ATE 2611-Animal Anesthesia – Flashcards

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An unbiased description of the illness of the patient would best describe the:
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History
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In dogs, the pulse rate is most commonly evaluated over the:
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Femoral Artery
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A breed that as a general ectomorph appearance that is considered normal for the breed is the:
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Greyhound
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The nictitating membrane is a term for the:
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Third Eyelid
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Uvelitis is an inflammation of the:
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Iris and Ciliary Body
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When considering conditions of the eye, a proptosis is:
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A protrusion of the eye from the socket.
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The third eyelid is also known as the/a:
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Nictitating Membrane
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The structure of the ye that will reflect light is the:
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Tapetum
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Difficult breathing due to stenotic (constricted) nares is most commonly seen in _______ dogs.
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Brachycephalic
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The technical term for bleeding from the nose is:
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Epistaxis
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The term for inflammation of the tongue is:
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Glossitis
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The term for inflammation of the structures surrounding the tooth is:
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Periodontitis
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Relating to the oral and nasal area, a fistula would describe a:
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Permanent opening connecting the two cavities
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A term that would describe a benign growth in the mouth is a/an:
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Epulis
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An important caution in the use of plastic ear speculums to examine the ear is that they can:
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Transport infectious agents such as bacteria and mites.
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Inflammation of the nose.
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Rhinitis
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Malpositioned eyelash.
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Distichiasis
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Inflammation of the lips.
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Cheilitis
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Discharge containing white blood cells and protein.
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Purulent
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A structure of the eye that will be noted when the fundus of the eye is examined is the:
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Optic Disc
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The popliteal lymph node is located.
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Behind the knee.
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The bacteria that is likely to cause kennel cough in dogs is:
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Bordatella Bronchiseptica
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Relating to auscultation of the lungs, a louder than normal respiratory sound is described as a:
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Rale
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The range of the normal heartrate of the dog at rest is:
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80-120 BPM
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Relating to the examination of heart murmurs, the term "grade" refers to:
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Loudness
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A collapsed lung.
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Atelectasis
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The heart rates of small breed dogs are generally ____ than those of large breed dogs.
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Faster
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A condition related to allergies to a variety of antigens.
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Atopic Dermatitis
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In the cat, periauricular alopecia is usually:
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A normal finding
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In the normal cat, the kidneys are readily palpated and should be approximately:
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2.5 to 3.5 cm in length
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The urinary bladder can usually be palpated in the ____ abdomen.
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Caudoventral
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In a pregnant dog or cat, milk can be expressed from the mammary glands during the last _____ of gestation.
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1 to 2 weeks
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The parameters that are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination are:
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Cranial nerves and mental status
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Placement of limbs in relaxation to gravity requires integration by the nerves in the spinal cord and is called:
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Propioception
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If the patellar tendon is tapped and no contraction of the quadriceps muscle occurs, a lesion is most likely present in the:
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Spinal Cord
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Infestation with mites.
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Acariasis
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Area of hair loss.
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Alopecia
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An area toward the nose.
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Rostral
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Fluid in the abdominal cavity.
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Ascites
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Grating on movement of a joint.
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Crepitus
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The anesthetic that should be used with caution in greyhounds due to the possibility of a prolonged effect is:
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Thiopental
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The decade that gas anesthesia became widely used in veterinary medicine in the US was the:
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1960's
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The part of the central nervous system that contains the vital centers for cardiac and respiratory function is the:
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Medulla
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The anesthesia technique that is recommended for a procedure that is anticipated to take longer than 10 minutes:
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Inhalation
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The type of surgical procedure that is likely to require Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation (IPPV) is:
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Intrathoracic or Open chest
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Which is most important to consider in the process of choosing an anesthetic technique for a particular patient:
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Pre-anesthetic Physical Exam
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The agent involved I anesthesia that is often avoided in pediatric and geriatric patients because of prolonged duration of action is:
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Acepromazine
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The breeds of dogs that may have trouble breathing during a general anesthesia because of anatomical obstruction of airways and collection of salivary secretions are:
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Brachycephalic
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What electrocardic tracings is considered normal for the dog is:
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Sinus arrhythmia
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Bleeding times longer than normal would be an induction of a bleeding disorder. The normal buccal mucosal bleeding time in the dog is:
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2 to 4 minutes
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The type of fluid that would likely be chosen for IV administration for most routine anesthetic procedures is:
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Lactated Ringers
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When an anesthetized patient is positioned on a surgical table with the head lower than the tail section of the body, a veterinary technician should be monitoring the patient carefully for:
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Hypoxia
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Hollow needle developed in:
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1853
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Gas anesthesia widely used in:
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1960
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Acepromazine introduced in:
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1950
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Isoflurane becomes available in:
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1982
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Thiobarbituates introduce in:
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1934
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Alanine Amino Transferase (ALT), Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP), Gamma Glutamyl Transpepidase (GGT) are lab test for which organ:
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Liver
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Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and Creatinine are lab test for which organ:
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Kidney
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The use of an anticholinergic, like atropine or glycopyrrolate, is likely to cause:
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Mydriasis
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The effect anticholinergic drugs have on vagal tone or the parasympathetic nervous system is to:
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Decrease activity and increase heart rate.
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Atropine will provide analgesia as well as reducing salivary secretions. True or False
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False
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The use of atropine or glycoprrolate will affect anesthesia time by:
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Having no effect on the anesthesia time.
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The expected effect of Acepromazine relating to epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmiasis to:
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Decrease chances of arrhythmia.
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The expected effect of Acepromazine on the chemoreceptor trigger zone is to:
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Suppress the comiting center.
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Which drug is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist?
