficial vein

question

When checking the efficiency of gas exchange, it may be necessary to draw a blood sample from

answer

an artery

question

Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal

answer

hemoglobin - 10.7 g/100ml

question

Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a

answer

viscosity about the same as water

question

The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately __________ liters

answer

5.3

question

The most abundant component of plasma is

answer

water

question

A person who has a low blood volume is said to be

answer

hypovolemic

question

The chief differnce between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the

answer

concentration of proteins

question

A typical adult hematocrit is

answer

45

question

Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood?

answer

antibodies

question

Plasma composes about _________ percent of whole blood and water composes _________ percent of the plasma volume

answer

55; 92

question

A hematocrit provides information on

answer

formed elements abundance

question

You are caring for an adult patient who weights 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be

answer

3.8 L

question

Thyroid-building globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein

answer

hormone-binding

question

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein

answer

metalloprotein

question

Which plasma proteins trasports fatty acids and some hormones

answer

albumin

question

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins

answer

liver

question

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

answer

albumins

question

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

answer

immunoglobulins

question

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

answer

fibrinogen

question

All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the

answer

red bone marrow

question

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone

answer

erythropoietin

question

Mrs. Higgins needs to have major surgery. Two weeks before the surgery, her doctor prescribes EPO. Which of the following statements best explains his reason for doing this? By prescribing EPO, the doctor will decrease her hematocrit so that her blood is less likely to clot during surgery. By prescribing EPO, the doctor will be able to increase oxygen levels because EPO causes hemoglobin to bind oxygen more efficiently. By prescribing EPO, the doctor can stimulate Mrs. Higgins's body to produce an overabundance of RBCs, which can be harvested and saved for her surgery. After she takes EPO, Mrs. Higgins's risk of infection will go down because of increased production of WBCs.

answer

By prescribing EPO, the doctor can stimulate Mrs. Higgins's body to produce an overabundance of RBCs, which can be harvested and saved for her surgery.

question

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false

answer

red cells are about 18 um in diameter

question

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron

answer

ferrritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

question

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if

answer

a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal

question

When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect a) a rise in hematocrit. b)an increase in red blood cell production. c)release of erythropoietin. d)a drop in atmospheric oxygen levels.

answer

all of the answers are correct

question

Surgical removal of the stomach could cause

answer

pernicious anemia

question

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. the test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that

answer

her hemoglobin level is normal

question

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in

answer

increased erythropoiesis

question

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following, except

answer

during periods of fasting

question

The average life span of a red blood cell is

answer

4 months

question

The function of red blood cells is to

answer

carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide

question

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate

answer

vitamin B12 deficiency

question

In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the

answer

red bone marrow

question

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of

answer

iron

question

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as

answer

hemosiderin and ferritin

question

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be evaluated

answer

an alcoholic with a damaged liver

question

If bile ducts are blocked

answer

more bilirubin appears in the plasma

question

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is

answer

hemoglobin

question

The function of hemoglobin is to

answer

carry dissolved blood gases

question

_________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduction

answer

anemia

question

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by

answer

injection of vitamin B12

question

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood

answer

reticulocytes

question

A red blood cell that contains normal amounts of hemoglobin would be called

answer

normochromic

question

A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because

answer

the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down in to biliverdin

question

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the

answer

spleen, liver, and bone marrow

question

The waste product bilirubin is produced from

answer

heme molecules lacking iron

question

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

answer

recycled to the red bone marrow

question

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in

answer

red bone marrow

question

In adults, red bone marrow is located in the

answer

all of the answers are correct

question

The process of red blood cell production is called

answer

erythopoiesis

question

The developmental stage at which erythocytes enter the circulation is as

answer

reticulocytes

question

Except for __________, the following statements about blood are true. a.The viscosity is three to five times greater than water. b The pH is slightly acidic. c. It contains about 55% plasma. D. It contains dissolved gases.

answer

B

question

The formed elements of blood consist of _________. A. platelets B. red blood cells C. white blood cells D. All of these are formed elements of blood.

answer

D

question

Plasma makes up approximately what percentage of whole blood?

answer

55%

question

Except for the amount of __________, plasma and interstitial fluid differ little in composition. A. water B. protein C. glucose D. sodium ion

answer

B

question

The most abundant solute in plasma is __________.

answer

protein

question

What is the role of transferrin in the cycle shown above?

answer

It transports iron ions in the plasma.

question

Which of the labels in the figure indicate a cell normally found in the circulating blood?

answer

reticulocyte

question

Red blood cells (RBCs) are removed from the circulation after about __________.

answer

120 days

question

Red blood cells carry __________ to the lungs and __________ to the tissues.

answer

carbon dioxide; oxygen

question

The most abundant protein in blood is __________.

answer

hemoglobin

question

Reticulocyte is a stage in the development of __________.

answer

red blood cells

question

The formed elements are largely produced within the __________.

answer

red bone marrow

question

__________ stimulates production of red blood cells.

answer

erythropoietin

question

What evidence in this figure indicates that this is not a first pregnancy?

answer

Presence of maternal anti-Rh antibodies Antibodies against Rh antigen are only generated after a first pregnancy.

question

People with type "O" blood are considered "universal donors" for transfusions because __________.

answer

their blood lacks A and B antigens

question

A person with a type A positive blood type can safely receive blood from all of these donors except __________.

answer

B positive

question

Which of these is not a surface antigen found on red blood cells? A. Rh B. A C. B D. O

answer

D

question

Which of these is characteristic of monocyte? A. Reduces inflammation B. Provides defense against specific antigens C. Releases cytotoxic enzymes D. Engulfs pathogens

answer

D

question

Which of these is characteristic of eosinophil? A. Release histamine B. Releases cytotoxic enzymes C. Provides defense against specific antigens D. Reduces inflammation

answer

B, D

question

Which of the formed element stem cells is developmentally the most different from the others?

answer

Lymphoblast Lymphoid stem cells differentiate separately from the myeloid stem cell, which gives rise to all the other blood cells.

question

The white blood cell type that most rapidly increases in number after a bacterial infection is the __________.

answer

neutrophils

question

Which of these statements about basophils is not true? A. They are abundant. B. They promote inflammation. C. They release histamine. D. They contain cytoplasmic granules.

answer

A

question

Granulocyte-colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) stimulates production of __________. A. lymphocytes B. neutrophils C. monocytes D. platelets

answer

B

question

The agranular leukocyte (agranulocyte) that is capable of phagocytosis is the __________. A. eosinophil B. lymphocyte C. monocyte D. neutrophil

answer

C

question

Granulocytes are produced in __________. A. white bone marrow B. the liver and spleen C. the lymph nodes D. red bone marrow

answer

D

question

The largest white blood cell in circulation is the __________. A. eosinophil B. lymphocyte C. neutrophil D. monocyte

answer

D

question

If a patient has thrombocytopenia, the best therapy is infusion of __________.

answer

purified platelets

question

An important function of thrombocytes is to __________. A. transport blood gases B. transport nutrients C. transport clotting factors D. transport thrombopoietin

answer

C

question

Megakaryocytes are the source of __________.

answer

platelets

question

Which of the pathways shown above will occur within a damaged vessel?

answer

Both the intrinsic and the common pathways

question

Most of the plasma proteins required in the coagulation process are produced by __________.

answer

the liver

question

During fibrinolysis __________.

answer

clots slowly dissolve

question

The common pathway in coagulation ends with __________.

answer

conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin

question

The enzyme that dissolves fibrin is named __________.

answer

plasmin

question

The complex process that leads to the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is called __________.

answer

coagulation

question

Which of these phases is not part of hemostasis? A. erythropoiesis phase B. vascular phase C. coagulation phase D. platelet phase

answer

A

question

Serum can't coagulate because the __________ has been removed.

answer

fibrinogen

question

Which blood type is called the universal donor?

answer

Type O

question

What blood type is indicated by the arrow?

answer

Type O

question

An individual whose blood type is AB negative can .

answer

receive any blood type except that with an Rh antigen

question

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes? A. they are nucleated B. they have cytoplasmic granules C. they are phagocytic D. they are the most numerous elements formed in blood

answer

A

question

Tom's blood type is AB positive. What does this mean? A. antibodies to A and B are present in the plasma B. he can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive C. there are no antibodies to A to B or to Rh antigens in the plasma D. his blood lacks the Rh factor

answer

C

question

Platelets .

answer

stick to damaged areas of blood vessels and help seal the break

question

Blood is classified as a(n) __________ tissue.

answer

Connective

question

Which of the following cells are NOT found in the blood? A. Lymphocytes B. Thrombocytes (platelets) C. Leukocytes D. Chondrocytes E. Erythrocytes

answer

D

question

Which type of cell functions to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body? Neutrophils Megakaryocytes Macrophages Basophils Erythrocytes

answer

Erythrocytes

question

Plasma, the liquid portion of the blood, is mainly composed of _________________. Protein Electrolytes (Na+, Cl-, K+, etc.) Lipids Hormones Water

answer

Plasma is 92% water.

question

Which of the following are functions of blood? Transport of nutrients, gases, ions, and wastes Coagulation Control of the chemical composition of interstitial fluid Immunity

answer

All are correct

question

Visible cytoplasmic granules are NOT present in .

answer

monocytes and lymphocytes

question

Visible cytoplasmic granules are present in .

answer

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

question

When viewing a blood smear under a microscope, the cells with the visible nuclei are ___________. platelets erythrocytes leukocytes none of the above

answer

leukocytes

question

Which white blood cells are first to arrive at the site of a wound?

answer

neutrophils

question

What white blood cells are most abundant in lymphoid tissue?

answer

lymphocytes

question

_________________ is the substance of the red blood cell (erythrocyte) that binds to oxygen and carbon dioxide.

answer

Hemoglobin

question

Mature red blood cells that are in circulation are multinucleate. True or False

answer

false. Mature red blood cells are anucelate. During the maturation process, red blood cells lose their nucleus.

question

Platelets, which are involved with blood clotting, are fragments of which cells?

answer

Megakaryocytes

question

Which of the following cells are classified as lymphocytes?

answer

T cells, B cells

question

When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera clump on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is Type .

answer

Type O

question

Which type of blood is considered to be the universal recipient?

answer

Type AB

question

Antibodies are proteins that can randomly bind to antigens. true or false

answer

false. Antibodies are protein molecules secreted by plasma B cells. Antibodies exhibit specificity and will bond only to certain antigens.

question

A patient with type A blood will naturally produce antibodies for the A antigen. true or false

answer

False A patient with type A blood will express type A antigen on the surface of the red blood cells. A person with type A blood will produce antibodies to type B antigen.

question

A person with which blood type is considered to be a universal donor?

answer

Type O- people with type O- blood can receive only type O- blood

question

Which of the following scenarios may induce erythroblastosis fetalis?

answer

Rh-negative mother; Rh-positive fetus

question

Administering _____________ can prevent an Rh-negative mother from producing anti-Rh antibodies (anti-D) following exposure to the Rh antigen.

answer

RhoGam

question

A ________________ measures the percentage of total blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells.

answer

Hematocrit test

question

A woman has a hematocrit of 25%. What does this indicate?

answer

Anemia normal hematocrit for a woman is between 37% and 47%

question

A low hematocrit would impair which bodily function?

answer

Oxygen transport

question

During coagulation, insoluble protein threads called ___________ trap platelets to help form a clot.

answer

Fibrin

question

What is heparin?

answer

An anticoagulant

question

A patient with a slower-than-normal coagulation time might be at risk for which of the following?

answer

Hemorrhage

question

A hematocrit primarily measures the volume of .

answer

red blood cells

question

What prevents blood from clotting?

answer

heparin

question

D

answer

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? A) translipin B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) albumin E) gamma globulin

question

C

answer

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens.

question

C

answer

Bilirubin binds to ___________ and is transported to the liver for excretion in bile. A) Transferrin B) Ferritin C) Albumin D) Hemosiderin

question

D

answer

What are the major plasma proteins? A) Albumin and -Alpha-1 globulin B) Albumin -Alpha-2 globulin C) Beta globulin -Gamma globulin D) Albumin and Globulin

question

A

answer

___________________ constitutes 60% of plasma proteins A) Albumins B) Fibrogen C) Globulin D) Water

question

C

answer

Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding C) hormone-binding D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin

question

C

answer

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) metalloproteins. E) lipoproteins.

question

B

answer

Which category of plasma proteins includes the antibodies? A)fibrinogen B)globulins C)albumin D)hormones

question

C

answer

___________________ constitutes 35% of plasma proteins A) Albumins B) Fibrinogen C) Globulin D) Water

question

B

answer

___________________ constitutes 4% of plasma proteins A) Albumins B) Fibrogen C) Globulin D) Water

question

C

answer

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood.

question

E

answer

Once plasma has lost its fibrinogen is is A) agglutinins B) agglutinogens C) T-cells D) erythrogens E) serum

question

A

answer

90% of plasma proteins are made by the A) liver. B) spleen. C) thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

question

B

answer

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) metalloprotein D. E) lipoprotein C.

question

D

answer

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

question

D

answer

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis

question

B

answer

Which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for the hormones T3 and T4? A)fibrinogens B)albumins C)antibodies D)apolipoproteins

question

A

answer

The process of hemostasis includes five phases. What is the correct order of the phases as they occur after injury? A) vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis) B) coagulation, vascular, platelet, clot destruction (fibrinolysis), clot retraction C) vascular, coagulation, platelet, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis) D )platelet, vascular, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)

question

D

answer

Clot destruction involves a process that begins with __________. A)activation of the proenzyme fibrinogen, which initiates the production of fibrin B)activation of prothrombin, which initiates the production of thrombin C)activation of Cá+ to produce tissue plasmin D)activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin

question

C

answer

The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients.

question

A

answer

Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 60-83; 92 B) 92-100; 7 C) 92-100; 5 D) 46-63; 90 E) 50; 50

question

C

answer

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

question

B

answer

You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A hematocrit value on your blood would be ________ than normal because ________. A) lower; more red blood are being made by the bone marrow B) higher; you have less blood plasma volume C) lower; the bone marrow is making fewer red blood cells due to the latitude of the airplanes D) higher; more plasma proteins are made by the liver

question

D

answer

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose.

question

B

answer

How is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood? A)The proteins synthesized by the liver are filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. B)The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins. C)The liver synthesizes immunoglobulins and protein hormones. D)The liver serves as a filter for plasma proteins and pathogens.

question

B

answer

In addition to water and proteins, what else is part of plasma? A)erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets B)electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes C)albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen D)None of the listed responses is correct.

question

B

answer

Production of formed elements of the blood in the red bone marrow is A) Leukospoiesis B) Hemopoiesis C) Forming blood D) Fibrinogenisis

question

B

answer

Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the A) clotting factors. B) formed elements. C) leukocytes. D) plasma. E) antibodies.

question

C

answer

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils

question

C

answer

A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate.

question

C

answer

___________________ constitutes 99% of formed elements. A) Platelets B) White Blood Cells C) Red Blood cells D) Water

question

D

answer

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? A) 55 percent B) 30 percent C) 60 percent D) 45 percent E) 20 percent

question

A

answer

The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes.

question

B

answer

_____________ develop into erythrocytes, granulocytes, and monocytes (all WBC and some RBC). A) lymphoid stem cells B) myeloid stems cells C) White blood cells D) Red blood cells

question

E

answer

Which of the following is true of eosinophils? A) Granules stain with eosin dyes. B) Allergic patients have many. C) They have bilobed nucleus. D) They constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs. E) All of the answers are correct.

question

E

answer

Which of the following is true of basophils? A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs B) granules contain heparin C) granules contain histamine D) attract other defense cells E) All of the answers are correct.

question

F

answer

Which of the following is true of eosinophils? A) React to parasites B) Allergic patients have many. C) They have bilobed nucleus. D) They constitute about 2 to 4% of WBCs. E) the are bright red in color F) All of the answers are correct.

question

E

answer

50-70% of circulating white blood cells are A) monocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) eosinophils. D) basophils. E) neutrophils.

question

B

answer

A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a A) neutrophil. B) lymphocyte. C) monocyte. D) basophil. E) eosinophil.

question

C

answer

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

question

A

answer

A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes

question

E

answer

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

question

D

answer

In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the A) liver. B) spleen. C) thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

question

D

answer

Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin B) bilirubin C) thrombopoietin D) colony-stimulating factors E) plasmin

question

B

answer

Lymphocytes account for __________ % of circulating white blood cells. A)20-50 B)20-30 C)10-15 D)less than 1

question

B

answer

What is the term for the characteristic of white blood cells whereby they are attracted to a specific chemical stimulus? A)polymorphism B)positive chemotaxis C)leukopenia D)phagocytosis

question

B

answer

Which type of white blood cell circulates in the blood for about 24 hours before entering the tissues and differentiating into a macrophage? A)lymphocyte B)monocyte C)neutrophil D)basophil

question

A

answer

Which type of white blood cell includes the B and T cells that are responsible for humoral and cell-mediated immunity? A)lymphocyte B)monocyte C)neutrophil D)basophil

question

B

answer

Which of the following types of white blood cells are involved in fighting parasitic infections, such as flukes and roundworms? A)neutrophils B)eosinophils C)basophils D)lymphocytes

question

D

answer

Which of the white blood cells is also known as a polymorph? A)basophil B)monocyte C)lymphocyte D)neutrophil

question

A

answer

A person whose platelet count is 1,200,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

question

B

answer

During an infection, the white blood cell count may rise, a condition known as __________. A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

question

B

answer

Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells EXCEPT __________. A)eosinophils B)lymphocytes C)neutrophils D)basophils

question

E

answer

The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes.

question

A

answer

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes.

question

D

answer

All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

question

A

answer

Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make hydrogen peroxide C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria

question

E

answer

Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation. A) neutrophils B) megakaryotes C) thrombocytes D) macrophages E) erythrocytes

question

A

answer

Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents such as hydrogen peroxide? A)neutrophil B)basophil C)eosinophil D)lymphocyte

question

A

answer

2-8% of circulating white blood cells are A) monocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) eosinophils. D) basophils. E) neutrophils.

question

D

answer

Macrophages of the ___________ play a role in recycling red blood cell components. These also detect and remove Hb molecules from ruptured RBC. A) spleen B) liver C) red bone marrow D) all of the above

question

E

answer

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the A) spleen. B) liver. C) bone marrow. D) digestive tract. E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

question

C

answer

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

question

B

answer

Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

question

B

answer

A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a A) neutrophil. B) lymphocyte. C) monocyte. D) basophil. E) eosinophil.

question

E

answer

The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes

question

D

answer

The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A) spleen. B) kidneys. C) lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) thymus.

question

A

answer

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning T cells and B cells? A)B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens. B)B and T cells are involved in the specific immune response. C)B cells and T cells are both types of lymphocytes. D)T cells complete their maturation process in the thymus.

question

C

answer

On average, 1 microliter of blood contains __________ erythrocytes. Á) 10-12 million B) 260-300 million C) 4-6 million D) 25-30 million

question

D

answer

Which blood cells are the most abundant? A)monocytes B)platelets C)neutrophils D)erythrocytes

question

C

answer

Reticulocytes account for about __________ percent of the erythrocyte population in the blood. A)0 B)5 C)1 D)zero

question

B

answer

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

question

B

answer

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) release of chemicals for clotting process C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

question

C

answer

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) removal of worn out red blood cells. C) reducing the size of a break in the vessel wall D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

question

D

answer

A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

question

A

answer

Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

question

D

answer

A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n) A) platelet plug. B) rouleaux. C) agglutinin. D) blood clot. E) lysin.

question

E

answer

Which of the following statements is true about platelets? A) Platelets live for less than two weeks. B) The spleen is a storage organ for a large platelet population. C) Platelets are not cells. D) Platelets clump together at a site of injury. E) All of the answers are correct.

question

C

answer

In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in A) the heart. B) the kidneys. C) the spleen. D) the thymus gland. E) bone marrow.

question

B

answer

An abnormally low platelet count is called __________. A)thrombocytosis B)thrombocytopenia C)leucopenia D)anemia

question

B

answer

The production of platelets, or ___________________, takes place in the red bone marrow. A) thrombocytosis. B) thombocytopoiesis C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

question

A

answer

______________ divide to produce the various classes of lymphocytes via the process of lymphopoiesis. A) lymphoid stem cells B) myeloid stems cells C) White blood cells D) Red blood cells

question

A

answer

Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a kidney-derived hormone called A) erythropoietin. B) bilirubin. C) thrombopoietin. D) colony-stimulating factors. E) plasmin.

question

C

answer

______________ is low oxygen level in tissues, which stimulates erythopoiesis. A) hyperchromic. B) normochromic. C) hypoxia. D) normocytic. E) macrocytic.

question

C

answer

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

question

D

answer

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) anemia. B) high altitude. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

question

C

answer

Jessica has just moved to Denver, Colorado, from Orlando, Florida. What condition is she experiencing now that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells? A)a change in diet, from deep-fried comfort foods to healthy organic meals B)a decrease in the number of existing white blood cells C)hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level D)increased oxygen concentration in the atmospheric air

question

T

answer

Is this the correct order for the steps of erythropoiesis? 1)hemocytoblast 2)proerythroblast 3)normoblast 4)reticulocyte 5)erythrocyte T or F

question

D

answer

The condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced, owing to a low blood hemoglobin concentration, is called A) thrombocytopenia. B) leukopenia. C) polycythemia. D) anemia. E) leukocytosis.

question

A

answer

A hormone that stimulates production of monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

question

B

answer

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

question

C

answer

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

question

D

answer

A hormone that stimulates the production of granulocytes, monocytes, platelets, and red blood cells) A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

question

Each hemoglobin contains

answer

4 iron atoms

question

A

answer

When plasma oxygen levels are low, hemoglobin releases oxygen, making the carbon dioxide levels elevated. The process of the alpha and beta chains of hemoglobin binding then binding the carbon dioxide is called______________, which is carried to the lungs to be expelled. A) carbaminohemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) deoxyhemoglobin D) hemoglobinuria

question

B

answer

Each heme unit holds an iron ion in such a way that the iron can interact with an oxygen molecule, forming ______________. Associates easily w/ oxygen A) carbaminohemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) deoxyhemoglobin D) hemoglobinuria

question

B

answer

A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise. D) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

question

C

answer

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen.

question

C

answer

Which of the following does not influence hemoglobin saturation? A) temperature B) DPG C) nitric oxide D) carbon dioxide

question

C

answer

A hemoglobin molecule whose iron is not bound to oxygen is called _________________. Disassociates easily with oxygen. A) carbaminohemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) deoxyhemoglobin D) hemoglobinuria

question

C

answer

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper.

question

D

answer

Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? RBCs—5.2 million/µl B) platelets—280,000/µl C) leukocytes—8600/µl D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml E) hematocrit—44 percent

question

D

answer

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

question

D

answer

The condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced, owing to a low blood hemoglobin concentration, is called A) thrombocytopenia. B) leukopenia. C) polycythemia. D) anemia. E) leukocytosis.

question

E

answer

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) hemoglobin B) ferritin C) hemosiderin D) transferrin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

question

E

answer

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) transferrin. B) hemosiderin. C) ferritin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin.

question

E

answer

The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. B) extensive breakdown of RBCs. C) destruction of hemoglobin. D) the recycling of hemoglobin. E) All of the answers are correct.

question

E

answer

The process of the destruction of RBCs so that hemoglobin is liberated. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) hemolysis

question

A

answer

The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry dissolved blood gases. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) stimulate erythropoiesis.

question

C

answer

The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

question

A

answer

A red blood cell that contains excessive amounts of hemoglobin would be called A) hyperchromic. B) normochromic. C) hypochromic. D) normocytic. E) macrocytic.

question

C

answer

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

question

C

answer

Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron atoms. D) one heme group. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide.

question

E

answer

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

question

A

answer

Hemoglobin molecules released into the bloodstream by the breakdown of RBCs by hemolysis will be excreted in the __________. A)kidney B)small and large intestine C)skin D)tears

question

B

answer

A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as __________. A) thalassemia B) sickle cell anemia C) leukemia D) leukopenia

question

B

answer

The iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the protein-iron complexes __________. A)transferrin and porphyrin B)ferritin and hemosiderin C)biliverdin and bilirubin D)urobilin and stercobilin

question

B

answer

Each hem unit is stripped of its iron and converted to A) albumin B) biliverdin C) stercobiln D) ferritin

question

C

answer

Biliverdin is converted to ____________, and released into the bloodstream A) Transferrin B) Ferritin C) Bilirubin D) Hemosiderin

question

C

answer

Bilirubin binds to ___________ and is transported to the liver for excretion in bile. A) Transferrin B) Ferritin C) Albumin D) Hemosiderin

question

B

answer

It is an illegal practice for Olympic competitors to receive doses of which hormone, which stimulates the production of red blood cells? A)thyroxine B)erythropoietin C)calcitonin D)renin

question

D

answer

The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is regulated by __________. A)multi-CSF B)interleukin-6 C)thrombopoietin D)All of the listed responses are correct

question

D

answer

A person's blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs.

question

B

answer

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative.

question

D

answer

Blood type is identified primarily by A) the Kahn blood group. B) the HB blood system. C) the Rh blood group. D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups. E) the ABO blood group.

question

C

answer

Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics? A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

question

B

answer

Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. C) all Rh positive individuals. D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. E) all Rh negative individuals.

question

C

answer

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) None of the answers is correct.

question

E

answer

Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood types and the Rh blood types? A) Rh disease in the newborn occurs when the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh-. B) Rh disease is worse in male offspring because it is a hereditary disease. C) A person with O- blood type has blood cells with O antigens, but no Rh antigens. D) Those with AB blood type can receive blood from other AB people only, no other blood type can be given. E) An Rh- person has to be exposed to Rh+ blood in order to produce anti-Rh.

question

C

answer

Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. A) anti-A B) anti-D C) anti-B D) anti-Rh E) anti-O

question

D

answer

Type _____blood has both A and B surface antigens and does not contain anti-A or anti-B antibodies. A) A B) B C) O D) AB E) Rh-

question

C

answer

What type of blood can be transfused into a person with type O blood? A) A or B B) B C) O D) AB E) Rh-

question

A

answer

A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh. B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified. C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases. D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells. E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches.

question

A

answer

Jane has Type A blood; therefore, she A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens. B) can give blood to other people with Type A blood only. C) can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only. D) makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood. E) has B antigen on her RBCs.

question

A

answer

If a person has type A and Rh surface antigens on the blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma, what is that person's blood type? A)A-positive B)B-negative C)A-negative D)B-positive

question

C

answer

What type of blood would cause a cross-reaction when given to a person with type A-positive blood? A)type A-positive B)type O-positive C)type B-positive D)type O-negative

question

C

answer

What is the most common blood type among Americans? A)type B B)type AB C)type O D)type A

question

F

answer

If Misty is type A and needs to receive transfusions of blood during a surgery, which blood type(s) could she receive? A)A B)B C)AB D)O E)A and AB F)A and O

question

C

answer

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

question

B

answer

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other. B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

question

B

answer

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other. B) Platelet Factor (PF-3) C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

question

D

answer

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) activation of Factor X, production of prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

question

D

answer

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis

question

A

answer

People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result, A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick.

question

B

answer

The clumping of red blood cells, when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells is added, is called A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) hemostasis. D) vascularization. E) areolation.

question

B

answer

Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma

question

A

answer

Opposing antibodies attach to surface antigens, which causes _______________, and then hemolysis. A) agglutination B) agglutinogination C) cellular breakdown D) erythrogenosis E) serumulois

question

A

answer

When antibodies attack, foreign cells _________________, or clump together. A) agglutinate B) agglutinoginate C) cellular breakdown D) erythrogenis E) serumulois

question

D

answer

Most of the chemicals involved in the coagulation pathways are A) electrolytes. B) lipids. C) vitamins. D) proteins. E) carbohydrates.

question

B

answer

How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation. B) Coagulation would be prevented. C) There would be no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. D) Coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals. E) More blood cells would be produced.

question

C

answer

In which phase of hemostasis does local contraction of the injured blood vessel occur? A)fibrinolysis B)coagulation phase C)vascular phase D)platelet phase

question

B

answer

In which phase of hemostasis is fibrin deposited, creating a solid blood clot? A)fibrinolysis B)coagulation phase C)vascular phase D)platelet phase

question

D

answer

Which of the following affect almost every aspect of the clotting process? A)sodium ions and vitamin D B)calcium ions and vitamin C C)potassium ions and vitamin B12 D)calcium ions and vitamin K

question

A

answer

Which of the following factors does NOT restrict the coagulation process? A)thromboxane Á B)alpha-2-macroglobulin C)heparin D)antithrombin III E) prostacyclin

question

T

answer

Is this the correct order for clotting to occur? B. Endothelial cells contract and expose underlying basal lamina to bloodstream D. Endothelial cells release local hormones and chemical factors, causing them to become "sticky" F. Platelets attach to exposed surfaces (platelet adhesion) E. Formation of a platelet plug C. Coagulation phase A. Blood clot formed and bleeding stopped T or F

question

C

answer

Which of the following precursor cells give rise to agranular leukocytes? a. Proerythroblast b. Megakaryoblast c. Lymphoblast d. Myeloblast e. None of the selections are correct.

question

T

answer

Order of events occurring during the recycling of a red blood cell. A. After approximately 120 days, a macrophage consumes a red blood cell. B. Heme is broken down, iron and amino acids are sent to bone marrow, while the remainder of the cell forms biliverdin and bilirubin. E. Bilirubin is secreted in bile. D. Bilirubin is converted to urobilins and stercobilins in the large intestine. C. Urobilins and stercobilins are eliminated in digestive and urinary waste. T or F

question

B

answer

PLASMA thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

question

B

answer

PF-3 (platelet factor 3) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

question

A

answer

Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

question

C

answer

Thombrin is produces in the ________ pathway (activated by Factor X activating prothombrin). A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

question

A

answer

The major effect of vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to __________. A)a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system B)the body becoming insensitive to situations that would necessitate the clotting mechanism C)an overactive clotting system, which might necessitate thinning of the blood D) All of the listed responses are correct.

question

E

answer

Activated Factor x activates a complex called _________ activator which converts the proenzyme ____________ into the enzyme thombrin. A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombin

question

D

answer

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

question

A

answer

Plasminogen is converted to its active form by an enzyme called A) tissue plasminogen activator. B) papain. C) fibrinolysin. D) prothrombin. E) polymerase.

question

C

answer

As repairs are processed, the clot gradually disolves in a process called A) Leukospoiesis B) Hemopoiesis C) Fibrinolysis D) Fibrinogenisis

question

B

answer

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) metalloprotein D. E) lipoprotein C.

question

B

answer

Which enzyme digests fibrin strands in a blood clot after healing at the injury site has occurred? A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

question

D

answer

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) removal of worn out red blood cells. C) immune response during an infection. D) forming a temporary path in the walls of damaged blood vessels E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

question

A

answer

What cell uses defensins to kill pathogens? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes

question

B

answer

What is the precursor of all blood cells in the human body? A)myeloblast B)hemocytoblast C)megakaryocyte D)None of the listed responses is correct.

question

D

answer

Hemocytoblasts are differentiated by A) erythropoietin. B) bilirubin. C) thrombopoietin. D) colony-stimulating factors. E) plasmin.

question

B

answer

Platelets live _______ days A) 15-17 B) 9-12 C) 20-25 D) 50-65

question

B

answer

Which of the following is not needed in thrombopoiesis? A) thrombopoietin B) a hole to patch C) interleukin 6 D) Multi- CSF

question

C

answer

Factor I is __________ A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) fibrinogen D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

question

D

answer

Factor II is __________ A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) fibrinogen D) prothrombin. E) prothrombinase.

question

D

answer

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of iron. C) oral doses of vitamin B12. D) injections of vitamin B12. E) blood transfusion.

question

D

answer

Adosterone and antidiuretic hormone are key hormones in making A) clotting factors. B) formed elements. C) leukocytes. D) plasma. E) antibodies.

question

Except for __________, the following statements about blood are true. a.The viscosity is three to five times greater than water. b The pH is slightly acidic. c. It contains about 55% plasma. D. It contains dissolved gases.

answer

B

question

The formed elements of blood consist of _________. A. platelets B. red blood cells C. white blood cells D. All of these are formed elements of blood.

answer

D

question

Plasma makes up approximately what percentage of whole blood?

answer

55%

question

Except for the amount of __________, plasma and interstitial fluid differ little in composition. A. water B. protein C. glucose D. sodium ion

answer

B

question

The most abundant solute in plasma is __________.

answer

protein

question

What is the role of transferrin in the cycle shown above?

answer

It transports iron ions in the plasma.

question

Which of the labels in the figure indicate a cell normally found in the circulating blood?

answer

reticulocyte

question

Red blood cells (RBCs) are removed from the circulation after about __________.

answer

120 days

question

Red blood cells carry __________ to the lungs and __________ to the tissues.

answer

carbon dioxide; oxygen

question

The most abundant protein in blood is __________.

answer

hemoglobin

question

Reticulocyte is a stage in the development of __________.

answer

red blood cells

question

The formed elements are largely produced within the __________.

answer

red bone marrow

question

__________ stimulates production of red blood cells.

answer

erythropoietin

question

What evidence in this figure indicates that this is not a first pregnancy?

answer

Presence of maternal anti-Rh antibodies Antibodies against Rh antigen are only generated after a first pregnancy.

question

People with type "O" blood are considered "universal donors" for transfusions because __________.

answer

their blood lacks A and B antigens

question

A person with a type A positive blood type can safely receive blood from all of these donors except __________.

answer

B positive

question

Which of these is not a surface antigen found on red blood cells? A. Rh B. A C. B D. O

answer

D

question

Which of these is characteristic of monocyte? A. Reduces inflammation B. Provides defense against specific antigens C. Releases cytotoxic enzymes D. Engulfs pathogens

answer

D

question

Which of these is characteristic of eosinophil? A. Release histamine B. Releases cytotoxic enzymes C. Provides defense against specific antigens D. Reduces inflammation

answer

B, D

question

Which of the formed element stem cells is developmentally the most different from the others?

