A&P II Ch 20/21 Reading – Flashcards
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Which lymphoid organ(s) appear(s) before the others?
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thymus
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Lymphangitis is caused by ______.
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an infection
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Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?
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bed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area
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Hypoalbuminemia is a medical condition in which blood plasma levels of albumin are abnormally low. One reason for this disorder is an increased movement of blood plasma albumin into the interstitial space through leaky capillaries. How would this condition affect the volume of lymph that's produced
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It would increase lymph volume.
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Which of the following distinguishes lymphatic vessels from veins?
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permeability of the walls
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What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
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The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
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Which of the following mechanisms is NOT used to propel lymph through lymphatic vessels?
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small heart-like pumps
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Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. What is the unique structural modification that increases their permeability?
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minivalves
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Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?
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increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary
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Which of the following is a characteristic of lymphangitis?
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inflamed and painful lymphatic vessels
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Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?
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thoracic duct
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Lymph from what regions of the body is drained into the right lymphatic duct?
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the right upper limb, the right side of the head, and the thorax
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What is the name of the enlarged sac to which the lumbar trunks and the intestinal trunk return lymph?
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cisterna chyli
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The thoracic duct runs parallel and close to all of the following EXCEPT the __________.
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iliac arteries
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Where are the three large clusters of superficial lymph nodes?
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the cervical, inguinal, and axillary regions
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Which of the following vessels delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?
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thoracic duct
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
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to participate in gas exchange at capillaries
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Which statement describes the origin of lymph fluid?
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Lymph is excess fluid formed from plasma that accumulates in the tissues as interstitial fluid.
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Lymphatic collecting vessels originate in which of the following areas?
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capillary beds
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Which of the following statements is true regarding veins versus lymphatic collecting vessels?
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Veins have fewer internal valves than lymphatic vessels.
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Once collected, lymph ultimately drains into __________.
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venous circulation
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Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?
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blood vessels
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What is the function of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?
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increase permeability
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Which lymphoid organ is primarily active during the early years of life?
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B
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Which of these lymphoid organs is part of a collection of tissues called the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) and removes pathogens entering the pharynx (throat)?
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A
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Which lymphoid organ extracts aged and defective blood cells and platelets from the blood in addition to storing some of the breakdown products for later reuse?
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C
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Which of these lymphoid organs is the thymus?
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B
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Which of these lymphoid organs destroys bacteria before it can breach the intestinal wall and generates "memory" lymphocytes for long-term memory?
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D
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Which of these lymphatic organs is organized with trabeculae and compartments containing white pulp and red pulp?
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C
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Which lymph cells produce antibodies?
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plasma cells
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Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs do(es) NOT contain reticular connective tissue?
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thymus
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Which of the following lymphoid cells trap antigens and transport them to lymph nodes?
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dendritic cells
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Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymph organ?
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thymus
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Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) as the site where B lymphocytes become immunocompetent B cells?
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red bone marrow
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Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.
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macrophages
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The filtration of lymph and activation of the immune system are the two basic functions of the __________.
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lymph nodes
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Which of the following is an INACCURATE statement regarding lymph nodes?
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Immune system cells are only located in the cortex.
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What region of the lymph node contains follicles filled with dividing B cells?
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cortex
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Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?
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They filter lymph.
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Lymph arrives at the lymph nodes via afferent lymphatic vessels.
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True
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Where in the lymph node is a dendritic cell most likely associated with a B or T lymphocyte?
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cortex
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After surgical removal of the spleen (i.e., a splenectomy), some other organs take over most of its functions. Which of the following spleen functions in the adult can not be performed by bone marrow?
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removal of aged and damaged red blood cells from the blood
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Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?
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white pulp
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What vessel serves as the source of the spleen's blood supply from the aorta?
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celiac truck
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Where is the spleen located?
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in the left side of the abdominal cavity just beneath the diaphragm and curled around the anterior aspect of the stomach
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Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) in immune surveillance and blood cell recycling?
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the spleen
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What anatomical area(s) is/are protected by the tubal tonsils?
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the passage from the pharynx to the middle ear
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Tonsillar crypts are invaginations deep into the interior of the tonsil. What structure(s), found in most other lymphoid organs, is/are missing from the tonsil that allows for the presence of these crypts?
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capsule
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Which tonsil is located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and is referred to as the adenoids if it is enlarged?
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pharyngeal tonsil
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Which of the following lymph organs is NOT matched with its function?
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Peyer's patches: mature B cells
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The __________ tonsils are also called the adenoids.
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pharyngeal
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Peyer's patches are mucosa-associated lymph tissue located in the __________.
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wall of the small intestine
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Of the following lymphoid organs, which is/are structurally simplest and lack(s) a complete capsule?
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tonsils
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Which of the following organs or locations do(es) NOT contain MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?
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mesentery of the small intestine
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Where are Peyer's patches located?
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distal portion of the small intestine
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Besides lymph nodes, where would you expect to find proliferating (dividing) B cells?
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in the spleen
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The thymus functions strictly in maturation of B cells.
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False
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Which of the following is NOT a chemical barrier that helps prevent infections?
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the pH of the blood
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Which of the following provides a first line of defense against pathogens?
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intact skin and mucous membranes
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Treatment of an abscess often requires that it be surgically drained because ______.
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the wall of the abscess prevents neutrophils from entering the pus and attacking the pathogens
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Which letter represents the formation of a phagolysosome resulting from the fusion of a lysosome with the phagocytic vesicle?