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Domitor
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The generic name for Valium is:
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Diazepam
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The major organ of metabolism of Valium is the:
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Liver
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The effect that xylazine will have on the skeletal muscles is:
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Muscle relaxation
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If bradycardia was found to exist in an equine patient, the veterinarian is most likely to ask for which of the following medications:
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Glycopyrrolate
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Is Metronidazole used as a reversal drug for a alpha 2 agonist?
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No
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Of the agents listed below that are utilized in anesthetic techniques, which is an NMDA antagonist?
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Ketamine
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The pre-anesthetic medication that is noted to have anticonvulsant activity is:
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Diazepam
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The most significant side effect of administering an opioid to a patient as a pre-anesthetic is:
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Respiratory depression
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The agent that is used in anesthetic techniques that is most likely to cause excessive salivation is:
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Ketamine
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Considering the use of alpha 2 agonist in large animals and the dosage required for effect, when compared to the horse, ruminants are considered:
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Much more sensitive.
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The pre-anesthetic medication that is most likely to produce a hyper responsiveness to sound is:
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Morphine
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Which combination of medications is not neuroleptanalgesic?
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Diazepam/Ketamine
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When in a concentration of 1% (10 mg/ml) the medication that has a maximum dose of 0.3 ml is:
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Acepromazine
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When monitoring anesthesia, vital signs are general assessed and recorded every?
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5 minutes
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The most important parameter to monitor during anesthesia are heart rate and rate and depth or respiration. True or False
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True
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When considering the flag rate (the rate at which we consider that the condition is occurring) for bradycardia in the dog, the heart rate in beats per minute should be less than:
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70
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The instrument that monitors arterial pulses through vessels and produces an audible sound is the:
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Doppler
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The CO2 level in the blood may be elevates in cases of hypoventilation and the instrument that is used to measure the CO2 level in the blood is the/a:
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Capnometer
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A cause of inaccurate pulse-oximetry readings is:
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-poor probe positioning or patient movement. -hypothermia or hypotension. -tachycardia not detected by the pulse oximeter.
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A level of anesthesia that is considered a deep plane of anesthesia and only desirable for very manipulative surgical procedures is:
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Stage III, Plane III
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The type of monitor that connects between the endotracheal tube and the anesthesia hoses is the:
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Respiratory (JorVet)
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Anesthetic drug metabolism and elimination will depend on:
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-Liver function -Body temperature -Kidney function
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The IV fluid rate for shock in the dog is:
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90 ml/kg/hr
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The anesthetic record is used to:
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-help recognize gradual changes over a period of time -help plan subsequent anesthetic procedures -record heard rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure
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The esophageal stethoscope is used to monitor:
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Sound of the heartbeat.
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Provides information about the electrical activity of the heart:
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Electrocardiogram
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When monitoring anesthesia, respiratory depression is detected. The expected acid base imbalance is:
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Respiratory acidosis
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A method of measuring the blood pressure during anesthesia by the indirect method is by using a:
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Ultrasonic Doppler
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An INCORRECT principle used in monitoring anesthesia in veterinary patients is judgement of anesthetic depth is made by dial settings for flowmeter and vaporizer. True or False
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True
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Apnea following the induction of anesthesia is:
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Commonly seen
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An apnea monitor may be used to monitor respiration during anesthesia. The type of changes the sensing portion of the monitor will detect in the expired gas will be changes in:
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Temperature
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A potent, natural stimulant of the respiratory center is:
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Carbon dioxide
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The tidal volume will usually be decreased inan animal under general anesthesia by:
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25%
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When monitoring an anesthetic patient on gas anesthesia that is in stage 3, plane 2, you would expect the mucous membrane color to appear:
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Bright Pink
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Considering the stages of anesthesia, the globe of the eye is rotated medially and the third eyelid is prolapsed in:
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Stage III, Plane I
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The recommended route(s) of administration for Propofol is/are:
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I.V.
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The anesthetic agent that will support bacterial growth in the solution and requires very careful handing is:
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Propofol
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The drug that is active as the central nervous system depressant in Beuthanasia D euthanasia solution is:
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Pentobarbital, a short acting barbiturate
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The anesthetic that is known as a dissociative anesthetic agent:
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Ketamine
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When Acepromazine is administered as a tranquilizer prior to the administration of Propofol, the per cent of dose reduction for Propofol i:
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50%
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Propofol is unlike any other injectable anesthetic and is a:
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Phenolic compound
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The agent that is not a local anesthetic:
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Diphenhydramine
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Animals receiving local anesthetics epidurally (lidocaine or bupivacaine) should always be place in a head-down position. True or False
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False
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The anesthetic agent that is an NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) antagonist is:
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Ketamine
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The anesthetic agent that contains an egg protein and may cause an allergic reaction when administered to some patients is:
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Propofol
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If local anesthetics are mistakenly administered IV, the effect(s) may be seen is/are:
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Convulsions
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The local anesthetic agent is often used in dentistry and for nerve blocks as this agent will provide local anesthesia for up to 6 hours:
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Bupivicaine
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A clinical advantage of using this anesthetic induction agent is that it is associated with very rapid liver metabolism that often results in a smooth, rapid recovery:
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Propofol
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The anesthetic agent which is associated with the swallowing and ocular reflexes remaining intact and increasing muscle tone is:
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Ketamine
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A muscle relaxant:
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Guaifenesin
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The important anatomical area for performing the technique of epidural anesthesia is the:
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Cauda equina
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Propofol is noted to provide very significant analgesia. True or False
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False
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The tranquilizer that is in Telazol that has anticonvulsant and muscle effect is:
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Zolazepam
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