answer

Lymphoblast Lymphoid stem cells differentiate separately from the myeloid stem cell, which gives rise to all the other blood cells.

question

The white blood cell type that most rapidly increases in number after a bacterial infection is the __________.

answer

neutrophils

question

Which of these statements about basophils is not true? A. They are abundant. B. They promote inflammation. C. They release histamine. D. They contain cytoplasmic granules.

answer

A

question

Granulocyte-colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) stimulates production of __________. A. lymphocytes B. neutrophils C. monocytes D. platelets

answer

B

question

The agranular leukocyte (agranulocyte) that is capable of phagocytosis is the __________. A. eosinophil B. lymphocyte C. monocyte D. neutrophil

answer

C

question

Granulocytes are produced in __________. A. white bone marrow B. the liver and spleen C. the lymph nodes D. red bone marrow

answer

D

question

The largest white blood cell in circulation is the __________. A. eosinophil B. lymphocyte C. neutrophil D. monocyte

answer

D

question

If a patient has thrombocytopenia, the best therapy is infusion of __________.

answer

purified platelets

question

An important function of thrombocytes is to __________. A. transport blood gases B. transport nutrients C. transport clotting factors D. transport thrombopoietin

answer

C

question

Megakaryocytes are the source of __________.

answer

platelets

question

Which of the pathways shown above will occur within a damaged vessel?

answer

Both the intrinsic and the common pathways

question

Most of the plasma proteins required in the coagulation process are produced by __________.

answer

the liver

question

During fibrinolysis __________.

answer

clots slowly dissolve

question

The common pathway in coagulation ends with __________.

answer

conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin

question

The enzyme that dissolves fibrin is named __________.

answer

plasmin

question

The complex process that leads to the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is called __________.

answer

coagulation

question

Which of these phases is not part of hemostasis? A. erythropoiesis phase B. vascular phase C. coagulation phase D. platelet phase

answer

A

question

Serum can't coagulate because the __________ has been removed.

answer

fibrinogen

question

Which blood type is called the universal donor?

answer

Type O

question

An individual whose blood type is AB negative can .

answer

receive any blood type except that with an Rh antigen

question

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes? A. they are nucleated B. they have cytoplasmic granules C. they are phagocytic D. they are the most numerous elements formed in blood

answer

A

question

Tom's blood type is AB positive. What does this mean? A. antibodies to A and B are present in the plasma B. he can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive C. there are no antibodies to A to B or to Rh antigens in the plasma D. his blood lacks the Rh factor

answer

C

question

Platelets .

answer

stick to damaged areas of blood vessels and help seal the break

question

Blood is classified as a(n) __________ tissue.

answer

Connective

question

Which of the following cells are NOT found in the blood? A. Lymphocytes B. Thrombocytes (platelets) C. Leukocytes D. Chondrocytes E. Erythrocytes

answer

D

question

Which type of cell functions to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body? Neutrophils Megakaryocytes Macrophages Basophils Erythrocytes

answer

Erythrocytes

question

Plasma, the liquid portion of the blood, is mainly composed of _________________. Protein Electrolytes (Na+, Cl-, K+, etc.) Lipids Hormones Water

answer

Plasma is 92% water.

question

Which of the following are functions of blood? Transport of nutrients, gases, ions, and wastes Coagulation Control of the chemical composition of interstitial fluid Immunity

answer

All are correct

question

Visible cytoplasmic granules are NOT present in .

answer

monocytes and lymphocytes

question

Visible cytoplasmic granules are present in .

answer

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

question

When viewing a blood smear under a microscope, the cells with the visible nuclei are ___________. platelets erythrocytes leukocytes none of the above

answer

leukocytes

question

Which white blood cells are first to arrive at the site of a wound?

answer

neutrophils

question

What white blood cells are most abundant in lymphoid tissue?

answer

lymphocytes

question

_________________ is the substance of the red blood cell (erythrocyte) that binds to oxygen and carbon dioxide.

answer

Hemoglobin

question

Mature red blood cells that are in circulation are multinucleate. True or False

answer

false. Mature red blood cells are anucelate. During the maturation process, red blood cells lose their nucleus.

question

Platelets, which are involved with blood clotting, are fragments of which cells?

answer

Megakaryocytes

question

Which of the following cells are classified as lymphocytes?

answer

T cells, B cells

question

When neither anti-A sera nor anti-B sera clump on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is Type .

answer

Type O

question

Which type of blood is considered to be the universal recipient?

answer

Type AB

question

Antibodies are proteins that can randomly bind to antigens. true or false

answer

false. Antibodies are protein molecules secreted by plasma B cells. Antibodies exhibit specificity and will bond only to certain antigens.

question

A patient with type A blood will naturally produce antibodies for the A antigen. true or false

answer

False A patient with type A blood will express type A antigen on the surface of the red blood cells. A person with type A blood will produce antibodies to type B antigen.

question

A person with which blood type is considered to be a universal donor?

answer

Type O- people with type O- blood can receive only type O- blood

question

Which of the following scenarios may induce erythroblastosis fetalis?

answer

Rh-negative mother; Rh-positive fetus

question

Administering _____________ can prevent an Rh-negative mother from producing anti-Rh antibodies (anti-D) following exposure to the Rh antigen.

answer

RhoGam

question

A ________________ measures the percentage of total blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells.

answer

Hematocrit test

question

A woman has a hematocrit of 25%. What does this indicate?

answer

Anemia normal hematocrit for a woman is between 37% and 47%

question

A low hematocrit would impair which bodily function?

answer

Oxygen transport

question

During coagulation, insoluble protein threads called ___________ trap platelets to help form a clot.

answer

Fibrin

question

What is heparin?

answer

An anticoagulant

question

A patient with a slower-than-normal coagulation time might be at risk for which of the following?

answer

Hemorrhage

question

A hematocrit primarily measures the volume of .

answer

red blood cells

question

What prevents blood from clotting?

answer

heparin

question

CO stands for ? and is the?

answer

Cardiac output, and is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in 1 minute. CO=SV*HR

question

SV stands for? and is the ?

answer

Stroke volume, and is the amount of blood pumpled out of ventricles in 1 beat.

question

If jims heart rate is 75bpm, and his stroke volume is 70/ml beat what is jims CO?

answer

70ml * 75 bpm = 5250 CO

question

What does EDV stand for?

answer

End diastolic volume

question

What does ESV stand for?

answer

End systolic volume

question

If before Jim's heart attack, values were EDV=130 ml ESV= 50- ml what is his SV?

answer

80=130-50

question

cardiac pacemaker:

answer

SA node

question

Bundle of his:

answer

av conducting fibers

question

p wave:

answer

Atrial depolarization

question

lubb sound:

answer

av valves close, semilunar valves open

question

dubb:

answer

semilunar valves close

question

atrial reflex:

answer

bainbridge reflex

question

baroreceptors:

answer

monitor blood pressure

question

sympathetic neurons:

answer

increases heartrate

question

fills atria:

answer

venous return

question

filling time:

answer

ventricular diastole

question

cardiac output:

answer

SV * HR

question

cardiac control:

answer

medulla oblingata

question

how does atonomic innervations affect heart rate?

answer

If SNS is up so is heart rate, if PNS is up, decrease in HR

question

how does bainbridge atrial reflex affect HR?

answer

increase in venous return, stretches heart, and reflexive increase in HR.

question

how does hormones affect heart rate?

answer

epinephrine and norepi, and thyroid hormones can cause increases in HR

question

how does venous return affect heart rate?

answer

if venous return is increased, Hr is increased.

question

if Bill was diagnosed with a tumor of adrenal medulla, which resulted in excessive amounts of norepi being released into blood stream. how does this affect heart rate and CO? which stroke volume parameters would this alter? how would this affect cardiac output?

answer

heart rate? ups because epi and norepi affect SA node. CO? ups it. cardiac output? ups it Stroke volume parameters? ESV

question

same as above. how does this affect contractility?

answer

ups it, more forcefully

question

the only vessels whose walls are thin enough to exchange with the surrounding cells are:

answer

capillaries

question

which of the following would reflect the typical hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end of the capillary?

answer

35MMHG

question

the colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by:

answer

proteins in the blood

question

what pressure draws fluid into the capillary?

answer

colloid osmotic pressure

question

typically reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?

answer

venous

question

plug in the following values and determine if NFP is into or out of the capillaries. CHP= 35 MM hg BCOP. 1. 25 mm 2. Filtration 3. reabsorbition

answer

filtration

question

if a patient suffers from hypertension, which parameter of net filtration pressure would be most affected.

answer

CHP

question

assume patient A has high BP and their CHP=60MMhG. If BCOP is normal, what is happening?

answer

Filtration occours, fluid may accumulate in the tissues causing edema.

question

peripheral resistance depends on all of the following except? 1. BV diameter 2. Blood viscosity 3. blood vessel length 4. blood colloid osmotic pressure

answer

4. BCOP

question

which helps move blood around the systemic system?

answer

Arterial pressure greater than venous pressure

question

elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure

answer

forces more fluid across endothelium into the tissues.

question

where are sensors for arterial baroreceptors located?

answer

carotid artery and aortic arch

question

if blood pressure is increased at arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with activity level of parasympathetic nervous system and SNS?

answer

increased PNS and decreased SNS activity

question

which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioloes?

answer

decreased activity of the SNS

question

a decrease in BP at arterial baroreceptors would result in?

answer

vasoconstriction of arterioles, and an increase in cardiac output.

question

stenosis is a permanant narrowing of an artery. As with artheriosclerosis, resulting in a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys. Which would occur with stenosis of a renal artery?

answer

renin secretion will increase.

question

when mucsle cells contract they release substances that cause nearby precapillary spinchters to relax. This is an example of ?

answer

autoregulation

question

would an inhibitor of angiotenin 2 cause an increase in BP?

answer

NO

question

which brain region contains the cardiovascular centers?

answer

medulla

question

pulmonary trunk carries ? blood ? the lungs

answer

deoxygenated, to

question

which organ produces renin and erythropoietin to help maintain normal BP and hematocrit?

answer

kidneys

question

aldosterone would ? BV

answer

increase

question

ADH wojuld ? Bv

answer

increase

question

ADH:

answer

retains water

question

ALDOSTERONE:

answer

hormone that results in retention of sodium

question

ERYTHROPOIETIN

answer

hormone that stimulates RBC production

question

NATRIURETIC PEPTIDE:

answer

hormone is released from the heart that elliminates sodium and water from the body( gets rid of)

question

NOREPINEPHRINE:

answer

hormone released from adrenal gland that stimulates SNS

question

RENIN:

answer

homone released from kidneys that converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1.

question

Aldosterone would ? BV

answer

increase

question

ADH would ? BV

answer

increase

question

angiotenin2 would ? BV

answer

increase

question

NATRIUETIC PEPTIDES WOULD ? BV

answer

decrease

question

the "hole" between the right and left atrium of fetus?

answer

FORAMEN OVALE

question

ARTERY=

answer

AWAY FROM HEART

question

veins=

answer

return from heart

question

capillaries are:

answer

small thin walled vessels

question

arteries go to

answer

arterioles

question

veinules go to

answer

veins

question

location of the heart;

answer

mediasteinum, in the thorasic cavity. bulk of mass lies left of midline.

question

apex

answer

bottom of heart

question

base

answer

top of heart

question

pericardium:

answer

protects heart like a canvas covering. 2 parts, fibrous pericardium outer layer, and serous pericardium inner thin layer. like a double bag.

question

visceral pericardium

answer

attaches to surface of the heart

question

pericardial cavity

answer

filled with serous fluid

question

Heart walls?

answer

1. epi (upon) cardium outermost layer 2 myo (myo= muscle) pumping layer of heart 3 endo (within) thin layer of CT covered by endothelium

question

Cardiocytes

answer

single, centrally located nucleus. many mitochonndria, branching interconnections between cells, intercalleted disks, striated.

question

right atrium

answer

recieves blood from the systemic and coronary circulation.

question

chordae tendinae

answer

like a tiedown for tricuspid valve. connective tissue cords attached to cusps of valve

question

trabeculae carnae are

answer

muscular ridges on walls

question

pulmonary circuit

answer

deoxygenated blood flows from right venticle into: left pulmonary artery, branches repeatedly within lungs. Is exchanged for 02 at capillaries. Oxygenated blood is then returned to left atrium via two left pulmonary veins, two right pulmonary veins.

question

left atrium

answer

recieves oxygenated blood from 4 pulmonary veins. The left atriventricluar valve or BICUSPID valve guards entrance into left ventricle. also called MITRAL valve

question

tell about the left ventricle:

answer

*thick muscular walls *can create sufficient pressure to push blood through large systemic circut

question

tell about right ventricle:

answer

right ventricle has less muscle than left, pumps muscle to lungs only.

question

recite blood flow thru heart:

answer

*right atrium *right ventricle *up into right pulmonary valve *pulmonary circuit *into left atrium down thru bicuspid valve *into left ventricle *into aortic valve *aorta and systemic circuit

question

coronary circulartion: right and left coronary artery

answer

right coronary artery follows the coronary sulcus around the heart and gives off two branches. Posterior and right marginal branch. LEFT coronary artery branches into the anterior and circumflex artery. ARTERIAL anastamoses is the "backup" plan for another route for blood.

question

coronary blood circulation:

answer

main veins drain DEOXYGENATED blood into the coronary sinus on the posterior surface of the heart. Drains into right atrium.

question

major tributaries that drian into the coronary sinus:

answer

*great cardiac vein *posterior cardiac vein *middle cardiac vein *small cardiac vein * anterior cardiac vein

question

what two kinds of cells are involved in a normal heartbeat?

answer

1. contractile cells 2. specialized muscle cells (act as pacemaker)

question

99% of muscle cells in heart are?

answer

contractile cells. Slow calcium channels highly sensitive to changes in Ca2+. Too little calcium released is a systolic dysfunction and too slow of calcium removal is a diastolic dysfuntion.

question

conduction system:

answer

contains the SA node. (pacemaker) Ventricular conducting cells consist of: 1. av bundle 2. left and right bundle branches=bundle of his 3.purkinjie fibers

question

normal sinus rhythm:

answer

normal p,q,r,s,t waves, normal intervals

question

sinus bradycardia:

answer

brady=slow

question

sinus tachycardia:

answer

tachy=fast

question

a fibrillation:

answer

irregular baseline,irregular ventricular response. (sudden dropped q,r,s complex)

question

av block 2nd degree:

answer

intermittantly skipped ventricular beats. (q,r,s absent)

question

v-fibb

answer

rapid, wide irregular ventricular complexes. (squiggles, no real q,r,s )

question

systole:

answer

systolic contraction

question

Diastole:

answer

diastolic relaxation

question

what is a p wave due to ?

answer

atrial depolarization

question

EDV is?

answer

end diastolic volume. The end of atrial systole each ventricle is full and this is called EDV.

question

what is the QRS complex due to?

answer

ventricular depolarization

question

ventricular systole:

answer

av valves close.(lubb) ventricular pressure increases, forcing blood through semilunar valves (ventricular ejection) pressure drops, and semilunar valves close.

question

ventricular diastole:

answer

all valves are closed. semilunar valves close (dubb) myocardium relaxes, ventricular pressure drops, and av valves open and blood flows passivly. ventricles refill.

question

T waves represent?

answer

ventricular repolarization

question

auscultation is?

answer

listening to heart sounds via stethescope

question

EDV is?

answer

end diastolic volume, amount of blood left in each ventricle at end of ventricluar diastole.(before empty)

question

ESV is?

answer

end systolic volume. the amount of blood remaining in each ventricle at the end of the ventricular systole. (after empty)

question

stroke volume:

answer

the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat. EDV-ESV=SV

question

ejection fraction

answer

the percentage of blood ejected out of the heart/beat %=SV/EDV

question

most important factor in an exam of a single cardiac cycle?

answer

stroke volume

question

cardiac output is?

answer

the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in 1 minute/ CO=HRxSV

question

cardiac reflexes for autonomic control

answer

Baroreceptors control BP chemoreceptors monitor oxygen levels

question

cardiac centers

answer

cardioaccelatory center increases HR cardioinhibitory center decreases HR

question

Which of the following statements about blood is false? Blood is about 55 percent plasma. Blood contains buffers that control pH. Blood is more viscous than water. The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. Cells in blood comprise the formed elements.

answer

The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0.

question

Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a: red color from hemoglobin. built-in system for clotting. temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. pH of 7.4. viscosity about the same as water.

answer

viscosity about the same as water.

question

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? platelets antibodies RBCs lymphocytes basophils

answer

antibodies

question

Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the antibodies. plasma. clotting factors. formed elements. leukocytes.

answer

formed elements

question

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the packed volume. differential cell count. hematocrit. specific gravity. viscosity.

answer

hematocrit

question

The most abundant component of plasma is (are) nutrients. proteins. ions. gases. water.

answer

water

question

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of water. electrolytes. proteins. glucose. nitrogen wastes.

answer

proteins

question

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called lymph. packed blood. whole blood. extracellular fluid. serum.

answer

whole blood

question

After blood is fractionated, the percentage of each type of white blood cell can be determined. it can be transfused immediately into the recipient. specimens can be sent to the labs for identification of bacteria, viruses, etc. its components are separated for the purpose of analysis. antibody and antigen can be added together to look for a reaction.

answer

its components are separated for the purpose of analysis.

question

You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A hematocrit value on your blood would be ________ than normal because ________. lower; the bone marrow is making fewer red blood cells due to the latitude of the airplanes lower; more red blood are being made by the bone marrow higher; more plasma proteins are made by the liver higher; you have less blood plasma volume

answer

higher; you have less blood plasma volume

question

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is metalloprotein D. albumin alpha. lipoprotein C. immunoglobulin A. fibrinogen.

answer

fibrinogen.

question

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? liver heart brain kidney pancreas

answer

liver

question

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the metalloproteins. fibrinogens. lipoproteins. immunoglobulins. albumins.

answer

immunoglobulins

question

The most abundant plasma protein is albumin. transferrin. hemoglobin. antibodies. fibrinogen

answer

albumin

question

Which of the following statements is true about hemoglobin? All that is needed to bind oxygen is a molecule of heme. Each hemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen atoms. Each hemoglobin molecule is made up of one alpha and one beta chain of polypeptide. Hemoglobin can only bind oxygen.

answer

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry four oxygen atoms.

question

Mrs. Higgins needs to have major surgery. Two weeks before the surgery, her doctor prescribes EPO. Which of the following statements best explains his reason for doing this? By prescribing EPO, the doctor will decrease her hematocrit so that her blood is less likely to clot during surgery. By prescribing EPO, the doctor will be able to increase oxygen levels because EPO causes hemoglobin to bind oxygen more efficiently. By prescribing EPO, the doctor can stimulate Mrs. Higgins's body to produce an overabundance of RBCs, which can be harvested and saved for her surgery. After she takes EPO, Mrs. Higgins's risk of infection will go down because of increased production of WBCs.

answer

By prescribing EPO, the doctor can stimulate Mrs. Higgins's body to produce an overabundance of RBCs, which can be harvested and saved for her surgery.

question

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? ferritin hemoglobin ferritin, hemosiderin, transferrin transferrin hemosiderin

answer

ferritin, hemosiderin, transferrin

question

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as proerythrocytes. hemocytoblasts. reticulocytes. band forms. myeloid cells.

answer

reticulocytes.

question

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except as a consequence of hemorrhage. anemia. periods of fasting. high altitude. when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

answer

periods of fasting.

question

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is stored in yellow bone marrow. excreted by the intestines. recycled to the red bone marrow. excreted by the kidneys. excreted by the liver.

answer

recycled to the red bone marrow.

question

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. coagulation begins. blood flow to the kidney declines. blood pressure increases. oxygen levels in the blood increase.

answer

blood flow to the kidney declines.

question

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? low hematocrit during coagulation iron-deficient diet low blood volume an alcoholic with a damaged liver

answer

an alcoholic with a damaged liver

question

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in yellow bone marrow. red bone marrow. the liver. lymphoid tissue. the spleen.

answer

red bone marrow.

question

________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. Normoblasts Myeloblasts Band cells Erythroblasts Reticulocytes

answer

Reticulocytes

question

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as hemoglobin. transferrin. ferritin. hemosiderin. hemosiderin and ferritin.

answer

hemosiderin and ferritin.

question

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that she has fewer red blood cells than normal. her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. she is suffering from anemia. her hemoglobin level is normal. she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.

answer

her hemoglobin level is normal.

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