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C
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With what does our immune system coat pathogens to facilitate their capture and accelerate phagocytosis?
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opsonins
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What type of immune system cell performs the most phagocytosis in the body?
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macrophages
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Four (or five) cardinal signs indicate inflammation. What specific sign of inflammation is the result of exudate in the tissue spaces?
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edema (swelling)
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Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is/are released by mast cells?
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histamine
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Which of the following is NOT one of the effects produced by the release of inflammatory chemicals?
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vasoconstriction
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When do neutrophils enter the blood from the red bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors?
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during leukocytosis
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What characterizes the chemotaxis phase of phagocyte mobilization?
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Neutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the site of injury.
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What characterizes the diapedesis phase of phagocyte mobilization?
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Neutrophils flatten to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls.
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What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected?
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interferon
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How do interferons protect against viral infection in healthy cells?
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Interferons block viral reproduction in healthy cells through the production of antiviral proteins.
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What is/are the specific target(s) of interferons?
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the membrane receptors on healthy cells
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Which type of chemical induces fever?
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pyrogens
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Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways?
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mast cells
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Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation?
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antibodies
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Discharge is one of the cardinal signs of inflammation.
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False
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Which of the following phases involves white blood cells leaving capillaries?
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diapedesis
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Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?
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opsonization
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Which antimicrobial protein triggers inflammation?
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histamine
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Adaptive defenses require us to use what molecules that can identify whether a cell is a self or nonself cell?
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antibodies
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Haptens have immunogenicity but not reactivity.
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False
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Which of the areas seen the figure must be occupied by T lymphocytes, at least for a while, but is NOT required for the production of B lymphocytes?
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the thymus
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How does a lymphocyte exhibit immunocompetence?
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by being able to recognize their one specific antigen
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Proliferation of lymphocytes occurs immediately after __________.
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activation
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Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells (APC)?
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B cells
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Which of the following cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces for recognition?
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dendritic cells
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Binding of an eosinophil to an antibody-coated parasitic worm involves binding of the antibody's stem region to a(n) ______.
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plasma membrane protein on the eosinophil's surface
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Plasma cell neoplasms are disorders in which abnormal plasma (myeloma) cells form tumors in bone or soft tissues. These altered cells may produce a large quantity of M protein, an immunoglobulin fragment with no protective qualities. What effect would M protein have upon blood?
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increased viscosity
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The antivenom used to treat venomous snake bites is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake--how would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?
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passive immunity, artificially acquired
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Which of the following should produce naturally acquired, active immunity?
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recovering from the chicken pox
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Which of the following best illustrates artificially acquired active humoral immunity?
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vaccines
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What part of the antibody's structure determines its class?
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constant (C) region
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How many sites on this antibody molecule have potential to bind to a non-self molecule?
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2
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In certain classes of antibody, the monomeric versions join to form dimers. What portions of the molecules adhere to each other to form these dimers?
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the stem regions
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Which of the following occurs when antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins?
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neutralization
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What class of antibody acts to clump red blood cells because of a transfusion of mismatched blood?
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immunoglobulin M (IgM)
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Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis?
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complement fixation and activation
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Which of the following are properly matched?
IgM: secreted in tears
IgE: primary antibody of the secondary immune response
IgG: most abundant antibody
IgA: primary antibody during primary immune response
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IgG: most abundant antibody
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Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true?
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A primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.
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Vaccines provide what type of immunity?
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artificial active
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Why are children given vaccinations?
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so that they will develop antibodies against various diseases
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Which of the following statements does NOT describe the adaptive immune response?
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It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material.
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Health workers working with diphtheria commonly receive a serum with antibodies against the pathogen. What type of immunity would this be?
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passive artificial immunity
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What type of cell is the precursor to the helper T cell?
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CD4 cell
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Where does most exogenous antigen presentation take place?
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in lymphoid tissues and organs
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Which of the following activate CD8 cells?
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antigen fragments on class I MHC proteins
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What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?
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cytotoxic T (TC) cells
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Which of these mechanisms do cytotoxic T (TC) cells use to destroy a target--that is, deliver a lethal hit?
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perforation of the membrane
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Which type of T cell will recognize antigens associated with an organ transplant?
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cytotoxic T (TC) cells
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Activated CD8 cells become __________.
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cytotoxic T cells
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Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?
macrophages: antigen-presenting cells
B cells: produce free antibodies
helper T cells: destroy infected cells
cytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells
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helper T cells: destroy infected cells
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T cells achieve self-tolerance in the __________.
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thymus
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What occurs if a T cell binds to an antigen and the T cell does NOT receive a co-stimulatory signal?
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The T cell enters a state of anergy.
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Which lymphocytes act as the bridge between the cellular and humoral responses?
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helper T cells
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Which class of tissue graft is the LEAST likely to be accepted by a patient's body?
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xenograft
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Which of the following is/are the most specific internal defense against disease?
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T cells
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A class I MHC protein presents an antigen. What type of cell is likely presenting and to what type of cell would it be presented?
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Any nucleated cell would be presented to a CD8 cell.
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What types of antigen do T cells NOT recognize?
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self-antigens
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Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?
multiple sclerosis: autoimmune disorder
AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome): helper T cells are destroyed by a virus
severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID): genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells
immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
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immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis