question

Physical Activity

answer

Any bodily movement produced by contracting skeletal muscles, with an increase in energy expenditure.

question

Exercise

answer

Planned, purposeful, repetitive

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Physical Fitness

answer

Attributes or characteristics that individuals have achieved that related to their ability to perform physical activity

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3 metabolic pathways the body uses to creates ATP

answer

1. Creatine Phosphate 2. anaerobic glycolysis 3. 0xidative system

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Claudication

answer

pain in the leg is induced by exercise, usually because of an artery obstruction.

question

Creatine Phosphate system

answer

Small amounts of CP are stored within each cell. Simple one-to-one trade off that allows for the rapid production of ATP. ONLY for use during short bouts of exercise. less that 10 seconds.

question

Anaerobic glycolysis

answer

No oxygen required. NExt most immediate energy source. break down carbs (glucose or glycogen) into pyruvate. Used during medium-duration exercise. no more than about 90 seconds.

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Aerobic glycolysis (oxidative system)

answer

Oxygen dependent. As exercise intensity decreases allowing for longer duration activities, use of the oxidative system increases. (Krebs cycle and ETC). Produce ATP in the mitochondria of the cell--requires oxygen. Lasts longer than 1-2 minutes.

question

What is VO2?

answer

The volume of oxygen the body consumes. VO2 max is the highest volume of oxygen the body can consume.

question

Define Stroke Volume

answer

the volume of blood the heart ejects with each beat.

question

How does SV increase with workload?

answer

Similar to HR, it increases as workload increases but only up to ~40% to 60% of VO2max. The percentages can be decreases in sedentary individuals and increased with training.

question

What happens to resting HR as stroke volume increases?

answer

it decreases, as more blood being pumped per beat allows the heart to beat less often.

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What is cardiac output?

answer

a measure of blood pumped per minute. The product of stroke volume and heart rate.

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What does Diastolic Blood pressure do during exercise?

answer

Remains stable or decreases slightly.

question

What is rate pressure product?

answer

serves as an estimate of myocardial oxygen demand. Product of HR and Systolic BP. HR X SBP

question

What is the Fick equation used to determine VO2 max?

answer

VO2max = HRmax X SVmax X a-VO2 difference max (arteriovenous oxygen difference)

question

What is the gold standard to measure Cardiorespiratory fitness?

answer

VO2 max during open circuit spirometry.

question

How does a submaximal exercise test work?

answer

It estimates VO2 max from the HR response to submaximal single stage or graded exercise.

question

absolute oxygen consumption vs. relative oxygen consumption

answer

absolute is the raw volume of O2 consumed by the body. Relative is the volume of O2 consumed relative to body weight. Useful to compare fitness levels between individuals.

question

What is one of the largest components of PA-related energy expenditure?

answer

Occupational Physical Ativity

question

5 Health related physical fitness components

answer

Cardiorespiratory endurance, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, and flexibility

question

6 Skill (performance) related physical fitness components

answer

Agility, coordination, balance, power, reaction time, and speed

question

cardiorespiratory endurance

answer

ability of circulatory system and respiratory system to supply o2 during sustained physical activity

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Body composition

answer

relative amounts of muscle, fat, bone, and other vital parts of the body

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Muscular strength

answer

Ability of muscle to exert force

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muscular endurance

answer

ability of muscle to continue to perform without fatigue

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flexibility

answer

ROM at a joint. as per the skeletal muscles and not any external forces.

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Agility

answer

ability to change position of the body in space with speed and accuracy

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coordination

answer

ability to use the senses together with body parts to perform tasks smoothly and accurately

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balance

answer

maintenance of equilibrium while stationary OR moving

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reaction time

answer

time elapsed between stimulation and the beginning of the reaction to said stimulus

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speed

answer

ability to perform a movement within a short period of time

question

ACSM's weekly/daily physical activity recommendations

answer

150 minutes Moderate PA per week (30 min or more most days of the week), 75 minutes of vigorous intensity

question

Can most sedentary individuals safely begin a low-to moderate intensity PA Program without the need for baseline testing or medical clearance?

answer

Yes indeed

question

Most common musculoskeletal injuries occur in what area of the body?

answer

lower body- particularly the knee or foot

question

Who is most at risk for sudden cardiac death?

answer

Sedentary individuals performing infrequent exercise

question

Light PA is defined as

answer

<3 MET's

question

Moderate PA is defined as

answer

3 to <6 MET's

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Vigorous PA is defined as

answer

>/=6 MET's

question

What is 1 MET? Why do we use METs?

answer

1 MET = the relative oxygen consumption at rest. or, 3.5 mL per kg per minute. It is an easy way for the general public to gauge their exercise intensity. Also used to calculate energy expenditure over time.

question

What is a kilocalorie? what is it also known as?

answer

AKA: Calorie. estimate of energy cost that can be directly related to physical activity and exercise. Weight gain, loss and maintenance can be estimated remembering that 3,500kcal =1 lb of fat.

question

Is the ACSM's weekly recommended PA sufficient to prevent weight gain in the typical american lifestyle?

answer

Hell na! They must go beyond these recommendations.

question

Two types of pre-participation self-guided screenings

answer

1. PAR-Q (physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire) 2.Fitness Facility Pre-participation screening questionnaire

question

What is the PAR-Q? Limitation?

answer

A minimal standard for entry into Moderate-intensity exercise programs. allows individuals to gauge their own medical readiness to participate . does not screen well for those at low to moderate risk.

question

What is a pre-participation screening questionnaire?

answer

Also useful for clients to assess their health readiness. More comprehensive and recognizes signs and symptoms of CVD and other risk-factor thresholds.

question

What are the ACSM Coronary Artery Risk factors?

answer

Age (Men 45 and older women 55 and older), Family History (MI, coronary revascularization or sudden death before 55 in father and 65 in mother or first degree relative), Smoker (current or quit within the last 6 months), Sedentary (no PA in at least 30 minutes of MPA at least 3 days per week for the last 3 months), Obesity (BMI 30 or over, or waist girth >40in for men and >35in for women), Hypertension (SBP 140 or more and/or DBP 90 or more confirmed on 2 seperate occasions), Dyslipidemia (LDL 130 or more OR HDL <40. OR on lipid lowering meds), Prediabetes (Impaired FBG between 100 and 125.)

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What is the negative risk factor?

answer

HDL value of greater than or equal to 60. (this is reverse cholesterol transport and reduces the risk of CVD)

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Dyspnea

answer

Shortness of breath

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Orthopnea

answer

trouble breathing while lying down

question

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

answer

difficulty breathing while asleep

question

What classifies as low, moderate, and high risk clients?

answer

Low: <2 risk factors and asymptomatic Moderate: 2 or more risk factors and Asymptomatic High: Symptomatic OR known CVD, CPD, renal or metabolic disease

question

What is the exception to missing risk factor information?

answer

Prediabetes is counted as a positive risk factor ONLY if the person is 45 or older OR The BMI is 25 or more (and have additional risk factor for prediabetes)

question

What is a contraindication

answer

individual's characteristic that make PA more risky

question

Absolute contraindications to exercise

answer

Absolute cannot participate in andy PA program and/or assessment and should consult with their doctor first.

question

Relative contraindications to exercise

answer

the benefit of exercise outweighs the risk of testing. Left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, Electrolyte abnormalities, severe atrial hypertension, tachy or bradydysrhythmia, hypertrophic myopathy, most disorders exacerbated by exercise, uncontrolled metabolic disease, chronic infectious disease, Mental impairment, AV block.

question

Exercise testing is recommended for individuals at ____ risk

answer

High risk.

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What is prehypertension?

answer

120-139 SBP and/or 80-89 DBP

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Normal BP?

answer

<120 and <80

question

Stage 1 hypertension?

answer

140-159 SBP and 90-99 DBP

question

Stage 2 hypertension?

answer

160 + SBP 100+ DBP

question

Optimal LDL, total cholesterol, HDL, and triglyceride levels?

answer

LDL: <100 HDL: <40 Triglyceride: <150 TOTAL: <200

question

3 assesments for muscular endurance

answer

1. Bench press 2. Curl up 3. push up

question

twitch

answer

When a motor unit is stimulated by a single nerve impulse

question

tetanus

answer

motor unit stimulated constantly

question

summation

answer

motor unit has more than 1 stimulus

question

What is the SAID principle? What is it dependent on?

answer

The specificity principle. Specific exercise elicits specific adaptations, creating specific training effects. (Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands). Dependent on the TYPE and MODE of exercise. Example: a client wants to improve their time in an endurance run, you select training stimulus that is appropriate. (eg. endurance activities, not swimming.

question

7 ways of determining exercise intensity

answer

1. Heart rate reserve method. 2. Peak HR method 3. Peak VO2. method 4. Peak METs method 5. VO2 reserve method 6. Talk test method 7. RPE method

question

(HRR) Heart rate reserve method KARVONEN FORMULA

answer

The difference between max HR and resting HR. Target HR = [(max HR -resting HR) X %intensity desired] + Resting HR.

question

Peak HR method

answer

220-age = max HR. (SD of 12-15 BPM) Target HR = max HR X % intensity desired

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Peak VO2 method

answer

must have measured or estimated VO2max. Target VO2 = VO2max X intensity desired

question

Peak METs method

answer

Target METs = (%intensity desired)(VO2max in METS -1) +1

question

VO2 reserve method What is VO2 reserve?

answer

VO2 reserve is the difference between VO2 max and VO2 rest. (determined in a lab setting) Target VO2 reserve = [(VO2max - VO2 rest) x %intensity desired] + VO2rest

question

Talk test method

answer

differentiates between moderate and vigorous activity. If they can talk, but not sing it is moderate. If they are unable to say more than a few words without pausing for a breath it is vigourous.

question

Borg's RPE scale. What level is recommended to improve cardiorespiratory fitness?

answer

ranges from 6 to 20. from no exertion at all to maximal exertion. 11 to 16 to improve CRF.

question

What is the CR-10 scale of exertion? (Borg's category ratio scale)

answer

scale of 0 to 10. in which 0 is sitting and 10 is max effort possible. 5-6 is mod. 7-8 is vig.

question

Symptoms identified during an exercise test in which the test should be stopped.

answer

Drop in SBP 10 or below. Rise in BP above 250 and/or 115. Failure of HR to increase failure of test equipment

question

Do individuals with cardiac, respiratory, metabolic, or musculoskeletal disorders need to be supervised by trained personnel?

answer

Yes, when beginning an exercise program

question

What is target heart rate? How do you determine it?

answer

Must consider the habitual PA, exercise level, and goals to determine the % intensity desired.

question

Common musculoskeletal injuries signs and symptoms.

answer

Point tenderness Pain when body part is at rest Joint pain Pain that continues after warming up. Swelling or discoloration Increased pain with weight bearing activities changes in normal bodily functions

question

Intrinsic risk factors to injury

answer

History of previous injury Inadequate fitness/conditioning Body composition Bony alignment abnormalities Flexibility/strength imbalances Joint laxity Musculoskeletal disease

question

Extrinsic risk factors to injury

answer

Excessive load on the body Type or speed of movement number of reps footwear surface training errors excessive distances fast progression high intensity running on hills poor technique fatigue environment conditions

question

Exercise in heat yields? (relate to HR as well)

answer

Dehydration risk, increased blood flow to the skin (away from working muscles), HIGHER HR values.

question

Exercise in the cold yields?

answer

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin, HR and cardiac output are similar to thermoneutral environment, wearing bulky clothing is a barrier, Respiratory rate is higher and VO2 max may be slightly lower. Some individuals may perceive exercise to be more difficult in the cold

question

Exercise in high altitude

answer

"thin air" same amount of oxygen in the air at ALL elevations. It is the change in barometric pressure that causes the PO2 to decrease. SV decreases and HR increases during first initial days. Safe to assume that there will need to be a significant reduction in intensity and duration of activities.

question

acclimatization vs. acclimation

answer

acclimatization - Physiological adaptation that occurs in response to a change in the "natural" environment. acclimation - physiological adaptation that occurs in response to EXPERIMENTALLY induced changes in climate.

question

Heat acclimatization, cold acclimatization, altitude acclimatization benefits

answer

Heat- lower core body temp, skin temp, high sweat rate, lower HR, lower perception of effort, improved conservation of sodium. (recommended 10 consecutive days in heat) cold- maintain heat production by means beside shivering, maintenance of hand and feet temperatures. altitude- Increases O2 carrying capacity in the blood. (Erythropoiesis, production of additional RBC) "live high" "train low" Benefits last up to 3 weeks.

question

Smallest contractile unit of a muscle

answer

Sarcomere

question

Type I fibers

answer

Slow twitch fibers. Lower contractile force. better for endurance activities

question

Type II fibers

answer

Fast twitch fibers. Higher contractile force. better for strength and power activities.

question

Which type of muscle fibers are recruited first?

answer

Type I then Type II. as force production increases.

question

initial simple assessment of muscular strength and change in muscular strength between clients (calculation)

answer

(kg) weight lifted / (kg) body weight

question

What is a 1RM? Multiple RM? What equipment should be used?

answer

1RM is the heaviest weight that can be lifted in 1 rep. using proper form and technique. STANDARD muscular strength assessment. multiple RM can provide an index of change over time. Performance is significantly greater on weight machines than free weights. Allow 3 to 5 minutes between trials. Obtain 1RM within 4 sets.

question

Muscular endurance assessments. How do you determine which test to use based on each client?

answer

Curl-up and push up test. Based on the needs of the client. (poor ab strength is thought to contribute to low back pain.

question

What are the PROS principle of designing a resistance training program? What do they mean?

answer

Progression- Regularity Overload Specificity

question

Progression

answer

demands placed on the body must be continually and progressively increased over time. Increase at 5% to 10% per week and decrease the reps by 2 to 4 when a given load can be performed for the desired number of reps.

question

Frequency

answer

Resistance training must be performed on a regular basis several times per week to make gains. 2-3 per week.

question

Overload

answer

to enhance muscular fitness, the body must exercise at a level beyond that at which it is normally stressed. Manipulated by changing the INTENSITY, DURATION, or FREQUENCY

question

Specificity

answer

SAID principle. Specific adaptations to Imposed demands. Distinct adaptations that take place as a result of the training program. Must mimics demands of their sport or desired goals.

question

Types of resistance training (3). Explain each.

answer

DCER(isotonic)- most common. weight lifted does not change through the lifting and lowering phase of an exercise. the heaviest weight that can be lifted is limited by the strength of a muscle at the weakest joint angle. Isokinetics- muscle actions performed at a constant angular limb velocity. Plyometric training- enhances neuromuscular performance. quick, powerful movements that involve a rapid stretch of a muscle (eccentric) followed by a rapic shortening (concentric).

question

What is the amortization phase?

answer

in plyometrics it is the amount of time it takes to change direction from eccentric to concentric. Should be as short as possible. (<0.1s) to maximize training adaptations.

question

Resistance training program variables.

answer

Choice of exercise- promote balance across joints and between opposing muscle groups. Order of exercise- Total body (perform more challenging first and large muscle groups first) Resistance Load Used- Most important variables. Performed to muscle fatigue but not exhaustion. Training Volume- number of exercises performed per session, reps performed per set, number of sets performed per exercise all influence training volume. Rest intervals between sets- muscular strength (rest 2-3min) muscular endurance (rest <1min) repetition velocity-as individuals gain experience they may perform higher-velocity movements. Training Frequency- 2-3 x per week. Periodization- regularly changing the training stimulus to keep it effective.

question

4 types of flexibility training

answer

1. Static- most common. slow constant motion held to the point of mild discomfort. 2. Ballistic- rapid bouncing movements. Used by coaches for athletes to increase blood flow before competition. Contraindicated. 3. PNF (proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation)- combining passive stretching combined with concentric and isometric. need partner. GTO plays an important role. 4. Dynamic flexibility- slow controlled movements, sport specific that increase core temperature- relate to type of activity.

question

Muscle spindles

answer

collection of 3 to 10 muscle fibers that are innervated by a motor neuron. Provide info about rate of change in a muscle.

question

What are Golgi Tendon Organs?

answer

located in the musculotendinous junction. respond to changes in muscle tension.

question

Explain myotatic reflex reciprocal inhibition.

answer

Myotatic reflex "stretch reflex" occurs in the stretched muscle by attempting to resist the stretch. Muscle spindles monitor muscle length. Helps keep us upright.

question

What is reciprocal inhibition?

answer

*The antagonist muscle responds with reciprocal inhibition. Causes antagonist to contract less as the agonist contracts.

question

Flexibility assesments

answer

Goniometers sit and reach tests- most commonly used for flexibility in lower back and hip joint. functional movement screens

question

Flexibility program designs

answer

Flexibility gains are lost within 4 to 6 weeks of quitting exercises. 2-3 x per week for at least 3-4 weeks may be required. Do these exercises when the body is warm. hold to mild discomfort. NO link between ROM training and prevention of lowback pain or muscle soreness.

question

Central abdominal obesity is associated with..

answer

metabolic syndrome.

question

what is metabolic syndrome?

answer

a clustering of metabolic factors that increase the risk of cardiorespiratory disease.

question

What are anthropometric measures?

answer

noninvasive and quantitative techniques for determining body size by measuring specific body dimensions.

question

Anthropometric methods for measuring body composition

answer

BMI- measure of weight in relation to height. Waist circumference Skinfolds WHR

question

How to calculate BMI. Limitations of BMI?

answer

divide weight (kg) by height (meters squared). 1kg = 2.2 lbs 1in = 2.54cm 1m = 100cm Does not differentiate between fat and fat free mass. Not a true measure of body fatness.

question

what is BMI classifications of: Underweight Normal Overweight Obesity class I Obesity class II Obesity class III

answer

Underweight <18.5 Normal 18.5-24.9 Overweight 25-29.9 Obesity class I 30-34.5 Obesity class II 35-39.9 Obesity class II 40+

question

Central obesity versus gynoid

answer

central (apple, or abdominal) vs. pear shaped (hips and thighs)

question

Waist to hip ratio

answer

identify people with more central abdominal fat. Divide the circumference of the waist by the circumference of the hips (buttocks/hips) in inches.

question

Using waist circumference alone

answer

describes abdominal fat measurement. health risks are higher when measurement is 35+ in for women and 40+ for men.

question

risk category for waist circumference in male and female adults. (very low, low, high, very high)

answer

Women: very low 110 Men very low 120

question

standard circumference sites

answer

Abdomen Arm *Buttox/hip Calf Forearm Hips/thigh Mid-thigh *Waist

question

% body fat methods. What is the % for men and women that is considered satisfactory for health?

answer

Skinfold measurements Bioelectrical Impedance

question

Lab methods for measuring body composition

answer

Hydrostatic weighing- calculates body density from body volume Air displacement plethysmography- measures body volume. DEXA- x- ray to measure bone mineral content, body fat, and lean soft tissue.

question

what does hydrostatic weighing assume

answer

standard densities for muscle bone and fat

question

9 skinfold measurements. Principle behind skinfold measurements +- 3.5% error Tension set at ~12 g/mm-2

answer

Abdominal Triceps Biceps Chest/pectoral Medial calf Midaxillary Subscapular Suprailiac Thigh *the amount of subcutaneous fat is proportional to the total amount of body fat.

question

diagonal skinfolds

answer

Chest, suprailiac, subscapular; all other skinfolds are vertical

question

Procedures for skinfolds

answer

measure all on the right side of the body pinch with thumb and index finger 1cm away from the center mark wait 1-2 sec before reading the caliper measure perpendicular to the skinfold.

question

7 site formula sites

answer

chest, midaxillary, triceps, subscapular, abdomen, suprailiac, thigh

question

3 site formula sites (men)

answer

Chest abdomen thigh or subscapular

question

3 site formula sites (women)

answer

triceps suprailiac thigh or abdominal.

question

the National Heart, Lung, and Blood institute recommend _____% weight loss reduction improves overall health

answer

5-10%

question

define negative energy balance

answer

energy expenditure must exceed energy intake.

question

define positive energy balance

answer

energy intake exceeds energy expenditure

question

define Total Energy Expenditure

answer

the total number of calories expended each day and reflects th amount of energy required to carry out all metabolic processes within the body

question

3 components of determining energy expenditure

answer

Resting energy expenditure (REE)- 60-70% TEE Thermic effect of food: 10% TEE Physical activity expenditure: 20-30% TEE

question

define Resting energy expenditure what influences it the most?

answer

resting metabolism! energy required to maintain normal regulatory balance and body functions at rest. Also called basal energy expenditure. The amount of calories a person uses if they want to do no activity throughout the day. lean body mass influences it because it is more metabolically active than fat.

question

define thermic effect of food

answer

energy required to eat and digest food. The more physically active, the more active their metabolism TEE

question

recommended 1-2lbs/week weight loss in calories

answer

1lb of weight loss is a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories. or 500 calories per day.

question

nor recommended for an individual to consume less than ____ calories per day

answer

1,200 calories

question

ACSM postion stand indicates that engaging in _____ minutes per week of MVPA would result in better weight management

answer

250 min/week.

question

demonstration of exercise is especially important in _____ populations

answer

overweight or obese

question

Behavioral strategies for weight loss

answer

Self monitoring goal setting stimulus control problem solving

question

How many calories in 1 gram of: carb protein fat alcohol

answer

1 g carbs- 4 calories 1 g protein- 4 calories 1g fat- 9 calories 1g alcohol- 7 calories

question

energy intake for carbs, protein and fat

answer

45 - 65% of daily energy intake; 70% for athletes; 4 cal/gram 10-15% of daily intake; .8 g/kg of body wt.; athletes may need 1.2 - 1.4 for endurance and 1.6-1.7 for strength; 4 cal/gram

question

3 abnormal curves of the spine

answer

hyperkyphosis, hyperlordosis, scoliosis

question

Pregnant women need an additional ____ calories per day

answer

150 cal per day then 300cal in the 3rd trimester

question

avoid exercising in the ______ position after week _____

answer

Supine position after week 16

question

pregnant women need as increase dietary need for....

answer

folic acid (B vitamin to prevent serious birth defects) and iron.

question

Vitamin D intake have increased for? what are the levels?

answer

all populations but particularly children and older adults (65+). children and adolescents 1-18 600 IU Older adults 800IU

question

Coronary Artery disease

answer

accounts for the most cardiovascular deaths. The most prevalent types of CVD.

question

Define athlerosclerosis

answer

process where fatty streaks develop, causing the artery wall the thicken while reducing the luminal diameter. begins with a focal injury to the lining of the artery and eventually causes damage to the endothelium. The endothelium then becomes more permeable to lipids , allowing LDL's to move easily through where they are oxidized by macrophages. creating fatty streaks and plaque formation begins.

question

Define myocardial ischemia

answer

partial impairment of coronary artery artery blood flow reduces oxygen to cardiac tissue.

question

Define myocardial infarction

answer

hEART ATTACK. results in heart tissue death.

question

stable ischemia vs. unstable ischemia

answer

stable: result of increased O2 demand of the heart (as seen with exercise) increased chest pain (angina) and decreased exercise capacity because of reduced blood supply to the heart. unstable: more severe often seen at rest with time of little exertion and oxygen demand. May be a warning sign that a heart attack is imminent.

question

Hypertension is also known as _____

answer

The silent killer because the signs and symptoms go unnoticed.

question

BP is regulated by 2 factors:

answer

Cardiac Output and total peripheral vascular resistance (narrowing of vessels)

question

3 most common metabolic diseases/disorders

answer

Diabetes Hyperlipidemia Obesity

question

Type 1 and type 2 diabetes are defined by

answer

a decrease in the production, release and/or effectiveness and action of insulin. Both results in increased blood glucose levels. (hyperglycemia) type 1: deficiency in blood insulin release. type 2: elevated blood glucose levels due to developed insulin resistance

question

what does insulin do?

answer

allows blood sugar to be absorbed into cells to be used for energy.

question

Hyperlipidemia

answer

elevated blood cholesterol and triglyceride levels caused by genetic and environmental factors. Low HDL's and/or High LDL's

question

Define Obesity

answer

excessive accumulation of body fat and is associated with a body mass index of 30+. combo of increased calorie intake and decreased daily physical activity are the primary contributors.

question

Define COPD

answer

COPD (Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) umbrella term for a collection of diseases including chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and asthma. characterized by airflow limitation.

question

define emphysema

answer

permanent enlargement of airspaces along with necrosis of alveolar walls

question

define CRPD

answer

Chronic restrictive pulmonary disease. (interstitial lung disease) resulting is desrease dlung volume and lung tissue necrosis.

question

endurance exercise lowers resting SBP and DBP by____

answer

5 -7 mm Hg

question

Scope of practice for pulmonary disease patients for EP-C

answer

prepared to work with a well-controlled asthma client but refer COPD and CRRD clients.

question

NSAID's

answer

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Ibuprofen, naproxen. increase risk of hypoglycemia

question

Strain definition, signs and symptoms. most common sites, treatment

answer

injury to a muscle or tendon acute pain, muscle pain and dysfunction usually becomes more apparent 1-2 days after the the injury because of DOMS. most common in the calf and thigh (quads and hamstrings) rates I to III. III is the worst RICE

question

Sprian definition, signs and symptoms. most common sites, treatment

answer

injury to a ligament. most common is ankle due to inversion. RICE

question

contusion

answer

soft-tissue hemorrhage and/or hematoma that occurs after the disruption of the muscle fibers.

question

PRICE

answer

Protection Rest Ice Compression Elevation

question

Phases of tissue healing

answer

inflammatory phase (2-3 days) (edema)-fluid in surrounding tissues that act as a brace. repair- 3-5 days after lasting up to 2 months. Exercise during this phase remodeling-weakened repaired tissue.

question

Overuse injuries

answer

Tendinopathy (tendinitis-acute inflammatory,tendinosis-degenerative changes in the absence of inflammation) Plantar Fasciitis Low back pain

question

Plantar fasciitis

answer

repeated trauma of the plantar fascia. common in running athletes. Stretching is incorporated

question

Low back pain *drawing in maneuver

answer

endurance of core musculature is more critical than strength focus on bracing

question

Arthritis. 2 types.

answer

inflammation of a joint.

question

Rheumatoid

answer

autoimmune chronic inflammatory disease affecting the synovial lining of joints and other connective tissue. Slow progressive disease.

question

osteoarthritis

answer

more prevalent with age. bone remodeling at the joint and overgrowth occurs. Thought to be the result of mechanical injury due to excessive loading or repeated low-force stressors.

question

osteoporosis

answer

"silent disease". low bone density or bone mass. increases risk of fracture. largely preventable. Women are 3x more likely to develop it.

question

osteopenia

answer

between normal and osteoporosis. describes those at risk for osteoporosis.

question

The female athlete triad.

answer

disordered eating amenorrhea osteoporosis

question

age difference between children, adolescents, and older adults

answer

children: younger than 13 adolescents: 13-18 older adults: 65+

question

accelerated periods of growth in childhood. When do they stop growing?

answer

12 for girls and 14 for boys. girls stop growing in stature by 15, boys by 17.

question

HR, strove volume, and cardiac output in children

answer

higher HR, lower stroke volume, higher cardiac output.

question

Sweat rate production in children. and exercise in the heat

answer

Lower sweat rate production and lower tolerance to exercising in the heat.

question

in general... drink ____ for every ____lbs of fluid lost

answer

1 pint for every 1 pound lost

question

define hyponatremia

answer

low blood sodium (drink too much water)

question

In general, exercise recommendations for children

answer

exercise is safe as well as resistance training. just make it age appropriate.

question

weight gained during pregnancy

answer

typically 26lbs.

question

cardiac output, stroke volume, heart rate, resting O2 uptake for pregnant women.

answer

all increase.

question

Why is the supine position avoided in pregnant women?

answer

because the expanded uterus compresses on the inferior vena cava and reduces venous blood flow back to the heart. Supine positions may exacerbate this situation.

question

Exercise for pregnant women and recommendations

answer

highly encouraged. Those physically active before pregnancy can exercise at a higher level than those more sedentary. ensure proper hydration. exercise 30 minutes of moderate intensity exercise on most days of the week.

question

During adulthood individuals tend to gain ___ and ___ and tend to lose____

answer

fat mass and body weight and tend to lose fat-free mass.

question

Cardiorespiratory function in older adults

answer

vessels become stiffer, elasticity is lost in cardiac tissue resulting in high blood pressure.

question

Define a theory

answer

systematic view of a behavior by specifying relationships between variables and predicting specific behaviors and situations

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define a model

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hypothetical depiction of a behavior or situation

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5 stages of stage in the transtheoretical model

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1. pre-contemplation 2. contemplation 3. preparation 4. action 5. maintenance

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At what stage are people at most risk of relapse?

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action

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Transtheoretical model (5 cognitive processes)

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1. consciousness raising 2. dramatic relief 3. environmental re-evaluation 4. self-revolution 5. social liberation

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Transtheoretical Model - (5 Behavioral processes)

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1. counter conditioning 2. helping relationships 3. reinforcement management 4. self-liberation 5. stimulus control

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Social cognitive theory

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first known as social learning theory. Emphasizes interaction between individuals and their environments.

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self-efficacy

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one's confidence in their ability to engage in PA. derived from social cognitive theory. The more confident one feels in their ability to succeed the more likely they are to engage in the behavior.

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3 main factors that influence behavior and behavioral choices

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1. the environment 2. individual personality characteristics 3. behavioral factos

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self-efficacy can be influenced by 4 sources of information:

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1. enactive mastery experience- successful completion of target behavior 2. vicarious experience- seeing a similar person complete the behavior 3. verbal persuasion- others express faith in the individuals capabilities 4. psychological affective states- increase positive emotional state about the activity

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Key to social cognitive theory

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focus on what they CAN do. not what they CAN'T do.

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What is the social ecological model

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comprehensive approach integrating multiple variables or layers that influence behavior. Each layer has an impact on the next. It helps identify opportunities to promote participation in PA by recognizing multiple variables that may influence a person's choices.

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what 6 factors (layers) are involved in the social ecological model

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Physical activity behavior personal factors social factors institutional factors community factors public policy

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What is the Health Belief model?

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As individuals take greater investment in their health they are more likely to make relevant and meaningful behavior changes. Must feel that the risks outweight the benefits.

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4 main components of the health belief model

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1. perception of risk 2. perception of severity of threat 3. perception of benefits 4. perceptions of barriers to reduce health threat

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What is the theory of planned behavior?

answer

identifies intension as the primary influence determining behavior. intension + perceived behavioral control

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What is the self-determination theory?

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Individuals have 3 basic psychological needs that must be met in order to be motivated to engage behavior. Autonomy and competence are key with this theory. The person must feel that they have a sense of control. Must also feel challenged yet successful.

question

what are those 3 psychological needs?

answer

1. competence- feeling capable of mastering a task 2. relatedness- need to be connected and involved with the social world 3. autonomy- maintaining a perceived internal locus of control and a sense that behaviors are chosen freely.

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extrinsic vs. intrinsic motivation.

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intrinsic is more likely to maintain PA. Extrinsic is doing it for weight control, weight loss, and stress reduction.

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intrinsic rewards

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anything that is fulfilling because of the internal pleasure. more sustainable over time.

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extrinsic rewards

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tangible things earned in response to completing a task. Help increase motivation in the initial stages of change.

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self-monitoring

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important in the initial days of adaptation to keep the person accountable and on track. Continue for entire adoption phase (up to 6 months)

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SMART goals

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Specific Measurable Attainable Realistic Time-bound- Short term goals are better than long term goals.

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Barriers to physical activity

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1. lack of time 2. environmental changes 3. fear of injury 5. lack of enjoyable activities

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Motivational Interviewing

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person-centered technique to strengthen motivation for change. *individuals become more committed to what they say to themselves than what they hear from others.

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goal of motivational interviewing

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generate change talk

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4 principles motivational interviewing conversation

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1. obervations, not evaluations 2. express feelings, not thoughts 3. identify needs, not strategies 4. make requests, not demands.

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Visual imagery

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visualizing onesself performing the desired behavior. also used to improve muscle memory

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Exercise Imagery Questionnaire

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Energy imagery Appearance imagery Technique imagery

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define negligence

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one's failure to act. Overwhelming majority of cases against trainers are negligence.

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Statutory law (legislative law)

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enacted by federal and state governments. Imposes duties or restriction upon individuals.

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Case Law (common law)

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based on court descisions

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Civil lawsuits

answer

handle disputed between two parties, organizations, businesses and governmental agencies. Most cases you will encounter will fall here.

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Tort Law

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wrongful act whether intentional or accidental. breach of legal duty amounting to a civil wrong or injury for which a court of law will provide compensation/damages.

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Transactional model of leadership

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influence based on reward and punishment. capitalize productivity and efficiency.

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Visionary model of leadership

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leader using emotion to inspire and create buy-in by the followers.

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organic leadership model

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centers around the group as a team.

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Leadership Trait Theory

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the idea that someone is born to lead. can awaken dormant traits over time

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Situational leadership theory

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leadership style is adapted by the leader's diagnosis of the subordinant

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Path-goal leadership theory

answer

leader sets up a path to a specific goal for the team

question

transformational leadership

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that which inspires and motivates others

question

transactional leadership

answer

exchanging one this for another. Closely resembles a manager.

question

Lewin's leadership style

answer

autocratic-leader makes decisions and does not consult with others democratic- leader involves peers in decision making process Laissez-faire- followers make their own decision, but leader is still ultimately responsible.

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servant leadership

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organizational performance is secondary to the relationship between the leader and follower

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leader-member exchange theory

answer

centers on the interactions between the leader and follower.

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emotional intelligence

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set of skills (street smarts) that include awareness of self and others. The ability to handle emotions and relationships.

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contextual intelligence

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abiloty to adapt or respond appropriately to any number of different contexts. The context is dertermined by environmental factors

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Examples of current assets

answer

Things expected to be turned into cash within the next year. inventory, cash, accounts receivable, prepaid expense

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fixed assets

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things that have been aquired for long term use by the business. property, equipment, office furniture

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liabilities examples

answer

financial obligations or credits owed by the business. accounts payable, income tax, accruals, rent

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noncurrent liabilities. examples

answer

debts and expanses that are not due in the next 12 months. future loan payments, deferred rent or revenue

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variable expense vs. fixed expense

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variable changes based on the usage. payroll, benefits, equipment repairs fixed expense- relatively consistent year after year. rent, property tax, etc.

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the 4 P's of marketing

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Product Place Price Promotion (People)

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People

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data about the people you are providing the service to.

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Procuct

answer

What you are trying to offer. can be tangible and intangible. Belief in the VALUE of the product. What do people want from the product and what are they expecting?

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Place

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where the product can be purchased or delivered. Home, gym, internet, etc. what is appropriate based on each person. Identifies your market.

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Price

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cost of delivery (overall cost to give client what they want) acceptable profit margin (price is too low, people are skeptical of the product's quality) market value- balance between perceived value and the demand for the product.

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Promotion

answer

advertising referrals direct mail/email internet sponsorship personal sales public relations

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Scope of practice

answer

-conducting risk classification -physical fitness assessments -construct appropriate exercise prescriptions for healthy adults and individuals with controlled conditions released for independent physical activity -motivating people with medically controlled diseases to adopt and maintain healthy lifestyle behaviors -motivate people to begin and continue their healthy behavior

question

define conflict of interest

answer

a significant financial interest in a business or other direct or indirect personal gain provided by a business that may compromise an ACSM member's personal judgement.

question

4 steps to providing evidence based information

answer

1. develop a question 2. search for evidence -personal experience not always relevant for each client -academic preparation not always up to date -***research knowledge 3.evaluate the evidence*** holds the least amount of bias. 4.incorporate evidence into practice

question

Acronym WISE

answer

Wisdom Integrity Stewardship Enthusiasm

question

a P-wave represents

answer

atrial depolarization

question

a QRS complex represents

answer

ventricular muscle depolarization

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a T-wave represents

answer

ventricular muscle repolarization

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The PR interval represents

answer

Atrioventricular node, His bundle, Purkinje fibers

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Symptoms of hypoglycemia

answer

tachycardia, excessive sweating (diaphoresis), light-headedness, visual disturbances

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Symptoms of hyperglycemia

answer

acetone odor on breath, confusion, slurred speech

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Stroke Volume and concentric phase

answer

Stroke volume is NOT significantly elevated to more than resting during the concentric phase of resistance training.

question

stroke volume and eccentric phase

answer

Stroke volume is significantly increased during eccentric phase

question

What is muscle fatigue?

answer

The loss of force or power output in response to voluntary effort leading to reduced performance.

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What is central fatigue? Peripheral fatigue?

answer

The progressive reduction in voluntary drive to motor neurons during exercise. The loss of force and power that is independent of neural drive.

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Blood flow from periphery

answer

superior and inferior venae cavae, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic semilunar valve, pulmonary arteries, and lungs

question

Blood flow from Lungs

answer

Left pulmonary vein, left artrium, bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve, ascendina aorta, systemic circulation

question

tidal volume

answer

amount of air leaving or entering with each breath, ranges from .5 to 4L

question

systolic vs diastolic

answer

is contractile heart movement, blood is leaving the heart. Pressure against arteriol walls . is relaxation or blood filling the heart

question

end diastolic volume

answer

amount of blood in each ventricle at end of resting phase.

question

Frank Starling Law of the Heart

answer

Describes the relationship between end-diastolic volume and stroke volume. It states that the heart will pump out whatever volume is delivered to it. If the end-diastolic volume doubles then stroke volume will double.

question

actin and myosin

answer

contractile proteins; form crossbridges and slide past one another during contraction. Thin and thick filaments

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Triponin and tripomyosin

answer

regulate bridging of actin and myosin

question

what are class 1 A drugs?

answer

Antiarrhythmic agents: Disopyramide, Moricizine, Procainamide, Quinidine

question

What are class 1B drugs?

answer

Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Phenytoin, Tocainide

question

What are class 1C drugs?

answer

Flecainide (Taborcor); Propafenone (Rythmol)

question

beta blockers

answer

decrease/lower HR. increase exercise capacity

question

cold/flu medication

answer

Raise BP. (Ephedrine)

question

CCB's

answer

Decrease BP

question

ACE inhibitors

answer

Decrease BP

question

Diuretics

answer

Increase HR Decrease BP

question

origin vs. insertion.

answer

origin is the part the doesn;t move. insertion is the part that moves.

question

fat soluble vitamins

answer

A, D, E, K

question

water soluble vitamins

answer

B and C

question

what happens when you take in too much protein

answer

body can only absorb so much protein at a time. 40-50 grams. Stores the rest as fat.

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